IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Comptia A+ Core 1 Study Guide

312 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

Troubleshooting Theory

ANSWER

Steps a technician uses to solve a problem. CompTIA A+ defines six steps: identify the problem; establish a theory of probable cause; test the theory to determine cause; establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement a solution; verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventive measures; and document findings, actions, and outcomes.

QUESTION 2

System Unit contains:

ANSWER

Motherboard, CPU, RAM, Hard Drives; Every other device is a Peripheral.

QUESTION 3

Peripheral Devices

ANSWER

Monitors, Web Cameras, Keyboards, Mice, Game Controllers,

QUESTION 4

HDMI

ANSWER

High Definition Multimedia Interface

QUESTION 5

DisplayPort

ANSWER

A port that transmits digital video and audio (not analog transmissions) and is slowly replacing VGA and DVI ports on personal computers.

QUESTION 6

DVI (Digital Visual Interface)

ANSWER

An older standard type of plug and connector for computer display devices

QUESTION 7

Network Cable Connection (RJ-45)

ANSWER

Uses a type of connector. Creates a Wired Network

QUESTION 8

Mini-DIN (PS/2 or DIN-6)

ANSWER

Older connector for Keyboards and Mice

QUESTION 9

Parallel Port (LPT port)

ANSWER

25 pin female port used by older printers (colored Purple)

QUESTION 10

Serial Port Connector

ANSWER

Oldest connection port on computers. Used to connect items like a monitor.

QUESTION 11

VGA Port (Video Graphics Array)

ANSWER

Port used to connect your monitor (or other visual output device) to your computer. Uses an Analog signal.

QUESTION 12

S-Video connector

ANSWER

Early-gen video connector. Is an analog video signal that carries the video data as two separate signals (brightness and color).

QUESTION 13

Mini DisplayPort

ANSWER

A smaller version of DisplayPort that is used on laptops or other mobile devices.

QUESTION 14

SD Card Slot

ANSWER

Removable data storage

QUESTION 15

Mass Storage

ANSWER

Hard drives, optical discs, removable media drives, etc.

QUESTION 16

A Computer has/is:

ANSWER

CPU, RAM, Mass Storage, and an Operating System. Laptops, mobile devices, and internet of things (IoT) devices

QUESTION 17

1 GHz =

ANSWER

1 Billion cycles per second

QUESTION 18

1 MHz =

ANSWER

1 million cycles per second

QUESTION 19

Clock Multiplying

ANSWER

Any CPU will take the beat from the System crystal and multiply it. Multipliers are built in the CPU itself.

QUESTION 20

Overclocking

ANSWER

Running a processor at a higher frequency than is recommended by the manufacturer, which can result in an unstable system, but is a popular thing to do when a computer is used for gaming.

QUESTION 21

Multiple-core CPUs

ANSWER

resulted in only minor changes to CPU internals but substantially improved performance by integrating multiple processing cores and memory caches on a single chip and by increasing raw CPU speed.

QUESTION 22

Hyper-Threading

ANSWER

A technology that permits quicker processing of information by enabling a new set of instructions to start executing before the previous set has finished.

QUESTION 23

Pipeline Stall

ANSWER

When the decoding step of the machine cycle takes more than one clock cycle. CPU Cache related

QUESTION 24

Level 1 Cache

ANSWER

64k of RAM. So fast it runs at Multiplied speed of the CPU

QUESTION 25

Level 2 Cache

ANSWER

128-256k of RAM, Runs at half of the clock multiplied speed.

QUESTION 26

Level 3 Cache

ANSWER

Megabit size. Runs at base motherboard speed. allows a CPU to avoid a stall.

QUESTION 27

Set Association (Cache)

ANSWER

Defines how the different types of Caches are efficient in handling the right piece of code up to the CPU itself.

QUESTION 28

CPU Caching

ANSWER

Works between RAM and the CPU.

QUESTION 29

PGA (Pin Grid Array)

ANSWER

has Pins. AMD

QUESTION 30

LGA (Land Grid Array)

ANSWER

has Pads. Intel

QUESTION 31

LGA 1151

ANSWER

Mainstream Socket type, moving into the enthusiast side. Intel Socket

QUESTION 32

LGA 2066

ANSWER

Enthusiast world. very high-end processors. Intel Socket

QUESTION 33

AMA4

ANSWER

mainstream AMD socket

QUESTION 34

TR4

ANSWER

Used on enthusiast, high-end. AMD socket

QUESTION 35

CPU Socket

ANSWER

The mount where a CPU connects to the Motherboard

QUESTION 36

Orientation Notch

ANSWER

Identifier on the CPU on the right position to drop the CPU into a Socket.

QUESTION 37

OEM CPU

ANSWER

If you purchase a CPU packaged in this way, you will need to separately purchase a fan and heat-sink assembly.

QUESTION 38

Thermal Paste

ANSWER

A special compound used between CPUs and heat sinks. It fills in microscopic gaps and helps draw heat from the CPU into the heat sink where it is dissipated.

QUESTION 39

SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic RAM)

ANSWER

"Original" RAM. Synchronized to the system Crystal. 168 Pins. Only type of RAM that has 2 Notches. Usually ran at what the motherboard speed was.

QUESTION 40

DDR SDRAM (double data rate SDRAM)

ANSWER

Type of DRAM that makes two processes for every clock cycle. 2 bits of information. 184 Pins.

QUESTION 41

DDR2 RAM

ANSWER

Increases the data transfer rate by increasing the operational frequency of the RAM chip and by increasing the prefetch buffer from 2 bits to 4 bits per chip. 240 Pins. 4x faster than SDRAM, 2x faster than DDR.

QUESTION 42

DDR3 RAM

ANSWER

A version of SDRAM that is faster than DDR2 memory and that can use triple channels. 240 Pins.

QUESTION 43

DDR4 RAM

ANSWER

the fastest RAM that is described on the exam. Most common RAM. Moves data at MT/s (Mega Transfers) 288 Pins.

