IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Mike Meyers Comptia Videos

609 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

System Unit (Chassis)

ANSWER

Case that contains the cpu, ram, and hard drives.

QUESTION 2

Operating System (OS)

ANSWER

Software used to control the computer and its peripheral equipment.

QUESTION 3

OS Core

ANSWER

kernel

QUESTION 4

Linus and macOS super user

ANSWER

root

QUESTION 5

Single sign-on

ANSWER

enables users to log in using their domain accounts anywhere on the network.

QUESTION 6

Linus is commonly packaged in distributions

ANSWER

distros such as Federa, Mint, Ubuntu.

QUESTION 7

CPU's take a system speed and multiple it to reach the

ANSWER

max cpu speed.

QUESTION 8

Single CPU's have multiple

ANSWER

cores.

QUESTION 9

CPU catching works between

ANSWER

RAM and the CPU.

QUESTION 10

Cache is built into the

ANSWER

CPU.

QUESTION 11

CPU's commonly have three caches consisting of

ANSWER

L1, L2 and L3.

QUESTION 12

32-bit CPU's cannot address more than

ANSWER

4 gigabytes of memory.

QUESTION 13

CPU sockets

ANSWER

Allows CPU to be removed from motherboard-LGA or PGA

QUESTION 14

Multiply a DDR speed by eight to get the

ANSWER

pc SPEED.

QUESTION 15

Parity and EEC RAM contain extra chips to check for

ANSWER

RAM errors.

QUESTION 16

SO-DIMMS

ANSWER

(Small Outline DIMMs) are used in Laptops and are smaller memory modules than DIMMs.

QUESTION 17

Almost all RAM has an SPD chip that

ANSWER

stores info about the RAM stick.

QUESTION 18

Tools like CPU-Z read

ANSWER

SPD information.

QUESTION 19

Virtual Memory

ANSWER

a portion of a storage medium functioning as additional RAM. All OS's allow adjustment.

QUESTION 20

BIOS

ANSWER

a set of computer instructions in firmware which control input and output operations.

QUESTION 21

BIOS programming enables

ANSWER

interaction with motherboard before OS loads.

QUESTION 22

BIOS is stored in

ANSWER

nonvolatile media, thus called firmware.

QUESTION 23

POST routines are built into

ANSWER

firmware.

QUESTION 24

POST runs at boot, requesting devices to

ANSWER

self check.

QUESTION 25

POST errors manifest as specific

ANSWER

beep codes or display text codes.

QUESTION 26

POST cards enable testing of

ANSWER

dead computers.

QUESTION 27

UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface)

ANSWER

An interface between firmware on the motherboard and the operating system that improves on legacy BIOS processes for booting, handing over the boot to the OS, and loading device drivers and applications before the OS loads.

QUESTION 28

UEFI replaces traditional

ANSWER

16bit BIOS in modern systems.

QUESTION 29

System Setup

ANSWER

This is the configurable aspect of the BIOS, enabling the changes from boot orders, to the system time.

QUESTION 30

Random Access Memory (RAM)

ANSWER

The fast, chip-based volatile storage in a computing device.

QUESTION 31

Motherboard

ANSWER

A circuit board that contains all of the computer system's main components.

QUESTION 32

Flash ROM chips to

ANSWER

update firmware.

QUESTION 33

ATX (Advanced Technology Extended)

ANSWER

The most common form factor for PC systems presently in use, originally introduced by Intel in 1995. ATX motherboards and cases make better use of space and resources than did the earlier AT form factor.

QUESTION 34

MicroATX

ANSWER

a version of the aTX form factor. MicroaTX addresses some new technologies that were developed after the original introduction of aTX.

QUESTION 35

MINI-ITX

ANSWER

A smaller version of the microATX form factor.

QUESTION 36

Chipset

ANSWER

A group of chips on the motherboard that controls the timing and flow of data and instructions to and from the CPU.

QUESTION 37

Northbridge Chipset

ANSWER

deals with the communication between the CPU, the memory.

QUESTION 38

Southbridge Chipset

ANSWER

manages all onboard peripheral devices. Any expansion cards that connect to the motherboard - with the exception of high-speed graphics cards - are managed.

QUESTION 39

Modern chipsets feature

ANSWER

Southbridge chipset, handling Northbridge functions.

QUESTION 40

Chipsets define

ANSWER

RAM capacity, USB capabilities, and much more.

QUESTION 41

PCIe (PCI Express)

ANSWER

interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has a number of PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (aka video cards aka graphics cards), RAID cards, Wi-Fi cards or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards.

QUESTION 42

Power Supplies transform

ANSWER

AC from wall outlet to DC for the computer.

QUESTION 43

Standard motherboard connectors are

ANSWER

20-24 PIN atc AND 4-8 PIN p4.

QUESTION 44

Use Molex and Sata connectors for

ANSWER

peripherals and drives.

QUESTION 45

Use UPS to protect against

ANSWER

brownouts and blackouts.

QUESTION 46

Heat Sink

ANSWER

A piece of metal, with cooling fins, that can be attached to or mounted on an integrated chip (such as the CPU) to dissipate heat.

QUESTION 47

Power Supply Tester (PSU)

ANSWER

A device that can test the output of each power cord coming from a power supply.

QUESTION 48

Multimeter

ANSWER

An instrument for measuring the properties of an electrical circuit..

QUESTION 49

Errors in system setup can cause a dead PC, try

ANSWER

clearing CMOS.

QUESTION 50

SSD

ANSWER

The type of hard drive that has no moving part, so they are more efficient, run with no noise, emit little heat, and require little power

QUESTION 51

Magnetic Disk Drives

ANSWER

Memory storage device that uses the magnetic state of ferrous coating to record data

QUESTION 52

hard disk drive (HDD)

ANSWER

A direct access storage device used to store and retrieve data from rapidly rotating disks coated with magnetic material.

QUESTION 53

serial ATA (SATA)

ANSWER

A drive interface for EIDE drives that transfers data serially at speeds between 150 MBps and 300 MBps and 6 Gbps, depending on the version of the standard. (1)

QUESTION 54

SSD data is stored in

ANSWER

blocks and pages.

QUESTION 55

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express)

ANSWER

SSD tech that supports a communication between the operating system and the SSD directly through a PCIe bus lane, reducing latency and taking full advantage of the speeds high-end SSDs.

QUESTION 56

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface)

ANSWER

A fast interface between a host adapter and the CPU that can daisy chain as many as 7 or 15 devices on a single bus.

QUESTION 57

SAS (serial-attached SCSI)

ANSWER

A type of SCSI that uses serial signals to transfer data, instructions, and information.

QUESTION 58

A Partition is a

ANSWER

logical electronic device

QUESTION 59

Partitions define

ANSWER

the location of operating systems, swap files, and recovery partitions.

QUESTION 60

Partitions must be

ANSWER

created and mounted.

QUESTION 61

In Windows, partitions manifest as drive letters, in Linux/macOS,

ANSWER

partitions manifest as folders.

QUESTION 62

Master Boot Record (MBR)

ANSWER

The first sector on a hard drive, which contains the partition table and a program the BIOS uses to boot an OS from the drive.

QUESTION 63

GUID Partition Table (GPT)

ANSWER

The area of a large hard disk (> 2TB) outside a partition that stores partition information and boot loaders.

QUESTION 64

GPT supports up to

ANSWER

128 volumes on a partition.

QUESTION 65

A file system is applied to a partition by

ANSWER

formatting.

QUESTION 66

A partition must be

ANSWER

formatted before they are useable.

QUESTION 67

FAT16

ANSWER

File allocation table that uses 16 bits to address and index clusters. Used as the primary hard drive format on DOS and early Windows 95 machines; currently used with smaller-capacity (2 GB or less) flash media devices.

QUESTION 68

FAT32

ANSWER

File allocation table that uses 32 bits to address and index clusters. Commonly used with USB flash-media drives and versions of Windows prior to XP.

QUESTION 69

exFAT (Extended File Allocation Table)

ANSWER

a file system that is used primarily in flash storage applications and SD cards

QUESTION 70

NTFS (New Technology File System)

ANSWER

A file system used on Windows-based systems. It is more efficient and provides much more security than do FAT-based file systems.

QUESTION 71

NTFS supports

ANSWER

compression, encryption, and folder/file security.

QUESTION 72

CDFS (Compact Disc File System)

ANSWER

File structure, rules, and conventions used when organizing and storing files and data on a CD.

QUESTION 73

ext3 and ext4

ANSWER

File systems commonly used by Linux OS.

QUESTION 74

HFS+ file system

ANSWER

macOS X file system

QUESTION 75

Windows Disk Management

ANSWER

for partitioning and formatting disks.

QUESTION 76

Dynamic disk storage

ANSWER

Span multiple disks to create a large volume Split data across physical disks (striping) Duplicate data across physical disks (mirroring)

QUESTION 77

Drives must be converted from basic to

ANSWER

dyanmic in Disk Management.

QUESTION 78

Dynamic disks enable shrinking,extending, and

ANSWER

spanning volumes without losing the data on the disk.

QUESTION 79

RAID 1

ANSWER

Also called mirroring, this RAID array type provides fault tolerance because all the data is written identically to the two drives in the mirrored set. (2)

QUESTION 80

RAID 0 (striping)

ANSWER

breaks data into units and stores the units across a series of disks by reading and writing to all disks simultaneously.

QUESTION 81

RAID 4

ANSWER

Block-level striping with dedicated parity. Not often used, replaced with RAID 5.

QUESTION 82

RAID 5 & 6

ANSWER

Uses block-level and parity data striping. Requires three or more drives. Provides speed.

