Air Force Personnelist Afsc
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•Which element is not part of the new military personnel section (MPS) structure?
Career enhancement
•The five flights of the Force Support Squadron (FSS) include Force Development, Manpower and Personnel, Airman and Family Services, Sustainment Services, and
Community Services.
•How did the implementation of program budget decision (PBD) 720, affect the structure of the commander's support staff (CSS)?
The CSS was consolidated into a single organization.
•The standardized force support squadron (FSS) structure was comprised of all of these flights except
force management
•Before the Total Force Service Center (TFSC) stood up, when personnel specialists were asked a question they could not answer, they contacted
major command (MAJCOM) personnel
•If you are in the rank of E-7 or above and have a question that Total Force Service Center (TFSC) personnel cannot answer, the person you speak with will
locate and connect you to a SME to answer your question.
•Which group is not serviced by military personnel section (MPS) personnelists?
Navy, Marines, and Coast Guard members.
•What area is the focal point for the translation of all military personnel policies and programs into individual actions affecting people?
Military personnel section (MPS)
•The difference between the new concept of the military personnel section (MPS) and the old concept of the military personnel flight (MPF) is, rather than assign specific individuals to specific tasks
each personnelist is responsible for learning all tasks in his or her area
•On average, in-house training should be held how many times per week?
Once
•Who assures training is accomplished and decides which training will be taught in the military personnel section (MPS)?
MPS chief or designated representative
•Once program budget decision (PBD) 720 was implemented, many of the daily operations of the commander's support staff (CSS) were
reassigned to individuals within the squadron
•Which personnel action is not required to be completed by individuals in the commander's support staff (CSS)?
Rotation of unit personnel into other base agencies
•The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for activities within the
geographically separated unit (GSU) and satellite personnel activity (SPA)
•Who determines which military personnel responsibilities are performed by the satellite personnel activity (SPA)?
Host military personnel section (MPS) commander
•An Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is a
grouping of positions requiring similar skills and qualifications
•Where can you find the list of duties and responsibilities for any enlisted specialty?
Enlisted Classification Directory
•The item within the classification structure used to identify positions or persons not elsewhere identified is the
reporting identifier
•If an Airman fails to progress in training due to reading and comprehension, how would the Airman be disqualified within the classification structure?
Within reasons beyond their control.
•Which is not an example of disqualification for reasons within a member's control?
A medical condition.
•What is not a duty of the personnelist career field?
Conducts interviews to determine individual interests.
•Responsibilities of the personnelist does not include having to
oversee personnel activities and functions.
•Which office prepares and distributes the unit manpower document (UMD)?
Manpower office.
•How often is the unit manpower document (UMD) used?
Daily
•Who publicizes availability of the Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalog (EPRRC)?
Commander's support staff
•The commander's support staff (CSS) is responsible to assist unit personnel with all of these Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) requirements except
printing out and distributing Enlisted Promotions References and Requirements Catalogs (EPRRC) to all individuals
•Leave accrues at how many days per calendar month?
2.5
•Leave must begin and end where?
Local area
•Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset the cost for a member's
meals.
•The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items?
Room and board.
•What is furnished to enlisted personnel at government expense as essential station messing (ESM)?
Food
•What is an Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)-standardized managed computer support system that effectively executes formal training across the Air Force?
Oracle training administration (OTA).
•Oracle training administration (OTA) is the source of record for all Air Force
professional military education (PME) and formal training.
•A training line number (TLN) is a
10-character number associated with a specific student projected for or completed training.
•What do the first two positions of a training line number (TLN) identify?
Base
•Six-year enlistees applying for retraining may apply the first duty day of the month when completing how many months of their current enlistment?
59
•When classified documents are removed from secured storage, they are kept under constant surveillance. Which standard form (SF) cover sheets can be placed on all documents?
SF 703, SF 704, SF 705.
•Who is responsible for reinforcing the importance of safeguarding personal information (PII)?
Unit commander
•Release of personal information (PII) to third parties is appropriate when the subject
agrees in writing.
•What is one of the critical customer service techniques?
First impression.
•When dealing with customers on a daily basis, directly or indirectly, what ability is considered a valuable asset?