QUESTION 44

RAM (Random Access Memory)

ANSWER

Different motherboards support a specific RAM technology. We measure RAM speeds using DDR or PC ratings.

QUESTION 45

RAM capacities

ANSWER

measured in megabytes or gigabytes. Stores a certain amount of bytes that we use.

QUESTION 46

Double-Sided RAM

ANSWER

RAM stick with RAM chips soldered to both sides of the stick. May only be used with motherboards designed to accept double-sided RAM. Very common.

QUESTION 47

Single-Sided RAM

ANSWER

This type of RAM only has memory on one side of a stick.

QUESTION 48

RAM Channels

ANSWER

Having flexibility in our system for the amount of RAM it can have. Using multiple sticks of RAM. Ram being sold in pairs usually.

QUESTION 49

Dual-channel Memory

ANSWER

Form of DDR, DDR2, and DDR3 memory access used by many motherboards that requires two identical (size and speed) sticks of DDR, DDR2, or DDR3 RAM. Channels allow to talk to both sticks at the same time (faster)

QUESTION 50

Parity/ECC RAM

ANSWER

Error Correction Code RAM. Contains extra chips to check for RAM errors. Only able to be on motherboards that can use it. has an extra chip or two if a chip dies on the RAM.

QUESTION 51

SO-DIMM (small outline DIMM)

ANSWER

A type of memory module used in laptop computers that uses DIMM technology. A DDR3 SO-DIMM has 204 pins. A DDR2 or DDR SO-DIMM has 200 pins. Older, outdated SO-DIMMs can have 72 pins or 144 pins. Their just smaller.

QUESTION 52

SPD Chip (Serial Presence Detect)

ANSWER

Allows your system to query the RAM chip and ask what's the Capacity, Speed, Tech, and who made it and model number.

QUESTION 53

BIOS (basic input/output services)

ANSWER

Programing that enables interaction with the motherboard before OS loads. Stored in nonvolatile media, thus called firmware. Contains the settings for the boot-up process.

QUESTION 54

BIOS Chips

ANSWER

Chip contains the software (firmware) on the MOBO. Now, usually stored on a EEPROM chip that can be electronically updated through a software updated from the manufacturer.

QUESTION 55

POST (power-on self test)

ANSWER

Runs at boot, requesting devices to self-check. A self-diagnostic program used to perform a simple test of the CPU, RAM, and various I/O devices. Is performed by startup BIOS when the computer is first turned on, and is stored in ROM-BIOS.

QUESTION 56

System Setup (CMOS)

ANSWER

Enables custom information about changeable devices. Is the component that remembers your system settings when you power the computer down. Enables changes to CPU frequencies, RAM timings, BIOS passwords, boot options, and more.

QUESTION 57

Beep Codes

ANSWER

Series of audible tones produced by a motherboard during the POST. These tones identify whether the POST has completed successfully or whether some piece of system hardware is not working properly. Consult the manual for your particular motherboard for a specific list of beep codes.

QUESTION 58

POST cards

ANSWER

Enable testing of "dead" computers. Lets you know the problem before the POST and must be related to the power, CPU, the RAM, or MOBO.

QUESTION 59

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface)

ANSWER

Used to replace BIOS. More advanced interface between hardware and the OS. Maintains support for legacy BIOS systems

QUESTION 60

Complimentary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS)

ANSWER

A separate chip, stores the info that describes specific device parameters. It does not store programs; it only stores data that is read by BIOS to complete the programs needed to talk to changeable hardware. It also acts as a clock to keep the current data and time (Sometimes called the Real Time Clock).

QUESTION 61

Single Flash ROM chips (Flash Memory)

ANSWER

ROM chip that we "Flash" it (reprogram it).

QUESTION 62

CMOS battery

ANSWER

The battery on the motherboard used to power the CMOS chip when the computer is unplugged. if the battery dies, all system information disappears.

QUESTION 63

Flashing

ANSWER

Flashing the ROM Updates the firmware on flash chip.

QUESTION 64

Form Factors

ANSWER

A set of specifications on the size, shape, and configuration of a computer hardware component such as a case, power supply, or motherboard.

QUESTION 65

ATX

ANSWER

The most common (standard) form factor for PC systems presently in use. ATX motherboards and cases make better use of space and resources than did the earlier AT form factor.

QUESTION 66

MicroATX

ANSWER

Small form-factor. Similar mounting points and power as ATX

QUESTION 67

Mini-ITX

ANSWER

A smaller version of the MicroATX form factor. Also called ITX. about the smallest common form factor.

QUESTION 68

ITX

ANSWER

A family of motherboard form factors used in smaller systems, smaller than the Mini-ITX. much more uncommon.

QUESTION 69

I/O Shield

ANSWER

A plate installed on the rear of a computer case that provides holes for I/O ports coming off the motherboard. Fixed shape for all main form factors

QUESTION 70

Chipsets

ANSWER

A part of a motherboard that acts as a traffic director for data. (Northbridge, Southbridge). Today's are Southbridge (CPU handles Northbridge functions). the Model number defines what you can have on a motherboard (RAM capacity, USB capabilities, etc.)

QUESTION 71

Northbridge Chipset

ANSWER

The Northbridge chipset deals with the communication between the CPU, the memory. Handles the faster stuff.

QUESTION 72

Southbridge Chipset

ANSWER

The Southbridge chipset manages all onboard peripheral devices. Handles the slower stuff.

QUESTION 73

SATA Cable (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)

ANSWER

Newer type of cable that joins various drives, such as the optical drive or hard drive, to the motherboard of the computer. 7 pin connector.

QUESTION 74

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express)

ANSWER

Is a high-speed serial computer expansion bus standard designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards. Sends data on one wire and receives data on one wire. Most common expansion bus, it offers multiple Lanes.