QUESTION 83

RAID 10

ANSWER

a combination of RaID 1 and RaID 0 that requires at least four disks to work as an array of drives and provides the best redundancy and performance.

QUESTION 84

Raid 5 can only lose

ANSWER

one drive in the array, RAID 6 can lose two.

QUESTION 85

Hardware RAID Controller

ANSWER

creating volumes from an array of physical disks is an operation supported by a plug-in controller card or by the motherboard, independently of the installed operating system.

QUESTION 86

Hardware RAID has its own

ANSWER

BIOS that comes with a special system setup to configure the array.

QUESTION 87

Storage Spaces

ANSWER

In Windows 8 and later, a software RAID solution that enables users to group multiple drives into a single storage pool

QUESTION 88

File-based encryption

ANSWER

encrypts files and folders, disk- based encryption encryption entire drives.

QUESTION 89

Encrypting File System (EFS)

ANSWER

A security feature of many Windows versions that allows it to encrypt files on an NTFS volume.

QUESTION 90

BitLocker Drive Encryption

ANSWER

Drive encryption software offered in high-end versions of Windows.. requires a special chip to validate hardware status and to ensure that the computer hasn't been hacked.

QUESTION 91

Compact discs store

ANSWER

650-700 mb of data.

QUESTION 92

Digital video/versatile disc (DVD's) store from

ANSWER

4.37 gb to 15.9 gb of data.

QUESTION 93

Blu-ray discs (DB's) store

ANSWER

25 GB to 50 gb.

QUESTION 94

All optical media comes in

ANSWER

read-only memory (ROM), write-once (R), and write-many (RW/RE) versions.

QUESTION 95

USB

ANSWER

Universal Serial Bus. A type of connection used to attach devices such as flash drives, scanners, cameras, and printers to a computer.

QUESTION 96

USB 1.1

ANSWER

max speed 1.5 megabits/sec.

QUESTION 97

USB 2.0

ANSWER

480 megabits/sec.

QUESTION 98

USB 3.0

ANSWER

A device that allows a user to copy multiple sheets at the same time without manually changing pages after each scan.

QUESTION 99

USB 3.1 Gen 1

ANSWER

5 Gigabits/sec.

QUESTION 100

USB 3.1 Gen 2

ANSWER

10 Gigabits/sec.

QUESTION 101

USB connector

ANSWER

5 Gbps

QUESTION 102

USB B connector

ANSWER

10 Gbps

QUESTION 103

USB 3 Micro connector

ANSWER

USB TYPE-B connectors plug into upstream ports on peripherals.

QUESTION 104

USB mini-B connector

ANSWER

up to 40 Gbps, mini displayport/ usb/c.

QUESTION 105

USB Micro-B connector

ANSWER

A device that switches a single keyboard/video/mouse set among multiple computer systems.

QUESTION 106

USB 3.1

ANSWER

Expansion card on the motherboard that provides a connection for the speakers and microphone

QUESTION 107

USB Type-A connectors plug into downstream ports and

ANSWER

USB expansion card.

QUESTION 108

Thunderbolt connector

ANSWER

An expansion card that enables a computer to connect other computers or to a cable modem to facilitate a high-speed Internet connection.

QUESTION 109

KVM switch

ANSWER

CompTIA's name for a standard desktop computer. Runs desktop appli- cations and meets recommended requirements for selected OS.

QUESTION 110

ADF (automatic document feeder)

ANSWER

a terminal that looks like a desktop but has limited capabilities and components

QUESTION 111

Soundcard

ANSWER

a network-connected computer dedicated to providing file-based data storage services to other network devices.

QUESTION 112

Alice needs to connect many external devices to her PC. Which of the following expansion cards would enable her to connect the largest number of devices?

ANSWER

1ghz, 16gb hdd, dx9 with wddm 1.0 driver, dispolay 800x600.

QUESTION 113

Network Interface Card (NIC)

ANSWER

A utility for migrating data from many computers, or if you need to perform what Microsoft calls a "wipe-and-load migration" from and to the same computer. Available in Windows XP, Vista, and Windows 7. (9)

QUESTION 114

Thick Client

ANSWER

OS installation in which multiple operating systems are installed on a single machine.

QUESTION 115

Thin client

ANSWER

A type of OS installation where special scripts perform all the OS setup duties without human intervention.

QUESTION 116

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

ANSWER

Computer with multimedia capabilities designed specifically for watching television and films.

QUESTION 117

Windows 10 Requirements

ANSWER

a database in Windows that stores user preferences, file locations, program configuration settings, startup information, hardware settings, and more.

QUESTION 118

Windiows

ANSWER

this type of application runs after the computer starts, has no user interface and can be paused or restarted.

QUESTION 119

User State Migration Tool (USMT)

ANSWER

A Windows utility that can identify what processes are launched at startup and can temporarily disable a process from loading.

QUESTION 120

Multiboot Installation

ANSWER

admin tools in the control panel.

QUESTION 121

Unattended Installation

ANSWER

ctrl + shift + escape.

QUESTION 122

HTPC (Home Theater PC)

ANSWER

ctrl + alt +delete.

QUESTION 123

Windows Registry

ANSWER

MMC snap-in that provides tools for analyzing how your system resources are used by processes and services

QUESTION 124

Windows Service Application

ANSWER

It shows all of the currently running process, services, performance, network connectivity, it also helps you close programs

QUESTION 125

System Configuration (Msconfig.exe)

ANSWER

A multi-core processor is a single computing component with two or more independent actual central processing units which are the units that read and execute program instructions.

QUESTION 126

Find system config in

ANSWER

Provides information about hardware resources, components, and the software environment. Also known as System Information.

QUESTION 127

Task Manager

ANSWER

Windows feature that uses a combination of software and hardware to prevent the execution of code in unintended areas of memory to protect against buffer overflow attacks.

QUESTION 128

Windows Resource Monitor

ANSWER

One of the primary administrative tools used to manage Windows and many of the network services provided by Windows.

QUESTION 129

Windows Task Manager

ANSWER

A Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that provides tools for analyzing system performance.

QUESTION 130

CPU Cores

ANSWER

utility can be used to view the messages in event logs.

QUESTION 131

msinfo32

ANSWER

access controls applied to all accounts of a given windows computer.

QUESTION 132

msconfig (System Configuration utility)

ANSWER

application, security, setup, and system.

QUESTION 133

Data Execution Prevention (DEP)

ANSWER

asks users to write lines of code to answer questions against a database

QUESTION 134

Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

ANSWER

An interface for accessing database management systems that can be ported to other systems by using a driver.

QUESTION 135

Windows Performance Monitor

ANSWER

Programming tools in Windows for the sharing of data objects between programs.

QUESTION 136

Windows Event Viewer

ANSWER

Allow you to control which users and groups can gain access to files and folders on an NTFS volume.

QUESTION 137

Local Security Policy

ANSWER

when a new folder or file gets the permissions of the folder in which it was created. Stopped with a Deny.

QUESTION 138

Event viewer logs

ANSWER

owner, group, and everyone. ( read, write, execute )

QUESTION 139

Structured Query Language (SQL)

ANSWER

A naming system used by Windows computers to locate network file shares and network printers. The format is \\servername\sharename

QUESTION 140

ODBC (Open Database Connectivity)

ANSWER

A method of creating a logical drive letter that allows easy access to a shared folder or drive on a computer.

QUESTION 141

Component Services

ANSWER

restores points before application installs, registry, and critical system files.

QUESTION 142

NTFS permissions

ANSWER

A diagnostic and recovery tool.

QUESTION 143

Inheritance

ANSWER

a bootable disc you create in Windows 7 that contains Windows system recovery tools.

QUESTION 144

Linus and macOS permissions use

ANSWER

Backs up important files, makes a complete mirror image of your current computer setup

QUESTION 145

Universal Naming Convention (UNC)

ANSWER

A Windows tool that can set a task or program to launch at a future time, including at startup.

QUESTION 146

Mapping a drive

ANSWER

fixes formatted partitions.

QUESTION 147

System Restore

ANSWER

Scans integrity of all protected system files and repairs files with problems when possible.

QUESTION 148

Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE)

ANSWER

repairs critical windows files based online system stores. ( after sfc /scannow )

QUESTION 149

system repair disc

ANSWER

Command in the command-line interface used to copy multiple directories at once, which the copy command could not do.

QUESTION 150

File History, File Recovery

ANSWER

A Windows command that is similar to and more powerful than the xcopy command, used to copy files and folders.

QUESTION 151

Task Scheduler

ANSWER

End a running process

QUESTION 152

chkdsk (CheckDisk)

ANSWER

This command updates the repositories (libraries) on the raspberry pi.

QUESTION 153

sfc /scannow

ANSWER

A DVI (Digital Visual Interface) video port that works only with digital monitors.

QUESTION 154

dism

ANSWER

upgrade all software to latest vesrion.

QUESTION 155

xcopy

ANSWER

command line to remove a program.

QUESTION 156

robocopy (robust file copy)

ANSWER

displays all processes running on your terminal with user names.

QUESTION 157

TASKILL cmd

ANSWER

text editor.

QUESTION 158

sudo apt-get update

ANSWER

shutdown

QUESTION 159

sudo apt-get install

ANSWER

change permission modifiers (linux)

QUESTION 160

sudo apt-get update (upgrade)

ANSWER

changes the user and/or group ownership of a given file

QUESTION 161

sudo apt-get remove [package]

ANSWER

A text file containing a series of OS commands. Autoexec.bat is a batch file.

