IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Cissp Exam Answers

248 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

*baseline

ANSWER

NIST SP 800-53 discusses security control baselines as a list of security controls. CIS releases security baselines, and a baseline is a useful part of a threat management strategy and may contain a list of acceptable configuration items.

QUESTION 2

*Content Distribution Network (CDN)

ANSWER

is designed to provide reliable, low-latency, geographically distributed content distribution. In this scenario, a CDN is an ideal solution. A P2P CDN like BitTorrent isn't a typical choice for a commercial entity, whereas redundant servers or a hot site can provide high availability but won't provide the remaining requirements.

QUESTION 3

Blocking read commands sent to the device

ANSWER

A forensic disk controller performs four functions. One of those, write blocking, intercepts write commands sent to the device and prevents them from modifying data on the device. The other three functions include returning data requested by a read operation, returning access-significant information from the device, and reporting errors from the device back to the forensic host. The controller should not prevent read commands from being sent to the device because those commands may return crucial information.

QUESTION 4

RAID 1

ANSWER

Disk mirroring, requires two physical disks that will contain copies of the same data.

QUESTION 5

TGS, or Ticket-Granting Service (which is usually on the same server as the KDC)

ANSWER

receives a TGT from the client. It validates the TGT and the user's rights to access the service they are requesting to use. The TGS then issues a ticket and session keys to the client. The AS serves as the authentication server, which forwards the username to the KDC.

QUESTION 6

*Asynchronous

ANSWER

X communications rely on a a built-in stop and start flag or bit. This makes asynchronous communications less efficient than synchronous communications, but better suited to some types of communication.

QUESTION 7

*Wave pattern

ANSWER

X motion detectors transmit ultrasonic or microwave signals into the monitor area, watching for changes in the returned signals bouncing off objects.

QUESTION 8

A stateful packet inspection firewall

ANSWER

X, also known as dynamic packet filtering firewalls, track the state of a conversation, and can allow a response from a remote system based on an internal system being allowed to start the communication. Static packet filtering and circuit level gateways only filter based on source, destination, and ports, whereas application-level gateway firewalls proxy traffic for specific applications.

QUESTION 9

A captive portal

ANSWER

X can require those who want to connect to and use Wi-Fi to provide an email address to connect. This allows Ben to provide easy-to-use wireless while meeting his business purposes. WPA2 PSK is the preshared key mode of WPA and won't provide information about users who are given a key. Sharing a password doesn't allow for data gathering either. Port security is designed to protect wired network ports based on MAC addresses.

QUESTION 10

*Set up a separate SSID using WPA2.

ANSWER

Many modern wireless routers can provide multiple SSIDs. Ben can create a private, secure network for his business operations, but he will need to make sure that the customer and business networks are firewalled or otherwise logically separated from each other. Running WPA2 on the same SSID isn't possible without creating another wireless network and would cause confusion for customers (SSIDs aren't required to be unique). Running a network in Enterprise mode isn't used for open networks, and WEP is outdated and incredibly vulnerable.

QUESTION 11

Open networks are unencrypted, making traffic easily sniffable.

ANSWER

Unencrypted open networks broadcast traffic in the clear. This means that unencrypted sessions to websites can be easily captured with a packet sniffer. Some tools like FireSheep have been specifically designed to capture sessions from popular websites. Fortunately, many now use TLS by default, but other sites still send user session information in the clear. Shared passwords are not the cause of the vulnerability, ARP spoofing isn't an issue with wireless networks, and a Trojan is designed to look like safe software, not to compromise a router.

QUESTION 12

*AES

ANSWER

The DES modes of operation are Electronic Codebook (ECB), Cipher Block Chaining (CBC), Cipher Feedback (CFB), Output Feedback (OFB), and Counter (CTR). The Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a separate encryption algorithm.

QUESTION 13

Clipping

ANSWER

X is an analysis technique that only reports alerts after they exceed a set threshold. It is a specific form of sampling, which is a more general term that describes any attempt to excerpt records for review. Thresholding is not a commonly used term. Administrators may choose to configure automatic or manual account lockout after failed login attempts but that is not described in the scenario.

QUESTION 14

RADIUS

ANSWER

X is a common AAA technology used to provide services for dial-up, wireless networks, network devices, and a range of other systems. OAuth is an authentication protocol used to allow applications to act on a user's behalf without sharing the password, and is used for many web applications. While both XTACACS and TACACS+ provide the functionality Sally is looking for, both are Cisco proprietary protocols.

QUESTION 15

Inference

ANSWER

In an X attack, the attacker uses several pieces of generic nonsensitive information to determine a specific sensitive value.

QUESTION 16

*Take rule

ANSWER

The X allows a subject to take the rights belonging to another object. If Alice has take rights on Bob, she can give herself the same permissions that Bob already possesses.

QUESTION 17

A brute-force attack

ANSWER

X attacks try every possible password. In this attack, the password is changing by one letter at each attempt, which indicates that it is a brute-force attack. A dictionary attack would use dictionary words for the attack, whereas a man-in-the-middle or pass-the-hash attack would most likely not be visible in an authentication log except as a successful login.

QUESTION 18

*Isolation

ANSWER

X requires that transactions operate separately from each other. Atomicity ensures that if any part of a database transaction fails, the entire transaction must be rolled back as if it never occurred. Consistency ensures that all transactions are consistent with the logical rules of the database, such as having a primary key. Durability requires that once a transaction is committed to the database it must be preserved.

QUESTION 19

*Worm

ANSWER

X have built-in propagation mechanisms that do not require user interaction, such as scanning for systems containing known vulnerabilities and then exploiting those vulnerabilities to gain access. Viruses and Trojan horses typically require user interaction to spread. Logic bombs do not spread from system to system but lie in wait until certain conditions are met, triggering the delivery of their payload.

QUESTION 20

*Teardrop

ANSWER

In a X attack, the attacker fragments traffic in such a way that the system is unable to reassemble them. Modern systems are not vulnerable to this attack if they run current operating systems, but the concept of this attack illustrates the danger of relying upon users following protocol specifications instead of performing proper exception handling.

QUESTION 21

SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

ANSWER

The TCP three-way handshake consists of initial contact via a SYN, or synchronize flagged packet, which receives a response with a SYN/ACK, or synchronize and acknowledge flagged packet, which is acknowledged by the original sender with an ACK, or acknowledge packet. RST is used in TCP to reset a connection, PSH is used to send data immediately, and FIN is used to end a connection.

QUESTION 22

*Assuming control of a nonregistered BYOD mobile device

ANSWER

MDM products do not have the capability of assuming control of a device not currently managed by the organization. This would be equivalent to hacking into a device owned by someone else and might constitute a crime.

QUESTION 23

Identity as a Service

ANSWER

X provides an identity platform as a third-party service. This can provide benefits, including integration with cloud services and removing overhead for maintenance of traditional on-premise identity systems, but can also create risk due to third-party control of identity services and reliance on an offsite identity infrastructure.

QUESTION 24

*Advance and protect the profession

ANSWER

Gina's actions harm the CISSP certification and information security community by undermining the integrity of the examination process. While Gina also is acting dishonestly, the harm to the profession is more of a direct violation of the code of ethics

QUESTION 25

ALE

ANSWER

The annualized loss expectancy is the amount of damage that the organization expects to occur each year as the result of a given risk.

QUESTION 26

Whitelisting

ANSWER

The X approach to application control allows users to install only those software packages specifically approved by administrators.. This would be an appropriate approach in a scenario where application installation needs to be tightly controlled.

