Afman 23 122
308 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.
Which source of supply is responsible for cradle-to-grave management of every AF weapon system?
AFMC
Which agency has responsibility for providing supply support throughout the DOD?
DLA
What type of products does GSA provide?
Office supplies, hand tools, paints, chemicals, automotive supplies, and furniture
where are the three alcs located
Ogden ALC (OO-ALC), Oklahoma City ALC (OC-ALC), Warner Robins ALC (WR-ALC).
Define local manufacture.
Item fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.
what is a gpc?
Government Purchase Card
Define CRF
gives maintenance repair functions from decentralized repair facilities
who do dms personnel notify when difm asset turn-in times exceed requirements outlined in afi 23-101?
amu leadership
the rni process is governed by which two references ?
afi 20-117and afi 20-118
define the scor model
It is a commercial based supply chain integration model used to describe business activities associated with all phases of satisfying a customer's demand. It is organized around the five primary management processes of Plan, Source, Make/Maintain, Deliver, and Return.
list the functional flights in lrs
Deployment and distribution, fuels management, materiel management, vehicle management.
how many organizations make up the afsc?
3
what is the afimsc's mission
deliver global intergrated combat support
which PSUs are the foundation of the AFIMSC
civil engineer, financial service center, installation contracting agency, security forces center, financial management center of expertise, services activity.
List the four materiel management major processes.
Item accounting, file maintenance, reports, and accounting and finance.
Which item accounting process provides the total asset position of the item record requested, to include interchangeables and substitutes?
due-out
what four types of transactions activate the dor process
requisitioning status, receipts, order/return, shipments, billings, and file maintenance
what are the 5 different type of reports
daily, monthly, quarterly, utility, as required
what major processes are involved in the A&F process?
requisitioning/status, receipts, order/return, shipments, billings and file maintenance.
what is the purpose of DODM 4140.01?
to implement requirements and procedures for dod materiel managers and others who need to work within the dod supply system,
What four functional areas does DLM 4000.25 Defense Logistics Management System Manual prescribe responsibilities and procedures to conduct logistics operations?
supply, acquisition, maintenance and finance.
What is the first step to retrieve AFI 23-101 from the web?
go to the air force e-publishing website and type in the publication you require in the product number/ title search menu.
What are two ways of navigating through AFMAN 23-122?
use the toc and find tool
What research tool allows you to type in the word or phrase when researching a document within AFH 23-123?
find tool
What is an NSN?
a 13 character alphanumeric number associated with a specific term
What two entities make up the NSN?
the fsc and niin
What are the four major types of computer inquiries?
item record, detail record, part number record and other record
What type of inquiry is used when detail records are to be "read out" for a specific DN?
detail record
What product can be reviewed to identify inquiry abuse?
M32
What type of codes are used on an item record inquiry to obtain specific data from the computer?
record retrieval
What information is shown on line one (1) of an inquiry output?
your input image
In what format is the information on an inquiry output displayed
narrative
What information is provided from a part number inquiry?
the nsn, cage code, and to associated with that particular number.
Which record retrieval code is used to obtain repair cycle data?
five
What releveling flag is used on an inquiry to obtain requirements computation data for a given SN?
r
How far back can users query CTH records?
one year or more
What are the three CTH inquiry input formats?
sn transaction serial number and batch miscellaneous option inquiry.
What three elements make up a reject phrase?
a reject code, a descriptive phrase and an action flag.
When you receive a reject, what should you do first?
ensure you have put all the data in correctly
What source do you use to find the corrective action needed to clear a reject?
afh 23-123 volume 2 pt 2 chap 7
What is the difference between a reject and a management notice?
management notices do not stop computer processing instead transactions are processed and datebase records are updated
Within what timeframe should all rejects be processed?
one workday unless there are specific reasons that prohibit correction
What product is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?
d818
Which option in the reject processor computer program is used to force-delete a reject image?
three
Who must ensure that controls are established to make sure forced-deletions of rejects are processed for valid reasons only?
flight chief
Why should you periodically analyze the type of rejects incurred, timeliness of processing, and the volume and reasons for forced deletion processing?
to determine the effectiveness of transaction processing
What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled TRICs?
controlled trics require authorization to process uncontrolled trics do not.