QUESTION 162

ps aux (linux terminal command)

ANSWER

is Microsoft's task automation framework, consisting of a command-line shell and associated scripting language built on top of, and integrated with, the .NET Framework

QUESTION 163

linux VI is a

ANSWER

The Microsoft graphical user interface (GUI) programming language used for developing Windows applications. A modified version of the BASIC programming language.

QUESTION 164

linux command

ANSWER

an object-oriented computer programming language commonly used to create interactive effects within web browsers.

QUESTION 165

chmod command (linux)

ANSWER

Windows Recovery Environment. A recovery platform based on the Windows Pre-installation Environment, which helps users troubleshoot operating system failures. System Restore, System images. CMD.

QUESTION 166

chown command (linux)

ANSWER

select option in system configuration for safe boot.

QUESTION 167

batch file

ANSWER

video driver problem.

QUESTION 168

PowerShell

ANSWER

roll back Driver or Update Driver in Device manager.

QUESTION 169

Visual Basic

ANSWER

boot order in System setup.

QUESTION 170

JavaScript

ANSWER

create a new user account and copy old profile to try to recover the corrupted profile.

QUESTION 171

WinRE

ANSWER

open it manually in Services Administrative Tool, or check Event Viewer for details.

QUESTION 172

Safe boot

ANSWER

Scans integrity of all protected system files and repairs files with problems when possible in com Command prompt.

QUESTION 173

To get to Safe mode options in Windows 8/10,

ANSWER

A flat-panel monitor that creates an image when liquid crystals become electronically charged.

QUESTION 174

A black screen on a booted computer often indicates a

ANSWER

LED lights and shine through the liquid crystals.

QUESTION 175

In the event of a black screen, get to Safe mode and try to

ANSWER

backlight, as the pixels make their own light.

QUESTION 176

In the event of errors like no boot device or no OS, check

ANSWER

Technology that bounces light off microscopic mirrors on a computer chip used by small computer projectors.

QUESTION 177

If a windows profile is corrupted,

ANSWER

Standard for the video graphics adapter that was built into IBM's PS/2 computer. It supports 16 colors in a 640 × 480 pixel video display.

QUESTION 178

With services that fail to start,

ANSWER

Port that enables digital signals to transmit directly to the LCD monitor

QUESTION 179

liquid crystal display (LCD)

ANSWER

A DVI (Digital Visual Interface) video port that supports both analog and digital monitors.

QUESTION 180

LCD backlights are flourescent or

ANSWER

A display device resolution of 800 × 600.

QUESTION 181

OLED does not use a

ANSWER

A display device resolution of 1280 × 1024.

QUESTION 182

Digital Light Processing (DLP)

ANSWER

1600x1200.

QUESTION 183

VGA (Video Graphics Array)

ANSWER

1680 x 1050 resolution

QUESTION 184

DVI

ANSWER

1920 x 1200 resolution ( 16:10 ratio )

QUESTION 185

DVI-D

ANSWER

2560X1440.

QUESTION 186

DVI-I

ANSWER

A card that plugs into a motherboard and allows for expansion cards to be mounted parallel to the motherboard. Expansion cards are plugged into slots on the riser card.

QUESTION 187

SVGA (super video graphics array)

ANSWER

LCD technology.

QUESTION 188

SXGA (Super Extended Graphics Array)

ANSWER

brightness of the projector.

QUESTION 189

UXGA (ultra extended graphics array)

ANSWER

distance to screen.

QUESTION 190

WSXGA+ Resolution

ANSWER

A shutdown of this sort could be due to problems with the video card or blocked airways for ventilation. ( move video card around for better airway )

QUESTION 191

WUXGA Resolution

ANSWER

Replace the LCD.

QUESTION 192

WQHD

ANSWER

pieces of stuff show up on screen that are from previous images. ( take a look at video ram by using a different video card to test current card )

QUESTION 193

riser card

ANSWER

Problems with the colors in a projector or screen. ( check VGA cable, check a different video card )

QUESTION 194

Projectors usually have DLP or

ANSWER

A low light image; symptom of a possible failing CCFL backlight or may simply indicate the brightness is set too low. ( buy new CCFL, turn brightness back up)

QUESTION 195

Lumens define the

ANSWER

A screen image that goes in and out; can be caused by a failing CCFL backlight or by certain settings on mobile devices. ( reseat HDMI cables )

QUESTION 196

projector throw

ANSWER

Check native resolution. ( with projectors, adjust geometry )

QUESTION 197

Overheat shutdown

ANSWER

When a static image stays on a monitor for many hours, leaving a permanent impression of that image on the monitor.. ( change image on screen )

QUESTION 198

Dead Pixels on LCD monitor ( black or white spots)

ANSWER

If the resolution of the monitor does not match the system settings. ( adjust text size on windows )

QUESTION 199

Artifacts

ANSWER

Connects a group of computers in close proximity, such as in an office building, school, or home.

QUESTION 200

Incorrect color patterns

ANSWER

A device that provides a connection between wireless devices and can connect to wired networks.

QUESTION 201

Dim image

ANSWER

The process by which devices determine which device may access the network at any given time.

QUESTION 202

flickering image

ANSWER

ethernet.

QUESTION 203

distorted image

ANSWER

1500 bytes.

QUESTION 204

Burn in

ANSWER

host on a LAN

QUESTION 205

Oversized images and icons

ANSWER

ifconfig (Linux) to view a MAC.

QUESTION 206

Local Area Network (LAN)

ANSWER

A network device that connects several nodes of a local area network.

QUESTION 207

WAP (Wireless Access Point)

ANSWER

network controller which connects network devices and allows effective communication between these devices

QUESTION 208

Media Access Control (MAC)

ANSWER

traffic on the LAN to all nodes.

QUESTION 209

LAN computers connect with

ANSWER

traffic based on MAC address.

QUESTION 210

Ethernet frames standardized as

ANSWER

full bandwidth for all nodes.

QUESTION 211

A MAC address uniquely identifies a

ANSWER

Spans a large geographic area such as a state, province, or country

QUESTION 212

Use ipconfig (Windows) or

ANSWER

A number that uniquely identifies each computer or device connected to the Internet.

QUESTION 213

Network Hub

ANSWER

A network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP /IP configuration information.

QUESTION 214

Network Switch

ANSWER

1024 computers in a LAN.

QUESTION 215

Hubs repeat all

ANSWER

in a WAN.

QUESTION 216

Switches filter

ANSWER

determine local vs. remote traffic.

QUESTION 217

Switches provide

ANSWER

one central wire surrounded by insulation, a metallic shield, and a covering of insulation

QUESTION 218

Wide Area Network (WAN)

ANSWER

A coaxial cable that uses BNC connectors. It is used for analog data and can be used between a TV and DVD player.

QUESTION 219

IP Address (Internet Protocol Address)

ANSWER

Coaxial Cable used for connecting homes to cable networks. Larger conductor and higher frequencies than RG-59.

QUESTION 220

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

ANSWER

port numbers in the range of 1-1024 that identify network applications that are well known such as web, email, and remote login applications

QUESTION 221

Switches connect up to

ANSWER

Category 5 wire, a TIA/EIA standard for UTP wiring that can operate at up to 100 Mbps.

QUESTION 222

Routers connect multiple LAN's together

ANSWER

A higher-grade version of wiring that contains highquality copper, offers a high twist ratio, and uses advanced methods for reducing cross talk. It can support a signaling rate of up to 350 MHz

QUESTION 223

Routers use logical addressing ( ip addressing) to

ANSWER

Twisted-pair cables capable of carrying up to 1000Mbps (1 gigabit) of data up to a length of 100 meters

QUESTION 224

Coaxial cable (coax)

ANSWER

a rating used for UTP cables that is thicker than CaT-6 and used by 10GBase-T (10-Gigabit Ethernet).

QUESTION 225

RG-59

ANSWER

Fire-resistant cable designed for airways, conduits, and areas sprinklers cannot reach.

QUESTION 226

RG-6 Cable

ANSWER

It provides less protection than plenum cable, so most installations today use plenum for runs between floors.

QUESTION 227

RJ-11

ANSWER

category CAT ratings.

QUESTION 228

Cat 5

ANSWER

electrical pulses.

QUESTION 229

Cat 5e (Enhanced Category 5)

ANSWER

F-Type connectors.

QUESTION 230

CAT6 (category 6)

ANSWER

The room in a building that stores the demarc, telephone cross-connects, and LAN cross-connects.

QUESTION 231

Cat 6a

ANSWER

-network/telephone cabling runs from closets to workstations -always use solid cord (less flexible)

QUESTION 232

Plenum-rated cable

ANSWER

A wall-mounted panel of data receptors into which cross-connect patch cables from the punch-down block are inserted.

QUESTION 233

Riser-Rated Cable

ANSWER

Consists of a group of wires twisted to form metallic string.

QUESTION 234

Twisted pair cabling have different

ANSWER

A measuring tool that transmits an electrical pulse on a cable and measures the way the signal reflects back on the TDR to determine network issues. ( use for testing runs )

QUESTION 235

Fiber optic cables use light, rather than

ANSWER

A tool used to punch individual wires from a network cable into their slots to terminate the cable.

QUESTION 236

Coax cables use RG ratings and

ANSWER

patch panel through walls/ ceilings.

QUESTION 237

Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

ANSWER

An expansion card that enables a computer to connect other computers or to a cable modem to facilitate a high-speed Internet connection.

QUESTION 238

Horizontal Runs

ANSWER

Communication that happens in two directions at the same time.

QUESTION 239

Patch Panel

ANSWER

Communication between two devices whereby transmission takes place in only one direction at a time.

