Air ForceComprehensive Study Set

Afto 22

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QUESTION 1

Which technical order series should you refer to when loading an unfamiliar munitions configuration?

ANSWER

-1 flight manual

QUESTION 2

Who is the weapons expediter directly responsible to for all armament systems maintenance ammunition loading operations?

ANSWER

Weapons section NCOIC

QUESTION 3

The benchmark time that is standard for aircraft repairs is

ANSWER

8 hours

QUESTION 4

Which Air Force instruction describes the responsibilities for total force integration?

ANSWER

90-1001

QUESTION 5

The total force integration concept that gives one component commander the authority to designate objectives, assign task, provide the direction to another component subordinate necessary to accomplish the mission is

ANSWER

Operational Direction

QUESTION 6

Went in and tire air National Guard unit is performing in a title 10 status, it must be a sign to which type of organizational structure?

ANSWER

Title 10

QUESTION 7

The master labor agreement applies to which type of civilian employees?

ANSWER

Bargaining unit

QUESTION 8

Who has the authority to grant a "one time" flight of an impound an aircraft according to technical order 00 - 20 - 01 ?

ANSWER

Group Commander

QUESTION 9

Which type of aircraft servicing will not be accomplished during fuel servicing while performing a concurrent servicing operation?

ANSWER

Oxygen

QUESTION 10

Which concurrent servicing operation aircraft maintenance action requires a concurrent servicing supervisor (CSS)?

ANSWER

Aircraft fueling

QUESTION 11

Which functional area can authorize a fighter unit to conduct a dual loading operation

ANSWER

MAJCOM

QUESTION 12

Which requirement constitutes the recurring annual training requirement for dual loading operations?

ANSWER

Academic training only

QUESTION 13

Who is the approval authority for locally modified versions of the AF IMT 2430, specialist dispatch control log?

ANSWER

Wing Weapons Manager

QUESTION 14

In the unlikely event that an aircraft does not return from a mission, which AF IMT provides an accurate record of what type and number of munitions were loaded, and the parts/serial numbers of installed alternate mission equipment?

ANSWER

2434

QUESTION 15

The form published as a continuation form for part 5 of the Air Force technical order form 244, industrial/support equipment record is an

ANSWER

AFTO Form 245

QUESTION 16

Items such as jammer forks require a periodic serviceability testing with the results document it on an Air Force technical order form

ANSWER

244

QUESTION 17

Which document type is sent to the Gaytan unit when transferring equipment such as missile launchers, bomb racks, and suspension utility units?

ANSWER

AFTO Form 95, Significant Historical Data Record or automated AFTO form 95

QUESTION 18

Who must electronically sign all training business area journal entries?

ANSWER

Supervisor and/or trainer and trainee

QUESTION 19

Which document serves as a contract between the Air Force education and training command and the user to show the overall training requirements for an Air Force specialty code that the formal schools teach?

ANSWER

Specialty Training Standard (STS)

QUESTION 20

You must evaluate a recent formal graduates military bearing in technical ability within

ANSWER

90 Days

QUESTION 21

The individual that may grant an extension to a trainees 30 day time limit per career development course (CDC) volume completion, due to Mission requirements is the

ANSWER

Unit Training Manager

QUESTION 22

When a train he feels your course exam on the first attempt to maximum amount of days allowed for a trainee to retest is

ANSWER

90 Days

QUESTION 23

Which Air Force instruction covers the Air Force mishap prevention program to minimize the loss of resources and protect Air Force personnel from death, Injury, or illness by managing risks?

ANSWER

91-202

QUESTION 24

Who ensures adherence to your work center safety program requirements are part of the measurement of non-supervisory personnel's performance appraisal?

ANSWER

Supervisor

QUESTION 25

The organization that advisers commanders, functional managers, supervisors, and workers on all safety matters is

ANSWER

Installation safety office

QUESTION 26

Which Air Force instruction the signs responsibilities to individuals or functions to help commanders manager safety and health programs?

ANSWER

91-203

QUESTION 27

The screaming humans hectors you should consider when it comes to safety in your work center are

ANSWER

Physiological, physical, and organizational

QUESTION 28

The Air Force instruction that covers Air Force occupational safety instructions for electrical safety is

ANSWER

91-203

QUESTION 29

Who will you contact if you receive it in properly packaged electrostatic sensitive device (ESD)?

ANSWER

Base Supply

QUESTION 30

The electro static sensitive device (ESD) level That is not a classification of damage is

ANSWER

Human Error Failure

QUESTION 31

Which type of cable is not classified as a radio frequency cable?

ANSWER

Shielded

QUESTION 32

Which component consists of two meeting assemblies, the plug and receptacle?