Who determines which transactions can be processed within the flights?
flight chiefs
What is the result of any attempt to process a controlled TRIC by an unauthorized user?
a 301 reject notice
Which product does the management and systems officer use to monitor unauthorized TRIC processing?
d20, part 8
Which documents must support the production scheduling of all reports and listings?
specific requirement in afman 23-122, an approved supplement or an af form 2011
Within what time period must you return the annotated forecast listings to the production scheduler?
by the 15th workday of the same month
Explain the concept of SMAG-R.
it is a revolving fund that finances inventories of military materiel by generating income through the sales of that materiel to air force activites or to other customers.
Under what operating principle is the SMAG-R designed to operate?
no profit no loss
How many divisions make up the SMAG-R?
three
What type of items is the CSAG-S primarily responsible for?
air force managed depot level reparable spares and consumable spares unique to the air force.
What information is provided to LRS leadership through the QA program?
an assessment of the units ability to perform key logistics processes ensuring standardized , repeatable technically compliant process execution while promoting a culture of professional excellenece and personal responsibility
How is the self-inspection program conducted and performed?
according to local guidelines and using established checklists for each area
What is the purpose of a customer support visit?
to determine if customers are receiving quality support and if not where support is in satisfactory
Who is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring DIREPs?
AFMC scm-r quality assurance activity
List the four DIREP categories.
major impact severe problem chronic problem cosmetic error
What category DIREP is normally corrected immediately?
category 1- major impact
What personnel are recommended to submit a thoroughly researched and documented DIREP?
the user adpe materiel management systems monitor and direp monitor
What is the analysis program designed to do?
to determine the materiel management account's effectiveness
What are the three types of analysis?
trend anaylsis, problem anaylsis and special studies
What analysis method is used to satisfy a one-time requirement or to solve a specific problem?
special studies
Define the term "management indicator."
a performance measure that represents a key result
What is mandatory after an assessment and there are deviations or deficiencies due to lack of job proficiency, training, and compliance with technical data or instructions?
review training requirements
What program is used to pass analyzed information to the commander?
materiel management analysis program
How do you perform a QC check?
By comparing the source document with the DCR.
What information on source documents must be compatible with the DCR for QC?
DN, SN, quantity, U/I, and system designator.
What document file code is used to indicate a source document is to be filed? Destroyed?
F; D.
What is your first step if a document is still missing after it appears on three daily listings?
Conduct a search in your work space for the document.
What is the final step in resolving a delinquent document?
Obtain a duplicate or prepare a replacement.
How long does document control maintain a copy of the D04 on disk?
Two years.
What product is used as an historical document showing the status of the materiel management system database after establishing a new materiel management account?
The Conversion Audit List (R22).
How long does document control keep the cover letter and 1WC listing in the file?
Two years.
How is the Shipment Loss Analysis (M16) filed?
By fiscal year.
Within what period must the M10 be filed?
Within 30 days of the date it was prepared.
What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?
To ensure an item has been shipped.
When is a shipment-suspense detail created?
When shipments and transfers process through the LRS.
What are two purposes of the shipment-suspense detail?
To provide a medium for recording transportation data applicable to the shipment and to allow the computer to respond automatically to shipment follow-ups on directed shipments.
Without CMOS, what input is used to update a shipment-suspense detail?
TRIC SSC.
How are SSC inputs made to the materiel management system by bases operating with the CMOS interface?
By electronic interface with the Traffic Management Flight.
What listing is used to monitor delinquent shipment-suspense details?
R40.
What elements are responsible for processing record reversal inputs?
Document control, repair cycle support, inventory, and customer service.
What activity assigns freeze code Q and notifies the activity responsible for the initial input on a record reversal?
The activity finding the error.
What is the purpose of processing a freeze code Q to the item record?
Prevents further transaction processing against the item record during the time you are researching and preparing input for the record reversal action.
What transactions may be reversed using automated record reversal procedures?
Only transactions that have been converted to CTH records.
What information is required to process an automated record reversal?
TTPC, date, and serial number of the transaction being reversed.
What must you do with all prefilled data on the automated record reversal screen before input?
Review for accuracy.
What methods are used for submitting supply requests?
Hand carried; mailed; or transmitted by radio, telephone, terminal, or e-mail.
