Afi 31 218
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Off base dispatches and/or responses that are categorized as "non-pursuit" will be approved by who?
- 7th Bomb Wing Commander
SF does NOT have off base jurisdiction. When considering the exterior of the base, SF personnel may only respond to what kind of incidents? Directed by who?
- Traffic accidents/incidents - As directed by the Defense Force Commander or higher authority
When is the only time emergency lights are permitted for off base incidents?
- When safety precautions are necessary
Who has the authority to authorize off-base responses when a patrol is in "fresh pursuit"?
- Flight Chief
The FC can authorize the off-base pursuit of an individual under what circumstances?
- If the individual is suspected to have committed a serious crime and cannot be stopped by gate closure
In any case where there is an off-base "fresh pursuit", who must BDOC immediately notify?
- Both the Defense Force Commander and the 7th Missions Support Group Commander
During off base pursuits, what will patrols make sure they are not utilizing?
- Lights and sirens
During off base pursuits, what will patrols avoid doing?
- They will avoid overcrowding the suspect's vehicle to prevent them from increasing in speed or reckless driving
FCs will ensure all pursuit of vehicles/personnel and traffic stops is conducted IAW what? (3)
- AFI 31-118( to include Ch.4), AFI 31-218 and AFMAN 31-201V3
All funds escorts will be performed IAW what?
- 7th Bomb Wing Integrated Defense/Anti-Terrorism Plan (ID/AT)
A SF escort is required for government agencies transporting funds exceeding what dollar amount?
- $25,000 or more. *Note: during higher FPCONS, escorts may be used for an even lower amount
When dispatched to provide a funds escort, what are the responsibilities of the patrol upon arrival and termination?
1.) Notify BDOC when on scene 2.) Meet custodian inside facility and walk with them to their transport vehicle 3.) Ensure route and procedures prior to movement 4.) Follow them to destination 5.) Upon arrival, walk custodian inside, do not depart until funds are secured 6.) Notify BDOC/ECC of completion
For non-government funds, who will perform the escort function?
- Owner/user
What are the 15 Security Forces Response Codes/Brevity Codes?
- Landlines
What is considered an alternate form of communication for all SF personnel?
- Landline Operations - Discrepancies will be reported to the 7th Communications Squadron
Other than duress check, all static posts will conduct a test of what upon assuming post if available? Who will discrepancies be reported to?
- Devices that have photo or video capability
What type of devices are not authorized in restricted areas (by SF) unless being used for official purposes?
- Manual signal techniques (hand/arm signals, vocal signals)
What is used as a third means of communication if radio and landline capability is not an option?
- Waving of headgear (helmet, hat, cap) in a circular motion with arm above head shouting "COVERED WAGON"
Describe the primary "manual signal" for indicating a COVERED WAGON?
- Short and long flashlight beams or short and long whistle blasts
Describe the alternate "manual signal" for indicating a COVERED WAGON?
- Hold both arms out horizontally like a T while shouting help or relief
Describe the primary "manual signal" for HELP or RELIEF?
- Use a constant flashlight beam pointed out in front of the body moving it up and down vertically
Describe the alternate "manual signal" for HELP or RELIEF?
- Firing 3 shots in rapid succession straight up into the air away from personnel and resources.
Emergency discharge of a firearm for communication purposes will only be used as a last resort when all other means of communication have failed and an emergency exists. In such a situation, how will you signal?
50 feet
Radio transmissions will not be made within _______ feet of an aircraft undergoing fuel cell maintenance or being refueled/de-fueled.
- 25 feet - 100 feet
Unless otherwise directed by EOD/Fire Chief, Handheld cell phone/radio transmissions will not be made within ______ for handheld and ______ for mobile
- Channel #1A - Channel #2A
What channels will be used routinely by on duty posts and patrols as the primary SF net? Which will serve as secondary?
- Zone B - FC or higher
All channels on which zone (radio) are authorized for training and exercises? Who must approve?
- Threats, violence, constraints, or other actions brought to bear on someone to do something against their will
What is Duress?
- AFI 31-101
Primary, alternate and exercise duress words will be established IAW what AFI?
- The use of an actual duress word, mis-authentication, activation of a duress alarm
What are signs of positive duress?
- Non-compliance with established procedures or failure to answer radio transmissions
What are signs of passive duress?
- SF Authenticator
What is used to verify the security status of on-duty personnel or to validate radio transmissions?
- Positive duress
For what situation will the SF authenticator NOT be used to verify status?
- By a rotating amber light attached to the VCC facing the gate facility
How will Arnold Gate be alerted of a BDOC duress?
- Arnold Gate
Who will take control of the radio net until the alternate BDOC is activated for BDOC duress/relocation?
- By a rotating red light attached to the VCC facing the gate facility
How will Arnold Gate be alerted of a duress at the VCC?
- Security 1 since it's a restricted area. Responding patrols will establish a cordon within the facility
Who will respond for duress at the 7th Bomb Wing Command Post?