QUESTION 27

Denial of service

ANSWER

This is a clear example of a X attack—denying legitimate users authorized access to the system through the use of overwhelming traffic. It goes beyond a reconnaissance attack because the attacker is affecting the system, but it is not a compromise because the attacker did not attempt to gain access to the system. There is no reason to believe that a malicious insider was involved.

QUESTION 28

Company ID

ANSWER

The X is likely unique for each row in the table, making it the best choice for a primary key. There may be multiple companies that share the same name or ZIP code. Similarly, a single sales representative likely serves more than one company, making those fields unsuitable for use as a unique identifier.

QUESTION 29

PII Personally Identifiable Information

ANSWER

X includes data that can be used to distinguish or trace that person's identity, and also includes information like their medical, educational, financial, and employment information. PHI is personal health information, EDI is electronic data interchange, and proprietary data is used to maintain an organization's competitive advantage.

QUESTION 30

129.53.44.124

ANSWER

129.53.44.124 is a valid public IP address and a legitimate destination for traffic leaving Bob's network. 12.8.195.15 is a public address on Bob's network and should not be a destination address on a packet leaving the network. 10.8.15.9 and 192.168.109.55 are both private IP addresses that should not be routed to the Internet.

QUESTION 31

*64

ANSWER

Binary keyspaces contain a number of keys equal to 2 raised to the power of the number of bits. Two to the sixth power is 64, so a 6-bit keyspace contains 64 possible keys. The number of viable keys is usually smaller in most algorithms due to the presence of parity bits and other algorithmic overhead or security issues that restrict the use of some key values.

QUESTION 32

*The built-in erase commands are not completely effective on some SSDs.

ANSWER

Research has shown that traditional methods of sanitizing files on SSDs were not reliable. SSDs remap data sectors as part of wear leveling, and erase commands are not consistently effective across multiple SSD brands. Zero fills can be performed on SSDs but may not be effective, much like erase commands. Degaussing doesn't work on SSDs because they are flash media, rather than magnetic media. SSDs don't have data remanence issues, but that doesn't create the need to destroy them.

QUESTION 33

Encrypting the files

ANSWER

Encrypting the files reduces the probability that the data will be successfully stolen, so it is an example of risk mitigation. Deleting the files would be risk avoidance. Purchasing insurance would be risk transference. Taking no action would be risk acceptance.

QUESTION 34

Sampling should be conducted randomly.

ANSWER

X to avoid human bias. Choosing a timeframe may miss historic issues or only account for the current administrator's processes. Sampling is an effective process if it is done on a truly random sample of sufficient size to provide effective coverage of the userbase.

QUESTION 35

*Notice, choice, onward transfer, security, data integrity, access, enforcement

ANSWER

The European Data Protection Directive's seven primary tenets are Notice Choice Onward transfer Security Data integrity Access Enforcement

QUESTION 36

White box

ANSWER

In a X test, the attacker has access to full implementation details of the system, including source code, prior to beginning the test. In gray-box testing, the attacker has partial knowledge. In black-box testing, the attacker has no knowledge of the system and tests it from a user perspective. Blue boxes are a phone hacking tool and are not used in software testing.

QUESTION 37

*Application log

ANSWER

The file clearly shows HTTP requests, as evidenced by the many GET commands. Therefore, this is an example of an application log from an HTTP server.

QUESTION 38

*A blue box

ANSWER

A blue box was used to generate the 2600 Hz tones that trunking systems required. White boxes included a dual-tone, multifrequency generator to control phone systems. Black boxes were designed to steal long-distance service by manipulating line voltages, and red boxes simulated the tones of coins being deposited into payphones.

QUESTION 39

Social engineering

ANSWER

X exploits humans to allow attacks to succeed. Since help desk employees are specifically tasked with being helpful, they may be targeted by attackers posing as legitimate employees. Trojans are a type of malware, whereas phishing is a targeted attack via electronic communication methods intended to capture passwords or other sensitive data. Whaling is a type of phishing aimed at high-profile or important targets.

QUESTION 40

*Out-of-band identity proofing

ANSWER

Identity proofing that relies on a type of verification outside of the initial environment that required the verification is out-of-band identity proofing. This type of verification relies on the owner of the phone or phone number having control of it but removes the ability for attackers to use only Internet-based resources to compromise an account. Knowledge-based authentication relies on answers to preselected information, whereas dynamic knowledge-based authentication builds questions using facts or data about the user. Risk-based identity proofing uses risk-based metrics to determine whether identities should be permitted or denied access. It is used to limit fraud in financial transactions, such as credit card purchases. This is a valid form of proofing but does not ne-cessairly use an out-of-band channel, such as SMS.

QUESTION 41

*MOD

ANSWER

The modulo function is the remainder value left over after an integer division operation takes place.

QUESTION 42

Hybrid

ANSWER

A X authentication service can provide authentication services in both the cloud and on-premise, ensuring that service outages due to interrupted links are minimized. An onsite service would continue to work during an Internet outage but would not allow the e-commerce website to authenticate. A cloud service would leave the corporate location offline. Outsourcing authentication does not indicate whether the solution is on or off-premise, and thus isn't a useful answer.

QUESTION 43

Federation

ANSWER

X links identity information between multiple organizations. Federating with a business partner can allow identification and authorization to occur between them, making integration much easier. Single sign-on would reduce the number of times a user has to log in but will not facilitate the sharing of identity information. Multifactor can help secure authentication, but again, doesn't help integrate with a third party. Finally, an Identity as a Service provider might provide federation but doesn't guarantee it.

QUESTION 44

SAML Security Assertion Markup Language

ANSWER

X is frequently used to integrate cloud services and provides the ability to make authentication and authorization assertions. Active Directory integrations are possible but are less common for cloud service providers, and RADIUS is not typically used for integrations like this. Service Provisioning Markup Language (SPML) is used to provision users, resources, and services, not for authentication and authorization.

QUESTION 45

*Salting

ANSWER

Rainbow tables use precomputed password hashes to conduct cracking attacks against password files. They may be frustrated by the use of salting, which adds a specified value to the password prior to hashing, making it much more difficult to perform precomputation. Password expiration policies, password complexity policies, and user education may all contribute to password security, but they are not direct defenses against the use of rainbow tables.

QUESTION 46

Honeypot

ANSWER

A X is a decoy computer system used to bait intruders into attacking. A honeynet is a network of multiple honeypots that creates a more sophisticated environment for intruders to explore. A pseudoflaw is a false vulnerability in a system that may attract an attacker. A darknet is a segment of unused network address space that should have no network activity and, therefore, may be easily used to monitor for illicit activity.

QUESTION 47

CER

ANSWER

X is the point where both the false acceptance rate and the false rejection rate cross. CER and ERR, or equal error rate, mean the same thing and are used interchangeably.

QUESTION 48

Type 2

ANSWER

A X is something you have, like a smartcard or hardware token. A type 1 authentication factor is something you know. A type 3 authentication factor is something you are, like a biometric identifier. There is no such thing as a type 4 authentication factor.

QUESTION 49

Steganography

ANSWER

X is the art of using cryptographic techniques to embed secret messages within other content. Steganographic algorithms work by making invisible alterations to files, such as modifying the least significant bits of the many bits that make up image files. VPNs may be used to obscure secret communications, but they provide protection in transit and can't be used to embed information in an image. Watermarking does embed information in an image but with the intent of protecting intellectual property. A still image would not be used for a covert timing channel because it is a fixed file.

QUESTION 50

JavaScript

ANSWER

X is an interpreted language so the code is not compiled prior to execution, allowing Roger to inspect the contents of the code. C, C++, and Java are all compiled languages—a compiler produces an executable file that is not human-readable.