QUESTION 75

PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect)

ANSWER

A bus common to personal computers that uses a 32-bit wide or a 64-bit data path. Several variations of PCI exist. On desktop systems, one or more notches on a PCI slot keep the wrong PCI cards from being inserted in the PCI slot.

QUESTION 76

Standouts

ANSWER

Low mounting posts that are used to secure a motherboard into a case

QUESTION 77

PC Case

ANSWER

Offers standardized standouts for mounting various motherboard form factors.

QUESTION 78

Fan Connectors

ANSWER

To get its power, the fan power cord connects to a 4-pin fan header on the motherboard. The fan connector will have three or four holes. A three-hole connector can fit onto a 4-pin header; just ignore the last pin. A 4-pin header on the motherboard supports pulse width modulation (PWM) that controls fan speed in order to reduce the overall noise in a system. If you use a fan power cord with three pins, know that the fan will always operate at the same speed.

QUESTION 79

ATX Power Connector

ANSWER

Connects to the 24-pin ATX power cable of a power supply unit which supplies power to the motherboard.

QUESTION 80

ATX12V

ANSWER

This is the most common power supply on the market today. It includes a second motherboard connector to provide dedicated power to the CPU.

QUESTION 81

Molex connector

ANSWER

Computer power connector used by optical drives, hard drives, and case fans. Keyed to prevent it from being inserted into a power port improperly.

QUESTION 82

Mini connector

ANSWER

This powers a floppy disk drive. Sometimes other components use it as well.

QUESTION 83

Modular power supply

ANSWER

provides connectors at the power supply end, allowing unused cables to be detached from the power supply, producing less clutter, a neater appearance and less interference with airflow.

QUESTION 84

SATA power connector

ANSWER

a 15-pin flat power connector that provides power to SaTa drives.

QUESTION 85

PCIe connector

ANSWER

A dedicated power connector for higher-end video cards.

QUESTION 86

Heat Sink

ANSWER

A piece of metal, with cooling fins, that can be attached to or mounted on an integrated chip (such as the CPU) to dissipate heat.

QUESTION 87

PWM connector

ANSWER

A 4-pin Fan connector that connects directly to the CPU

QUESTION 88

clear CMOS jumper

ANSWER

resets all CMOS settings. goes back to defaults

QUESTION 89

LBA (logical block addressing)

ANSWER

A scheme used for specifying locations of blocks on a hard disk.

QUESTION 90

ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment)

ANSWER

It is a type of disk drive that integrates the drive controller directly on the drive itself. Such as PATA (parallel) or SATA (serial) hard drives.

QUESTION 91

SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)

ANSWER

Is a the most common standard for connecting Mass Storage into computer systems

QUESTION 92

eSATA (External Serial Advanced Technology)

ANSWER

External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment - an external interface for SATA. Transfer rate of 3Gbps

QUESTION 93

HDD (Hard Disk Drive)

ANSWER

is a data storage device that uses magnetic storage to store and retrieve digital information using one or more rigid rapidly rotating disks (platters) coated with magnetic material.

QUESTION 94

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express)

ANSWER

A type of that SSD come in a couple of formats, such as an add-on expansion card and a 2.5 inch drive. Higher speeds than regular M.2 SSD's as well as SSD's. 1 Notch.

QUESTION 95

M.2 SSD

ANSWER

SSD Storage that fits/connects onto a Motherboard.

QUESTION 96

SCSI

ANSWER

Small Computer System Interface. Set of standards used to connect peripherals to computers. Commonly used for SCSI hard disks and/ or tape drives.

QUESTION 97

SAS (Serial-Attached SCSI)

ANSWER

A SCSI interface that uses a serial connection similar to SATA. Modern standard.

QUESTION 98

iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface)

ANSWER

SCSI connection via Ethernet Cable. Modern standard.

QUESTION 99

Parallel ATA (PATA)

ANSWER

The older and slower ATA standard.

QUESTION 100

RAID (Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks)

ANSWER

A hard disk drive where data is written on to lots of disks at the same time. If one disk gets damaged, data can be accessed from another disk.

QUESTION 101

RAID-0 (striping)

ANSWER

File blocks are split between two or more physical drives. High performance and data written quickly. No redundancy. A drive failure breaks the array. Speed.

QUESTION 102

RAID-1 (mirroring)

ANSWER

A mirrored volume stores data to two duplicate disks simultaneously. Redundancy. Slower.

QUESTION 103

RAID-5 - Striping with Parity

ANSWER

File blocks are striped along with a parity block. This requires at least three disks. Efficient use of disk space as files aren't duplicated, but space is still used for parity. High redundancy. Data is available after drive failure but parity calculation may affect performance. Minimum 3 Drives. Can only lose 1 drive.

QUESTION 104

RAID-6: Dual parity

ANSWER

Double-parity RAID (redundant array of independent disks), also called diagonal-parity RAID, Advanced Data Guarding (RAID_ADG), is a method of protecting against multiple storage drive failures by creating two sets of parity data on an array of hard disks. Six total drives, five actual data drives. The drives are striped with parity interleaved to optimize performance. Minimum 4 drives. lose up to 2 drives.

QUESTION 105

RAID 10

ANSWER

a combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0 that requires at least four disks to work as an array of drives and provides the best redundancy and performance.

QUESTION 106

RAID 0+1, RAID 1+0, RAID 5+1, etc.

ANSWER

Multiple RAID types - combine RAID methods to increase redundancy

QUESTION 107

AHCI (Advanced Host Controller Interface)

ANSWER

unlocks some of the advanced features of SATA, such as hot-swapping and native command queuing. You can enable AHCI in the CMOS if you want it enabled. You need to make sure you enable it before you install the OS because if you don't you will get BSOD.

QUESTION 108

Hardware RAID

ANSWER

A method of implementing RAID that relies on an externally attached set of disks and a RAID disk controller, which manages the RAID array. Has its own BIOS that comes with a special system setup to configure the RAID array. Look The completed array looks like a single drive.

