Afman 11 202V3

The PIC will ensure compliance with the following:

An ATC clearance is not authority to deviate from AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule to the extent required to meet that emergency. When deviating from an ATC clearance, notify ATC of the action taken as soon as possible.

When computing required fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel consumption rates for:

The minimum turn altitude after an IFR takeoff is 400 feet above the departure end of the runway elevation unless:

Aircraft with retractable landing gear will report their gear is down to ATC prior to _____.

An alternate is required when the weather forecast at the destination, including TEMPO conditions, from ± 1 hour of ETA is less than:

For fixed wing aircraft, the prevailing weather at the alternate ± 1 hour of ETA, including TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain showers, or snow showers) must be forecasted to be at or above the highest of:

USAF aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class C, D, E (below 10,000 feet MSL), or G (below 10,000 feet MSL) airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of ____SM and be _____ feet below, _____ feet above, and _____ feet horizontal from the clouds.

For manned aircraft night operations, aircrew must have an operable flashlight.

The PIC may make changes to the original filed flight plan without re-filing provided:

Unauthorized or impromptu flight demonstrations, maneuvers or flyovers are acceptable if approved by ATC.

Aircrew will not fly if any alcohol was consumed within _____ hours prior to ______ or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.

Which is a correct standard holding pattern in the National Airspace System?

While being radar vectored for an approach, ATC clears you for the approach, but you are below a published altitude restriction. You must:

Before starting the initial descent into an airfield:

Unless the instrument procedure specifies otherwise, the remain within distance of a procedure turn is measured from:

The final approach may be as much as___degrees off of the runway centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach.

When flying an ILS, if the aircraft is more than half-scale below or full scale above glideslope:

Pilots must adhere to the following when entering Class C airspace:

An aircraft is considered in two-way radio contact if a controller responds to a radio call with, "[call sign] standby." If a controller responds with "Aircraft calling approach, standby" then two- way radio contact has not been established.

In order to avoid inadvertent flight into IMC while operating under VFR, anticipate IMC and alter route of flight to maintain VMC unless safety dictates otherwise. If unable to maintain VMC:

At an airport with an operating control tower, you must obtain clearance before (select the best answer):

Except for takeoff or landing, do not operate aircraft over non-congested areas at an altitude of less than _____ft AGL except over open water, in special use airspace, or in sparsely populated areas.

Mission permitting, do not operate aircraft less than _____ft. AGL over national recreation areas and wildlife refuges.

Do not fly an approach or land at an airport where thunderstorms or other hazardous conditions are producing hail, strong winds, gust fronts, heavy rain, lightning, windshear or microbursts unless the runway and flight path are clear of hazards.

If the reported weather decreases below lowest compatible approach minimums after _____, the approach may be continued to the appropriate MAP and a landing may be accomplished if all criteria for landing are met.

For loss of cabin pressure, pilots should initiate an immediate descent to the lowest practical altitude, preferably below _____. Do not allow cabin altitude to remain above _____ unless occupants are wearing functional pressure suits.

If conditions (weather, airspace, etc.) prevent completing the mission under VFR, the PIC will alter the route of flight and continue VFR:

If an aircrew member remains after flying to perform official duties, the crew rest period begins after termination of these duties.

Aircrew may initiate mission-related communication with official agencies without interrupting crew rest.

When the missed approach is initiated prior to the MAP, unless otherwise cleared by ATC, _____

Descent below MDA is not authorized until _____.

The definition of "runway environment" consists of one or more of the following:

A clearance for an approach includes a clearance to fly the published missed approach on the instrument procedure, unless otherwise instructed by ATC.

Passive participation in Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) means to:

USAF Aircraft flying VFR in FAA Class B airspace must have a prevailing or flight visibility of _____ statute miles and _____.

Tobacco use in all forms, including electronic nicotine delivery systems, is prohibited on all aircraft.

In flight reporting. Aircrew will immediately report the following to the appropriate controlling agency:

If you are in level flight at 18,000' MSL within CONUS, in which airspace are you?

The name of the approach is followed by a single letter starting with the letter "A" when only circling minimums are provided on an instrument approach. The suffix letter is not used again for any procedures at that airfield.

When two or more straight-in approaches with the same type of navigation guidance exists for the same runway, a letter or numerical suffix is added to the title of the approach (e.g., VOR Z RWY 20, VOR Y RWY 20). The single letter suffix is used when:

An emergency safe altitude (ESA) is normally published only for U.S. military procedures; it is a single altitude that provides 1,000 feet of obstacle clearance (2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas) within 100 nautical miles of the facility or fix.

All instrument procedures are based on a _____. Obstruction clearance assumes that pilots apply appropriate corrections to maintain the published path across the ground.

Once the aircraft is inside the FAF, one navigation receiver must remain tuned to and display the facility that provides final approach course guidance.

Removal of station identification warns pilots that the facility is officially off the air for tune-up or repairs and may be unreliable even though signals are received.

Bank angles used for instrument turns are normally the desired number of degrees to turn not to exceed _____ degrees.

During a diving (nose low) unusual attitude recovery, do not add backpressure until _____.

Pilots will not file a flight plan nor accept a clearance that requires an aircraft to navigate direct to a fix (i.e., radial/DME or radial/radial) unless the primary navigation equipment onboard the aircraft is certified for the appropriate area navigation capability.