Communicate with others
•How many months' minimum time on station (TOS) is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)?
0
•How many special duty application(s) may be submitted for consideration at a time?
One
•To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, The member's presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem, A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements, The problem is more severe than usually encountered by other AF members with a similar problem,
the member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete is not a criterion
•Humanitarian assignment or deferment requests that usually warrant approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance?
The recent death of the member's spouse or child, including miscarriages of 20 weeks' or more gestation.
•The virtual out-processing (vOP) checklist must be completed
prior to final out-processing.
•Which order is not completed within orders processing application (OPA)?
DD Form 1610.
•An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must meet these requirements: a signed entitlements fact sheet applicable to the country where dependents will relocate, the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location, a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents' names and birthdates, overseas (OS) travel destination, and reason for request not
proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents' location.
•What opportunity does the join spouse assignment program allow for military couples?
Be stationed near each other and maintain a joint residence.
•If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he or she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position?
Critical.
•Which assignment availability code (AAC) is used to update a member who has received an Article 15?
12.
•Which assignment limitation code (ALC) is used to update a conscientious objector?
K.
•If an Airman joins with a non-initial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to the member's bonus eligibility?
Member is not eligible.
•What is the minimum skill level or civilian grade to be a funding authenticator?
5-skill, GS-5.
•The virtual out-processing (vOP) is designed to allow Airman to out-process their unit and task organizations without having to visit each office due to these reasons reassignment, retirement, separation not
emergency leave.
•Whose responsibility is it to monitor and follow the progress of the out-processing checklist as it routes through the base agencies?
Member.
•When does the career development element (CDE) create a relocation folder due to a member's separation?
Upon notification of an approved separation.
•Which AF form is used as a Request and Authorization for Separation?
100.
•Who prepares the AF Form 100?
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).
•Which form is used to record qualifying active duty service?
DD Form 214.
•Whose responsibility is to ensure that members' records are current and up-to-date?
Service member.
•At least how many days in advance does the commander notify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is promoted to first lieutenant?
30.
•Which agency is responsible for providing an automatic quarterly end-of-month output product to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for below the zone?
Personnel systems management (PSM) section.
•Which integrated subsystem does the Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) program use to make promotion selections?
Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) promotion file.
•Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore an Airman's date of original grade?
3 and 6.
•The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initial notification?
Fourth.
•Ineligibility condition for promotion includes, Absent without leave (AWOL), Denied selection for reenlistment by the commander, Declined promotion testing except
Selected to permanent change of station (PCS).
•Promotion eligibility status (PES) codes are updated in what system to identify ineligibility conditions?
Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
•The objective of the reenlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers (NCO) that are
highly qualified.
•Airmen may request a waiver to reenlist or extend if they are ineligible due to all of these reasons, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) not commensurate with grade, Civil court conviction, Insufficient grade except
5 or more days lost time.
•When an Airman has been nonselected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, which code is updated in the personnel data system?
2X.
•When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member's total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect?
Date of original entry on active duty.
•Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when a member is eligible to reenlist but elects separation?
1J.
•Which reenlistment (RE) code is used when Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) denies a member's reenlistment?
2A.
•What is the maximum number of days of leave can an Airman sell during his or her career?
60.
•First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment consideration?
33 (57 for six-year enlistees).
•An Airman cannot reenlist in their current Air Force specialty code (AFSC) if a Career Job Reservation (CJR) has not been approved by how many months prior to their date of separation (DOS)?
5.
•The Selective Reenlistment Bonus (SRB) program is a monetary incentive paid to Airmen serving in what type of skills?
Critical.
•What is the maximum selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone?
$90,000.
•The Customer Support Element (CSE) normally disposes of the clearance file within how many days after the member's report not later than date (RNLTD)?
90.
•The initial duty assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to
outline the MPS in-processing requirements.
•Which form is used to document a member's active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)?
AF IMT 63.
•Once the member inprocesses, no-fee passports are
collected by the military personnel section (MPS).
•Confirmation of an accession's arrival to the permanent duty station affects which type of accountability?
Strength.