QUESTION 109

Mass Storage Rules:

ANSWER

1. Back it up. 2. Mental re-install 3. Triple Check

QUESTION 110

RAID not found/RAID not working

ANSWER

If hardware RAID is implemented in the computer, the problem is usually with the RAID controller. Check the controller, and replace as necessary. If software RAID is implemented, make sure that the BIOS is set to RAID. You should also check all RAID connections. Finally, test the individual RAID drives. If one of the drives has failed, replace it and restore the data.

QUESTION 111

read/write failure

ANSWER

This indicates a dying hard drive and could happen if the read/write head crashes.

QUESTION 112

S.M.A.R.T.

ANSWER

Querying a drive to see its health.

QUESTION 113

Slow Performance (Mass Storage)

ANSWER

Not enough RAM in the system, Disc crashes.

QUESTION 114

loud clicking noise

ANSWER

an actual clicking noise. A typical symptom of either a hard disk drive having read/write problems or from a failing cooling fan. terminal issue.

QUESTION 115

Failure to boot

ANSWER

System cannot start, possibly due to BIOS/UEFI boot order, damage to operating system files or other causes

QUESTION 116

Drive not recognized

ANSWER

The drive itself has a formatting problem.

QUESTION 117

OS not found

ANSWER

This message indicates a software issue with loading the operating system.

QUESTION 118

Attempts to boot to incorrect device

ANSWER

Boot Order problem. This can be caused by a problem with the boot settings within the BIOS.

QUESTION 119

Continuous reboots

ANSWER

These could be related to BIOS problems or OS problems. Problems with a bad driver may also be responsible.

QUESTION 120

CD (compact disc)

ANSWER

An optical disc technology that uses a red laser beam and can hold up to 700 MB of data.

QUESTION 121

CD-ROM (CD-Read Only Memory)

ANSWER

Disk that can store up to 680 MB of data; data can only be read from it.

QUESTION 122

CDFS (Compact Disc File System)

ANSWER

A file system used on optical discs and widely supported by different operating systems.

QUESTION 123

CD-R

ANSWER

Optical disc on which users can write once, but not erase, their own items

QUESTION 124

CD-RW (compact disc rewritable)

ANSWER

CD technology that accepts multiple reads/writes like a hard drive.

QUESTION 125

DVD (digital video/versatile disk)

ANSWER

A CD-like optical disk with a capacity of 4.7 GB or more that can hold a full-length commercial movie.

QUESTION 126

DVD-ROM (DVD-Read Only Memory)

ANSWER

is a high-capacity optical disc that users can read but not write on or erase. Most common type of optical media today.

QUESTION 127

Dual-layer (DL) format

ANSWER

able to use multiple layers on the same side of a DVD for reading and writing storage.

QUESTION 128

Double-sided (DS) format

ANSWER

able to use both sides of a DVD for reading and writing storage.

QUESTION 129

DVD+R

ANSWER

a burn once DVD

QUESTION 130

Blu-ray disc

ANSWER

Optical disc format that stores 25 or 50 GB of data, designed to be the replacement media for DVD. Competed with HD DVD.

QUESTION 131

BD-R

ANSWER

A Blu-ray disc on which you can record data once.

QUESTION 132

BD-RE

ANSWER

A high-capacity rewritable Blu-ray format.

QUESTION 133

USB (Universal Serial Bus)

ANSWER

A standard input and output connection for many modern peripherals.

QUESTION 134

USB 1.1

ANSWER

USB: Low speed: 1.5 megabits/sec. Full speed: 12 megabits/sec.

QUESTION 135

USB 2.0

ANSWER

USB: 480 megabits/sec

QUESTION 136

USB 3.0

ANSWER

USB: 5 Gigabits/sec. Had some compatibility issues.

QUESTION 137

USB 3.1 Gen 1

ANSWER

USB: 5 Gigabit/s. The fix for USB 3.0

QUESTION 138

USB 3.1 Gen 2

ANSWER

Superspeed+ 10Gbits/s.

QUESTION 139

USB Type-A connector

ANSWER

first type of connector with USB. incredibly popular today.

QUESTION 140

USB Type-B connector

ANSWER

A USB connector type that usually plugs into scanners and printers.

QUESTION 141

USB mini-B

ANSWER

USB type for connecting small devices

QUESTION 142

USB Micro-B

ANSWER

USB Type that is popular with android devices.

QUESTION 143

USB 3.0 Micro-B

ANSWER

A small USB connector used by USB 3.0 devices. The connectors are not compatible with regular Micro-B connectors.

QUESTION 144

USB Type-C

ANSWER

USBType that can be plugged in either way. compatible with 10Gigbit speeds.

QUESTION 145

USB Charging port

ANSWER

USB Type connector that is able to bring power to a device, but not able to do data transfer. Usually red, orange, or yellow colors on connectors.

QUESTION 146

USB B controller

ANSWER

Upstream connection for USB. usually in micro-B and others for the connections that are part of the Device, Not the back of a computer.

QUESTION 147

USB root hub

ANSWER

Part of the host controller that makes the physical connection to the USB ports.

QUESTION 148

USB hub

ANSWER

Allows multiple USB devices to be connected to a single USB port. up to 127 devices.

QUESTION 149

USB lock

ANSWER

some kind of software that can lock certain USB ports or whitelist certain USB drives.

QUESTION 150

HID Human interface device

ANSWER

Base/Core drivers for devices that make sure Keyboards and Mice work.

QUESTION 151

Thunderbolt 1

ANSWER

10 Gbps; x2 channels. Apple connector

QUESTION 152

Thunderbolt 2

ANSWER

20Gbps Apple connector

QUESTION 153

Thunderbolt 3

ANSWER

40 Gbps. USB type-C connector. Apple connector

QUESTION 154

Thunderbolt Ports and Connectors

ANSWER

an input/output connection developed by Apple and Intel. It carries data and display signals on a single cable. It also can be used to power peripherals with 10 watts of power. It is a dual-protocol technology that works with PCI Express and DisplayPort technologies.