QUESTION 240

Stranded Wire

ANSWER

Configuring a computer so that it will respond to network activity when the computer is in a sleep state.

QUESTION 241

TDR (Time-Domain Reflectometer)

ANSWER

a packet that triggers a computer to wake up from a low power state

QUESTION 242

Punchdown tool

ANSWER

Information/configuration. ( change duplex and wake-on LAN settings here )

QUESTION 243

Horizontal runs from wall outlet to

ANSWER

show connectivity, activity, and sometimes speed.

QUESTION 244

Full Duplex

ANSWER

Built-in TV tuner with a cable TV connector on the Video Card.

QUESTION 245

Half Duplex

ANSWER

a port that looks like a large phone jack and is used by twisted-pair cable to connect to a wired network adapter or other hardware device. RJ stands for registered jack.

QUESTION 246

Wake on LAN

ANSWER

In IPv4 addressing, a 32-bit number that, when combined with a device's IP address, indicates what kind of subnet the device belongs to.

QUESTION 247

Magic Packet

ANSWER

identifies the device that the computer uses to access the Internet or another network

QUESTION 248

Use Device Manager > NIC Properties for

ANSWER

A defense-related computer network that was the precursor to the internet.

QUESTION 249

Link Lights

ANSWER

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol. Protocol that connects computers to the Internet. Tells computers how to exchange information over the Internet.

QUESTION 250

F-type

ANSWER

The Internet Protocol version 4 is the dominant protocol for routing traffic on the Internet, specifying "to" and "from" addresses using a dotted decimal such as "122.45.255.0".

QUESTION 251

RJ-45

ANSWER

The Internet Protocol version 6 provides a large number of new addresses to route Internet traffic, using "from" and "to" addresses written as colon-hexadecimal notation, such as "fe80::42:acff:feaa:1bf0".

QUESTION 252

subnet mask

ANSWER

An IP address that is manually assigned to a device and remains constant until it is manually changed.

QUESTION 253

default gateway

ANSWER

The utility used to display TCP/IP addressing and domain name information in the Windows client operating systems.

QUESTION 254

ARPANET

ANSWER

Enables the MAC address information to be displayed from the command prompt

QUESTION 255

TCP/IP

ANSWER

A block of IP addresses from 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 used to support multicast sessions.

QUESTION 256

IP addresses have four octects between

ANSWER

A block of IP addresses from 240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255 used for research and experimentation purposes.

QUESTION 257

IPv4

ANSWER

10.x.x.x 192.168.x.x. 172.16.x.x.

QUESTION 258

IPv6

ANSWER

Protocol that operates instead of TCP in applications where delivery speed is important and quality can be sacrificed.

QUESTION 259

static IP address

ANSWER

internal networks use private IP addresses and share a public address.

QUESTION 260

ipconfig

ANSWER

by default.

QUESTION 261

ipconfig /all

ANSWER

invisible to the public internet.

QUESTION 262

Class D addresses

ANSWER

A network service that provides automatic assignment of IP addresses and other TCP /IP configuration information.

QUESTION 263

Class E addresses

ANSWER

A service available on computers running one of the Windows operating systems that automatically assigns the computer's network interface a link-local IP address. 169.264.0.0 ( CLASS B )

QUESTION 264

Three sets of private IP Address range

ANSWER

The IT director has asked you set up a computer to acquire an IP address from a newly configured DHCP server. Which is the best command to use?

QUESTION 265

loopback address

ANSWER

command releases any IP configurations received from DHCP server

QUESTION 266

NAT addresses

ANSWER

The Internet Protocol version 4 is the dominant protocol for routing traffic on the Internet, specifying "to" and "from" addresses using a dotted decimal such as "122.45.255.0".

QUESTION 267

All gateway routers are NAT enabled

ANSWER

The Internet Protocol version 6 provides a large number of new addresses to route Internet traffic, using "from" and "to" addresses written as colon-hexadecimal notation, such as "fe80::42:acff:feaa:1bf0".

QUESTION 268

Networks that use NAT are

ANSWER

A second IPv6 address that every system needs in order to get on the Internet.

QUESTION 269

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

ANSWER

Ports ranging from 1024 to 49151; accessible to network users and processes that do not have special administrative privileges.

QUESTION 270

ipconfig /renew

ANSWER

ports that are dynamically assigned to communication sessions as needed and are typically in the numerical range of 1024 to 65535

QUESTION 271

ipconfig /release

ANSWER

application.

QUESTION 272

global unicast address

ANSWER

A core protocol in the TCP/IP suite that notifies the sender that something has gone wrong in the transmission process and that packets were not delivered.

QUESTION 273

Well Known Ports

ANSWER

provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of a stream of packets on the internet. TCP is tightly linked with IP and usually seen as TCP/IP in writing.

QUESTION 274

Registered Ports

ANSWER

A generic term referring to the header defined by some layer of a networking model, and the data encapsulated by the header (and possibly trailer) of that layer, but specifically not including any lower-layer headers and trailers.

QUESTION 275

Dynamic Ports

ANSWER

A data packet that has been encoded on the Data Link layer for transmission from one node to another on an Ethernet network.

QUESTION 276

Port numbers get data to the correct

ANSWER

The IP portion of a TCP/IP frame that acts as an envelope for data, holding information necessary for routers to transfer data between subnets.

QUESTION 277

Resource monitor shows

ANSWER

Can display a variety of information about IP-based connections on a Windows or UNIX host.

QUESTION 278

UDP (User Datagram Protocol)

ANSWER

The Internet's system for converting alphabetic names into numeric IP addresses.

QUESTION 279

ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

ANSWER

A plaintext file configured on a client machine containing a list of IP addresses and their associated host names, which can be used for host name resolution as an alternative to DNS.

QUESTION 280

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

ANSWER

Displays information about DNS names and their corresponding IP addresses, and it can be used to diagnose DNS servers.

QUESTION 281

Protocol Data Unit (PDU)

ANSWER

Protocol that operates at the Session layer of the OSI seven-layer model. This protocol creates and manages connections based on the names of the computers involved.

QUESTION 282

Ethernet frame

ANSWER

The Active Directory service that manages the process that allows a user to sign on to a network from any computer on the network and get access to the resources that Active Directory allows.

QUESTION 283

IP packet

ANSWER

When all users on a network require the same access to all resources. more secure. ( replaced with workgroup )

QUESTION 284

netstat -n command

ANSWER

In Windows, a logical group of computers and users in which administration, resources, and security are distributed throughout the network, without centralized management or security.

QUESTION 285

DNS (Domain Name System)

ANSWER

A Microsoft developed protocol used to provide shared access to files printers and other network resources. It runs on port 445.

QUESTION 286

HOSTS file

ANSWER

command to find out which user is logged in.

QUESTION 287

nslookup command

ANSWER

A Windows server that has Active Directory installed and is responsible for allowing client computers access to domain resources.

QUESTION 288

NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System)

ANSWER

linux and macs to connect to windows networks.

QUESTION 289

Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)

ANSWER

A command that can display all kinds of important networking data and allows you to configure various networking options such as services.

QUESTION 290

Homegroup

ANSWER

Shows the computers on your immediate network, whether they operate as a workgroup or a domain.

QUESTION 291

Workgroup

ANSWER

shares folders or views shared folders.

QUESTION 292

Server Message Block (SMB)

ANSWER

accesses shared folders.

QUESTION 293

whoami command

ANSWER

creates and deletes user accounts.

QUESTION 294

Domain Controller

ANSWER

Data over Cable Service Interface Specification. The main link layer standard for transmitting data via a cable modem. Used by most vendors of HFC networks.

QUESTION 295

Samba comes with

ANSWER

The type of port on a router used to communicate with the router itself, such as when making programming changes to the device.

QUESTION 296

net command

ANSWER

ometimes used by routers for management and configuration purposes.

QUESTION 297

net view command

ANSWER

A small network that can comprise up to 10 nodes. DHCP range. 192.168.0.1.

QUESTION 298

net share command

ANSWER

generated automatically by software, is used to determine the best possible route for a packet

QUESTION 299

net use command

ANSWER

You need to configure DHCP to deliver a specific IP address to a specific network printer. What should you configure?

QUESTION 300

net user command

ANSWER

A security discipline that requires that a particular user, system, or application be given no more privilege than necessary to perform its function or job.

QUESTION 301

DOCIS

ANSWER

A list of addresses, ports, or applications that should be denied (blacklist) or allowed (whitelist) by a firewall, spam filter, or other software.

QUESTION 302

Console Port

ANSWER

A firewall capable only of examining packets individually. Stateless firewalls perform more quickly than stateful firewalls, but are not as sophisticated.

QUESTION 303

DB9 port

ANSWER

A flrewall that monitors communication paths and data flow on the network. Block on fixed criteria such as port number, time of day, URL, ect. Block based on actions taking place at that moment.

QUESTION 304

SOHO (Small office/home office)

ANSWER

SNMP Security concepts where agent may wish to give different access privileges to different managers.

QUESTION 305

routing table

ANSWER

A small section of a private network that is located between two firewalls and made available for public access.

QUESTION 306

DHCP reservation

ANSWER

defines what may or may not forward orfilter.

QUESTION 307

Principle of Least Privilege

ANSWER

A type of software firewall installed on a host and used to protect the host from network-based attacks. Protects systems using file names or process ID's.

QUESTION 308

Blacklist and Whitelist

ANSWER

Anti-malware software embedded in Windows 8 that can detect, prevent, and clean up a system infected with viruses and other malware. domain, public, private.

QUESTION 309

stateless firewall

ANSWER

A setting that when turned on allows a computer to see other computers on a network and to be seen by those other computers.