- COVERED WAGON
For hostile indications at the 7th BW/CP, what will be implemented?
- Fire Department
Who can we contact to assist with opening the 7th BW/CP door in a response?
- AA&E Alarm Activation procedures
In the event of duress at the armory, BDOC will initiate which procedure?
- CATM
Where is the alternate armory located?
- Conduct stand-off weapon attacks
Clandestine areas are used to monitor likely avenues of approach to the installation. These are areas where adversaries could possibly do what?
-Area #1
________________ is the drainage ditch area north of the transient ramp running east to west, from the flight line fence to Taxiway A and the hill north of the drainage ditch.
- Area #2
_______________ is the west side of the active runway from north to south and west to the fence line.
- Area #3
_______________ is the drainage ditch bordering the south end of the runway along the perimeter to the compound at the south end of 3rd Street.
- Area #4
________________ is the drainage ditch east of Marion Rd adjacent to blast shield # 4 ( Higher Headquarter (HHQ) ramp) to the intersection of Avenue E-1 and 2nd Street.
- Area #5
________________ is the Maryland Gate area of base housing.
- Area #6
________________ is the Delaware Gate area of base housing.
- Area #7
________________ is the Northwest perimeter adjacent to the Memorial Center.
- S4
Where can we retrieve the keys to the armory in case of duress situation and we cannot verify status?
- 7th BW/CC, 7th MSG/CC, 7th SFS/DFC and WCP
Pyramid Alerting Procedures or "Recalls" can be initiated by who? (4)
- 2300 to 0500 - IAW with the Youth Supervision Policy
What is the curfew for dependents/civilians under the age of 18? Under what policy?
- Remove all individuals from vehicle (if applies), evacuate the immediate area, engage barriers, establish cordon, redirect traffic and contact BDOC for further instructions
When encountering a possible bomb threat, what are some things you must ensure you do?
- 7th BW ID/AT Plan, the AF Form 440, Bomb Threat Aid and Applicable QRCs
In the case of a bomb threat, you must follow the procedures outlined in what? (4)
- Hostage/barricaded subject checklist and maintain security of the facility until backup arrives
In the case where BDOC can not obtain proper authentication from a manned facility personnel, the FC will direct the implementation of what situation?
- B-1 = front only, while C-130 = front and rear
If BDOC confirms suspicious aircraft engine start via 7th/317th, security 2 and 3 will be directed to block the aircraft. How will B-1 aircraft be blocked as opposed to C-130?
- set hand brake, turn off engine, turn on all lights and deploy to a safe location while keeping aircraft insight
During an unauthorized engine start, security 2 and 3 will block the suspicious aircraft. One vehicle is in place what must they do to ensure their safety?
- point at individual with one hand and with the other move hand from left to right giving the "cut it" signal
The first SF member to establish positive visual contact with unauthorized person inside the cockpit will give them the sign to shut down the engine? How will they give the signal?
- by firing at the tires or any other vital components as directed by the IC.
During an unauthorized engine start, if the aircraft operator fails to comply, how will SF go about disabling the aircraft?
- Security 1, 2 and 3 will go mobile in their assigned areas
Power outages that affect restricted areas will be up channeled to BDOC with a SALUTE report. How will security units posture themselves until power is restored?
- Every Sunday night - Using the SF Form 4 MPA Lighting Chart
How often will security 1 conduct a restricted area lighting check? Utilizing what?
- The WCP or higher
Who will COVERED WAGON reports be up channeled to?
- BDOC —> DFC —> Installation CC —> AFGSC Command Post
If the WCP is under duress, how will a COVERED WAGON be reported?
- 40
BDOC camera surveillance system is comprised of how many cameras throughout the installation?
- Flight Chief
Who will respond to all security incidents, COVERED WAGON, and IFE situations?
- Installation CC or designated representative
RIEVCs are randomized "checks" directed and authorized by who?
- 🚫Search and inspection
Which two term should never be used in conjunction with RIEVCs?
- To prevent unauthorized removal of government property or classified information
What is the purpose of a RIEVC?
- Detain vehicle occupants, secure vehicle, contact SJA and the information security office for further guidance
If an individual is transporting classified without an authorization letter, SF must what?
- Proprietary - with the exception of restricted areas which fall under military jurisdiction
Dyess AFB is covered by what form of jurisdiction? With the exception of what?
- from the perimeter fence outward 30 feet to include roadways immediately surrounding the installation
Dyess AFB's jurisdiction/legal boundary extends how far?
- Less than Lethal
Active barrier engagement is considered to be what kind of force?
- to prevent an unauthorized vehicle from entering an installation
What is the purpose of vehicle barriers?
- To locate the subject
Upon notification of a gate runner, what is the is the responsibility of the primary installation patrol?
- To prevent access to the flight lineup
Upon notification of a gate runner, what is the responsibility of the primary security patrol?