•The Individualized Newcomers Treatment and Orientation (INTRO) program does not provide Airman relocating to a new assignment with information on
training for new job skills.
•Which item is not provided by the sponsor prior to the newcomer's arrival?
Travel voucher template.
•Guard and reserve personnel qualify for military benefits when they are activated for a period in excess of how many days?
30.
•To avoid fraud, most customer support elements require how many forms of identification before processing an ID card?
2.
•If the member is a civilian employee, what documentation is required to get an ID card?
SF Form 50.
•Who processes Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) applications?
Verifying official (VO).
•Any questionable data with Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) must be resolved with the
verifying official (VO).
•Additions, such as family member data, dependent eligibility, and residential addresses must be reported to Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting Systems (DEERS) within how many days?
45.
•Within how many days must members retrieve and surrender an ID card from dependents who are longer eligible to the nearest card issuing activity?
30.
•Family Member Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to insurable
spouses and children.
•Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI) policy is renewable regardless of
health.
•What is the maximum allowed coverage for Veteran's Group Life Insurance (VGLI)?
$400,000.
•When a member is covered under full time Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI), the member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI) coverage is
full time as well.
•For foreign adoptions, all requested documentation must be submitted to Defense Finance and Accounting System (DFAS) within how many calendar days of the request?
90.
•A line-of-duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and the
member.
•You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at any of these locations except
Finance Services office.
•The Air Force establishes an active duty service commitment (ADSC) for
all active duty members who participate in ADSC-incurring events.
•Officers usually serve indefinite active duty tours by appointment of the president. If the officer requests release or discharge from their appointment, it is approved by the
Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).
•Passports are provided by the government at whose expense?
Government.
•Which is not a reason for downgrade/withdrawal of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC), special duty identifier (SDI), reporting identifier (RI), or chief enlisted manager (CEM) code?
Commander's preference.
•At which grade will commanders initiate withdrawal action when a member is unable to perform tasks associated with his or her skill/qualification level?
Officers or enlisted.
•The purpose of the Air Force classification system is to identify job requirements and the personnel who are
qualified.
•What is the first character of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that is associated with medical or dental?
4.
•What is the three-character code that identifies special experience and training not otherwise identified in the personnel data system?
Special experience identifier (SEI).
•Special experience identifiers (SEI) provide a quick way to identify those individuals who
already have the experience to meet assignment requirements.
•The military personnel section (MPS) is responsible for monitoring and updating the following data Report Identifiers (RI), Special experience identifiers (SEI), Special Duty Identifiers (SDI) except?
Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS) scores.
•Reporting identifiers normally describe conditions rather than
duties.
•To ensure a member is qualified for a special duty assignment pay (SDAP), the unit Commander
counsels unit members on changes in SDAP ratings and initiates and certifies the changes.
•On the unit personnel manning roster (UPMR), how many incumbents are authorized on each position?
One.
•Within the military personnel section (MPS), who is responsible for managing the unit personnel management roster (UPMR)?
Force management operations element.
•Which form is used to track all permanent change of assignment (PCA) moves?
AF IMT 2096.
•When an inter-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) occurs, what action does the military personnel section (MPS) complete?
Updates the duty information in Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
•The Air Force Strength Accounting Duty Status Program (SADSP) duty status information is used to assist commanders with all of these document the utilization of Guard and Reserve personnel, which affects man-day funding, identify personnel who are projected to deploy or already deployed to support combatant commander requirements, identify the availability of personnel to meet combatant commander requirements except
allow the selection for assignment of deployed personnel who are non-volunteers for assignment.
•Award of a specific decoration should be based on an individual's
level of responsibility and manner of performance
•A control roster (CR) provides an observation period for how many months?
6.
•Which form is used to initiate a control roster (CR) action?
AF IMT 1058.
•Who may impose non-judicial punishment (NJP) on members of their command for minor offenses?
Commanders who are commissioned officers.
•When issuing letter of admonition (LOA) actions, commanders should use the "preponderance of the evidence" standard, which means
the greater weight of credible evidence points to the offense committed.
•When establishing an unfavorable information file (UIF), which side(s) of the folder do you mark with "For Official Use Only"?
Front and back.
•Who is responsible for the accuracy and validity of unfavorable information file (UIF) data?