QUESTION 51

x

ANSWER

When a system is configured to use shadowed passwords, the /etc/passwd file contains only the character x in the place of a password. It would not contain any passwords, in either plain-text, encrypted, or hashed form.

QUESTION 52

ICMP Internet Control Message Protocol

ANSWER

X is used for normal pings, as well as Pings of Death. Ping of Death describes attacks that were used to overflow poorly implemented ICMP handlers; smurf attacks, which spoof broadcast pings to create huge amounts of traffic on a network; and ping floods, which are a type of denial-of-service attack.

QUESTION 53

*Due diligence

ANSWER

The due care principle states that an individual should react in a situation using the same level of care that would be expected from any reasonable person. It is a very broad standard. The due diligence principle is a more specific component of due care that states an individual assigned a responsibility should exercise due care to complete it accurately and in a timely manner.

QUESTION 54

Broadband

ANSWER

ISDN, cable modems, DSL, and T1 and T3 lines are all examples of broadband technology that can support multiple simultaneous signals. They are analog, not digital, and are not broadcast technologies.

QUESTION 55

Social engineering 2

ANSWER

Social engineering is the best answer, as it can be useful to penetration testers who are asked to assess whether staff members are applying security training and have absorbed the awareness messages the organization uses. Port and vulnerability scanning find technical issues that may be related to awareness or training issues but that are less likely to be directly related. Discovery can involve port scanning or other data-gathering efforts, but is also less likely to be directly related to training and awareness.

QUESTION 56

Raid Level 5

ANSWER

X is also known as disk striping with parity. It uses three or more disks, with one disk containing parity information used to restore data to another disk in the event of failure. When used with three disks, RAID 5 is able to withstand the loss of a single disk.

QUESTION 57

Physical

ANSWER

The Physical layer deals with the electrical impulses or optical pulses that are sent as bits to convey data.

QUESTION 58

Maintaining the hypervisor

ANSWER

In an IaaS server environment, the customer retains responsibility for most server security operations under the shared responsibility model. This includes managing OS security settings, maintaining host firewalls, and configuring server access control. The vendor would be responsible for all security mechanisms at the hypervisor layer and below.

QUESTION 59

*Proactive

ANSWER

Proactive monitoring, aka synthetic monitoring, uses recorded or generated traffic to test systems and software. Passive monitoring uses a network span, tap, or other device to capture traffic to be analyzed. Reactive and replay are not industry terms for types of monitoring.

QUESTION 60

Process isolation

ANSWER

X ensures that the operating system allocates a separate area of memory for each process, preventing processes from seeing each other's data. This is a requirement for multilevel security systems

QUESTION 61

Proximity card

ANSWER

The use of an eletcromagnetic coil inside the card indicates that this is a X.

QUESTION 62

Parallel test

ANSWER

During a X, the team actually activates the disaster recovery site for testing but the primary site remains operational. During a full interruption test, the team takes down the primary site and confirms that the disaster recovery site is capable of handling regular operations. The full interruption test is the most thorough test but also the most disruptive. The checklist review is the least disruptive type of disaster recovery test. During a checklist review, team members each review the contents of their disaster recovery checklists on their own and suggest any necessary changes. During a tabletop exercise, team members come together and walk through a scenario without making any changes to information systems.

QUESTION 63

Deliver working software infrequently, with an emphasis on creating accurate code over longer timelines.

ANSWER

The Agile approach to software development embraces 12 core principles, found in the Agile Manifesto. One of these principles is that the best architecture, requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing teams. Another is that teams should welcome changing requirements at any step in the process. A third is that simplicity is essential. The Agile approach emphasizes delivering software frequently, not infrequently.

QUESTION 64

A second factor should be added because they are not a good way to reliably distinguish individuals.

ANSWER

Hand geometry scanners assess the physical dimensions of an individual's hand, but do not verify other unique factors about the individual, or even verify if they are alive. This means that hand geometry scanners should not be implemented as the sole authentication factor for secure environments. Hand geometry scanners do not have an abnormally high FRR, and do not stand out as a particular issue from an accessibility standpoint compared to other biometric systems.

QUESTION 65

MTD maximum tolerable downtime

ANSWER

X is the amount of time that a business may be without a service before irreparable harm occurs. This measure is sometimes also called maximum tolerable outage (MTO).

QUESTION 66

TOC/TOU

ANSWER

Attacks that change a symlink between the time that rights are checked and the file is accessed, in order to access a file that the account does not have rights to, are time of check/time of use (TOC/TOU) attacks, a form of race condition. Unlinking removes names from a Linux filesystem, setuid allows a user to run an executable with the permissions of its owner, and tick/tock is not a type of attack or Linux command.

QUESTION 67

A smartcard

ANSWER

X are a Type II authentication factor, and include both a microprocessor and at least one certificate. Since they are something you have, they're not a Type I or III authentication factor. Tokens do not necessarily contain certificates.

QUESTION 68

Masquerading

ANSWER

X (or impersonation) attacks use stolen or falsified credentials to bypass authentication mechanisms. Spoofing attacks rely on falsifying an identity like an IP address or hostname without credentials. Replay attacks are a more specific type of masquerading attack that relies on captured network traffic to reestablish authorized connections. Modification attacks occur when captured packets are modified and replayed to a system to attempt to perform an action.

QUESTION 69

1.544 Mbps

ANSWER

A T1 (DS1) line is rated at 1.544 Mbps. ISDN is often 64 or 128 Kbps, and T3 lines are 44.736 Mbps.

QUESTION 70

Separation of duties

ANSWER

This scenario describes separation of duties—not allowing the same person to hold two roles that, when combined, are sensitive. While two-person control is a similar concept, it does not apply in this case because the scenario does not say that either action requires the concurrence of two users.

QUESTION 71

Parol evidence rule

ANSWER

The X rule states that when an agreement between two parties is put into written form, it is assumed to be the entire agreement unless amended in writing. The best evidence rule says that a copy of a document is not admissible if the original document is available. Real evidence and testimonial evidence are evidence types, not rules of evidence.

QUESTION 72

NAT

ANSWER

Network Address Translation (NAT) translates an internal address to an external address. VLANs are used to logically divide networks, BGP is a routing protocol, and S/NAT is a made-up term.

QUESTION 73

SSAE-16

ANSWER

does not assert specific controls. Instead it reviews the use and application of controls in an audited organization. It is an attestation standard, used for external audits, and forms part of the underlying framework for SOC 1, 2, and 3 reports.

QUESTION 74

It limits what users can do or see based on privileges.

ANSWER

A constrained user interface restricts what users can see or do based on their privileges. This can result in grayed-out or missing menu items, or other interface changes. Activity-based controls are called context-dependent controls, whereas controls based on the content of an object are content-dependent controls. Preventing unauthorized users from logging in is a basic authentication function.

QUESTION 75

RTO recovery time objective

ANSWER

X is the amount of time expected to return an IT service or component to operation after a failure. The maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) is the longest amount of time that an IT service or component may be unavailable without causing serious damage to the organization. The recovery point objective (RPO) identifies the maximum amount of data, measured in time, that may be lost during a recovery effort. Service level agreements (SLAs) are written contracts that document service expectations

QUESTION 76

*Class variable

ANSWER

X exist only once and share their value across all instances of that object class. Instance variables have different values for each instance. Member variables are the combination of class and instance variables associated with a particular class. Global variables do not exist in an object-oriented programming language.

QUESTION 77

Class B

ANSWER

X fire extinguishers use carbon dioxide, halon, or soda acid as their suppression material and are useful against liquid-based fires. Water may not be used against liquid-based fires because it may cause the burning liquid to splash, and many burning liquids, such as oil, will float on water.