- Will begin closing flight line gates from North to South
If there is a gate runner at Tye Gate, flight line security units will do what?
- To determine if the subject is responsible/legitimate or if it's a suspicious person whose presents warrants further inquiry
What are the primary purposes (2) for conducting a field interview?
- Federal Privacy Act of 1974
Where does it state that the SF member conducting a field interview must inform the individual that a record of the interview will be kept on file?
- AF Form 3907 - BDOC and then to S3O
All field interviews will be completed on what form? Forwarded to who for review?
- Field Interview Card file located in BDOC
Where will all field interview forms be maintained?
- OPERATION WRONG TURN
What is used to describe an individual who arrives at the gate with no military affiliation nor reason for entry?
- Intoxication of the Driver, Actions of the Driver and Place
What are the three ELEMENTS for a DWI offense?
- Vehicle in Motion, Personal Contact and Pre-Apprehension Screening
What are the three basic phases of DWI detection?
- Blood Alcohol Concentration levels (BAC)
What information will be used to to determine either intoxication or impairment of an individual suspected of DWI?
- Age 21 - 6 months
Personnel under ______ found with any trace of alcohol may be punished under the UCMJ and have driving privileges revoked for up to _____________.
- The present capability and power to dominate, direct, and regulate motor vehicles; regardless if the motor vehicle is operational.
For personnel subject to the UCMJ, "actual physical control" defines what when concerning DWIs?
- In actual physical control
"Actions of the Driver" are identified as the subject was driving, operating or ________________________________ of a vehicle.
- True
True/False: "actual physical control" consists of being in a motor vehicle with the motor running or simply being asleep in the back seat.
- SF will ensure the suspect does not exit the vehicle - Because APD must physically see the suspect behind the wheel of the vehicle to make an arrest
If a civilian is stopped for DWI, what will SF personnel ensure does not happen? Why?
- They May ask the driver to place vehicle in park and remove the keys from the ignition
When a civilian is expected of a DWI, what may the SF member in contact with that suspect request for their safety?
- The offense as being located within the legal boundaries of DAFB
DWI Operations: What does PLACE define?
- liquor bottles, beer cans, or pill containers
What are some examples of items found in or around a suspect vehicle in plain view that may be used as evidence and to establish probable cause?
- Starting is when SF member first notices the vehicle and ending is when the individual is released from custody
What is the starting and ending points for the process of gathering evidence for DWI?
- Vehicle in Motion, Personal Contact, and Pre-Apprehension Screening
What are the three basic phases to DWI detection?
- Vehicle in Motion
During which of the three phases of DWI may an SF member witness abnormal driving behavior to include normal traffic offenses?
- Starts when an SF member first notices a vehicle and it ends when an SF member exits the patrol car or stops the suspects vehicle at the gate
What are the starting and ending points for the "Vehicle in Motion" phase?
- Starts when the SF member approaches the suspects vehicle and ends when the SF member decides to have the driver exit the vehicle
What are the starting and ending points for the "Personal Contact" phase?
- Inability to follow instructions, bloodshot eyes, alcohol odor, fumbling for credentials, or producing wrong credentials
What are some good indicators that a driver is under the influence of alcohol?
- Starts when the individual exits the vehicle and ends when the SF member decides to release or apprehend/detain the driver
What are the starting and ending points for the "Pre-Apprehension Screening" phase?
- DD FM 1920, Alcoholic Influence Report
All observations of the Standard Field Sobriety Test will be recorded on what form?
- If they are sick or taking any medications
Before administering the SFST on a suspect, what must you ask the individual?
- Safe, dry, flat, well lit area out of the way of traffic. No surrounding bystanders and make sure emergency lights are off
Describe the ideal situation/environment for administering the SFST on a suspect?
- Horizontal Gaze Nystagmus (HGN), 9-Step Walk & Turn Test, and One Leg Stand Test
The Standard Field Sobriety Tests (3) utilized by certified 7 SFS personnel are:
- 7 LRS
If an SF member has to apprehend a suspect for DWI, who will be contacted to tow the vehicle (at the owner's risk) if the suspect does not allow anyone to move it for him?
- Blood, Breath, or Urine
SF will give the Implied Consent Policy prior to any testing of what?
- 1 Year
Refusal to submit to a test under the Implied Consent Policy will result in revocation of driving privileges for a minimum of_______________.
- False
True/False: Under the Implied Consent Policy Consent Policy, a suspect has a right to consult an attorney before they make a decision on agreeing to a blood test
- Blood test - 7 MDG
What is the only type of test used at DAFB for the purpose of detecting alcohol levels within a suspect? Who conducts the test?
- Monday mornings between 0001-0400
When will the FC conduct barrier testing for both Arnold Gate and Tye Gate?
- SF E-5 or above
What rank do you have to be to authenticate crew orders for transient aircraft?
- A Temporary Restricted Area
What will be established for all transient aircraft parked outside a restricted area?