QUESTION 155

Lightning port

ANSWER

A connector for power and communication for newer mobile Apple products. charging devices, data transfer. charging iPhone, Ear Pods. 5Gbps

QUESTION 156

KVM switch

ANSWER

Allows you to connect multiple PCs to a single set of input/output devices.

QUESTION 157

S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interface Format)

ANSWER

Digital audio connector found on many sound cards. Users can connect their computers directly to a 5.1/7.1 speaker system or receiver. Comes in both a coaxial (3.5mm jack) and an optical version (SPDIF)

QUESTION 158

Webcams

ANSWER

A camera, either built in or that can be plugged into a computer, used to send images and video over the internet. Are most often used for video chat.

QUESTION 159

flash memory reader

ANSWER

A slot or compartment into which the flash memory card is inserted.

QUESTION 160

SD (Secure Digital) Card

ANSWER

A type of memory card used in digital cameras, tablets, cell phones, MP3 players, digital camcorders, and other portable devices.

QUESTION 161

Olympus xD Picture Card

ANSWER

Olympus brand camera flash memory card.

QUESTION 162

Scanners

ANSWER

input devices that capture printed images or documents and convert them into electronic digital signals (i.e., into binary representations of the printed image or document) that can be stored on computer media

QUESTION 163

Flatbed Scanner

ANSWER

Most popular form of consumer scanner; runs a bright light along the length of the tray to capture an image. Can only scan one page at a time.

QUESTION 164

Barcode/QR code scanners

ANSWER

A type of scanner that reads printed coded labels.

QUESTION 165

expansion card (adapter card)

ANSWER

A circuit board with specific functions that augment the computer's basic functions and provide connections to other devices; examples include USB ports, sound cards and the video cards.

QUESTION 166

Thick-Client

ANSWER

CompTIA's name for a standard desktop computer. Runs desktop appli- cations and meets recommended requirements for selected OS.

QUESTION 167

Thin-Client

ANSWER

Desktop computer system that do not offer the full functionality of a PC. Meets Minimum Requirements. Basic Applications.

QUESTION 168

Graphic/CAD/CAM design workstation

ANSWER

Powerful computer system. Powerful multicore processor, high-end video, Maximum RAM.

QUESTION 169

Virtualization Workstation

ANSWER

A computer system that hosts guest operating systems and that must have maximized RAM and CPU enhancements in the form of multiple CPUs with multiple cores.

QUESTION 170

NAS (Network Attached Storage)

ANSWER

A dedicated computer system used to provide disk storage on a network. It's often a small device that is easy to plug in and use. Shares files. High speed network cards (Gigabit NIC minimum). RAID arrays.

QUESTION 171

Gaming PC

ANSWER

A multimedia computer system exhibiting higher performance and responsiveness than standard machines making them ideal for fast paced games of skill. These computers must have CPU enhancements video enhancements specialized audio and enhanced cooling.

QUESTION 172

Audio/Video Editing Workstation

ANSWER

A computer system optimized for editing the audio and video tracks of video files. These workstations must have video enhancements specialized audio and specialized drives.

QUESTION 173

Cold Cathode Fluorescent Lamp (CCFL)

ANSWER

An older backlighting technology that uses one or two fluorescent tubes to light a monitor panel.

QUESTION 174

Light Emitting Diode (LED)

ANSWER

A diode that will produce light when current flows through it.

QUESTION 175

Organic LED (OLED)

ANSWER

Doesn't use a backlight, as the pixels make their own light.

QUESTION 176

Digital Light Processing (DLP)

ANSWER

Technology that bounces light off microscopic mirrors on a computer chip used by small computer projectors.

QUESTION 177

Monitor

ANSWER

is compromised of individual picture elements (pixels); total pixels across and down is the resolution.

QUESTION 178

LCD (liquid crystal display)

ANSWER

technology produces an image by filtering light through a layer of liquid crystal cells

QUESTION 179

CCFL backlight

ANSWER

Backlight for conventional LCD displays.

QUESTION 180

DVI

ANSWER

Digital Visual Interface. Uses a digital signal.

QUESTION 181

APU

ANSWER

CPU and a GPU together

QUESTION 182

Local Area Network (LAN)

ANSWER

Connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home

QUESTION 183

Ethernet

ANSWER

a system for connecting a number of computer systems to form a local area network, with protocols to control the passing of information and to avoid simultaneous transmission by two or more systems.

QUESTION 184

Media Access Control (MAC) address

ANSWER

A unique identifier assigned to network adapters by the manufacturer. This address is six octets in length (12 characters) and is written in hexadecimal. 48bit address.

QUESTION 185

OEM ID

ANSWER

First 6 characters in a MAC address. unique in every network card.

QUESTION 186

hub

ANSWER

An older device that uses its ports to connect devices (computers, printers, etc.) together. not used much anymore.

QUESTION 187

switch

ANSWER

A modern computer networking device that connects network segments.

QUESTION 188

Hexadecimal

ANSWER

A base-16 number system that uses sixteen distinct symbols 0-9 and A-F to represent numbers from 0 to 15. allows us to string long binary values into shorter segments.

QUESTION 189

Wide Area Network (WAN)

ANSWER

A network that connects devices in geographically separated areas.

QUESTION 190

Router

ANSWER

A device that transfers data from one network to another in an intelligent way

QUESTION 191

Logical Addressing

ANSWER

As opposed to physical addressing, the process of assigning organized blocks of logically associated network addresses to create smaller manageable networks called subnets. IP addresses are one example of logical addressing.

QUESTION 192

DOCSIS

ANSWER

(Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) A security technology used for filtering packets and maintaining customer privacy on cable Internet services

QUESTION 193

10BaseT

ANSWER

A type of coaxial cable characterized by a 50-ohm impedance and a 24 AWG core.