QUESTION 78

Directive

ANSWER

Notifications and procedures like the signs posted at the company Chris works for are examples of directive access controls. Detective controls are designed to operate after the fact. The doors and the locks on them are examples of physical controls. Preventive controls are designed to stop an event, and could also include the locks that are present on the doors.

QUESTION 79

Nonrepudiation

ANSWER

The seven principles that the International Safe Harbor Provisions spell out for handling personal information are notice, choice, onward transfer, access, security, data integrity, and enforcement.

QUESTION 80

Internet service providers DMCA Digital Millenium Copyright Act

ANSWER

The DMCA provides safe harbor protection for the operators of Internet service providers who only handle information as a common carrier for transitory purposes.

QUESTION 81

He should update the system security plan.

ANSWER

According to NIST SP 800-18, a system owner should update the system security plan when the system they are responsible for undergoes a significant change. Classification, selection of custodians, and designing ways to protect data confidentiality might occur if new data was added, but should have already been done otherwise.

QUESTION 82

Workflow-based account provisioning

ANSWER

Provisioning that occurs through an established workflow, such as through an HR process, is workflow-based account provisioning. If Alex had set up accounts for his new hire on the systems he manages, he would have been using discretionary account provisioning. If the provisioning system allowed the new hire to sign up for an account on their own, they would have used self-service account provisioning, and if there was a central, software-driven process, rather than HR forms, it would have been automated account provisioning.

QUESTION 83

*Privilege creep may be taking place.

ANSWER

As Alex has changed roles, he retained access to systems that he no longer administers. The provisioning system has provided rights to workstations and the application servers he manages, but he should not have access to the databases he no longer administers. Privilege levels are not specified, so we can't determine if he has excessive rights. Logging may or may not be enabled, but it isn't possible to tell from the diagram or problem.

QUESTION 84

He should be provisioned for only the rights that match his role.

ANSWER

When a user's role changes, they should be provisioned based on their role and other access entitlements. De-provisioning and re-provisioning is time consuming and can lead to problems with changed IDs and how existing credentials work. Simply adding new rights leads to privilege creep, and matching another user's rights can lead to excessive privileges due to privilege creep for that other user.

QUESTION 85

*EAL2

ANSWER

X assurance applies when the system has been structurally tested. It is the second-to-lowest level of assurance under the Common Criteria.

QUESTION 86

Clearance and need to know

ANSWER

Before granting any user access to information, Adam should verify that the user has an appropriate security clearance as well as a business need to know the information in question.

QUESTION 87

Preservation

ANSWER

During the preservation phase, the organization ensures that information related to the matter at hand is protected against intentional or unintentional alteration or deletion. The identification phase locates relevant information but does not preserve it. The collection phase occurs after preservation and gathers responsive information. The processing phase performs a rough cut of the collected information for relevance.

QUESTION 88

Vulnerability scanners

ANSWER

Nessus, OpenVAS, the Open Vulnerability Assessment scanner and manager, and SAINT are all vulnerability scanning tools. All provide port scanning capabilities as well but are more than simple port scanning tools.

QUESTION 89

Document

ANSWER

In the subject/object model, the object is the resource being requested by a subject. In this example, Harry would like access to the document, making the document the object of the request.

QUESTION 90

De-encapsulation

ANSWER

The process of removing a header (and possibly a footer) from the data received from a previous layer in the OSI model is known as de-encapsulation. Encapsulation occurs when the header and/or footer are added. Payloads are part of a virus or malware package that are delivered to a target, and packet unwrapping is a made-up term.

QUESTION 91

Metasploit

ANSWER

Metasploit is a tool used to exploit known vulnerabilities. Nikto is a web application and server vulnerability scanning tool, Ettercap is a man-in-the-middle attack tool, and THC Hydra is a password brute-force tool.

QUESTION 92

*Service Provisioning Markup Language (SPML)

ANSWER

X uses Requesting Authorities to issue SPML requests to a Provisioning Service Point. Provisioning Service Targets are often user accounts, and are required to be allowed unique identification of the data in its implementation. SAML is used for security assertions, SAMPL is an algebraic modeling language, and XACML is an access control markup language used to describe and process access control policies in an XML format.

QUESTION 93

Qualitative

ANSWER

The use of a probability/impact matrix is the hallmark of a X risk assessment It uses subjective measures of probability and impact, such as "high" and "low," in place of quantitative measures.

QUESTION 94

*Bracketed NOT

ANSWER

Mandatory access control systems can be hierarchical, where each domain is ordered and related to other domains above and below it; compartmentalized, where there is no relationship between each domain; or hybrid, where both hierarchy and compartments are used. There is no concept of bracketing in mandatory access control design.

QUESTION 95

RAID 5

ANSWER

RAID level 5 is also known as disk striping with parity. RAID 0 is called disk striping. RAID 1 is called disk mirroring. RAID 10 is known as a stripe of mirrors.

QUESTION 96

Cat 5e and Cat 6

ANSWER

Category 5e and Category 6 UTP cable are both rated to 1000 Mbps. Cat 5 (not Cat 5e) is only rated to 100 Mbps, whereas Cat 7 is rated to 10 Gbps. There is no Cat 4e.

QUESTION 97

business continuity task

ANSWER

Developing a business impact assessment is an integral part of the business continuity planning effort. The selection of alternate facilities, activation of those facilities, and restoration of data from backup are all disaster recovery tasks.

QUESTION 98

Block inbound ICMP traffic.

ANSWER

Smurf attacks use a distributed attack approach to send ICMP echo replies at a targeted system from many different source addresses. The most effective way to block this attack would be to block inbound ICMP traffic. Blocking the source addresses is not feasible because the attacker would likely simply change the source addresses. Blocking destination addresses would likely disrupt normal activity. The Smurf attack does not use UDP so blocking that traffic would have no effect.

QUESTION 99

Packet filter

ANSWER

Static packet filtering firewalls are known as first-generation firewalls and do not track connection state. Stateful inspection, application proxying, and next-generation firewalls all add connection state tracking capability.

QUESTION 100

TKIP

ANSWER

TKIP is only used as a means to encrypt transmissions and is not used for data at rest. RSA, AES, and 3DES are all used on data at rest as well as data in transit.

QUESTION 101

*Generational

ANSWER

X fuzzing is also known as intelligent fuzzing because it relies on the development of data models using an understanding of how the data is used by the program. Zzuf is a fuzzing program. Mutation simply modifies the inputs each time, and code based is not a description used for a type of fuzzing.

QUESTION 102

*Jitter

ANSWER

Latency is a delay in the delivery of packets from their source to their destination. Jitter is a variation in the latency for different packets. Packet loss is the disappearance of packets in transit that requires retransmission. Interference is electrical noise or other disruptions that corrupt the contents of packets.

QUESTION 103

Software tokens

ANSWER

X are flexible, with delivery options including mobile applications, SMS, and phone delivery. They have a relatively low administrative overhead, as users can typically self-manage. Biometrics require significant effort to register users and to deploy and maintain infrastructure, and require hardware at each authentication location. Both types of hardware tokens can require additional overhead for distribution and maintenance, and token failure can cause support challenges.

QUESTION 104

Interface testing

ANSWER

Web applications communicate with web browsers via an interface, making interface testing the best answer here. Regression testing might be used as part of the interface test, but is too specific to be the best answer. Similarly, the test might be a white box, or full knowledge test, but interface testing better describes this specific example. Fuzzing is less likely as part of a browser compatibility test, as it tests unexpected inputs, rather than functionality.