Commander.
•Which unfavorable information file (UIF) code is used to update Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) when a member has a UIF only?
1.
•One purpose of the officer and enlisted evaluation systems is to provide a
reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance.
•Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for AB-TSgt?
931.
•Which AF form is used to document performance feedback for 2LT - CAPT?
724B.
•What system is used for active duty Airmen seeking correction to, or removal of, an evaluation report?
virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF).
•What date is used to place Airmen in the proper sequence for selection for long overseas tours?
Overseas duty selection date.
•Long tours can be accompanied or unaccompanied and are for how many months or more?
18.
•Credit is given for overseas service performed in which branch of service?
All branches.
•If errors are discovered on any of the documentation for an overseas tour, then the military personnel section (MPS) must thoroughly research and verify the errors prior to submitting a correction of records to
Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
•The Personnel System Management (PSM) office serves as specialists in these areas of Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) implementation, maintenance, and operations but not
strategy.
•The Personnel System Management (PSM) office assists users of the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) with which type of operations?
Day-to-day.
•Management assessment products (MAP) will help assist the military personnel section with clean-up and identification of database errors and should be produced, as a minimum,
monthly.
•Which organization requires the assistance of all military personnel section (MPS) work centers to ensure management assessment products (MAP) stays current?
Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
•In addition to Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS) actions and transaction registers, what other method helps the personnelist ensure the integrity of the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)?
Date tracking.
•Once a military member fills out the required worksheet to elect reenlistment, the first thing a personnelist in the career development element does is
conduct a quality check.
•To access Human Resources-Case Management System (HR-CMS), the user must have
an AFPC-secure account.
•The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location is defined as what element of accountability?
Total force.
•Regardless of status, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations. Which element of accountability does this describe?
Strength.
•Forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere describes which element of accountability?
Transient.
•The Air National Guard (ANG) is a very important component of the total force in these operations except
deterrence.
•The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
federal and state missions.
•What force is composed of significant elements assigned or attached of two or more military departments under a single Joint Force Commander (JFC)?
Joint.
•Which system does the Air Force use to account for joint forces?
Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
•The air expeditionary force's (AEF) primary purpose is to provide
warfighter support.
•The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do all of these except
sustain
•What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
Joint Staff.
•Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is capable of establishing and operating an air base?
Air expeditionary wing (AEW).
•Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) normally consists of one or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadrons?
Air expeditionary group (AEG).
•What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is considered the basic war fighting organization and the building block of the AETF structure?
Air expeditionary squadron (AES).
•Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) supports all phases of operations planning and execution at all of these levels wing/squadron, major command (MAJCOM), Headquarters Air Force (HAF) except
numbered Air Force (NAF).
•During a catastrophic event, Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) standardizes a method for the Air Force to account, assess, manage, and monitor the recovery and reconstitution process for
all personnel and their families affected.
•Who serves as the force support squadron (FSS) war planner for the personnel facet of all contingencies, exercises, and deployments?
Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
•Who does the installation personnel readiness (IPR) work with to ensure the installation deployment plan covers all aspects of processing and accounting for movement of personnel?
Installation deployment officer (IDO).
•Which organization helps define the requirements and improve deployment procedures in conjunction with the installation's responsible agencies, subordinate commanders, and functional managers?
Manpower.
•Which organization must Manpower coordinate with to ensure success of deployment operations?
Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
•What is a centralized function aligned under the logistics readiness squadron/commander (LRS/CC) and generally located within the LRS facilities?
Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).
•The permanent staff of the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) consist of all of these organizations logistic plans, installation deployment officer (IDO), Installation personnel readiness (IPR) except
Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).
•Who is a member assigned to a unit that manages all deployment readiness and training aspects for all deployable personnel and equipment within their units to ensure they are deployment ready?
Unit deployment manager (UDM).
•Before tasking individuals to deploy, the unit commander must review not only duty status codes but also the
deployment availability (DAV) codes.
•Who uses Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) to update, maintain, and correct deployment availability (DAV) codes?
IPR and military personnel section (MPS).
•During a disaster, commanders must take all prudent measures to apply guidance to account for
all personnel.