What submission point is used to process expedite order requests?
Customer support function.
How many copies of the AF Form 2005 are prepared for order requests?
Two copies.
What methods are available for determining the next available serial number to use on an orderrequest?
Copy two of the AF Form 2005 or pre-serialized numbered AF Forms 2005.
What additional information is required on a part number request if the supply system requiredpart number is unknown?
TO data or other appropriate reference.
What benefit can occur by challenging possibly inflated UNDs and UJCs?
Effective reduction of UMMIPS violations and the costs of priority requirements.
What management notice reflects the quantity issued, killed, or due out?
I004.
What management notice reflects due-out requisitioning action taken on an order request?
I005.
What management notice is provided for all part number requests that cannot be converted toNSNs under program control?
I007.
What management notice reflects the total base asset position of a killed request?
I023.
What benefit does the IMDS CDB/materiel management system interface provide maintenance personnel?
The capability to order parts, retrieve current status, cancel their own requirements, and review canceled requirements.
What activity code identifies issues processed through the Integrated Maintenance Data System?
J.
What management notification does the materiel management system output to notify the IMDS CDB system of a change in status to a maintenance due-out?
1SH.
What happens when the materiel management system detects an error in a transaction sent by IMDS CDB?
The image is returned to the IMDS CDB input terminal along with the applicable reject notice.
What entity in the AFSC is responsible for MICAP management?
AFMC SCM-R Weapon Support Activity.
How is a MICAP due-out established?
TRIC ISU with MICAP flag N and the appropriate MICAP UJC.
What UND codes reflect a MICAP requirement?
1, J, or /.
What code on the MICAP report identifies the reason for the out-of-stock condition that made theMICAP request necessary?
Cause code.
How is the MICAP cause code assigned on the MICAP report?
Automatically under program control.
What is the purpose of a MICAP delete code?
To identify the reason for termination of a MICAP condition.
What information should you always be aware of regarding MICAP requirements?
Current status.
What MICAP delete code indicates error reporting?
9.
What purpose do MICAP reports (B9*) serve?
To report the initiation, change, or termination of a MICAP condition.
How does MICAP reporting take place?
Automatically with the output of B9* images during on-line processing.
When is MICAP reporting initiated?
When a due-in is processed in the materiel management system to satisfy a MICAP condition or when anexisting requisition is upgraded to a MICAP condition.
When is MICAP reporting terminated?
At the time of a due-out release, downgrade to a non-MICAP condition, or cancellation.
What ERRCDs identify repair cycle assets?
XD or XF.
When does the repair cycle of a malfunctioning asset begin and end?
It normally begins with the item's removal from the end item and is followed by a replacement request tobase supply. It normally ends when the original item is turned in as repaired, NRTS, or condemned.
When is a DIFM detail established?
When a repair cycle asset has been issued or backordered as a replacement.
How are DFM change inputs used?
To update the status and location fields on the DIFM detail record.
In what quantity are DIFM items normally requested?
One.
What must you load to the item record to allow multiple quantities of DIFM items to process?
Multiple DIFM flag.
What listing is used to perform the DIFM reconciliation?
D23.
What is the purpose of the D23?
To monitor status and maintain visibility of DIFM assets.
What purpose does the D19 serve?
To provide a listing of AWP due-outs, due-ins, and status detail records. It also provides financial data formaintenance managers to make repair decisions.
What action do you take for items appearing in the D20?
Ensure all initial issues are validated with a letter of justification or exception.
TCTO items are modified to the extent that their form, fit, or function is changed. How is this TCTO item identified on the item record?
With NPPC 4.
How are items requiring TCTO action, where modification will not require re-identification to a new NSN, identified on the item record?
By assignment of a TCTO flag.
Why does the inspector prepare an inquiry of all item records and detail records for the listedstock numbers on a TCTO?
To find out the total number of assets to be modified.
What information must be annotated on the cover letter to maintenance quality control?
List by stock number the total number of spares on hand that require modification.
How often should you conduct an inspection of on-the-shelf TCTO items assigned either NPPC 4or the TCTO flag?
Monthly.
What action must the inspector take when an item is received and they cannot determine if TCTOactions have been done?
Issue the item to the maintenance function for the necessary inspection or test.