QUESTION 105

Role-based access control

ANSWER

Role-based access control gives each user an array of permissions based on their position in the organization, such as the scheme shown here. Task-based access control is not a standard approach. Rule-based access controls use rules that apply to all subjects, which isn't something we see in the list. Discretionary access control gives object owners rights to choose how the objects they own are accessed, which is not what this list shows.

QUESTION 106

Impact

ANSWER

Fire suppression systems do not stop a fire from occurring but do reduce the damage that fires cause. This is an example of reducing risk by lowering the impact of an event.

QUESTION 107

*Trade secret

ANSWER

Patents and trade secrets can both protect intellectual property in the form of a process. Patents require public disclosure and have expiration dates while trade secrets remain in force for as long as they remain secret. Therefore, trade secret protection most closely aligns with the company's goals.

QUESTION 108

*SCAP Security Content Automation Protocol

ANSWER

X is a suite of specifications used to handle vulnerability and security configuration information. The National Vulnerability Database provided by NIST uses SCAP. XACML is the eXtensible Access Control Markup Language, an OASIS standard used for access control decisions, and neither VSML is SCML an industry term.

QUESTION 109

Change management

ANSWER

The three components of the DevOps model are software development, operations, and quality assurance.

QUESTION 110

Simple Security Property

ANSWER

X prevents an individual from reading information at a higher security level than his or her clearance allows. This is also known as the "no read up" rule. The Simple Integrity Property says that a user can't write data to a higher integrity level than their own. The *-Security Property says that users can't write data to a lower security level than their own. The Discretionary Security Property allows the use of a matrix to determine access permissions.

QUESTION 111

Work breakdown structure

ANSWER

The work breakdown structure (WBS) is an important project management tool that divides the work done for a large project into smaller components. It is not a project plan because it does not describe timing or resources. Test analyses are used during later phases of the development effort to report test results. Functional requirements may be included in a work breakdown structure, but they are not the full WBS.

QUESTION 112

*Network Access Control (NAC)

ANSWER

X systems can be used to authenticate users, and then validate their system's compliance with a security standard before they are allowed to connect to the network. Enforcing security profiles can help reduce zero-day attacks, making NAC a useful solution. A firewall can't enforce system security policies, whereas an IDS can only monitor for attacks and alarm when they happen. Thus neither a firewall nor an IDS meets Kolin's needs. Finally, port security is a MAC address-based security feature that can only restrict which systems or devices can connect to a given port.

QUESTION 113

Least privilege

ANSWER

This scenario violates the least privilege principle because an application should never require full administrative rights to run. Gwen should update the service account to have only the privileges necessary to support the application.

QUESTION 114

*Trace

ANSWER

Trace coverage is not a type of structural coverage. Common types of structural coverage include statement, branch or decision coverage, loop coverage, path coverage, and data flow coverage.

QUESTION 115

*Whois

ANSWER

During the information gathering and discovery phase of a penetration test, testers will gather information about the target. Whois can provide information about an organization, including IP ranges, physical addresses, and staff contacts. Nessus would be useful during a vulnerability detection phase, and Metasploit would be useful during exploitation. zzuf is a fuzzing tool and is less likely to be used during a penetration test.

QUESTION 116

Test directories often contain scripts that can be misused.

ANSWER

Test directories often include scripts that may have poor protections or may have other data that can be misused. There is not a default test directory that allows administrative access to PHP. Test directories are not commonly used to store sensitive data, nor is the existence of a test directory a common indicator of compromise.

QUESTION 117

*It lists files in a directory.

ANSWER

Directory indexing may not initially seem like an issue during a penetration test, but simply knowing the name and location of files can provide an attacker with quite a bit of information about an organization, as well as a list of potentially accessible files. XDRF is not a type of attack, and indexing is not a denial-of-service attack vector. Directory indexing being turned on is typically either due to misconfiguration or design, or because the server was not properly configured at setup, rather than being a sign of attack.

QUESTION 118

*Steal a user's cookie

ANSWER

Cross-site tracing (XST) leverages the HTTP TRACE or TRACK methods, and could be used to steal a user's cookies via cross-site scripting (XSS). The other options are not industry terms for web application or web server attacks or vulnerabilities

QUESTION 119

*RAM

ANSWER

The contents of RAM are volatile, meaning that they are only available while power is applied to the memory chips. EPROM, EEPROM, and flash memory are all nonvolatile, meaning that they retain their contents even when powered off.

QUESTION 120

Endpoint DLP

ANSWER

X systems specialize in the identification of sensitive information. In this case, Ursula would like to identify the presence of this information on endpoint devices, so she should choose an endpoint DLP control. Network-based DLP would not detect stored information unless the user transmits it over the network. Intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) are designed to detect and block attacks in progress, not necessarily the presence of sensitive information.

QUESTION 121

Private cloud

ANSWER

In the private cloud computing model, the cloud computing environment is dedicated to a single organization and does not follow the shared tenancy model. The environment may be built by the company in its own datacenter or built by a vendor at a co-location site.

QUESTION 122

RAID

ANSWER

X is designed to allow a system to continue operating without data loss in the event of a hard drive failure. Load balancing is designed to spread work across multiple servers. Intrusion prevention systems (IPSs) monitor systems and/or networks for potential attacks. Dual-power supplies protect against power supplies becoming a single point of failure.

QUESTION 123

Integrity

ANSWER

Integrity ensures that unauthorized changes are not made to data while stored or in transit.

QUESTION 124

A star

ANSWER

A star toplogy uses a central connection device. Ethernet networks may look like a star, but they are actually a logical bus topology that is sometimes deployed in a physical star.

QUESTION 125

Limit check

ANSWER

Input validation ensures that the data provided to a program as input matches the expected parameters. Limit checks are a special form of input validation that ensure the value remains within an expected range, as is the case described in this scenario. Fail open and fail secure are options when planning for possible system failures. Buffer bounds are not a type of software control.

QUESTION 126

*System owner

ANSWER

NIST SP 800-18 describes system owner responsibilities that include helping to develop system security plans, maintaining the plan, ensuring training, and identifying, implementing, and assessing security controls. A data owner is more likely to delegate these tasks to the system owner. Custodians may be asked to enforce those controls, whereas a user will be directly affected by them.

QUESTION 127

Transport mode does not encrypt the header of the packet.

ANSWER

ESP's Transport mode encrypts IP packet data but leaves the packet header unencrypted. Tunnel mode encrypts the entire packet and adds a new header to support transmission through the tunnel.

QUESTION 128

Software Quality Management

ANSWER

In level 2, the Repeatable level of the SW-CMM, an organization introduces basic life-cycle management processes. Reuse of code in an organized fashion begins and repeatable results are expected from similar projects. The key process areas for this level include Requirements Management, Software Project Planning, Software Project Tracking and Oversight, Software Subcontract Management, Software Quality Assurance and Software Configuration Management. Software Quality Management is a process that occurs during level 4, the Managed stage of the SW-CMM.

QUESTION 129

KRIs Key risk indicators

ANSWER

X are often used to monitor risk for organizations that establish an ongoing risk management program. Using automated data gathering and tools that allow data to be digested and summarized can provide predictive information about how organizational risks are changing. KPIs are key performance indicators, which are used to assess how an organization is performing. Quantitative risk assessments are good for point-in-time views with detailed valuation and measurement-based risk assessments, whereas a penetration test would provide details of how well an organization's security controls are working.

QUESTION 130

SYN/ACK

ANSWER

The three-way handshake is SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK. System B should respond with "Synchronize and Acknowledge" to System A after it receives a SYN.