QUESTION 194

RG-58

ANSWER

A type of coaxial cable characterized by a 75-ohm impedance and a 20 or 22 AWG core, usually made of braided copper. Less expensive but suffering greater attenuation than the more common RG-6 coax, RG-59 is used for relatively short connections.

QUESTION 195

RG-59

ANSWER

A type of coaxial cable with an impedance of 75 ohms and that contains an 18 AWG core conductor. RG-6 is used for television, satellite, and broadband cable connections.

QUESTION 196

RG-6

ANSWER

Cables made of copper wires that are twisted around each other and are surrounded by a plastic jacket (such as traditional home phone wire).

QUESTION 197

twisted-pair cable

ANSWER

A phone line connection or port found on modems, telephones, and house phone outlets.

QUESTION 198

RJ-11

ANSWER

A cable that transmits data at close to the speed of light along glass or plastic fibers.

QUESTION 199

fiber-optic cable

ANSWER

A type of fiber optic cable that carries multiple light signals on a single strand.

QUESTION 200

Multimode Fiber (LED)

ANSWER

A type of fiber optic cable that carries a single optical signal.

QUESTION 201

singlemode fiber

ANSWER

explains how cable has been engineered and how it can safely transfer data.

QUESTION 202

"CAT" ratings

ANSWER

100 Mbps

QUESTION 203

Cat 5

ANSWER

1000 Mbps (1Gbps)

QUESTION 204

CAT 5e

ANSWER

1Gbps up to 100m. 10Gbps up to 55m

QUESTION 205

CAT 6

ANSWER

Supports 10-Gbps networks at 100-meter segments

QUESTION 206

CAT 6a

ANSWER

is save for installation between a dropped ceiling and structural ceiling where air circulation takes place -made from a special; plastic which retards fire and produces less smoke than other cables

QUESTION 207

Plenum Rating

ANSWER

a cable not so resistant to fire.

QUESTION 208

PVC (non-plenum)

ANSWER

a rating for cables that go between floors, medium fire resistance.

QUESTION 209

Riser Rating

ANSWER

OOGBBGBB

QUESTION 210

TIA 568B

ANSWER

GGOBlBlOBB

QUESTION 211

TIA 568A

ANSWER

The wire pairs in the cable connect to the same pin numbers on each end

QUESTION 212

straight-through cable

ANSWER

A twisted pair patch cable in which the termination locations of the transmit and receive wires on one end of the cable are reversed.

QUESTION 213

crossover cable

ANSWER

A method for uniform, enterprise-wide, multivendor cabling systems specified by the TIA/EIA 568 Commercial Building Wiring Standard. Structured cabling is based on a hierarchical design using a high-speed backbone.

QUESTION 214

structured cabling

ANSWER

A cable rack that connects and manages wiring used for telecommunication between a service provider and intermediate distribution frames (IDFs). The MDF connects private or public lines coming into a facility with the networking devices in the facility.

QUESTION 215

Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

ANSWER

network/telephone cabling runs from closets to workstations always use solid cord (less flexible)

QUESTION 216

Horizontal Runs

ANSWER

A wall- or rack-mounted panel where cables converge in one location.

QUESTION 217

Patch Panel

ANSWER

This tool is used to permanently connect wires to patch panels and RJ-45 wall jacks

QUESTION 218

110-Punchdown Tool

ANSWER

a tool that helps locate cables.

QUESTION 219

fox (tone generator) and hound (tone probe)

ANSWER

Detects the location of a fault in a copper cable by sending an electric signal down the copper cable and measuring the time required for the signal to bounce back from the cable fault. A TDM can then mathematically calculate the location of the fault.

QUESTION 220

Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)

ANSWER

A cable that uses a single solid wire to transmit signals. solid copper wires.

QUESTION 221

solid core

ANSWER

a cable that has its wires stranded for flexibility.

QUESTION 222

stranded cable

ANSWER

Portion of an Ethernet frame used for error checking, most commonly with the CRC algorithm.

QUESTION 223

FCS (Frame Check Sequence)

ANSWER

Networking cable that has four twisted pairs of copper wire and a flexible outer coating.

QUESTION 224

Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)

ANSWER

Copper network cable that has two or four pairs of twisted wires shielded by a braided mesh and covered with an outside coating.

QUESTION 225

Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

ANSWER

In IPv4 addressing, a 32-bit number that, when combined with a device's IP address, indicates what kind of subnet the device belongs to.

QUESTION 226

subnet mask

ANSWER

A number that uniquely identifies each computer or device connected to the Internet. Has four octets between 0-255

QUESTION 227

IP address

ANSWER

The Internet Protocol version 4 is the dominant protocol for routing traffic on the Internet, specifying "to" and "from" addresses using a dotted decimal such as "122.45.255.0".

QUESTION 228

IPv4

ANSWER

An IP address that is manually assigned to a device and remains constant until it is manually changed.

QUESTION 229

static IP address

ANSWER

1-126 Leading bits. 128 Networks. 16,777,214 Hosts per Network. Default Subnet Mask 255.0.0.0

QUESTION 230

Class A IP Address

ANSWER

128-191 Leading bits. 16,384 Networks. 65,534 Hosts per Network. Default Subnet Mask 255.255.0.0

QUESTION 231

Class B IP Address

ANSWER

192-223 Leading bits. 2,097,152 Networks. 254 Hosts per Network. Default Subnet Mask 255.255.255.0

QUESTION 232

Class C IP Address

ANSWER

224-239 Used for multicast testing,

QUESTION 233

Class D IP Address

ANSWER

240-255 Reserved.

QUESTION 234

Class E IP Address

ANSWER

An IP address that is used on a private TCP/IP network that is isolated from the Internet.