- To determine if the person(s) being questioned may or may not have information of official interest to the interviewer
What is the overall purpose of conducting interviews?
- Custodial and Non-Custodial Interviews
What are the two types of interviews that a SF member will perform?
- Advise them of their Article 31 Rights
Regardless of whether or not they are in custody, what must you do before interviewing a military member suspected of committing an offense?
- Their Miranda Rights
In a custodial interview, civilians must be advised of what prior to questioning?
- Reasonable belief that a crime was committed by the person being apprehended, crime was committed within the jurisdiction of DAFB
What are the probable causes to apprehend a military member?
- Clearly notifies a subject that they are under apprehension
An Apprehension occurs when an SF member does what?
- Custody
The restraint of free movement of a suspect defines what?
- SJA
In instances involving the detaining of a civilian suspect, who will be called for guidance whenever APD cannot/will not respond?
- Juveniles
Individuals under the age of 18 are defined as what?
- Parent, guardian, sponsor. If none of these are available ensure that there is a second patrol
When detaining juveniles, it is ideal to have who present to witness all actions?
- Two SF members
How many SF members are required to be in the vehicle whenever transporting Juveniles?
- A violation of catogorized felony laws subject to state and federal
What is categorized as a Major Incident?
- Terry vs Ohio
In which U.S Supreme Court case was it ruled that the 4th amendment permits law enforcement to stop, detain, frisk a person suspected of criminal activity without their consent? (Terry Stop)
- Reasonable Suspicion or Probable Cause
Patrols may only search an individual if they have a _______________________________ or _______________________________ to suspect criminal activity has occurred or is about to occur.
- Evidence storage lockers located in Alt BDOC
Where will evidence be stored?
- S2i
Who will be notified when items are too large to fit inside the evidence lockers located at the Alt BDOC?
- SF Investigator or AFOSI
Fire arms or ammunition will be stored in the evidence locker located at the SF armory. Who are the only individuals that these materials will be released to?
- Drugs/paraphernalia, weapons/ammunition, explosives
All evidence will be stored at the Alt BDOC with the exception of what?
- $500
BDOC may revive found property if the replacement value is greater than _____________.
- AF FM 1364, Consent for Search and Seizure
On what Form should Consent to Search be written?
- Member requesting authority - SJA and Base Magistrate
Who will conduct a 3 way call to obtain authority to search and seize? To whom?
- AF FM 1176
After obtain authority to search and seize via 3 way call to SJA and Base Magistrate, what form will be completed?
- AF FM 3226
What form will be utilized for authority to apprehend and in private dwelling resident?
- Military Family Housing
What is considered to be a private dwelling?
- 7 BW/CC
Who is the termination authority for COVERED WAGONS?
- When a probable or actual hostile act against protection level 1, 2 or 3 resources has been detected
What is the definition of a COVERED WAGON?
- When custodian arrives on scene
At what point will it be ok for SF to conduct an interior check of an alarmed facility?
- Alarm Priority Listing
What is used to prioritize alarms whenever there are simultaneous alarm activations?
- ESS/NCO
Who maintains the Alarm Priority Listing and controls the distribution?
- AA&E facilities and Funds Facilities
BDOC will direct all gates to close for alarm activations involving what facilities?
- 10 Minutes
Patrol response times to AA&E alarm activations will not exceed _________________.
- On official business
Personnel requesting entry into Dyess AFB must present one of the following credentials
- Political Asylum
Local, State, and Federal Law Enforcement officers may be granted access into Dyess AFB so long as they are what?
- That a base official is in route to speak with them
_________________________________ is when an individual is unwilling or unable to return to their home country because of fear of persecution on account of race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group, or political opinion.
- SEVEN BRIDGES
What will IECs inform individuals requesting Political Asylum of while they wait?
- Place vehicle in park, remove keys from the ignition, and provide a valid form of identification
If an individual requests Political Asylum, what code word will the IEC up-channel?
- Rough sketch and Finished sketch
When encountered with a possible DWI, at a minimum, have the driver do what?
- Record the date, time, location, and weather conditions
What are the type types of sketches that can be made of a crime scene?
- At least once per quarter - By a Certified BDOC controller or FC
Upon arrival at a crime scene, what are some protective actions that the responding patrol must take?
- SJA
How often will the Alt BDOC be activated to ensure readiness? By who?
- Security 2
Who will be notified of all shoplifting cases involving civilians?
- Security 1
"Internal Security Response Team (ISRT) serves as the B-1 mass parking restricted area and maintenance/aircraft hangars and maintains a three minute response time to alarms within the restricted areas." It also is posted in the restricted area on Patrol Sector 2. Which Security Team does this describe?
- Evidence of a crime or there is a suspect to be processed
"External Security Response Team (ESRT) serves as the flight line supervisor and maintains a five minute response time to alarms within the restricted areas." describes which Security Team?
- A Notification of Privileges Termination Letter
SF will only respond to shopliftings when there is what?
- Security 3
What will be issued to all shoplifters upon approval from the base magistrate?