QUESTION 131

Which systems respond to ping, a rough network topology, and potentially the location of additional firewalls

ANSWER

Systems that respond to ping will show the time to live for packets that reach them. Since TTL is decremented at each hop, this can help build a rough network topology map. In addition, some firewalls respond differently to ping than a normal system, which means pinging a network can sometimes reveal the presence of firewalls that would otherwise be invisible. Hostnames are revealed by a DNS lookup, and ICMP types allowed through a firewall are not revealed by only performing a ping. ICMP can be used for router advertisements, but pinging won't show them!

QUESTION 132

Authorization

ANSWER

X define what a subject can or can't do. Identification occurs when a subject claims an identity, accountability is provided by the logs and audit trail that track what occurs on a system, and authorization occurs when that identity is validated.

QUESTION 133

Secret

ANSWER

The commercial classification scheme discussed by (ISC)2 includes four primary classification levels: confidential, private, sensitive and public. Secret is a part of the military classification scheme.

QUESTION 134

Objects

ANSWER

All of these are X. Although some of these items can be subjects, files, databases, and storage media can't be. Processes and programs aren't file stores, and of course none of these are users.

QUESTION 135

Use case testing

ANSWER

Testing for desired functionality is use case testing. Dynamic testing is used to determine how code handles variables that change over time. Misuse testing focuses on how code handles examples of mis-use, and fuzzing feeds unexpected data as an input to see how the code responds.

QUESTION 136

70 years from the death of the author

ANSWER

When the author of a work is known, copyright protects that work for 70 years after the death of the author. Works created by a corporate author are protected for 95 years from publication or 120 years from creation, whichever expires first.

QUESTION 137

Private IP addresses

ANSWER

These are examples of private IP addresses. RFC1918 defines a set of private IP addresses for use in internal networks. These private addresses including 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0-196.168.255.255 should never be routable on the public Internet.

QUESTION 138

cognitive password

ANSWER

A x authenticates users based on a series of facts or answers to questions that they know. Preset questions for cognitive passwords typically rely on common information about a user like their mother's maiden name, or the name of their pet, and that information can frequently be found on the Internet. The best cognitive password systems let users make up their own questions.

QUESTION 139

TP transformation procedure

ANSWER

A transformation procedure (TP) is the only process authorized to modify constrained data items (CDIs) within the Clark-Wilson model.

QUESTION 140

*Blacklist

ANSWER

The blacklist approach to application control blocks certain prohibited packages but allows the installation of other software on systems. The whitelist approach uses the reverse philosophy and only allows approved software. Antivirus software would only detect the installation of malicious software after the fact. Heuristic detection is a variant of antivirus software.

QUESTION 141

PHI

ANSWER

Personal Health Information (PHI) is specifically defined by HIPAA to include information about an individual's medical bills. PCI could refer to the payment card industry's security standard but would only apply in relation to credit cards. PII is a broadly defined term for personally identifiable information, and personal billing data isn't a broadly used industry term.

QUESTION 142

Directional

ANSWER

Yagis, panel antennas, cantennas, and parabolic antennas are all types of directional antenna. Omnidirectional antennas radiate in all directions, whereas these types of antennas are not necessarily signal boosting. Finally, rubber duck antennas are a type of omnidirectional pole antenna.

QUESTION 143

Code coverage measures

ANSWER

Function, statement, branch, and condition are all types of code coverage metrics. Penetration testing methodologies use phases like planning, discovery, scanning, exploit, and reporting. Fuzzing techniques focus on ways to provide unexpected inputs, whereas synthetic transactions are generated test data provided to validate applications and performance.

QUESTION 144

2

ANSWER

Organizations should train at least two individuals on every business continuity plan task. This provides a backup in the event the primary responder is not available.

QUESTION 145

2 Backups Files

ANSWER

In this scenario, all of the files on the server will be backed up on Monday evening during the full backup. Tuesday's incremental backup will include all files changed since Monday's full backup: files 1, 2, and 5. Wednesday's incremental backup will then include all files modified since Tuesday's incremental backup: files 3 and 6.

QUESTION 146

*Passive monitoring

ANSWER

Susan is performing passive monitoring, which uses a network tap or span port to capture traffic to analyze it without impacting the network or devices that it is used to monitor. Synthetic, or active, monitoring uses recorded or generated traffic to test for performance and other issues. Signature based technologies include IDS, IPS, and antimalware systems.

QUESTION 147

Permissions

ANSWER

While the differences between rights, permissions, and roles can be confusing, typically permissions include both the access and actions that you can take on an object. Rights usually refer to the ability to take action on an object, and don't include the access to it. Privileges combine rights and permissions, and roles describe sets of privileges based on job tasks or other organizational artifacts.

QUESTION 148

Servers provisioned by customers on a vendor-managed virtualization platform

ANSWER

One of the core capabilities of Infrastructure as a Service is providing servers on a vendor-managed virtualization platform. Web-based payroll and email systems are examples of Software as a Service. An application platform managed by a vendor that runs customer code is an example of Platform as a Service.

QUESTION 149

37.5%

ANSWER

The exposure factor is the percentage of the facility that risk managers expect will be damaged if a risk materializes. It is calculated by dividing the amount of damage by the asset value. In this case, that is $750,000 in damage divided by the $2 million facility value, or 37.5%

QUESTION 150

The annualized rate of occurrence is the number of times each year that risk analysts expect a risk to happen. In this case, the analysts expect fires will occur once every 50 years, or 0.02 times per year.

ANSWER

0.02

QUESTION 151

$15,000

ANSWER

The annualized loss expectancy is calculated by multiplying the single loss expectancy (SLE) by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). In this case, the SLE is $750,000 and the ARO is 0.02. Multiplying these numbers together gives you the ALE of $15,000.

QUESTION 152

CWR and ECE NOT

ANSWER

Congestion Window Reduced (CWR) and ECE, ECN-Echo are used to manage transmission over congested links, and are rarely seen in modern TCP networks.

QUESTION 153

*Key Rotation

ANSWER

The Tower of Hanoi; Grandfather, Father, Son; and First In, First Out backup rotation strategies are all used to rotate backup tapes and other media. Key rotation is a cryptographic concept not related to disaster recovery media.

QUESTION 154

API

ANSWER

An application programming interface (API) allows external users to directly call routines within Fran's code. They can embed API calls within scripts and other programs to automate interactions with Fran's company. A web scraper or call center might facilitate the same tasks, but they do not do so in a direct integration. Data dictionaries might provide useful information but they also do not allow direct integration.

QUESTION 155

*Fault

ANSWER

A fault is a momentary loss of power. Blackouts are sustained complete losses of power. Sags and brownouts are not complete power disruptions but rather periods of low voltage conditions.

QUESTION 156

A credential management system

ANSWER

Lauren's team would benefit from a credential management system. Credential management systems offer features like password management, multifactor authentication to retrieve passwords, logging, audit, and password rotation capabilities. A strong password policy would only make maintenance of passwords for many systems a more difficult task if done manually. Single sign-on would help if all of the systems had the same sensitivity levels, but different credentials are normally required for higher sensitivity systems.

QUESTION 157

The system has failed to get a DHCP address and has assigned itself an address.

ANSWER

Windows systems will assign themselves an APIPA address between 169.254.0.1 and 169.254.255.254 if they cannot contact a DHCP server.

QUESTION 158

Enrollment

ANSWER

X, or registration, is the initial creation of a user account in the provisioning process. Clearance verification and background checks are sometimes part of the process that ensures that the identity of the person being enrolled matches who they claim to be. Initialization is not used to describe the provisioning process.