QUESTION 310

stateful firewall ( soho )

ANSWER

Preventing the passage of any IP packets through any ports other than the ones prescribed by the system administrator.

QUESTION 311

Access Policy

ANSWER

A DNS name-registering process whereby computers in the domain can register or update their own DNS records. gives DNS names to port forwarded devices.

QUESTION 312

DMZ (demilitarized zone)

ANSWER

NAT router opens incoming traffic on a certain port access to a single system on the internal network.

QUESTION 313

The Firewalls access contro list ( ACL ),

ANSWER

Policies that control how much bandwidth a protocol, PC, user, VLAN, or IP address may use. makes a game for example run faster.

QUESTION 314

host firewall

ANSWER

A set of protocols that enable networked devices to automatically discover each other's presence.

QUESTION 315

Windows Defender

ANSWER

A protocol used to monitor and manage network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers. How much bandwidth is going through.

QUESTION 316

Network Discovery

ANSWER

A protocol that identifies devices connected on the local area network and allows them to automatically exchange information.

QUESTION 317

Port Forwarding

ANSWER

Groups ports on a switch so that some of the local traffic on the switch is forced to go through a router

QUESTION 318

Dynamic DNS (DDNS)

ANSWER

Allows the network administrator to monitor, configure, and manage select network features

QUESTION 319

A port foward is when a

ANSWER

Disabling unused application/service ports to reduce the number of threat vectors.

QUESTION 320

Quality of Service (QoS)

ANSWER

check cables, patch cable connected to back of computer, check link lights, check ip addressing.

QUESTION 321

Universal Plug and Play (UPnP)

ANSWER

Ping Localhost, then move outward and use ipconfig/all.

QUESTION 322

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

ANSWER

DHCP requests are answered with bogus IP addresses from rogue server setup by an attacker

QUESTION 323

Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)

ANSWER

Check the system tray for broken LAN icons or messages. May be a problem with the switch or wireless access point

QUESTION 324

VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)

ANSWER

check processes for bandwidth usage. QoS.

QUESTION 325

Managed Switch

ANSWER

A wireless standard used to ensure compatibility between devices.

QUESTION 326

Port Security

ANSWER

A device that provides a connection between wireless devices and can connect to wired networks.

QUESTION 327

No connectivity

ANSWER

A wireless configuration that uses one or more WAPs to connect wireless workstations to the cable backbone. uses wireless access point.

QUESTION 328

Limited connectivity

ANSWER

A network name that wireless routers use to identify themselves.

QUESTION 329

Rogue DHCP Server Attack

ANSWER

no wireless access point. otherwise known as peer-to-peer mode, where each wireless node is in meshed contact with every other node.

QUESTION 330

intermittent connectivity

ANSWER

A directional antenna that has a planar surface and is usually mounted on a wall or column.

QUESTION 331

Slow transfer speeds

ANSWER

An antenna that sends a narrowly focused signal beam long distances.

QUESTION 332

IEEE 802.11

ANSWER

The band of radio frequencies associated with industrial, scientific, and medical devices.

QUESTION 333

infrastructure mode

ANSWER

11 Mbps, 2.4 GHz

QUESTION 334

Service Set Identifier (SSID)

ANSWER

54 Mbps, 2.4 GHz

QUESTION 335

ad hoc mode

ANSWER

100mbps, 2.4ghz 5ghz

QUESTION 336

Patch Antenna

ANSWER

A key encryption technique for wireless networks that uses keys both to authenticate network clients and to encrypt data in transit.

QUESTION 337

highly-directional antenna

ANSWER

A security protocol created by the IEEE 802.11i task group to replace WEP.

QUESTION 338

ISM band 2.4, 2.5ghz bands

ANSWER

also referred to as personal mode, is a type of WPA used on most home networks. All workstation has the same key to connect to the network.

QUESTION 339

802.11a

ANSWER

WiFi protected access strong authentication and data encryption replaced WEP

QUESTION 340

802.11b

ANSWER

A network that uses multiple access points to link a series of devices that speak to each other to form a network connection across a large area such as a SOHO environment.

QUESTION 341

802.11g ( backward compatible with 802.11b)

ANSWER

A device that adds power to an Ethernet cable so the cable can provide power to a device.

QUESTION 342

802.11n

ANSWER

An unauthorized Access point that allows an attacker to bypass many of the network security configurations and opens the network and its users to attacks.

QUESTION 343

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy)

ANSWER

an Access Point that requires users to agree to some condition before that can use the network / internet

QUESTION 344

TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) -WPA

ANSWER

power over internet poe.

QUESTION 345

PSK (pre-shared key) -WPA

ANSWER

RADIUS or TACACS + protocols for authentication.

QUESTION 346

WPA encryption

ANSWER

ESSID's.

QUESTION 347

Mesh Network

ANSWER

uses radio signals to communicate with a tag placed in or attached to an object

QUESTION 348

PoE injector

ANSWER

A set of standards primarily for smartphones and smart cards that can be used to establish communication between devices in close proximity.

QUESTION 349

Rogue AP

ANSWER

provides communication for devices owned by a single user that work over a short distance

QUESTION 350

Captive Portal

ANSWER

100 meters

QUESTION 351

Enterprise WAP's use

ANSWER

10 meters

QUESTION 352

Enterprise networks often use

ANSWER

1 meter

QUESTION 353

Two or more WAP's sharing the same SSID are known as

ANSWER

ssid or passcode may be changed. forget network profile, get new pass code.

QUESTION 354

RFID (radio frequency identification)

ANSWER

get closer to SSID. check antennas. ( must be pointing up on router / wap ) get closer.

QUESTION 355

Near Field Communication (NFC) or (RFID)

ANSWER

check for nearby interference.

QUESTION 356

Personal Area Network (PAN)

ANSWER

A network that solely purchases transit/peering from other networks to participate in the Internet. comcast, at & t. ect. no peering agreements. pay tier 1 or tier 2 providers.

QUESTION 357

Class 1 Bluetooth

ANSWER

A large computer network usually spanning a city

QUESTION 358

Class 2 Bluetooth

ANSWER

provides communication for bluetooth devices owned by a single user that work over a short distance

QUESTION 359

Class 3 Bluetooth

ANSWER

network ID.

QUESTION 360

No wireless connectivity in saved network

ANSWER

LAN's interconnected by one or more routers

QUESTION 361

low RF radio frequency signal

ANSWER

network that can connect to every part of the Internet without paying for access

QUESTION 362

Limited wireless connectivity / slow transfer speeds

ANSWER

carriers freely exchange traffic amongst themselves without paying access fees

QUESTION 363

intermittent wireless connectivity

ANSWER

A centralized location for techs and administrators to manage all aspects of a network.

QUESTION 364

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

ANSWER

providers that pay some tier 1s but also peer with tier 1 and tier 2.

QUESTION 365

LAN local area network computers share the same

ANSWER

Communications hardware device that facilitates the transmission of data.

QUESTION 366

a wide area network WAN is two or more

ANSWER

Connector type used with the LPT printer port and with the 25-pin serial port ( modem )

QUESTION 367

Tier 1 Network

ANSWER

56kbps limit . An inexpensive WAN option available to anyone with a phone line and a standard modem

QUESTION 368

peering agreements

ANSWER

A digital circuit switching technology that carries both voice and data.

QUESTION 369

Network Operations Center (NOC)

ANSWER

An Internet connection such as DSL or cable modem that offers higher bandwidth, and therefore faster transmission speed, than standard modem connections.

QUESTION 370

Tier 2 Network

ANSWER

A high-speed direct Internet connection that uses all-digital networks.

QUESTION 371

Tier 3 Network

ANSWER

A variation of DSL that provides equal throughput both upstream and downstream between the customer and the carrier.

QUESTION 372

Modems ( connect using phone # )

ANSWER

a protocol used to connect multiple network users on an Ethernet local area network to a remote site through a common device.

QUESTION 373

DB25 serial connection

ANSWER

A security technology used for filtering packets and maintaining customer privacy on cable Internet services

QUESTION 374

dail-up ( POTS )

ANSWER

ethernet for an isp

QUESTION 375

ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network)

ANSWER

remote locations

QUESTION 376

broadband connection

ANSWER

high speed.

QUESTION 377

Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)

ANSWER

firewalls.

QUESTION 378

symmetrical DSL

ANSWER

incoming vs outgoing concept.

QUESTION 379

PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet)

ANSWER

ports on the ports to which they listen.

QUESTION 380

DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service)

ANSWER

client and a server.

QUESTION 381

many metro areas provide native

ANSWER

TCP port 23. a remote command line tool. no security.

QUESTION 382

satellites are handy for

ANSWER

a remote command line tool for port 23.

QUESTION 383

broadband connections are

ANSWER

port 22. secure remote command line tool.

QUESTION 384

client and server networks use

ANSWER

TCP UDP 3389 . A protocol that allows for separate channels for carrying presentation data, serial device communication, licensing information, and highly encrypted data (keyboard, mouse activity).

QUESTION 385

firewalls block ports on an

ANSWER

an open source system designed to allow one workstation to remotely manipulate and receive screen updates from another workstation. for linux and mac.

QUESTION 386

servers must not block incoming

ANSWER

insecure TCP 80 Hypertext Transfer Protocol

QUESTION 387

all internet connections require a

ANSWER

Provided by a certification authority to ensure an online organisation is legitimate.

QUESTION 388

telnet

ANSWER

A Protocol developed by Netscape for securely transmitting documents over the Internet that uses a private key to encrypt data.

QUESTION 389

PuTTY

ANSWER

A certificate that lacks a third-party signature.

