16R Afsc
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Actual hands-on task performance training best describes which type of training?
Qualification
The specialty training standard (STS) is found in which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
II
Which publication establishes the occupational structure of the Air Force enlisted force?
Air Force enlisted classification directory (AFECD).
Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) were you awarded when you entered your technical school?
1C511
Which skill level must you attain to be eligible for promotion to staff sergeant?
5 Level
A 3-skill level Command and Control Battle Management Operations (C2BMO) operator carries the title of a/an
Apprentice
Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) suffix is given to a weapons director in the 1C5X1 career field?
D (Shred)
Which classification identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified within the military personnel data system (MilPDS)?
Special experience identifier (SEI).
What is a uniform system of five progressive readiness conditions?
Defense readiness conditions (DEFCON).
Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates the normal state of readiness?
DEFCON 5.
Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) requires an increase in force readiness above that required for normal readiness?
DEFCON 3
Which defense readiness condition (DEFCON) indicates all forces are ready for a wartime situation?
DEFCON 5
A defense readiness conditions (DEFCON) indicates
the state of readiness that must be achieved in various military situations.
When an attack by hostile aircraft is considered probable, imminent, or taking place upon the continental United States or Canada, which declaration is declared?
Air defense emergency.
Who is the authority for the emergency security control of air traffic plan (ESCAT) in the forty-eight contiguous states?
Commander, NORAD.
How many priorities does the emergency security control of air traffic (ESCAT) air traffic priority list (EATPL) contain?
8.
Which of the cardinal directions represents a bearing of 120°?
Southeast.
An object at a bearing of 060° and a range of 135 miles would be reported as
"ZERO SIX ZERO, ONE HUNDRED THIRTY-FIVE."
An object at a bearing of 005° and a range of 50 miles would be reported as
"ZERO ZERO FIVE, FIFTY."
When you read a latitude and longitude, you should always read from
the lower to the higher numbers.
The Military Grid Reference System (MGRS) is read from the
left to right, and then up.
How many meters of a Military Grid Reference System (MGRS) square is represented by the coordinates 17R DJ?
100,000.
How many meters of a Military Grid Reference System (MGRS) square is represented by the coordinates 8S AE 13?
10,000.
A Military Grid Reference System (MGRS) square represented by the coordinates 13E DH 1427 totals how many meters?
1,000.
A Military Grid Reference System (MGRS) square represented by the coordinates 16R CJ 156653 totals how many meters?
100
The Global Area Reference System 15 minute by 15 minute quadrant is made up of how many characters?
4.
Which character designates the keypad number when using the Global Area Reference System
7
The word "radar" is an acronym that means radio,
detection and ranging.
A radar can use the radio waves to determine the distance or range to the target by
the amount of time that it takes a radio wave to go out, strike an object, and come back.
The radar antenna's function during transmission is to
concentrate the radiated energy into a shaped beam that points in the desired direction into space.
The radar antenna's function during reception is to
collect the energy contained in the echo signal and deliver it to the receiver.
Which radar component separates wanted from unwanted radio wave signals to a level where target information can be displayed?
Receiver.
The number of times the radar transmits per second is known as the
pulse repetition frequency (PRF).
What is the principle used in radar to detect a target by analyzing a change in frequency of a return signal?
Doppler shift.
Which radar component has many small antennas or slotted waveguides positioned on the face or side of a large wedge-shaped structure?
Phased-array antenna.
Which series of identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) transponders do we use today?
Mark XII.
The identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode that provides automatic reporting of aircraft altitude is
C.
How many microseconds after the last framing pulse is a transmission sent out when the special position identification (SPI) feature is selected in Modes 2 or 3?
4.35
Which identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) codes can be selected by an aircraft's pilot?
Mode 3/C.
Which identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) mode enables operators to distinguish between friendly and potentially hostile aircraft?
4.
What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) Mode 3/A code "7500" mean?
Hijackers on board or suffering from unlawful interference.
What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) Mode 3/A code "7600" mean?
Radio communication failure.
What does identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) Mode 3/A code "7700" mean?
Emergency.
What allows a pilot to transmit a response that will result in a special display at your console?
Special pilot identification (SPI).
Why might you receive an identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) return from a target and not a radar return?
The IFF/SIF return is stronger than the radar return.
When used in conjunction with radar, identification, friend or foe (IFF)/selective identification feature (SIF) can help improve
tracking continuity.
Which frequency range does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) operate in?