QUESTION 159

Key performance indicator

ANSWER

Repeated audit findings indicate a performance issue, making this a key performance indicator for Susan's organization. Audit findings may demonstrate risk, but are not guaranteed to do so. Safeguard metrics and audit tracking metrics are not common industry terms.

QUESTION 160

*Mission owner

ANSWER

The business or mission owner's role is responsible for making sure systems provide value. When controls decrease the value that an organization gets, the business owner bears responsibility for championing the issue to those involved. There is not a business manager or information security analyst role in the list of NIST-defined data security roles. A data processor is defined but acts as a third-party data handler, and would not have to represent this issue in Olivia's organization

QUESTION 161

*ECPA Electronic Communications Privacy Act

ANSWER

X makes it a crime to invade the electronic privacy of an individual. It prohibits the unauthorized monitoring of email and voicemail communications.

QUESTION 162

*Ring 3

ANSWER

The kernel lies within the central ring, Ring 0. Ring 1 contains other operating system components. Ring 2 is used for drivers and protocols. User-level programs and applications run at Ring 3. Rings 0-2 run in privileged mode whereas Ring 3 runs in user mode.

QUESTION 163

*CVSS Common Vulnerability Scoring System

ANSWER

X uses measures such as attack vector, complexity, exploit maturity, and how much user interaction is required as well as measures suited to local concerns. CVE is the Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures dictionary, CNA is the CVE Numbering Authority, and NVD is the National Vulnerability Database.

QUESTION 164

Sending an email at work

ANSWER

An individual does not have a reasonable expectation of privacy when any communication takes place using employer-owned communications equipment or accounts.

QUESTION 165

*Tabletop exercise

ANSWER

During a tabletop exercise, team members come together and walk through a scenario without making any changes to information systems. The checklist review is the least disruptive type of disaster recovery test. During a checklist review, team members each review the contents of their disaster recovery checklists on their own and suggest any necessary changes. During a parallel test, the team actually activates the disaster recovery site for testing but the primary site remains operational. During a full interruption test, the team takes down the primary site and confirms that the disaster recovery site is capable of handling regular operations. The full interruption test is the most thorough test but also the most disruptive.

QUESTION 166

OpenID

ANSWER

OpenID is a widely supported standard that allows a user to use a single account to log into multiple sites, and Google accounts are frequently used with OpenID.

QUESTION 167

Risk acceptance

ANSWER

Risk acceptance occurs when an organization determines that the costs involved in pursuing other risk management strategies are not justified and they choose not to pursue any action.

QUESTION 168

Fiber optic

ANSWER

Fred should choose a fiber-optic cable. Copper cable types like 10Base2, 5, and 10BaseT, as well as 100Base-T and 1000BaseT, fall far short of the distance required, whereas fiber-optic cable can run for miles.

QUESTION 169

Decentralized access control

ANSWER

X makes sense because it allows local control over access. When network connectivity to a central control point is a problem, or if rules and regulations may vary significantly from location to location, centralized control can be less desirable than decentralized control despite its challenges with consistency. Since the problem does not describe specific control needs, mandatory access control and rule-based access controls could fit the need but aren't the best answer.

QUESTION 170

Secret 2

ANSWER

The U.S. government classifies data that could reasonably be expected to cause damage to national security if disclosed, and for which the damage can be identified or described, as X. The U.S. government does not use Classified in its formal four levels of classification. Top Secret data could cause exceptionally grave damage, whereas Confidential data could be expected to cause damage.

QUESTION 171

*Renee's public key

ANSWER

The purpose of a digital certificate is to provide the general public with an authenticated copy of the certificate subject's public key.

QUESTION 172

*CA's private key

ANSWER

The last step of the certificate creation process is the digital signature. During this step, the certificate authority signs the certificate using its own private key.

QUESTION 173

*CA's public key

ANSWER

When an individual receives a copy of a digital certificate, he or she verifies the authenticity of that certificate by using the CA's public key to validate the digital signature contained on the certificate.

QUESTION 174

Wireshark

ANSWER

X is a network monitoring tool that can capture and replay communications sent over a data network, including Voice over IP (VoIP) communications. Nmap, Nessus, and Nikto are all security tools that may identify security flaws in the network, but they do not directly undermine confidentiality because they do not have the ability to capture communications.

QUESTION 175

It helps decrease the likelihood users will write down their passwords.

ANSWER

Studies consistently show that users are more likely to write down passwords if they have more accounts. Central control of a single account is also easier to shut off if something does go wrong. Simply decreasing the number of accounts required for a subject doesn't increase security by itself, and SSO does not guarantee individual system logging, although it should provide central logging of SSO activity. Since a SSO system was not specified, there is no way of determining whether a given SSO system provides better or worse encryption for authentication data.

QUESTION 176

RSA

ANSWER

Nonrepudiation is only possible with an asymmetric encryption algorithm. RSA is an asymmetric algorithm. AES, DES, and Blowfish are all symmetric encryption algorithms that do not provide nonrepudiation.

QUESTION 177

*STRIDE Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege

ANSWER

Repudiation and tampering

QUESTION 178

Routers

ANSWER

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), and Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) are all routing protocols and are associated with routers.

QUESTION 179

TKIP Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

ANSWER

X was used with WPA on existing hardware to replace WEP. TKIP has been replaced by CCMP and 802.1x since 2012. PEAP and EAP are both authentication protocols. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is used to secure web transactions and other network communications.

QUESTION 180

Attribute-based access control

ANSWER

Each of the attributes linked to Ben's access provides information for an attribute-based information control system. Attribute-based information controls like those described in NIST SP 800-162 can take many details about the user, actions, and objects into consideration before allowing access to occur. A role-based access control would simply consider Ben's role, whereas both administrative and system discretionary access controls are not commonly used terms to describe access controls.

QUESTION 181

DDoS

ANSWER

LOIC is an example of a distributed denial-of-service attack. It uses many systems to attack targets, combining their bandwidth and making it difficult to shut down the attack because of the number and variety of attackers. Ionization and Zombie horde attacks are both made-up answers. Teardrop attacks are an older type of attack that sends fragmented packets as a denial-of-service attack.

QUESTION 182

The CA that issued the certificate

ANSWER

Certificates may only be added to a Certificate Revocation List by the certificate authority that created the digital certificate.

QUESTION 183

*Remote journaling

ANSWER

X transfers transaction logs to a remote site on a more frequent basis than electronic vaulting, typically hourly. Transaction logging is not a recovery technique alone; it is a process for generating the logs used in remote journaling. In an electronic vaulting approach, automated technology moves database backups from the primary database server to a remote site on a scheduled basis, typically daily. Remote mirroring maintains a live database server at the backup site and mirrors all transactions at the primary site on the server at the backup site.

QUESTION 184

*Waiting

ANSWER

The X state is used when a process is blocked waiting for an external event. The Running state is used when a process is executing on the CPU. The Ready state is used when a process is prepared to execute but the CPU is not available. The Stopped state is used when a process terminates.

QUESTION 185

*Operational investigation

ANSWER

X investigations are performed by internal teams to troubleshoot performance or other technical issues. They are not intended to produce evidence for use in court and, therefore, do not have the rigid collection standards of criminal, civil, or regulatory investigations.

QUESTION 186

To protect the confidentiality of their data

ANSWER

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) are designed to protect the confidentiality of an organization's data, including trade secrets during and after the person's employment. NDAs do not protect against deletion or availability isssues, and noncompete agreements would be required to stop competition.

QUESTION 187

Add a second factor.

ANSWER

X can ensure that users who might be incorrectly accepted are not given access due to a higher than desired false acceptance rate (FAR) from accessing a system. The CER is the crossover between the false acceptance and false rejection rate (FRR), and is used as a way to measure the accuracy of biometric systems. Changing the sensitivity to lower the FRR may actually increase the FAR, and replacing a biometric system can be time consuming and expensive in term of time and cost.