ANSWER

Connector system

QUESTION 33

Identify the last phase in the troubleshooting process of technical data once you have located your malfunction

ANSWER

Repair

QUESTION 34

The level of your maintenance system primarily concerned with testing and repair, replacement of component parts, line replaceable units, and alternate mission equipment(AME) is called

ANSWER

Intermediate

QUESTION 35

Which level of your main system includes centralized intermediate repair facilities

ANSWER

Intermediate

QUESTION 36

The level of maintenance performed on or off equipment had a major repair facility is called

ANSWER

Depot

QUESTION 37

In addition to the maintenance operations squadron/maintenance operations flight (MOS/MOF) which other organization must you request depot level assistance through?

ANSWER

Quality Assurance

QUESTION 38

How many authorized inspection concepts are used for aircraft?

ANSWER

Four

QUESTION 39

Which inspection concept is based upon accrual of the number of flying hours, operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar. Specified in the applicable -6 scheduled inspection, and maintenance requirements manual?

ANSWER

Periodic

QUESTION 40

The primary objective of the phased inspection concept is to

ANSWER

minimize the length of time an aircraft is out of commission for any given scheduled inspection

QUESTION 41

Which inspection concept is designed to translate flying our utilization rates into calendar periods expressed in days?

ANSWER

Isochronal

QUESTION 42

Which inspection concept is used to inspect individual areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond the scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements listed in the -6?

ANSWER

Programmed depot maintenance

QUESTION 43

The flightline inspection that must be accomplished after each flight when they turn around sortie is scheduled

ANSWER

Thruflight

QUESTION 44

Which flightline inspection is completed after the last flight of a specified flying period?

ANSWER

Basic postflight

QUESTION 45

The flightline inspection that is an integral part of any loading operation is

ANSWER

Postload

QUESTION 46

Who establishes the guidelines for flight line in process inspection (IPI)?

ANSWER

MAJCOM

QUESTION 47

Which kind of flightline inspection is usually initiated after a high failure rate of an item occurs, which is followed by a safety supplement or a one time instruction being issued?

ANSWER

In process inspection (IPI)

QUESTION 48

The type of flightline inspection that was done because of a deficit or to inspect a particular item or system for a defect is called a/an

ANSWER

One time inspection

QUESTION 49

The integrated maintenance data system (IMDS) replaced the core automated maintenance system (CAMS) and the

ANSWER

Reliability and maintain ability information system (REMIS)

QUESTION 50

Which document reflects the munitions required to meet unit operational and training needs?

ANSWER

Unit Committed Munitions List (UCML)

QUESTION 51

The document that is used to determine which munitions your load crews are required to be trained it hold a certification is the

ANSWER

Unit committed munitions list (UCML)

QUESTION 52

How many combined munitions emanations family groups can I non-test units load crew hold a certification?

ANSWER

15

QUESTION 53

Each base assigned as a bed down location or assigned the responsibility to support forces for the operation plan (OPLAN) must develop a

ANSWER

Base support plan (BSP)

QUESTION 54

Which type of information is contained in the designed operations capability (DOC) statement?

ANSWER

Mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and resources required

QUESTION 55

The document that provides an all inclusive tasking for aircraft in munitions is the

ANSWER

Air tasking order (ATO)

QUESTION 56

How many D rings are on the 463L pallet rail?

ANSWER

22

QUESTION 57

The usable dimensions of the 436L pallet is

ANSWER

84" x 104"

QUESTION 58

Which feature would prevent a 436L pallet from being used?

ANSWER

Skin separated from the wood core center

QUESTION 59

Who authorizes flightline locations for conducting explosive operations such as explosive cargo on or off loading and combat related explosives loading?

ANSWER

Wing Weapons safety

QUESTION 60

Who is responsible for preparing and submitting all explosive site plans (ESP)

ANSWER

Wing Weapons safety office

QUESTION 61

The term "quantity distance (Q-D)" refers to the

ANSWER

Protection requirements from the potential explosive sites (PES) to different kinds of exposed sites (ES)

QUESTION 62

Which situation would be a reason to submit a request for a new explosive site plan?

ANSWER

A munitions with increased or more hazardous class/division is introduced

QUESTION 63

Which area requires an explosive site plan (ESP)?

ANSWER

Shelters for arm/de-arm crews

QUESTION 64

Who determines the need for an explosive site plan (ESP)?

ANSWER

Weapon safety personnel

QUESTION 65

Who must keep a current list of personnel qualified for a safety investigation board (SIB)?

ANSWER

Base and wing commander

QUESTION 66

Identify the minimum rank of the president of a safety investigation board (SIB) involving ground, explosive, or aircraft safety in a Class A on duty mishap.

ANSWER

Colonel or GM - 15

QUESTION 67

Historically, who ensures the independence and integrity of safety investigation boards (SIB)?