QUESTION 235

Private IP address

ANSWER

10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255

QUESTION 236

Private IP address Class A

ANSWER

172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255

QUESTION 237

Private IP Address Class B

ANSWER

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255

QUESTION 238

Private IP Address Class C

ANSWER

A address used for testing of the host itself. 127.0.0.1

QUESTION 239

loopback IP address

ANSWER

Translates the private IP address to a public address for routing over the Internet

QUESTION 240

Network Address Translation (NAT)

ANSWER

Dynamically assigns IP address information (for example, IP address, subnet mask, DNS server's IP address, and default gateway's IP address) to network devices.

QUESTION 241

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

ANSWER

Feature of Windows that automatically assigns an IP address to the system when the client cannot obtain an IP address automatically. will always give a 169.254.X.X address

QUESTION 242

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

ANSWER

The Internet Protocol version 6 provides a large number of new addresses to route Internet traffic, using "from" and "to" addresses written as colon-hexadecimal notation, such as "fe80::42:acff:feaa:1bf0".

QUESTION 243

IPv6

ANSWER

The address that a computer running IPv6 gives itself after first booting. The first 64 bits of a link-local address are always FE80::/64.

QUESTION 244

link-local address

ANSWER

brought down from actual router itself. computer automatically generates the 2nd half.

QUESTION 245

internet address (global unicast address)

ANSWER

The address on a host where an application makes itself available to incoming data. 0-65535

QUESTION 246

port number

ANSWER

port numbers in the range of 1-1024 that identify network applications that are well known such as web, email, and remote login applications

QUESTION 247

Well Known Ports

ANSWER

Ports ranging from 1024 to 49151; accessible to network users and processes that do not have special administrative privileges.

QUESTION 248

Registered Ports

ANSWER

TCP/IP ports in the range of 49,152 through 65,535, it is spun up by your system every time it makes a connection to give a return port number for whatever server you might be connecting to.

QUESTION 249

Dynamic/Ephemeral Ports

ANSWER

A set of rules governing the exchange or transmission of data between devices.

QUESTION 250

protocol

ANSWER

Two different protocols working together to help get the data between your systems. A client talks to the server, waits for the server to hear you, and then they start doing what they do.

QUESTION 251

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

ANSWER

connectionless protocol. Protocol that operates instead of TCP in applications where delivery speed is important and quality can be sacrificed.

QUESTION 252

UDP (User Datagram Protocol)

ANSWER

Single packet only. A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that notifies the sender that something has gone wrong in the transmission process and that packets were not delivered. (the /ping command).

QUESTION 253

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

ANSWER

A unit of data at any layer of the OSI model.

QUESTION 254

Protocol Data Unit (PDU)

ANSWER

An IP header, followed by the data encapsulated after the IP header, but specifically not including any headers and trailers for layers below the network layer.

QUESTION 255

IP packet

ANSWER

The connection-oriented payload of an IP packet. Works on the transport layer.

QUESTION 256

TCP Segment

ANSWER

A connectionless networking container used in UDP communication.

QUESTION 257

UDP Datagram

ANSWER

Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. the DNS system is resolving a website address name into an IP address.

QUESTION 258

Domain Name System (DNS)

ANSWER

The predecessor to DNS, a static text file that resides on a computer and is used to resolve DNS host names to IP addresses. The HOSTS file is checked before the machine sends a name resolution request to a DNS name server. The HOSTS file has no extension.

QUESTION 259

HOSTS file

ANSWER

One of several collections of servers scattered around the world that maintains the databases of all domains that reside in any given top-level domain.

QUESTION 260

root server

ANSWER

Domain name that specifies its exact location in the tree hierarchy of the domain names system. has a 256 character limit.

QUESTION 261

fully qualified domain name (FQDN)

ANSWER

Command-line program in Windows used to determine exactly what information the DNS server is providing about a specific host name.

QUESTION 262

nslookup

ANSWER

The Active Directory service that manages the process that allows a user to sign on to a network from any computer on the network and get access to the resources that Active Directory allows.

QUESTION 263

Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

ANSWER

a type of peer-to-peer network where each computer shares files, folders, libraries, and printers with other computers in the homegroup. access to the homegroup is secured using a homegroup password.

QUESTION 264

Homegroup

ANSWER

Cable used to interface with a Cisco device.

QUESTION 265

Yost cable

ANSWER

A small business office with between 1 and 10 users.

QUESTION 266

SOHO (Small office/home office)

ANSWER

gives control on network bandwidth by many different criteria

QUESTION 267

Quality of Service (QoS)

ANSWER

A protocol that identifies devices connected on the local area network and allows them to automatically exchange information.

QUESTION 268

Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)

ANSWER

A protocol used to monitor and manage network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers.

QUESTION 269

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

ANSWER

A LAN that, using VLAN-capable switches, places some (or any on the more expensive VLANs) systems on virtual broadcast domains.

QUESTION 270

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

ANSWER

A switch that can be configured via a command-line interface and sometimes can be configured in groups. Usually, they are assigned their own IP addresses. VLANs can only be implemented through managed switches.

QUESTION 271

Managed Switch

ANSWER

enables devices to connect to a wireless network to communicate with each other. a bridge between an ethernet network and a wireless 802.11 network.

QUESTION 272

Wireless Access Point (WAP)

ANSWER

Wireless Ethernet standard more commonly known as Wi-Fi. based on Industrial, Scientific, and Medical (ISM) Radio Bands.

QUESTION 273

IEEE 802.11

ANSWER

A wireless configuration that uses one or more WAPs to connect wireless workstations to the cable backbone.

QUESTION 274

infrastructure mode

ANSWER

The user-supplied network name of a WLAN; it can generally be alphanumeric from 2 to 32 characters.

QUESTION 275

Service Set Identifier (SSID)

ANSWER

Decentralized wireless network mode, otherwise known as peer-to-peer mode, where each wireless node is in meshed contact with every other node. your computer becoming a WAP itself.