- Sponsor's unit CC/first sergeant and base family advocacy officer
"Internal Security Response Team (ISRT) serves as the C-130J mass parking restricted area and maintenance/aircraft hangars and maintains a three minute response time to alarms within the restricted areas." It is posted in the restricted area in Patrol Sector 3. Which Security Team is this?
- Minimum of two
Who is to be notified of any responses involving domestic violence?
- AF Form 1314
How many patrols will be dispatched for domestic violence reports?
- VCC - Armory
AF Form __________ is the Firearms Registration Roster.
- Custodian name, estimated time of arrival and description
The Firearms Registration Roster is located at the ______________ for housing residents and the ________________ for dorm residents.
- At least two SF members will conduct an interior check. Use an On duty MWD if possible. Once check is complete, set up crime scene and contact custodian, OSI, and S2I
What will BDOC ensure that the on-scene SF member is aware of prior to a building custodian's arrival during an alarm response?
- 15 minutes
If exterior check reveals signs of forced entry at an alarmed facility, what will be the actions of responding patrols?
- $25,000
BDOC/ECC will initiate passive duress procedures if the termination notice for funds escort is not received within ______ minutes of estimated ETA.
- Controlled Area
Funds that are ______________ or more, require at least one armed security forces member.
- 25 feet
Air Force Accounting and Finance offices and funds facilities handling or storing $100,000 or more of government funds will be designated as a what?
- 100 feet
When responding to a bomb threat, SF will NOT utilize a hand held radio within how many feet of the suspicious package?
- 500 feet and upwind
When responding to a bomb threat, SF will NOT utilize a vehicle mounted radio within how many feet of the suspicious package?
- The size of the package
What is the initial cordon size for a bomb threat?
- 30 minutes - 30 minutes
What will determine the "immediate area" on the scene of a possible bomb?
- Proprietary
When responding to a bomb threat, ensure no personnel are permitted into the affected area ______ minutes prior to and ______ 30 minutes after detonation time (if detonation time is known).
Sector 1 - Includes all areas East of 3rd Street Sector 2 - Includes all areas West of 3rd Street and South of Avenue C Sector 3 - Includes all areas West of 3rd Street and North of Avenue C.
Security forces exercise what kind of jurisdiction over all personnel on the installation subject to the UCMJ?
- 5 minute
Dyess AFB is divided in to 3 installation patrol sectors. What are they?
Security 1
One external security response team (ESRT) will maintain a _____ minute response time to alarms in the restricted area.
- 3 minutes
Who serves as the flight line supervisor, but can be dispatched to other areas on the base as directed by S3O or higher?
- Aircraft Mass Parking Areas (MPA), all Aircraft, 7 BW/CP (bldg 8030), and Alternate CP when activated
How fast must the Internal Response Teams (ISRT) respond to the B-1 and C-130 mass parking restricted areas and air craft hangers?
- Restriced Area Badge (RAB)
What locations on Dyess AFB are designated restricted areas?
- DD Form 2 series, CAC card, AF Form 354
What is the AF Form 1199D?
Yes, so long as they are listed on an EAL and posses a home station RAB
Other than your RAB, what are three other kinds of Armed Forces identification you may need to enter a restricted area?
- 6
Can a person TDY to Dyess AFB be authorized onto a restricted area?
- Victor Row, Romeo Row, Spot A5, Spot A11, Spot A17 and Spot B17
How many ECPs are there that allow entry to the restricted area on the flight line?
- Flight Chief
Name the 6 entry control points (ECPs) that allow entry into the flight lines restricted areas:
- Time/date of tour, destination, number of personnel and their info, and if photography is authorized
Who is the termination authority for flight line security incidents?
- One check every 4 hours
All flight line tours and visits will be pre-announced to the MOC and BDOC. The notification will include what information?
- 8 minutes
Transient aircraft. SF will secure all transient aircraft parked outside of the restricted area with ropes and stanchions. How often will checks be conducted?
- NAOC
NAOC alert aircrew and billets (building 7407) will be designated a controlled area when occupied by NAOC crew members. What is the ESRTs response time for this facility?
- AA&E and funds facilities - upon termination of alarm activation
Response to _______________ takes precedence over all other ESRT duties.
- Barriers, Gates, and Security Structures
Explain the process for unannounced aircraft arrival:
- Once per shift
All gates must close when alarms are received from what type of facilities? When can they open?
- Establish an inner security zone, block off any escape routes and exits. Evacuate non-essential personal. Establish an outer security zone, set up cordon and ECP outside of weapons range if possible.
What does the ESRTs physical security check consist of?
- Nonspecific threat of a terrorist attack or hostile act
How often will the ESRT/ESRTs conduct a physical security check?
- When a terrorist attack is likely. Or a hostile act occurs within the commanders area of interest.
What is the overall SF objective for hostage/barricaded suspects?
- Title 18, United States Code, US Constitution
What is FPCON ALPHA?