ANSWER

Congress

QUESTION 68

Identify the qualifications you must have to perform a physical demilitarization function?

ANSWER

Technically qualified personnel trained appropriately for process and equipment use

QUESTION 69

When our stock funds in your units budget replenished?

ANSWER

Quarterly

QUESTION 70

The one sure way you can undermine the supply system is

ANSWER

Using the wrong priority when ordering parts

QUESTION 71

Stock levels for bench stock or based on

ANSWER

Consumption level

QUESTION 72

Which action does supply accomplishment a bench stock part usage is low for a long period of time?

ANSWER

Identify the part as a candidate for deletion

QUESTION 73

Which organizational level is required to fund special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?

ANSWER

Depot

QUESTION 74

Which series technical order (TO) Lists all assets authorized to an aircraft?

ANSWER

-21

QUESTION 75

Who identifies items that are managed and controlled as equipment?

ANSWER

Major command (MAJCOM) and Air Force material command (AFMC)

QUESTION 76

Who may approve a cannibalization of a part before the initiation of the cannibalization documentation?

ANSWER

Cannibalization authority

QUESTION 77

The specific documentation procedures for cannibalization can be found in technical reference

ANSWER

TO 00-20 series

QUESTION 78

Which organization provides the Army, Navy, Air Force, Marines, combined and allied forces with the full range of logistic, acquisition and technical services?

ANSWER

Defense logistics agency (DLA)

QUESTION 79

Identify what within the supply ordering system describes the items in quantities of equipment required to perform the missions and duties of our organizations and individual specialists.

ANSWER

Equipment allowance standards.

QUESTION 80

Identify the official document within the supply ordering system that list accountable items used in an organization

ANSWER

Custody authority/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL)

QUESTION 81

Which type of repair cycle item must be returned to depot for condemnation?

ANSWER

Depot recoverable (XD)

QUESTION 82

A broken ass it is entered into the repair psycho process when you

ANSWER

Order a replacement

QUESTION 83

Which system is assigned to repairable items in the repair cycle in order to tell base supply where to ship a repairable item?

ANSWER

Repair item movement control system (RIMCS)

QUESTION 84

It is important to use the correct maintenance action taken code to

ANSWER

Tell the supply computer if the part is serviceable, not repairable this station (NRTS), or condemned.

QUESTION 85

Which document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the enterprise solution supply (ES-S)?

ANSWER

Daily document register

QUESTION 86

Which form should use submit on support equipment to identify obsolete equipment and the estimated age when, because of where in tear, it is considered not feasible to repair?

ANSWER

AFTO form 375

QUESTION 87

The action you should take when preparing maintenance tags or labels that might be subjected to conditions that may be causing him to run or become illegible is

ANSWER

Use something other than a ball point pen

QUESTION 88

Which type of information is added to the DD form 1348 - 1A, issue release/receipt document to create the DD form 1348 - 2?

ANSWER

Mailing information

QUESTION 89

Who designs, develops, test, approves, and standardizes equipment for Air Force use around munitions?

ANSWER

Munitions material handling equipment (MMHE) focal point

QUESTION 90

The form used to document serviceability serviceability inspections of locally manufactured equipment (LME) is

ANSWER

AFTO form 244

QUESTION 91

The types of deficiency reports (DR) in the deficiency reporting system are

ANSWER

Category (CAT) I and CAT II

QUESTION 92

Which shipping condition would require a report of discrepancy (ROD)?

ANSWER

Condition of item in excess of $100 differs from what is shown on shipping document

QUESTION 93

Identify what will happen if you submit an Air Force technical order (AFTO) form 22, technical manual change recommendation and reply for a typographical error

ANSWER

It will not be approved

QUESTION 94

For an emergency report, how many hours should you wait before you complete a follow up action for changes to a technical order (TO)?

ANSWER

60

QUESTION 95

If your Air Force technical order (AFTO) form 22, technical manual change recommendation and reply requires engineering support and you do not know the wording or the deficiency requiring engineering research, what must you do?

ANSWER

State it on your report

QUESTION 96

When forecasting munitions, who does the unit submit a munitions forecast through to get it to the major command (MAJCOM) level?

ANSWER

Munitions accountability supply officer

QUESTION 97

How are munitions items on hand dealt with when forecasting for next year's munitions?

ANSWER

Forecast for every munitions you have if you need it next year

QUESTION 98

The database that gives higher headquarters "real time" Visibility of munitions accountability is the

ANSWER

Combat ammunition system (CAS)

QUESTION 99

The number one avoidable reason for delays in excess mediations being picked up is

ANSWER

Improperly configured munitions trailers

QUESTION 100

Which regulatory guidance is used to properly can figure and secure munitions trailers for towing?

ANSWER

TO 11-1-38

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