QUESTION 390

Secure Shell (SSH)

ANSWER

port 443. uses certs to make a secure connection.

QUESTION 391

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

ANSWER

A communications method for transferring data between computers on the Internet

QUESTION 392

VNC (Virtual Network Computing)

ANSWER

send email from a client to an e=mail server.

QUESTION 393

HTTP

ANSWER

pull email down from email server.

QUESTION 394

Website Certificate

ANSWER

IP addresses or DNS name for the different servers.

QUESTION 395

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

ANSWER

A form of network security that acts as a go-between a client and a server.

QUESTION 396

self-signed certificate

ANSWER

firewalling, check for malware, ban bad URL's.

QUESTION 397

HTTPS

ANSWER

a network that uses a public telecommunication infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide remote offices or individual users with secure access to their organization's network

QUESTION 398

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

ANSWER

The secure connection created between user's computer and a company's network.

QUESTION 399

Email uses Simple Mail Transfer Protocol SMTP to

ANSWER

vpn feature that allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection.

QUESTION 400

Use post office protocol v3 POP3 or internet message access protocol IMAP to

ANSWER

private connection to a remote network. needs IP address to connect.

QUESTION 401

setting up an email account requires knowledge of the

ANSWER

A form of wireless communications frequently used in security systems and heating and cooling control systems. 2.4ghz

QUESTION 402

proxy server

ANSWER

A short-range low-power network technology used for the Internet of Things. 900 mghz

QUESTION 403

proxy servers provide

ANSWER

the network of products embedded with connectivity-enabled electronics. 802.11, zigbee, z-wave. requires hub. google home, amazon alexa, apple siri / voice capabilities.

QUESTION 404

VPN (Virtual Private Network)

ANSWER

physical connections, check connectivity on windows/ linux / macos. know network id, router, and dns server. use IPCONFIG/ALL . run tracert command look for hops.

QUESTION 405

VPN Tunnel

ANSWER

It can check IP connectivity between two network devices. Multiple platforms (for example, routers, switches, and hosts) support the ping command.

QUESTION 406

split tunneling

ANSWER

the ipconfig /all command.

QUESTION 407

VPN's use the internet to create a

ANSWER

test internet connectivity before you have problems.

QUESTION 408

ZigBee

ANSWER

The illusion created by a timesharing system that each user has a dedicated machine

QUESTION 409

Z-Wave

ANSWER

running multiple systems simultaneously on one physical computer

QUESTION 410

Internet of Things (IoT)

ANSWER

Software that enables a single computer to run multiple operating systems simultaneously.

QUESTION 411

If you think there is a problem with network, check

ANSWER

runs directly on top of the hardware as an OS.

QUESTION 412

ping command

ANSWER

runs as an app in an OS.

QUESTION 413

You are troubleshooting a network connectivity problem on a Windows 7 Enterprise computer, and you need to view the MAC address for the NIC installed in the computer. Which command should you use?

ANSWER

A technique often used to conserve IP addresses by maps devices on a private network to single Internet-connected device that acts on their behalf.

QUESTION 414

run traceroute/tracert to

ANSWER

the practice of using a network of remote servers hosted on the Internet to store, manage, and process data, rather than a local server or a personal computer.

QUESTION 415

Virtual Machine

ANSWER

A cloud computing service that is capable of scaling up or down as a customer's need level changes.

QUESTION 416

Virtualization

ANSWER

Cloud computing services to multiple customers that are hosted on shared physical resources and dynamically allocated to meet customer demand.

QUESTION 417

Hypervisor

ANSWER

moves network tasks such as firewalls into the cloud.

QUESTION 418

Type 1 hypervisor

ANSWER

moves the machines into the cloud so you can concentrate on apps.

QUESTION 419

Type 2 hypervisor

ANSWER

moves apps to the cloud, such as google docs.

QUESTION 420

NAT (Network Address Translation)

ANSWER

owned and used only by a single organization.

QUESTION 421

Cloud Computing

ANSWER

are privately owned but are available for public use.

QUESTION 422

Rapid Elasticity

ANSWER

both private are public aspects.

QUESTION 423

Resource pooling

ANSWER

owned by multiple organizations for their own private use.

QUESTION 424

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

ANSWER

Internet service that provides storage to computer users

QUESTION 425

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

ANSWER

a storage service (sometimes referred to as an online backup service) that is frequently used for file sharing and collaboration

QUESTION 426

Software as a Service (SaaS)

ANSWER

access to synchronized saved files from any device.

QUESTION 427

Private clouds are

ANSWER

management to the cloud or email and more.

QUESTION 428

public clouds

ANSWER

consistent workspace in the cloud accessible from any device.

QUESTION 429

hybrid clouds have

ANSWER

access to apps without installing them locally.

QUESTION 430

community clouds are

ANSWER

special keys located at the top of the keyboard (F1, F2, F3, etc.) that are used alone or with the Ctrl, Alt, and Shift keys to execute software commands

QUESTION 431

cloud storage

ANSWER

allows the user to switch, or toggle, between two different modes

QUESTION 432

Dropbox

ANSWER

An external device that attaches to a mobile computer or device and contains a power connection and provides connections to peripheral devices. extend capabilities.

QUESTION 433

cloud storage enables

ANSWER

single, sealed unit. runs specific mobile OS. embedded system. fixed components. smartphones, tablets, wearable, gps.

QUESTION 434

cloud based applications move

ANSWER

An operating system that combines processors and software in a device.

QUESTION 435

PVirtual desktops provide a

ANSWER

A storage device with nonvolatile flash memory used for mobile devices.

QUESTION 436

virtual application streaming provides

ANSWER

A set of standards primarily for smartphones and smart cards that can be used to establish communication between devices in close proximity.

QUESTION 437

Function Keys (F Keys)

ANSWER

A line-of-sight wireless standard. It allows devices to transmit and receive data using LEDs and IR sensors, similarly to how TV remote controllers work.

QUESTION 438

toggle key

ANSWER

A computer-simulated environment that can be a simulation of the real world or an imaginary world

QUESTION 439

docking station / port replicator

ANSWER

the viewing of the physical world with computer-generated layers of information/ objects added to it

QUESTION 440

mobile devices

ANSWER

A protocol standard used by cellular WANs and cell phones.

QUESTION 441

Embedded System

ANSWER

An update to a mobile phones baseband OS which manages all wireless communication.

QUESTION 442

mini-SD

ANSWER

A list of prefered service providers or radio frequencies your carrier wants a mobile device to use and is stored on a Removable User Identity Module (R-UIM) card installed on the device.

QUESTION 443

mobile device

ANSWER

a 15-digit number used to uniquely identify a mobile device, typically a smartphone or other device that connects to a cellular network.

QUESTION 444

Near Field Communication (NFC)

ANSWER

A unique number that represents the actual user associated with a particular SIM card. The IMSI is usually available from the carrier, to ensure that stolen phones are not misused. The IMSI number can be used to unlock a phone as well

QUESTION 445

IR (infrared)

ANSWER

1. give it a name. 2. set up VPN. 3. know thje server IP address.

QUESTION 446

virtual reality

ANSWER

those that have not been verified and approved by the app service. While it's possible that an untrusted app could be entirely safe, it's just too risky to install one. In fact, most devices won't allow them to be installed by default. Software for mobile devices should be restricted to trusted app stores such as Google Play, the Microsoft Store, or Apple App Store.

QUESTION 447

augmented reality

ANSWER

those that have been reviewed and approved by the device's app service. When approved, the app is signed with a certificate that identifies it as a trusted app. For the most part, this means the app is safe to install and does not contain malicious code.

QUESTION 448

CDMA (Code Division Multiple Access)

ANSWER

SIM cards, GSM phones use SIM cards.

QUESTION 449

Baseband Update

ANSWER

IMEI defines the phone itself.

QUESTION 450

Preferred Roaming List (PRL)

ANSWER

VPN and backup software.

QUESTION 451

IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity)

ANSWER

The complete domain name of an Internet computer, such as www.CIWcertified.com.

QUESTION 452

IMSI (International Mobile Subscriber Identity)

ANSWER

encryption of extensions/ attachments.

QUESTION 453

VPN

ANSWER

a code that defines how keyboard characters are encoded into digital strings of ones and zeros

QUESTION 454

untrusted apps.

ANSWER

update two or more data stores so that their info is identical. location, ebooks, social media, apps.

QUESTION 455

trusted apps

ANSWER

desktops, automobiles, or to the cloud.

QUESTION 456

CDMA phones do not use

ANSWER

The practice of allowing users to use their own personal devices to connect to an organizational network.

QUESTION 457

IMSI defines critical SIM information and

ANSWER

Prevents someone from easily accessing the device and the data it contains

QUESTION 458

all mobile OSes have built in

ANSWER

the use of two or more types of authentication credentials in conjunction to achieve a greater level of security

QUESTION 459

fully qualified domain name (FQDN)

ANSWER

turn phone off. run anti-malware. change passwords. factory reset.

QUESTION 460

S/MIME Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

ANSWER

change passwords. factory reset.

QUESTION 461

ASCII code

ANSWER

ram overload, restart phone. too many apps.

QUESTION 462

synchronization means to

ANSWER

turn up brightness. turn off auto brightness.

QUESTION 463

we synchronize our devices to

ANSWER

needs to be on same wireless network. reassure you are broadcasting to correct monitor. check with manufacter.

QUESTION 464

BYOD (bring your own device)

ANSWER

check for bluetooth pairing to depair.

QUESTION 465

Screen Locks (Device Security)

ANSWER

may need site survey to check neighbors connection possibly interfering. check password.