What document must accompany DIFM items when they are returned to the LRS?
An AFTO Form 350, Repairable Item Processing Tag, a condition tag, and the issue (ISU) or due-outrelease (DOR) document.
2.What form will be used in preparation for turn-in?
AF Form 2005, Turn-In Request.
What happens to ERRCD XF assets when they are turned in condemned?
Transfer the item to DLADS.
Time change managers will coordinate with maintenance and maintain supporting documentationin accordance with what standard?
AFI 21-101 and TO 00-20-9.
How long will FSC maintain all documentation that pertains to time change items?
One year.
When are FSC personnel required to match each line item on the DIFM listing to items in theDIFM monitor's possession?
During time change reconciliation.
Why is it important to process TRN data?
Because it generates base stock levels and provides information to HQ AFMC from which buy, repair, anddistribution decisions are made.
What data are updated by processing a maintenance turnaround record update?
Demand data on the item record and repair cycle data on the repair cycle record.
What is the source of data for TRN processing?
Part II of the AFTO Form 350 from the maintenance activity.
How long are unserviceable assets stored?
Until disposition instructions are received.
What is the benefit of separate storage of assets?
To prevent an unserviceable item from being issued as serviceable when it's not.
What TRICs are processed once disposition instructions are received?
SHP, TRM or MSI.
Establishing a supply point is a coordinated effort between maintenance and the LRS. What arethe functions of maintenance in this operation?
To provide sufficient space and facilities for accommodating the supply point.
When can EOQ items be stocked in a supply point?
When approved by the materiel management flight commander.
What input is used to load, change, or delete a supply point detail?
FSP.
What organization code identifies a supply point transaction?
005.
What TRIC is used to load the storage location on a supply point detail?
FSP.
With what activity code, organization code, and demand code are requests for transfer submitted?
S; 005; N.
What term describes how items are issued from a supply point?
Over-the-counter.
What TRIC is used to issue an item from a supply point detail?
MSI
What do you do to issue an item from a supply point detail with no replenishment action?
Use TEX code F on the MSI request.
What is the purpose of the supply point serial numbered log?
To assign sequential serial numbers to the document number date field of each supply point issue. This allows multiple issues of a single DIFM item during one day's processing.
How often are supply point assets reconciled?
At least semiannually.
What listing is used to reconcile supply point assets?
Supply Point Listing (Q13).
When are issues (TRIC ISU) processed during the supply point reconciliation?
When the total on-hand quantity is less than the authorized quantity.
How are balance discrepancies reconciled?
Using special inventory procedures.
List the seven types of basic expeditionary airfield resource systems.
Weapon system modification and acquisition support, programming, modeling, simulation, war-gamingefforts, and UTC/mobility planning.
What is the support period of an MRSP?
60 days.
Which type of RSP is used to support an organization in-place for the first 30 days of wartimeoperation?
IRSP.
What record must be loaded prior to processing RSP authorization input records?
Serial number/control record—TRIC 1EB.
What program is used to perform reconciliation between XVF records and base level WRMauthorizations?
S05.
What is the purpose for care of supplies in storage (COSIS)?
Shelf life controls and other inspection functions established for like peacetime assets applied to RSP items.
How are issues to an MRSP processed?
TRIC ISU, activity code U.
What TRIC is used to issue assets from an MRSP?
TRIC MSI.
What action occurs if you use TRIC TEX code F on an MSI transaction?
Prevents automatic replenishment.
What involves the permanent movement of assets from home station to a forward location or basewith the host base AO assuming accountability?
Transfer.
Who must make the decision to transfer MRSP accountability?
MAJCOM
What is the primary function of PC-ASM?
Logistics
Who acts as the focal point for all supply wartime readiness issues to include contingency planning, assessment, and deployment operations?
Readiness.
What is a UTC?
A five-character alphanumeric code that identifies an armed forces unit.
What is used to measure readiness?
ART
What is the DRRS?
It is a single automated reporting system within the DOD functioning as the central registry of alloperational units in the US Armed Forces and designated foreign organizations.
What identifies a materiel management UTC?
The letters "JFB" in the first three positions.
Why are extra controls necessary for small arms?
To prevent their losses.
What must be annotated on all supply transaction documentation for weapons?