1,215 to 1,400 MHz.
How many 2º elevation beams does the air route surveillance radar model 4 (ARSR-4) use?
10
How many vertically stacked, slotted waveguide radiators make up the TPS-75 radar antenna?
48
What is the range of the TPS-75 radar antenna?
240 NM
The FPS-117 can frequency-hop on up to how many preset frequencies?
18
The FPS-124 will process and forward up to how many reportable tracks per scan?
20
A constant surface for weather purposes is considered a/an
surface that consists of all land or all water.
Clouds are normally found in which basic forms?
Stratus and cumulus
What is the area between two different air masses called?
Front.
Weather fronts are generally classified according to
relative motions of the air masses involved
Which type of front is formed when warm air moves up over a wedge of colder retreating air?
Warm.
Which type of front is characterized by a wedge of air being forced aloft?
Occluded.
Which type of refraction causes energy waves to be curved upward?
Subrefraction.
How is radar performance normally affected during normal refraction?
Performance of the radar is generally undisturbed.
How is radar performance normally affected during superrefraction?
Radar energy is bent downward, increasing the range.
Which form of refraction may result in radar holes or blind spots?
Trapping
How are calm winds reported in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)
00000KT.
In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), what does "M" under runway visual range (RVR) indicate?
More than
In an aviation routine weather report (METAR), how is hail indicated?
GR
When more than one type of precipitation is present, which precipitation does the intensity element refer in an aviation routine weather report (METAR)?
First precipitation element
Which element description in the aviation routine weather report (METAR) gives information about clouds and obscuring phenomena?
Sky condition
Winds aloft which are also called upper winds are reported in which foot increment and feet?
5,000-foot increments from 60,000 to 100,000 feet.
The Defense Switched Network (DSN) system is basically a/an
long-distance telephone system
Which piece of equipment is used to secure communications on secure terminal equipment (STE)?
FORTEZZA card
Which telephone feature is the highest precedence in the telephone priority system?
Flash
The best transmission method for high frequency (HF) is
sky wave.
The only method of communicating over long distances from one point of the earth to another without a relay, satellite, or connecting cable is by using the
high frequency (HF) band.
Which frequencies are normally only useful for distances approximately within the line of sight?
Very high frequencies (VHF) and above
What are the hopping pattern and hopping rate in a HAVE QUICK system determined by?
Word of day (WOD).
When transmitting a message over a radio, which type of pause is greater when speaking?
Ideas.
Approximately how far away from your lips should you hold your microphone when transmitting?
Half an inch.
What are the methods of calling used in radio communications?
Full and abbreviated.
When are abbreviated calls authorized?
During good communications conditions and after contact has been firmly established.
Who may cancel or modify MINIMIZE?
Imposing authority or appropriate higher authority.
The main guideline for including a report in the Air Force Operational Reporting System (AFOREPS) is it must be
essential to command and control of aerospace forces
Which operational report-3's (OPREP-3) initial voice notification is due within 5 minutes after learning of the event?
PINNACLE NUCFLASH.
Which operational report-3 (OPREP-3) do we use to report an accident involving nuclear weapons that does not risk the outbreak of nuclear war?
PINNACLE BROKEN ARROW
Which report keeps the Joint Staff, services, and other national leadership apprised of existing political, military, and operational situations?
Commander's situation report (SITREP).
Commander's situation reports (SITREP) must be submitted no later than
0200Z.
The unit's designed operational capability (DOC) statement is used to
summarize unit taskings and requirements.
Which category level (C-level) indicates that a unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized?
C-1
Which category level (C-level) indicates a unit requires additional resources to undertake its wartime mission?
C-4
Which measured resource area (MRA) normally drives a unit's overall category level (C-level)?
Lowest of the four MRAs.
When a change affects a unit's overall category level (C-level), the database must be updated within how many hours?
24
What is a major US goal for the United States message text format (USMTF) system standards?
Allied adoption of USMTF standards.
How many major structural components make up the United States message text format (USMTF) system?
3
What makes up a formatted United States message text format (USMTF) system messages text?
Predetermined sequence of sets.
How is information arranged vertically in the United States message text format (USMTF) system message text?
Columnar sets
What does the first page of each checklist contain?
A sheet showing the date reviewed and the initials of the reviewer.
Why do you place a mark next to each item in a checklist as it is completed?
Prevents you from missing critical steps.
What color of ink is used for entries in the logbook?
Black or Blue.
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