- AF Form 2586
What is FPCON CHARLIE?
- 1 escort per 8 individuals
What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation? (3)
- Name, rank, last 6 of SSN, organization, clearance and inclusive dates of travel.
What Form is the Unescorted Entry Authorization Certificate?
- BDOC
Escort officials must be properly designated and remain within close proximity at all times. The maximum allowable on Dyess AFB is ______ Escort per ______ individuals.
- Mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops available, time available, and civil considerations.
Authenticated crew orders can be used as an EAL for transient aircraft so long as they have what pertinent information?
- Delaware gate, Maryland gate, Southwest contracting gate.
Who is the approval authority for crossing the restricted area boundary ("breaking red")?
- At least one armed SF or ID force member will be posted to control entry.
What does METT-TC stand for?
- 5 at a time
What are the three special purpose gates on Dyess AFB?
- CAC, Teslin Cards (ie: retired, dependent)
When "special purpose" gates are opened, what are the security requirements?
- DAFB FM 173
Refer to next for base entry authorized credentials specifics:
- No more than 72 hours
Military/DoD card holders may sponsor up to how many personnel?
- 30 days
What two forms of ID can be registered into DBIDS?
- PL3
What form is used for as an application for a contractors badge?
- Armory, CATM (Alt Armory), Army Reserve Center, and Marine Reserve Center
How long will AF Form 75 visitors passes be valid for?
- Action or attack that resulted in death or serious bodily injury.
Visitors staying in base housing can receive a pass for up to how many days?
- Moderate
As a minimum all Command posts are designated what? (PL)
- The individual security forces patrol
Where are all of the locations you can arm up on base?
- Mission impact, local policy, patrol vehicle's capability, risk of danger, weather, road conditions, time of day, facilities along the route, and vehicle characteristics.
What is classified as a major offense?
- Location, direction and speed of travel. Reason for pursuit. Vehicle description to include license and occupants. Traffic conditions.
Patrols are permitted to use pursuit driving at __________________ speeds.
- Covering the streets parallel to the one the pursuit is on, creating a "boxing in" effect.
Who has the responsibility for making the decision to pursue?
- 5 to 7 car lengths
If pursuit driving is determined to be necessary, what factors must be considered?
- Only when innocent bystanders will not be endangered
What information must be relayed to BDOC when a pursuit begins?
- One owner/user persons
Patrols responding to assist in a pursuit should concentrate on what?
- Two owner/user persons
What is the safe distance that should be used during a pursuit?
- Two owner/user persons and at least one armed SF member.
When is it ok to use roadblocks?
- Closed net
Who transports funds less than $7,500 on or off base?
- Aircraft rail numbers, arrival of special aircraft, post limitations, shift change/schedules, primary or Alt BDOC locations, names of victims or witnesses.
Who transport funds between $7,500 and $25,000 on or off base?
- 1A and 2A
Who transport funds over $25,000 on or off base?
- Whistle, flashlight, cold/foul weather gear, handcuffs w/key, DAF badge, CAC card, RAB badge, ear protection, Law enforcement equipment, Defensor Fortis Load Carrying System.
What type of communication network does Dyess have?
- Communicate with DOT for local road conditions. If needed, change speed limits and dictate road closures.
What cannot be broadcast over the net?
- Type 1: All personnel report. - Type 2: All personnel report to normal pre-arranged shifts. - Type 3: Telephone recall only
What is the primary and alternate radio frequencies?
- One ESRT and two ISRT
What are the minimum equipment posting requirements?
- BDOC
What is security forces roll during inclement weather conditions?
- FC
What are the types of unit recalls?
- On outermost garment above the waist
What are the security requirements for the PL3 area?
- AF IMT 1109
Who assigns security incident numbers?
- Sector 1: All areas East of 3rd street - Sector 2: All areas West of 3rd street and South of Avenue C - Sector 3: All areas West of 3rd street and North of Avenue C
Who can terminate a security incident?
- No less than 2,000 feet
How must personnel wear their RAB while in the restricted area?
- UXO
What document is used when personnel are escorting others into the PL1/PL2 area?
- 696-7777
What are the patrol sectors?
- If subject is confirmed to have hemophilia, blood clotting disorders or any other extenuating circumstances.
If the aircraft cannot be moved during a Bomb threat, what is the evacuation distance?
- Rule for Court Martial - Rule 302 (b) - Article 7 (b)
If an unauthorized drone lands on the base, what will it be treated as?
- 14 days
What is the covered wagon hotline number?
- Green = authorized - Yellow = driving status suspended - Brown = not registered - Red = several possible warnings
When is the only time urine or breath will be tested instead of blood?
- Injury or death, greater than $10,000 in damage, disabled vehicle, any unusual circumstances too complicated to explain.
What gives SF the authority to apprehend individuals?
- 72 hours
If a member requests legal council, how long must you wait before re-approaching?
- Oblique, double abreast, increased double abreast, back-up offset, single file.
