4N0 Air Force
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(001) Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service commanders to accomplish their mission?
AFDD 4-02, Medical Operations.
(001) Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
Guides commanders in using assets.
(001) What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
Operational.
(001) Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
A car buyer because they can choose SPECIFIC QUALITYS to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors.
(002) What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?
Significantly increase.
(002) Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?
EMEDS Basic.
(002) Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.
(002) Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support.
(002) What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?
86.
(003) The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
4N000.
(003) Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
Air Force career field manager.
(004) What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping?
First. example 4no the 4 identifies the career grouping
(005) Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
Career field manager.
(005) How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
Every 3 years.
(005) Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)?
Supervisor.
(006) Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
Maintain skills.
(006) Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location?
Deployed setting. to ensure all members are fully qualifiedand maintained their current skills.
What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?
On training days.
(008) The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline
training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area.
(008) Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the
Master Training Plan (MTP).
(008) Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select withi option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
Create/Edit MTP.
(009) What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?
STS on the left and MTL on the right.
(009) The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited?
MTL tasks 5 and 7.
(010) The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.
(011) Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?
Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements
(012) Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?
Base Training Office
(013) The total training program leads to
higher skill level.
(013) The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the
behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task.
(014) Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?
Your OJT trainer or supervisor.
(014) What does task knowledge identify?
Your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze or evaluate the subject.
(014) To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?
Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.
(014) To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include
analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject.
(015) What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force training record (AFTR)?
Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable).
(015) Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform
an initial evaluation.
(016) After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?
Can I do simple parts of the task?
(016) After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level?
Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?
(017) The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document
training effectiveness.
(017) If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
The requirements to successfully complete the job.
(017) What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness?
Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process.
(018) Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.
Neurology technician.
(019) Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins
with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36-2626.
(019) What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?
National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
(019) What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?
Eligibility requirements.
(019) What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining?
Last three EPRs.
(019) The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the
career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed.
(020) To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), then click on
Training Records.
(021) The procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Workcenter is performed by clicking
My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations.
(021) If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?
Unit training manager.
(022) What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?
AF 623 Part II.
(022) The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the Entire Training Record and
Qualification Training.
(023) What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623a entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?
USER.
(024) What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098?
Click the SEARCH RECORD button.
(025) What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date?
Select a task and click the TRAINEE button.
(026) Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items?
AF Form 797.
(026) The purpose of an AF Form 803 involves what two evaluation steps?
Conduct and document completion of task evaluations during training.
(027) What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File?
ADD FILE.
(028) What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?
Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System.
(029) Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?
Major command (MAJCOM).
(030) Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the workcenter?
Supervisors.
(031) When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?
Category A.
(032) What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered?
Use all Air Force instructions, OIs, and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule.
(032) Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic?
Nurse managers and NCOICs.
(032) What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic?
Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance.
(032) What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility?
Cyclical.
(033) What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules?
Authority, responsibility, and delegation; length of cycle rotation and direction-forward, backward; deadlines for posting; guidelines for changes and/or exchanging hours; reporting schedule changes.
(033) What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule?
Mobility exercises.
(034) Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria?
Qualitative and quantitative.
(035) Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
Each individual.
(035) By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
Equipment damage and injury to a patient.
(036) What is the name of the product that is generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?
Activity issue/turn-in summary.
(036) What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?
Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.
(036) What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order.
(037) How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted?
Daily.
(037) What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair?
AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing.
(037) Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns?
Biomedical equipment repair technician.
(038) Which are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey (ROS) documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed?
Supply system stocks and property record items.
(038) Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay of
a person who lost or damaged property.
(038) A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when
financial responsibility is assessed.
(038) What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment?
DD Form 1131.
(039) Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
The duty to do no harm.
(039) Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
Chaperone.
(040) Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect?
Anyone handling patient information.
(040) For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use
DOD Regulation 6025.18-R
(042) Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online?
No precautions are taken while off-duty.
(043) Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?
Team-based model.
(043) What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?
Intended for problem solving and updating the team's work plan; daily.
(043) What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?
Lab and screening tests with updates to both action lists and patient counts.
(044) Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least
quarterly.
(044) If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization?
Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application.
(044) When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?
No care or treatment was accomplished.
(045) What step does a medical technician provide in the workflow process?
Uses a common AIM form to enter data into AHLTA.
(045) Who starts the Tri-Service workflow form documentation?
The patient signs in and data is entered in an encounter worksheet or SF600 overprint.
(046) What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9)?
Not elsewhere classified.
(047) When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)?
When PHA is due within 3 months.
(047) When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what items may be overdue?
Member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental, and deployment health assessments (DHAs). It turns red on day 456.
(048) What are the principles of population health management?
Support the DOD and our nation's security.
(048) What is the purpose of case management?
Promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care.
(048) What is the purpose of utilization management (UM)?
Identify, monitor, evaluate, and resolve issues.
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