The serial number of the weapon involved.
What factors determine the type of bag issued to an individual for deployment?
The reason for the deployment and the deployment location.
Which bag contains general-support items?
A.
Which bag contains CBRNE?
C.
What program is used to manage mobility bags?
ES-S Mobility.
What is an AS?
A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals to carry out the mission.
What is a BOI?
The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization.
Where can you find ASs?
Through online query screens in AFEMS (C001).
What code tells you if an equipment item is an EAID item?
EMC.
How are non-EAID items identified?
By EMC 1 (ERRCD NF1).
What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or below?
AF Form 2005.
What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment ASs?
AF Form 601.
When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601 requiring higher than base-level approval?
When the request is against the same ASC and the background and justification for all the items are the same
What AFEMS (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request?
TACR.
List the four situations when you would not input a 601 request into AFEMS (C001).
EOD items, special weapons, multiple items, or if it contains classified information.
What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details?
To control and account for EAID equipment from the time of issue to turn-in.
What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete EAID records?
FCI.
What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?
1.
What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins?
Degraded and pre-degraded operations.
Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN after picking up the property?
Degraded operations.
How are non-EAID items turned in?
On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code P.
How are EAID turn-ins processed?
On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code E.
What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another?
FET.
What does the gaining base process to receive the shipment and establish an on-hand quantity and detail to obtain accountability
FED.
What listing provides the capability to ensure equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances?
ASC listing (Q09).
What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use and due-out quantities?
Out-of-balance conditions.
What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL?
Serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian.
What does a CA/CRL jacket folder consist of normally?
Current CA/CRL and custodian appointment letter to that particular account.
Who may sign for equipment items?
Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander.
Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets?
XD/XF.
What TRIC is used to load a special-purpose asset detail record?
1XA.
What product is used to inventory SPRAM assets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian?
SPRAM report listing (R25).
What CICs are used to identify weapons?
CICs N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8.
How are COMSEC items identified on the item record?
SRC of C and MMCs of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR or CY.
How often must you reconcile weapons and COMSEC detail records?
Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for COMSEC (15 March and 15 September).
What product is used for weapons or COMSEC reconciliation?
Weapon/COMSEC reconciliation (R46).
What are the key responsibilities of stock control?
Stockage policy and managing requisitions.
What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters?
Average PBR.
What term defines the average quantity used daily?
DDR.
What type of stock level is based on past demands from users?
Demand level.
What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock replenishment requisitions?
O&ST.
What term represents that number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle?
RCQ.
What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment?
SLQ.
What type of minimum ASL has a reorder point one-third the ASL quantity?
Type level A.
Which minimum ASLs are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the total minimum level?
Type levels A and B.
What type of ASL restricts stockage?
Maximum ASL.
What type of ASL should you establish for seasonal items?
Maximum, type level D.
What type of ASL maintains an item's stockage position at a constant level?
Adjusted fixed level.
Which form is used to request an ASL? How many copies are needed?
AF Form 1996. Two (2) copies.
What type detail is used to control and manage ASLs?
L type ASL details.
How often are ASLs validated?
At least every two years.
What product is used to review and validate ASLs?
Program R35.
What action occurs during the review of an ASL?
The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original justification.
What action occurs during the validation of ASLs?
Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for each level is still valid.
How often are RBLs updated?
Quarterly.
By what DIC are RBLs received at each base?
DIC XCA.
On 22 June 12, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the RDO is input?
An RDO denial (DIC B7*) is produced.
What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?
Nondirected redistribution.
What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment?
Nondirected, special.
What is a transfer?
JLS or D**.
What are SEX codes used for?
It is the movement of materiel to the DLADS.
What are the two main types of requisitions?
To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping action has been taken.
What does the term MILSTRIP stand for?
Automatic and special.
What is the purpose of MILSTRIP?
MILSTRIPs.
What agencies are required to use MILSTRIP procedures?
Provides a standard method of requisitioning supplies from the SOS.
Normally, in what format are requisitions submitted to the SOS?
All branches of the Service.
When does the materiel management system identify and requisition stock replenishment requirements?
DIC AO*.
What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position?
When items have an asset position down to or below its ROL.
What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?
Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions.