To ensure obstacle clearance, if the outside air temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius (32 degrees Fahrenheit) but above -30 degrees Celsius (-22 degrees Fahrenheit), refer to the temperature correction chart in the Flight Information Handbook (FIH) and apply cold weather temperature corrections to _____ on the IAP.

To ensure obstacle clearance, if the outside air temperature is less than -30 degrees Celsius (-22 degrees Fahrenheit), refer to the temperature correction chart in the Flight Information Handbook (FIH) and apply cold weather temperature corrections to _____ on the IAP.

IFR Turns after Takeoff. The minimum turn altitude after takeoff is_ feet above the DER elevation, unless required by a published procedure or ATC.

On a Non-DME Teardrop High altitude approach, if arriving at the IAF below the published altitude, maintain altitude and proceed outbound_____seconds for each _____feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.

The ILS or LOC approach must be discontinued_____ .

Runway Visual Range (RVR) reports apply to all takeoffs, landings, and straight-in approaches to the runway and take precedence over any other visibility report for that runway.

A visual approach is one type of instrument approach procedure

Turn on anti-collision or strobe lights prior to engine start and do not turn them off until after engine shutdown.

Aircrews will obtain required flight weather support from one of the following sources (in priority order) - AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP

Which of the following conditions mandate that an alternate be designated by the PIC? AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP

Unless departing VFR for mission or training accomplishment, aircrew will only use VFR departures if all IFR departure methods are unavailable and mission priority justifies the increased risk. The PIC will: (AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP)

For AETC pilots, OG/CC or equivalent is the approval authority for conducting practice instrument approaches under VFR. Which of the following apply? AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 AETCSUP

Holding. Timing is based on the_____leg. The initial_____leg should be flown for 1 minute or 1.5 minutes (as appropriate). Timing for subsequent_____legs should be adjusted, as necessary, to achieve proper_____ leg time. (AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AIM)

A course reversal (procedure turn or holding in lieu of procedure turn) is not permitted in the following situations: (AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AIM)

The VDP distance, when published, is based on the_____on the IAP and harmonized with the angle of the visual glide slope indicator (if installed) or the procedure Visual Descent Angle (if no VGSI is installed). (AFMAN 11-202 Vol 3 // AIM)

_____ will ensure the aircraft is not operated in a careless, reckless, or irresponsible manner that could endanger life or property

Aircrew will not fly if any alcohol was consumed within_____prior to takeoff or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects. (T-1).

Crew rest cannot begin until:

Alternate means of navigation refers to using a suitable RNAV system in lieu of operational conventional NAVAIDS without monitoring those NAVAIDs.

Do not depart IFR unless the weather conditions at the destination, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival (ETA), is forecast to be:

File an alternate airfield when:

When selecting an alternate airfield, do not depart IFR unless the prevailing weather at the alternate, from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA, is forecast to be at or above a ceiling of:

When selecting an alternate, do not include TEMPO conditions caused by all of the following except:

Do not select an airport as an alternate if which condition(s) exist?

Non-RVSM aircraft are prohibited from entering RVSM airspace.

When departing from an aerodrome with a temperature of _____ or less, aircrew will temperature correct all altitude (including 400 feet above DER) to a temperature corrected minimum safe altitude:

Do not apply a temperature correction to an ATC-assigned altitude.

Pilots must advise ATC of the corrected altitude when applying altitude corrections on any approach segment with the exception of the final segment.

Do not take off when existing weather is below:

Do not take off with ice, snow, frost, or other contamination adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, unless:

For IFR departures, ensure the aircraft can meet or exceed 200 feet per nautical mile or the published climb gradient, whichever is higher, with all engines operating to:

A diverse departure may be authorized:

Non-standard IFR takeoff minimums are provided for:

(NAS only) Approaches labeled with "RNAV (GPS)" is equivalent to the ICAO designation "RNP APCH".

When using ground-based NAVAIDs, after tuning the desired frequency or channel, the next step is to:

Above what altitude must USAF aircraft fly VFR hemispheric altitudes?

What is the maximum holding speed at or below 6000' MSL?

The first three steps of using a ground based NAVAID include:

The 40:1 OIS is equivalent to _____ feet per nautical mile; an additional _____ feet per nautical mile or more of required obstacle clearance is added to the 40:1 OIS, making the standard IFR departure climb gradient feet per nautical mile.

Obstacles that require a climb gradient greater than 200 feet per nautical mile for a very short distance, only until the aircraft is 200 feet above the DER, are referred to as:

Obstacles within 3 statute miles of the DER identified during the diverse departure obstacle assessment that require a climb gradient greater than 200 feet per nautical mile are published under:

IFR departure procedures specifically designed for obstacle avoidance are referred to as:

The standard IFR departure climb gradient is:

Which of the following is not a type of Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)?

Planning a safe departure normally consists of which step(s)?

The alternate NA symbol informs pilots that the specific approach cannot be used to qualify the alternate due to an unmonitored NAVAID or the lack of a weather reporting service.

Make all turns during entry and while holding at: (NAS only) _____ degrees per second, _____ degrees bank angle, or _____ degrees bank angle when using a flight director system.

It is permissible for the PIC to retrieve all NAVAIDs, navigational fixes, and PBN instrument procedures from an expired database, provided it can be verified with current FLIP.

The OG/CC (or equivalent) is the approval authority to allow aircrew to fly practice instrument approaches under VFR (AETCSUP). Which of the following apply?

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under IFR or VFR, vigilance shall be maintained by each pilot operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.