What does the DBIDS color coded mean?
- Any area larger than wingtip to wingtip or 10 square feet.
What determines if a traffic accident is classified as "major"?
Police 1 and security 1
How long does a person have to contact BDOC after being issued a 1408 for an abandoned vehicle?
- AFI 31-101 and AFGSC Supplement
During a high risk traffic stop, what are the 5 main vehicle positions used?
- 2 times
What constitutes as a major fuel spill?
- The duress situation, alarms, radio net, phones, and status checks
Which post will be equipped with a drone buster?
- The installation map located in BDOC and in post SSIs
Primary, Alternate, and Exercise duress words will be established IAW what?
- identify additional witnesses - identify suspects/perpetrators - eliminate suspects - secure evidence
How many times can a patrol mis-authenticate before Positive Duress procedures are implemented?
A reasonable belief that a crime was committed within the jurisdictional boundaries of the installation, by the person being apprehended.
During BDOC duress/relocation, Arnold gate will assume primary control of what until Alt BDOC is activated?
- Individual's parent, guardian or sponsor
Base sectors are identified where?
- An additional SF member or Sponsor's First Sergeant
What are are some more specific reasons for conducting an interview?
- Make sure another cooperative sponsor is present. Make sure a second SF member witnesses the removal. If no other sponsor is available, stop questioning and contact SJA for further guidance.
The decision to apprehend a military member on base must be based on what?
- Involves violating misdemeanor categorized laws subject to state and federal codes.
Who must be present for questioning while dealing with a juvenile?
- An examination of a person, property or premises to uncover evidence of a crime or criminal intent, such as stolen goods, burglary tools and/or weapons.
If you are not able to make contact with a juveniles parent, guardian or sponsor, who else may be present to witness rights advisement as well as questioning?
- All areas and items within immediate control of the apprehended person
If the parent, guardian, or sponsor interferes with the investigation of a juvenile, are you allowed to remove them? What must you ensure prior to removing them?
- Emergency or life threatening situations. - Another SF member needs to be present
Describe a minor incident
- Anything illegal for an individual to posses
Define Search
Area 3 = 7 BW/Command Post Area 4 = 7 BW/Crisis Action Team (CAT) Area 6 = Aircraft Mass Parking Area Area 9 = Aircraft Generation Area Area 12 = 7 MUNS/Munitions Storage Area
SF personnel making an apprehension will immediately search all offenders. What areas/items will be searched?
- The capitol letter E to the right of areas 1 through 10 and left of areas 11 through 20
In what cases will an SF member be permitted to search a suspect of an opposite sex? Who needs to be present?
- Outside of their vehicle
Define Contraband
- Master Restricted Area Badge Listing
The AF FM 1199-D is blue and will only have what areas open?
- The card is an AF FM 1199-D - The card is blue - Badge NO. on front and card number on back, completes the word "DYESS" - AFGSC crest over right shoulder and 7BW crest over left shoulder
Personal designated as an Escort will have what displayed on their RAB?
- Personal recognition - Personal signature check - EALs - Radio Verification with BDOC using MRABL
When conducting ECP checks, ECs must be positioned where?
- 1 hour - Base Ops
ECs will radio BDOC to verify names and RA badges against what to verify personnel are authorized to enter?
- During increased FPCONS and DEFCONS when the alert crew billets are designed as a restricted area.
When checking the AF 1199-D, all ECs will physically inspect each badge to verify the following badge authenticators:
- S3 will shadow the aircraft to the north most edge of the restricted area, adjacent to the transient ramp - S2 will remain static at the sector boundary
In addition to local authenticator, what are some supporting techniques that can be used?
- November 2 and 3 will post out. Security 1 will make contact with November 1 EC and issue two radios via AF FM 1297
Security 1 will contact the Dyess tower __________ prior to transient aircraft arrival for authorization to conduct sweeps. After sweeps are completed, where will S1 standby.
- November 1 = next to Raven team - November 2 = Close Boundary Sentry - November 3 = Immediately outside restricted area
November 4 serves as the Billeting Entry Controller and will only post when?
- two - Areas 1 and 2
Upon arrival of transient aircraft, what will security 2 & 3 accomplish?
- 30 minutes
Once a transient aircraft arrives and is now at its parking spot. What will S1 and the November teams do?
- S1 will initiate a security incident utilizing a SALUTE report, as directed by FC or higher authority
What are the post requirements for each November team when providing security for transient aircraft?
- S1 will check facility and surrounding areas to determine if maintenance personnel are present. If maintenance personnel cannot be located, S1 will contact the appropriate MOC to determine who should be in the facility
While transient aircraft remains at DAFB. Security 1 will perform ______ checks per shift of which Clandestine areas?
- It depends on who has security of the flight line/facilities (SF or Maintenance personnel)
November 2 and 3 will remain in place how many minutes after aircraft departure?
- U.S. military aircraft, military personnel, and military cargo.