What is the purpose of UMMIPS?
9000-9899
What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the SOS?
Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance.
In what format is requisition status received?
FAD and UND.
What is the consequence of not processing status immediately?
Supply or shipment (AE/AS or AU*).
What are the different types of MILSTRIP status?
You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations and billings.
What status type has the worst effect on an account?
Positive supply status, cancellations, in transit/shipped, and exception/other.
What REX code is used to indicate a requisition was cancelled from the SOS?
Cancellation.
What status types are generated by program control at base level?
REX 1.
When is follow-up action initiated?
Cancellation requests and follow-up.
When 100-percent status is required for a priority 03 requisition, when is an in-line follow-up performed?
When supply status information is overdue or the EDD has passed.
Within what period must ARC images be worked before another is output?
Four days after the requisition date.
What are supply difficulties?
Five days.
How are supply difficulties reported?
Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that cannot be corrected locally and can ultimately affect the operational capability of the base or unit involved.
Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days?
AF Form 1667, message, or e-mail.
How often is a due-out review conducted?
Seven.
Which listing may be used instead of the D18 in performance of due-out review?
On a daily basis for UND A and on a weekly basis for UND A and B due-outs.
How often are priority due-outs validated?
R01.
What are the two methods of releasing due-outs?
Monthly.
What three TRICs may be used to force release a due-out?
Automatically and forced.
What TEX code is used in a DOR input to force release a due-out?
DOR, REC, TIN.
What TRIC is used to process a due-out cancellation?
TEX 3.
What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?
DOC
What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request?
That stock control has reviewed the cancellation input.
What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control?
Equipment Management.
For BNR transactions, LP items will appear on the listing after how many days once the vendor bill is received and processed?
Either confirm the cancellation or furnish shipping status.
What is created whenever a referral order is honored, and credit is given to the shipping base?
ZC, ZD.
Which data screen displays information for Identification Data, MOE Rule Coded Data, Ref/PN Data, Management Data, Phrase Data, Freight Data, and Decoded Characteristics Data?
7 days.
What system is an official Air Force source for obtaining supply and cataloging management data?
Shipped not credited (SNC) details.
What is the purpose of the D043A system?
Output Selection Views.
IPBs are normally broken down into what three sections?
The D043A system.
How are next higher assemblies determined in the TO system?
To provide Air Force personnel with online cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management data for Air Force-managed or user items.
What is the source code for part number 53-39303-99?
Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numerical index.
What is the NHA for figure and index number 2-9-12?
Dash four (-4) series of TOs.
What is the volume, figure, and index number for part number 53-39307-3?
The indent dot system.
What code provides maintenance activities with repair-level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions
P2.
What TO reference lists SMR codes and provides a complete explanation of each?
Bell crank assembly, main landing gear shrink LH.
What TRIC is used to load a new stock number?
SMR code.
What records are established by processing a FIL input?
1-35-40.
What does the first position of an ERRCD signify?
TRIC FIL.
How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records?
Item record and repair cycle record.
What does the second position of an ERRCD signify?
The expendability of an item of supply.
Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded?
Until they are issued for use.
What benefit is provided by establishing a part number detail record?
It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair.
Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it?
TRIC FIL/1AA.
What is an NC number?
It automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file and reduces external research action.
What does position 7 of an NC number indicate?
Because the part number cannot be edited under program control.
What input is used to change the stock number, ERRCD, EMC, RID, and budget code?
NC stock numbers are numbers assigned by an ALC IM pending assignment of an NSN.
Stock number changes are made normally as a result of what conditions?
It identifies the ALC assigning the NC number.
Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge.
FIC.
What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and the DEMIL code?
AF Form 86 action, stock list changes, or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs.
The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters?
A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the materiel management system database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is loaded in the materiel management system database.
What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?
FNL.
How are the two types of deletes processed?
32.
What is an I&SG?
FCU.
Information on I&SGs are provided by what system?
Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing.
Which subgroup within I&SG is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD?
A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional performance.
How was the order of use system designed?
D043B.
What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base-level I&SG?
AA
What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular uses or under certain conditions?
To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used.
What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete an I&SG?
24.
Who must sign the justification letter to request a local I&SG relationship?
S.
How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users?
FIS.
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