QUESTION 276

ad hoc mode

ANSWER

An antenna that detects signals from all directions equally (also called omnidirectional antenna).

QUESTION 277

Dipole Antenna

ANSWER

A directional antenna that has a planar surface and is usually mounted on a wall or column.

QUESTION 278

Patch Antenna

ANSWER

unidirectional antenna; works well transmitting and receiving signals in some directions but not in others

QUESTION 279

Yagi Antenna

ANSWER

Runs frequencies 2.412-2.4884 GHz. There are 14 different channels. each channel takes a different piece of the band.

QUESTION 280

2.4-GHz band

ANSWER

Runs frequencies 5.150-5.875 GHz. The channels that start with 36 to 64 with no Odd numbered channels. Then goes from 100 to 144 (no odd's still), then 149 to 165.

QUESTION 281

5GHz band

ANSWER

54 Mbps - 5 GHz. earliest extension to 802.11

QUESTION 282

802.11a

ANSWER

11 Mbps, 2.4 GHz.

QUESTION 283

802.11b

ANSWER

54 Mbps, 2.4 GHz.

QUESTION 284

802.11g

ANSWER

100Mbps, 2.4GHz and 5 GHz. backwards compatible with any wireless nic. MIMO (multiple in/multiple out) allows a single wireless access point to use multiple antennas to change its radiation signal where it zeros in on a device.

QUESTION 285

802.11n

ANSWER

5GHz 1300mbps. creates Multi-user MIMO. can zoom in on multiple clients at a time.

QUESTION 286

802.11ac

ANSWER

A LAN that uses wireless connections for some or all of its transmissions. it's like ad hoc mode but on steroids.

QUESTION 287

wireless mesh network (WMN)

ANSWER

product tags with tiny chips containing information about the item's content, origin, and destination

QUESTION 288

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)

ANSWER

a very short-range wireless connectivity technology designed for cell phones and credit cards

QUESTION 289

Near Field Communication (NFC)

ANSWER

Provide communication over a short distance that is intended for use with devices that are owned and operated by a single user

QUESTION 290

Personal Area Network (PAN)

ANSWER

100mW of power. 100m range.

QUESTION 291

Bluetooth class 1

ANSWER

2.5mW of power. 10m range.

QUESTION 292

Bluetooth Class 2

ANSWER

1mW of power. 1m of range.

QUESTION 293

Bluetooth Class 3

ANSWER

Wireless PAN technology that transmits signals over short distances between cell phones, computers, and other devices. functions as point-to-point.

QUESTION 294

Bluetooth

ANSWER

• Interference - Something else is using our frequency • Signal strength - Check the signal and antenna locations • Incorrect channel - Usually automatic, try tuning manually • Bounce and latency - Multipath interference; flat surfaces • Incorrect access point placement - Locate close to the users

QUESTION 295

Low RF wireless signal

ANSWER

In this situation, a computer can connect to the network but cannot access a specific resource on the network. The problem could be because the user does not have permission to access the resource. If you can ping the resource but cannot access the resource by its host name, the DNS server could be down. The problem could lie with the remote resource. See if other computers can connect to it.

QUESTION 296

Limited connectivity?

ANSWER

This is usually caused by interference, incorrect cabling, a malfunctioning NIC, router misconfiguration, or switch misconfiguration. If only one client is experiencing the problem, check that computer's cabling and NIC. You only need to check for interference, router misconfiguration, or switch misconfiguration if more than one client is experiencing this problem.

QUESTION 297

Slow transfer speeds

ANSWER

A network problem in which a device's connection goes in and out; most likely caused by physical problems, such as a loose or damaged cable or antenna wire, or network signal strength/interference problems, too many people on the same band.

QUESTION 298

intermittent connectivity

ANSWER

A centralized location for techs and administrators to manage all aspects of a network.

QUESTION 299

Network Operations Center (NOC)

ANSWER

a connection that is extremely slow, but is available wherever there is a telephone; a modem uses the telephone line to transmit and receive data; this method of connection is known as dial-up

QUESTION 300

POTS (plain old telephone service)

ANSWER

An international telephone system that carries analog voice data.

QUESTION 301

PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network)

ANSWER

Uses terminal adaptors. a completely digital line. run at 64Kbps or128Kbps. allowed you to still use your telephone while on the internet.

QUESTION 302

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital)

ANSWER

A communications method for transferring files between computers on the Internet. most things done on port 21. almost all web browsers are FTP clients.

QUESTION 303

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

ANSWER

When a firewall opens a port because a computer behind the firewall initiates communication on another port.

QUESTION 304

Port Triggering

ANSWER

The Internet standard protocol for transferring e-mail messages from one computer to another (to an SMPT server). Port 25.

QUESTION 305

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

ANSWER

A protocol used to retrieve email from a mail server. POP3 is a later iteration of the POP protocol, and can be used with or without SMTP. Port 110

QUESTION 306

Post Office Protocol (POP)

ANSWER

A protocol used to retrieve email messages. IMAP is similar to POP3, but with some advanced features. The main difference between the two is that IMAP generally leaves the email on the mail server. Port 143

QUESTION 307

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

ANSWER

A computer system (or an application program) that intercepts internal user requests and then processes that request on behalf of the user.

QUESTION 308

proxy server

ANSWER

A private data network that creates secure connections, or "tunnels," over regular Internet lines

QUESTION 309

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

ANSWER

a virtual, private pathway over a public or shared network from the VPN client to the VPN server

QUESTION 310

VPN Tunnel

ANSWER

the network of products embedded with connectivity-enabled electronics

QUESTION 311

Internet of Things (IoT)

ANSWER

A form of wireless communications frequently used in security systems and heating and cooling control systems.

QUESTION 312

ZigBee

ANSWER

A short-range low-power network technology used for the Internet of Things.

Looking for a different version?

CBTs get updated every year. Search for the exact version you're taking (e.g. "cyber awareness 2025").

Search all study materials