QUESTION 466

multifactor authentication

ANSWER

A small hardware device or a program that monitors each keystroke a user types on the computer's keyboard. every button you press is being sent to someone else ex. (passwords )

QUESTION 467

Signal drop/weak signal ( security breach )

ANSWER

clear app caches. force stop. shut down phone, log back in. uninstall, reinstall app.

QUESTION 468

Unintended WiFi /bluetooth connections ( security breach )

ANSWER

running too many apps.

QUESTION 469

Inaccurate phone touch screen response

ANSWER

turn off gps, location, turn off real time apps possibly syncing.

QUESTION 470

dim phone display

ANSWER

find app causing problem.

QUESTION 471

cannot connect phone display to external monitor

ANSWER

factory reset, reinstall.

QUESTION 472

no sound from phone speakers.

ANSWER

a laser hits the photosensitive drum to create an image. same for copy machines.

QUESTION 473

no phone wireless connectivity/ intermittent

ANSWER

Object used to store the toner in a laser printer. (See also laser printer, toner.)

QUESTION 474

no bluetooth connectivity.

ANSWER

Aluminum cylinder coated with particles of photosensitive compounds. Used in a laser printer and often contained within the toner cartridge.

QUESTION 475

phone apps not loading/ app log errors

ANSWER

Wire set close to the photosensitive drum that imparts a high negative charge on the drum.

QUESTION 476

slow phone performance

ANSWER

A color mode that is optimized for printing purposes.

QUESTION 477

extremely short phone battery life

ANSWER

Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

QUESTION 478

frozen phone system or ( black screen of death )

ANSWER

Replace the toner cartridge.

QUESTION 479

phone system lockout

ANSWER

Replacement feed rollers, new fuser unit, etc. Based on the printer's page counter Reset the page counter when kit is installed

QUESTION 480

laser printer

ANSWER

Adjusting the alignment and accuracy of color and monochrome output.

QUESTION 481

toner cartridge

ANSWER

replacing the toner cartridge and applying maintenance kits.

QUESTION 482

laser printer photosensitive drum

ANSWER

A type of printer that uses a nonimpact process. Ink is squirted from nozzles as they pass over the media. Uses heat or mechanical to push ink through the print heads to the paper.

QUESTION 483

laser printer primary corona

ANSWER

The part in an inkjet or impact printer that moves across the paper, creating one line of the image with each pass.

QUESTION 484

CYMK (Cyan,Yellow, Magenta, Black)

ANSWER

A device that combines two or more devices, such as a printer, scanner, and fax machine. (12)

QUESTION 485

Laser Printer Process

ANSWER

clean heads, replace cartridges, calibrate, and clear jams.

QUESTION 486

Last month, you installed a laser printer in your organization. The printer has been working properly since it was installed. Recently, you noticed that the laser printer is printing blank documents with no text or images. What should you do first?

ANSWER

forms characters and graphics on a piece of paper by striking a mechanism against an inked ribbon that physically contacts the paper

QUESTION 487

Laser Printer Maintenance Kit

ANSWER

replace the ribbon / keeping it clean.

QUESTION 488

laser printer calibration

ANSWER

The part in an inkjet or impact printer that moves across the paper, creating one line of the image with each pass.

QUESTION 489

laser printer maintenance

ANSWER

paper with holes on their sides that are engaged by meta sprockets to pull the paper through

QUESTION 490

inkjet printer

ANSWER

Paper used by impact printers and comes as a box of fanfold paper or in rolls (used with receipt printers).

QUESTION 491

print head

ANSWER

an ink ribbon to write to paper.

QUESTION 492

multifunction device (MFD)

ANSWER

useful for printing on multipart forms.

QUESTION 493

Inkjet Printer Maintenance

ANSWER

use heat elements to produce images on heat-sensitive paper and are used at ATMs and gasoline pumps. Can print to multipart ( thermal ) forms.

QUESTION 494

impact printer / .matrix

ANSWER

feed assembly and heating element.

QUESTION 495

Impact Printer Maintenance

ANSWER

frequent paper changes, keeping the heating element clean.

QUESTION 496

Tractor-Feed Paper

ANSWER

A program that helps coordinate all print jobs being sent to the printer at the same time.

QUESTION 497

impact printers use impact paper which is

ANSWER

Organizing printing job

QUESTION 498

impact printers strike

ANSWER

able to print on both sides of the paper.

QUESTION 499

impact printers are

ANSWER

not enough permissions.

QUESTION 500

Thermal printers

ANSWER

The print software either sends the job to a file or transmits the information to a remote destination in the cloud for printing.

QUESTION 501

A thermal printer has the following components

ANSWER

connecting to workstation via USB or serial.

QUESTION 502

Thermal Printer Maintenance

ANSWER

map the printer. cmd net use lpt1: \\desktop-5fp1527\brother/presistent:yes

QUESTION 503

point of sale systems use

ANSWER

requires sharing enabled and a sharename.

QUESTION 504

printer spooler

ANSWER

local control over the print spooler.

QUESTION 505

Collate Printing

ANSWER

add a printer but select the shared printer rather than a local printer.

QUESTION 506

duplex print

ANSWER

A set of standards used for automatically configuring and allocating IP address on Ethernet as well as wireless networks.

QUESTION 507

cannot pause printing jobs

ANSWER

A technology by Apple that allows Apple computers and mobile devices to print to an AirPrint-capable printer without first installing the printer.

QUESTION 508

Virtual Printer

ANSWER

Printing to a printer anywhere on the Internet from a personal computer or mobile device connected to the Internet.

QUESTION 509

Installing a local printer means

ANSWER

an ethernet NIC and plugs in directly to the network.

QUESTION 510

A user is unable to find the preferred default network printer in the printers list in the user profile. Which is the FIRST step that should be taken?

ANSWER

configuration to get on an 802.11 network.

QUESTION 511

sharing a local printer over a network

ANSWER

help troubleshoot any connectivity issues.

QUESTION 512

security options enable

ANSWER

mobile devices to print to a printer associated with an online account, such as a google account.

QUESTION 513

to connect to a shared printer,

ANSWER

you don't have rights to install printer.

QUESTION 514

Zeroconf (Zero Configuration Networking)

ANSWER

are you physiqually connected? is it getting good DCHP ? are others able to connect to it. most of the time its a network issue and nothing to do with printer itself.

QUESTION 515

AirPrint

ANSWER

is it turned on ? is the printer in sleep mode ? has an admin mode locked out ? possible bad display.

QUESTION 516

cloud printing

ANSWER

must have permission

QUESTION 517

a wired network printer has

ANSWER

need maintenance kit.

QUESTION 518

a wireless network printer requires

ANSWER

Problems caused by attempting to print a document that will not fit in the laser printer's onboard ram. buy more ram.

QUESTION 519

wireless print utilities can

ANSWER

discard toner cartride replace.

QUESTION 520

cloud printing enables

ANSWER

bad drivers, corrupted drivers. hard reset printer.

QUESTION 521

unable to install printer

ANSWER

This is usually the result of a dirty print head. Clean the print head first. If the problem persists, replace the toner cartridge or ink cartridge. Calibrating the cartridge may also help.

QUESTION 522

no connectivity with printer

ANSWER

printer is out of ink or toner. It can also be caused by clog print nozzles in an ink jet printer. For a laser printer, the toner cartridge has sealant tape over the toner dispenser. If this tape is not removed, pages will be blank.

QUESTION 523

no image on printer display

ANSWER

-Clean print heads (Inkjet) -Check drum (Laser)

QUESTION 524

printer access denied

ANSWER

• Low toner and low ink • Poor quality toner or ink

QUESTION 525

printer paper jam/ paper not feeding

ANSWER

Print shows ghost or "shadow" from previous drum rotation . The laser printer optical drum may not be cleaning properly. replace toner.

QUESTION 526

printer low memory errors

ANSWER

replace toner.

QUESTION 527

vertical lines on page for laser printer

ANSWER

maintenance kit.

QUESTION 528

Garbled characters on paper

ANSWER

cable connections, print server disabled, device drivers lacking, wireless configuration problems.

QUESTION 529

Color prints in wrong print color

ANSWER

no display, paper jams, insufficient memory, corrupted drivers.

QUESTION 530

Printing blank pages

ANSWER

requires preheating the various print elements, such as the filament, extruder, and bed. uses specialized software to create 3d image. melts material such as forms of plastic.

QUESTION 531

Printer Streaks and Blurs

ANSWER

-Protects every server, workstation, or laptop -Enables system administrators to have complete visibility to what is happening on their networks though pre-defined reports -System admins easy, centralized management of system security tools though a console -provides a common tool suite that can be used throughout DoD enabling synergy in training, equipment, and processess

QUESTION 532

Faded prints

ANSWER

A hacker placing himself between a client and a host to intercept network traffic; also called session hijacking.

QUESTION 533

ghost images printing on paper

ANSWER

A situation in which one person or program successfully masquerades as another by falsifying data and thereby gaining an illegitimate advantage.

QUESTION 534

toner not fused to printer

ANSWER

a cyber attack in which an attacker sends a flood of data packets to the target computer, with the aim of overloading its resources

QUESTION 535

creased printer paper

ANSWER

An attack that uses multiple zombie computers (even hundreds or thousands) in a botnet to flood a device with requests.

QUESTION 536

lack of printer connectivity can refer to

ANSWER

Attack between the time a software vulnerability is discovered and a patch to fix the problem is released.

QUESTION 537

physical print problems can manifest as

ANSWER

Renamed system files, files disappearing, file permission changes, and more.

QUESTION 538

3D printing

ANSWER

host and network based security, and physical security.