If "SF" has responsibility of security of flight line facilities containing PL resources found unsecured, what will Security 1 accomplish?
- Bldg 4218 (primary) and Bldg 4225 (alternate)
If "Maintenance personnel" has responsibility of security of flight line facilities containing PL resources found unsecured, what will Security 1 accomplish?
- Police 1
The decision to initiate a security incident for unsecured flight line facilities depends on what?
- During periods of increased FPCON or as directed by FC, DFC or higher authority
The 7 SFS Military Customs Inspector will only conduct customs inspections on:
- During the school year from 0730-0830 and 1430-1600 as directed by S30 or higher authority
Where are the Customs Inspection holding areas located?
- Gate closures due to holidays
Who shall act as supervisor for all other police units and gates?
- 10 mph - Flight chief
When would additional installation patrols be posted (MWD, foot, bicycle, etc)?
- FC or higher authority
When will Delaware gate be opened? Directed by whom?
- That they understand and agree on route of travel
The monthly Delaware Gate roster can be used to find what specific information?
- The patrol will make sure the vehicle is parked in a central location, the vehicle is secured, and all equipment is placed out of plain view
During a code 3 response, patrols may not exceed ____________ over the speed limit unless directed otherwise by _______.
- To make sure vehicles, material, and personnel flow safely and efficiently on DAFB roadways
Who is the final approval authority to release traffic at the gates following an alarm response?
- Dyess Instruction 31-218, Motor Vehicle Traffic Supervision
What must SF ensure the custodian understands, during a funds escort, prior to beginning the escort?
- Anytime an illegal or potentially hazardous act is detected
When a patrol initiates a foot patrol, what must they accomplish beforehand?
- Location, initiation time, termination time and results
What is SF main goal/priority?
- False
Specific guidance for traffic enforcement can be found where?
- Aid the injured - Protect the scene - Investigate the accident - Record names and info of personnel involved
When will traffic enforcement actions be taken?
- Accidents which do not meet the requirements for a major vehicle accident
Whenever an installation patrol is conducting selective traffic enforcement, they must inform BDOC of what?
- That the accident does not hinder normal traffic flow
True or False: Patrols are allowed to mix moving and non moving violations when issuing traffic citations.
- 72 hours - S2I
What are the primary responsibilities (4) of SF personnel at an accident scene?
- Report the citation to their sponsor within 24 hours
Define minor vehicle accident:
- Individuals First sergeant, Commander or E-7 and above as directed by their commander
For minor accidents in a roadway, BDOC will dispatch police units to ensure what?
- The sponsor's unit commander/first sergeant and the base family advocacy officer
For abandoned vehicles, the individual has ___________ to contact BDOC after given a citation. Who will the notice also be forwarded to?
- Two in the front door and One at the back door
When issuing a ticket to civilians utilizing a DD FM 1408, what shall you instruct them to do?
- 30 seconds
Upon termination of a shoplifting incident involving a military member, whom will they be released to?
- True
Who must be advised of all incidents of family violence?
- The check will be stopped, the operator and occupants will be detained, and the vehicle will be secured.
When responding to domestic situations, assuming you have multiple patrols, how many and where should patrols be positioned?
- Military members and DoD Civilians
When conducting one leg stand test, how long does the violator need to be able to hold there stand?
- Police 1 and Security 1
True of False: Under the Implied Consent Policy, an individual does NOT have the right to consult an attorney before deciding to submit or refuse a test of their blood.
- UXO and EOD will be contacted
If during a RIEVC, unauthorized weapons, drug contraband, or government property is discovered, what will be the SF members next course of action?
- FOUO
Which individuals DO NOT have the right to refuse to submit to a RIEVC?
- Every six months or when compromised
Which two posts will be posted with a drone buster at all times?
- Unit Recall (everybody reports ASAP - Unit Alert (Every either report or be on 6 ring) - Unit Accountability (completed telephone pyramid)
If a drone is engaged and brought down on Dyess AFB property, the crash site will be treated as what? Who will be contacted?
- Security 2 & 3 will proceed to western restricted area boundary and hold until A/C turns on taxiway Alpha. They will shadow the aircraft to ensure it doesn't turn into the restricted area. - Security 1 will take up position at the nose of the A/C and signal for them to shut down engines. All personnel attempting to exit before approval from SF leadership will be challenged
What is the classification of duress words?
- Incident Commander
When are duress words changed?
- To develop a cordon out of range of weapons fire, to protect bystanders, and to keep nonessential personnel out of the area
What are the 3 types of Unit Recalls?
- Near the outer zone, out of suspects sight, with adequate parking spaces, telephones and protection from gunfire
How will security units respond for an unannounced aircraft arrival?
- Cut of phones, heat, air conditioning, lights and water
Who establishes an inner security zone?
- Gloves, gowns, aprons, face shield masks, booties, eye protection, and resuscitation bags
What is the purpose of an outer zone?
- 4th Amendment
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