•Who is the first and most critical link when it comes to establishing accountability of forces?
Unit commander.
•Which type of accountability is maintained of all deployed locations employment requirements manning document (ERMD) requirements and personnel against those positions?
Total force.
•Which type of accountability do deployed commanders use to account for the personnel assigned to them?
Unit.
•Installation personnel readiness (IPR) also serves as what organization that reports directly to the Base Crisis Action Team during exercises, inspections, disaster control exercises and accomplishes personnel actions required to respond to natural disasters, chemical, biological or nuclear attacks?
Personnel control center (PCC).
•To whom does the personnel control center (PCC) provide the capability to determine how many personnel, by skill, are available at any time?
Commanders and staff.
•To ensure accurate accountability, what must the PERSCO team (PT) establish?
Reception and inprocessing procedures.
•How many copies of contingency/exercise/deployment (CED) orders must PERSCO teams (PT) must collect from each member?
2.
•When members in-process, the PERSCO team (PT) must review all of these documents for accuracy Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED), Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance (SGLI), ID tags except
AF Form 623.
•Accountability will be maintained in how many separate places by the PERSCO team (PT)?
2
•Air Force active duty (AD), Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC), Air National Guard (ANG), major commands (MAJCOM), wings, groups, and units will make every effort to meet all
taskings
•Once a disaster has been officially declared, all Department of Defense (DOD) components shall report personnel accountability utilizing which system?
Personnel Accountability Reporting System (PARS).
•Who plays a large part in monitoring Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) during evacuation/emergency events in order to track the personal needs of personnel and their family members?
Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).
•Who is responsible for total force accountability (TFA) in a deployed environment?
Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).
•Which team is the basis for forming an Expeditionary Force Support Squadron (EFSS) and includes a commander, superintendent, and the basic PERSCO accountability team?
RFL01--Command and Control Team.
•The component command personnel planner determines the PERSCO team (PT) requirements at each location based on a variety of factors. The formula of one personnel per how many individuals is used as a guide?
275.
•The personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) is a multifunctional entity consisting of representatives from all of these agencies legal, chaplain, finance except
communications.
•The installation deployment officer (IDO) in conjunction with whom determines base requirements for standing up a personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?
MPS chief.
•Whenever a personal deployment facility (PDF) line is not required, what will the deploying personnel be provided to ensure they visit the required services offered in a formal personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?
Out-processing checklist.
•Strength accountability provides valuable planning and decision making information to senior leaders at all levels concerning all deployed force closure, force sustainment, force availability except
force structure.
•How often will PERSCO teams (PT) update Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)?
Daily.
•Duty status change (DSC) reports will continue to be sent by what local time?
2400 hrs.
•Promotion selection results for enlisted/E5 and above are released simultaneously through which system?
AF Portal.
•What will deployed PERSCO teams (PT) have access to as "read only"?
Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).
•What is an individual considered when he/she arrives at a location that is not their final destination and stays in AF billeting?
Transient.
•Which AF form and system is used to account for transients?
245 and Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).
•The rotation and redeployment concepts apply to onward or forward deployments as well as returns to
home station.
•A redeployment assistance team (RAT) may be established to facilitate
redeployments.
•What provides the PERSCO team (PT) a list of in-place and employment requirement authorizations for the deployed location?
Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).
•Which agency can provide deployed commanders and their troops with general information or respond to specific inquiries across the entire spectrum of personnel programs?
Total force service center (TFSC).
•A member must respond within how many days of assignment selection notification of intent to separate or retire?
7 calendar days.
•If a deployed member is separating/retiring you should include how many additional days to complete out-processing actions?
30.
•Who is the focal point for personnel readiness within AF USAF/A1XO?
AFPC/DPWOR.
•Which web-based application is managed by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQAFPC)?
Deployment Processing Discrepancy Reporting Tool (DPDRT).
•Which agency is able to update personnel actions while deployed?
PERSCO team (PT).
•In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)
Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt.
•What is the department's functional information system of record for the DD Form 1300?
Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS).
•Which Hasty Report is a follow-up report to the Hasty Report (Initial)?
Medical Progress Report.
•All duty status whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN) casualties require search progress reports every
24 hrs.
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