QUESTION 539

Host Based Security System

ANSWER

A piece of software running on a single host that can restrict incoming and outgoing network activity for that host only.

QUESTION 540

Man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack

ANSWER

a computer program that senses when another computer is attempting to scan or access a computer or network

QUESTION 541

Spoofing Attack

ANSWER

A technology that monitors activity like an IDS but will automatically take proactive preventative action if it detects unacceptable activity.

QUESTION 542

denial of service attack

ANSWER

An end user's host becomes infected with a virus because the end user browsed to a malicious website. Which endpoint security technology can be used to best prevent such an incident?

QUESTION 543

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

ANSWER

A firewall or gateway that attempts to bundle multiple security functions into a single physical or logical device.

QUESTION 544

zero-day attack

ANSWER

patching, anti malware, and a firewall.

QUESTION 545

symptoms of attacks

ANSWER

IDS intrusion detection system, IPS intrusion prevention system, and firewalls.

QUESTION 546

the term "security" encompasses

ANSWER

IDS/IPS, firewalls, anti malware, available on the cloud.

QUESTION 547

host-based firewall

ANSWER

A physical enclosure for verifying identity before entry to a facility

QUESTION 548

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

ANSWER

A list of people allowed into a restricted area and a log of any approved visitors that is used and maintained by security guards.

QUESTION 549

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

ANSWER

A machine that reads employee badges and records the time

QUESTION 550

endpoint malware protection

ANSWER

uses radio signals to communicate with a tag placed in or attached to an object

QUESTION 551

Unified Threat Management (UTM)

ANSWER

A lock that reads a unique biological attribute such as a fingerprint, iris, retina, or palm and then uses that input as a key.

QUESTION 552

host based security includes

ANSWER

A device that can be inserted into the security slot of a portable device and rotated so that the cable lock is secured to the device to prevent it from being stolen.

QUESTION 553

network based security includes

ANSWER

- A cover that prevents onlookers from peeking at the information on your screen.

QUESTION 554

Unified threat management UTM includes

ANSWER

A device held by a user that displays a number or a password that changes frequently, such as every 60 seconds. The number is synchronized with a server and used as a onetime password.

QUESTION 555

Mantrap (Double Door System)

ANSWER

perimeter security, room locks, and individual server locks, usb locks, and screen filters.

QUESTION 556

entry control roster

ANSWER

locks, badges, smart cards, and biometric readers.

QUESTION 557

Badge reader

ANSWER

a unique number derived from encoding one or more data sets, such as names, serial numbers, and validation codes

QUESTION 558

biometric lock

ANSWER

A password attack that creates encrypted versions of common dictionary words and compares them against those in a stolen password file.

QUESTION 559

cable lock

ANSWER

attempts to discover the password from the hash using databases of precomputed hashes; countermeasure is salting

QUESTION 560

privacy screen

ANSWER

For computers needing an extra layer of security, a password can be set in the BIOS or UEFI to force

QUESTION 561

Hardware Token

ANSWER

the use of two or more types of authentication credentials in conjunction to achieve a greater level of security

QUESTION 562

Physical security includes

ANSWER

A piece of code that is capable of copying itself and typically has a detrimental effect, such as corrupting the system or destroying data

QUESTION 563

room-level security

ANSWER

A destructive computer program that bores its way through a computer's files or through a computer's network.

QUESTION 564

hash value

ANSWER

a program that appears desirable but actually contains something harmful

QUESTION 565

brute force attack

ANSWER

program that hides in a computer and allows someone from a remote location to take full control of the computer

QUESTION 566

dictionary attack

ANSWER

Software that encrypts programs and data or entire systems until a ransom is paid to remove it.

QUESTION 567

Rainbow Table Attack

ANSWER

usually begins with a virus warning to call a number or an offer to disinfect the infected device.

QUESTION 568

BIOS/UEFI passwords

ANSWER

A logical computer network of zombies under the control of an attacker.

QUESTION 569

Virus

ANSWER

software that enables a user to obtain covert information about another's computer activities by transmitting data covertly from their hard drive.

QUESTION 570

worm

ANSWER

slow performance. page changes to a different website. popups. browser redirection. security alerts. app crashes. OS update failure. spam. hijacked email. automated replies. invalid website certificates.

QUESTION 571

Trojan Horse

ANSWER

Command-line interface boot mode for Windows that is used to repair a Windows XP system suffering from massive OS corruption or other problems.

QUESTION 572

Rootkit

ANSWER

a program that runs on a computer to allow or deny traffic between the computer and other computers to which it is connected

QUESTION 573

Ransomware

ANSWER

1. identify and research malware symptoms. 2. quarantine the infected systems. 3. disable system restore. 4. re mediate the infected systems. 4a. update the anti malware software. 4b. scan process. 5. educate end user.

QUESTION 574

rogue antivirus

ANSWER

good backups, end user education, and firewalls.

QUESTION 575

Botnet

ANSWER

a trusted third party site and encryption.

QUESTION 576

Keylogger

ANSWER

An attack that sends an email or displays a Web announcement that falsely claims to be from a legitimate enterprise in an attempt to trick the user into surrendering private information

QUESTION 577

Spyware

ANSWER

a phishing expedition in which the emails are carefully designed to target a particular person or organization

QUESTION 578

Symptoms of Malware

ANSWER

bad people to use info from people inside to gain access to sensitive info such as phone scams, tailgating, shoulder surfing, and dumpster diving.

QUESTION 579

Recovery Console

ANSWER

A legal contract between the author of software and the end user that defines how the software can be used. describes what users can do with licensed software.

QUESTION 580

software firewall

ANSWER

various technologies or security codes used to protect copyrighted works from being illegally copied. controls what users can do with some content.

QUESTION 581

malware 7 step process

ANSWER

A copyright licence that allows the user to modify the source code.

QUESTION 582

prepare for malware attacks with

ANSWER

producers can retain all rights.

QUESTION 583

use secure DNS options, such as

ANSWER

A policy that specifies polices about creating open-source software, including that source code has to be made available to all users and developers.

QUESTION 584

Phishing

ANSWER

A license to use software that gives the right to install one instance of the software.

QUESTION 585

spear phishing

ANSWER

A type of software license that is usually negotiated and covers all users within an organization. Also known as a "volume license."

QUESTION 586

social engineering enables

ANSWER

The initial response to a computer-related event that seeks to verify an incident, triage the incident, and gather necessary evidence while minimizing data and evidence loss.

QUESTION 587

End User License Agreement (EULA)

ANSWER

1. know your responsibility. 2. identify the problem, report through proper channels, data / device preservation. use of documentation. document changes. 3. keep chain of custody, tracking evidence, document process.

QUESTION 588

Digital Rights Management (DRM)

ANSWER

Provides communication to workers regarding chemicals used in the office

QUESTION 589

Open Source Licensing

ANSWER

temp and humidity levels, proper ventilation, surge supressors and UPS backup devices. clean systems with compressed air and specialized vacuums.

QUESTION 590

Commercial License

ANSWER

refers to the layout of the computers and devices in a communications network

QUESTION 591

GNU General Public License

ANSWER

A graphical representation of a circuit; each type of gate has its own symbol

QUESTION 592

personal license

ANSWER

floor plan of cable runs, distribution frame ect.

QUESTION 593

enterprise license

ANSWER

a body of knowledge in a particular area that makes it easier to master new information in that area. ex. Microsoft knowledge base.

QUESTION 594

Incident Response

ANSWER

the guidelines and goals set for different entertainment industries

QUESTION 595

MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)

ANSWER

the most successful solutions or problem-solving methods that have been developed by a specific organization or industry

QUESTION 596

For computer safely and optimization, check

ANSWER

Requires a user to agree to follow it to be provided access to corporate email, information systems, and the Internet

QUESTION 597

network topology

ANSWER

Ensures that users create strong passwords and change them periodically

QUESTION 598

logical diagram topology

ANSWER

the name, postal address, or any other information that allows tracking down the specific person who owns a device

QUESTION 599

Physical Diagram topology

ANSWER

Individually identifiable health information that is transmitted or maintained by electronic media.

QUESTION 600

knowledge base

ANSWER

this law governs how information should be handled, protected, and accessed in the European Union. It provides a one-stop-shop for data practices in the EU

QUESTION 601

Regulatory Compliance

ANSWER

A set of security standards that all U.S. companies processing, storing, or transmitting credit card information must follow.

QUESTION 602

Industry Standards

ANSWER

Process of making sure changes are made smoothly and efficiently and do not negatively affect systems reliability, security, confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

QUESTION 603

best practices

ANSWER

An initial reflection that identifies the possible risks of entering a business, performed before the business plan is completed.

QUESTION 604

Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

ANSWER

The policies and procedures that a company or organisation has in place so it can carry on with normal business after a disaster, such as a major ICT failure, a fire etc

QUESTION 605

Password Policy

ANSWER

The combination of procedures that can restore lost data in the event of hardware or software failure

QUESTION 606

Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

ANSWER

Makes a copy of the virtual disk and configuration associated with a particular VM. Backup is saved as a singled entity called as a VM Image. Also supports file-level recovery.

QUESTION 607

Protected Health Information (PHI)

ANSWER

Type of desktop monitor that contains a cathode-ray tube.

QUESTION 608

EU General Data Protection Regulation

ANSWER

A process (usually performed at the factory) that electronically creates the hard drive tracks and sectors and tests for bad spots on the disk surface.

QUESTION 609

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard

ANSWER

A technique used to eradicate personal or corporate data from a hard drive before donating or re-using a computer. Sometimes called overwriting.

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