QUESTION 188

6 months

ANSWER

SOC 2 reports typically cover 6 months of operations. SOC 1 reports cover a point in time.

QUESTION 189

*IDE forcing

ANSWER

Over-the-shoulder reviews require the original developer to explain her code to a peer while walking through it. Email pass-around code reviews are done by sending code for review to peers. Pair programming requires two developers, only one of whom writes code while both collaborate. IDE forcing is not a type of code review; an IDE is an integrated development environment.

QUESTION 190

TOC/TOU 2

ANSWER

X attack exploits timing differences between when a system verifies authorization and software uses that authorization to perform an action. It is an example of a race condition attack. The other three attacks mentioned do not depend on precise timing.

QUESTION 191

Encapsulation

ANSWER

X is a process that adds a header and possibly a footer to data received at each layer before handoff to the next layer. TCP wrappers are a host-based network access control system, attribution is determining who or what performed an action or sent data, and data hiding is a term from object-oriented programming that is not relevant here.

QUESTION 192

*Jim must comply with the information in this document.

ANSWER

Guidelines provide advice based on best practices developed throughout industry and organizations, but they are not compulsory. Compliance with guidelines is optional.

QUESTION 193

*Username

ANSWER

X are an identification tool. They are not secret, so they are not suitable for use as a password.

QUESTION 194

Regression testing

ANSWER

X testing ensures proper functionality of an application or system after it has been changed. Unit testing focuses on testing each module of a program instead of against its previous functional state. White- and black-box testing both describe the amount of knowledge about a system or application, rather than a specific type or intent for testing.

QUESTION 195

Risk transference

ANSWER

X involves shifting the impact of a potential risk from the organization incurring the risk to another organization. Insurance is a common example of risk transference.

QUESTION 196

Avoid conflicts of interest that may jeopardize impartiality.

ANSWER

The four canons of the (ISC)2 code of ethics are to protect society, the common good, necessary public trust and confidence, and the infrastructure; act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally; provide diligent and competent service to principals; and advance and protect the profession.

QUESTION 197

*Set up a one-way nontransitive trust.

ANSWER

A trust that allows one forest to access another's resources without the reverse being possible is an example of a one-way trust. Since Jim doesn't want the trust path to flow as the domain tree is formed, this trust has to be nontransitive.

QUESTION 198

Static

ANSWER

Susan's team is performing X analysis, which analyzes nonrunning code. Dynamic analysis uses running code, whereas gray-box assessments are a type of assessment done without full knowledge. Fuzzing feeds unexpected inputs to a program as part of dynamic analysis.

QUESTION 199

A public IP address

ANSWER

201.19.7.45 is a public IP address. RFC 1918 addresses are in the ranges 10.0.0.0-0.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255. APIPA addresses are assigned between 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.254, and 127.0.0.1 is a loopback address (although technically the entire 127.x.x.x network is reserved for loopback).

QUESTION 200

*Unpatched web application

ANSWER

Risks are the combination of a threat and a vulnerability. Threats are the external forces seeking to undermine security, such as the hacker in this case. Vulnerabilities are the internal weaknesses that might allow a threat to succeed. In this case the missing patch is the vulnerability. In this scenario, if the hacker attempts a SQL injection attack (threat) against the unpatched server (vulnerability), the result is website defacement.

QUESTION 201

Purge

ANSWER

The three categories of data destruction are clear (overwriting with nonsensitive data), X (removing all data), and destroy (physical destruction of the media). Degaussing is an example of a purging technique.

QUESTION 202

Hot site

ANSWER

Hot sites contain all of the hardware and data necessary to restore operations and may be activated very quickly.

QUESTION 203

514

ANSWER

Syslog uses UDP port 514. TCP-based implementations of syslog typically use port 6514. The other ports may look familiar because they are commonly used TCP ports: 443 is HTTPS, 515 is the LPD print service, and 445 is used for Windows SMB.

QUESTION 204

A TCP packet;PSH and URG used to clear the buffer and indicate that the data is urgent

ANSWER

PSH is a TCP flag used to clear the buffer, resulting in immediately sending data, and URG is the TCP urgent flag. These flags are not present in UDP headers.

QUESTION 205

Fagan inspection

ANSWER

Fagan inspection is a highly formalized review and testing process that uses planning, overview, preparation, inspection, rework, and follow-up steps. Static inspection looks at code without running it, dynamic inspection uses live programs, and interface testing tests where code modules interact.

QUESTION 206

The logs will only contain the most recent 20 MB of log data

ANSWER

The system is set to overwrite the logs and will replace the oldest log entries with new log entries when the file reaches 20 MB. The system is not purging archived logs because it is not archiving logs. Since there can only be 20 MB of logs, this system will not have stored too much log data, and the question does not provide enough information to know if there will be an issue with not having the information needed

QUESTION 207

Confidentiality and authentication

ANSWER

Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provides the ability to encrypt and thus provides confidentiality, as well as limited authentication capabilities. It does not provide availability, nonrepudiation, or integrity validation.

QUESTION 208

*Detection

ANSWER

Alejandro is in the first stage of the incident response process, X. During this stage, the intrusion detection system provides the initial alert and Alejandro performs preliminary triaging to determine if an intrusion is actually taking place and whether the scenario fits the criteria for activating further steps of the incident response process (which include response, mitigation, reporting, recovery, remediation, and lessons learned).

QUESTION 209

Activate the incident response team

ANSWER

After detection of a security incident, the next step in the process is response, which should follow the organization's formal incident response procedure. The first step of this procedure is activating the appropriate teams, including the organization's computer security incident response team (CSIRT).

QUESTION 210

Remediation

ANSWER

The root cause analysis examines the incident to determine what allowed it to happen and provides critical information for repairing systems so that the incident does not recur. This is a component of the remediation step of the incident response process because the root cause analysis output is necessary to fully remediate affected systems and processes.

QUESTION 211

Shared secret key

ANSWER

When using symmetric cryptography, the sender encrypts a message using a shared secret key and the recipient then decrypts the message with that same key. Only asymmetric cryptography uses the concept of public and private key pairs

QUESTION 212

*Business logic errors

ANSWER

Business logic errors are most likely to be missed by automated functional testing. If a complete coverage code test was conducted, runtime, input validation, and error handling issues are likely to have been discovered by automated testing. Any automated system is more likely to miss business logic errors, because human are typically necessary to understand business logic issues.

QUESTION 213

Lessons Learned

ANSWER

During the Lessons Learned phase, analysts close out an incident by conducting a review of the entire incident response process. This may include making recommendations for improvements to the process that will streamline the efficiency and effectiveness of future incident response efforts.

QUESTION 214

DMCA

ANSWER

The Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) prohibits attempts to circumvent copyright protection mechanisms placed on a protected work by the copyright holder.

QUESTION 215

Warm site

ANSWER

Linda should choose a warm site. This approach balances cost and recovery time. Cold sites take a very long time to activate, measured in weeks or months. Hot sites activate immediately but are quite expensive. Mutual assistance agreements depend on the support of another organization.

QUESTION 216

Half-duplex

ANSWER

X communications allow only one side to send at a time. Full-duplex communications allow both parties to send simultaneously, whereas simplex communications describe one-way communications. A suplex would be a bad idea for most communications—it is a wrestling move!

QUESTION 217

Gray box

ANSWER

X testing is a blend of crystal- (or white-) box testing that provides full information about a target, and black-box testing, which provides little or no knowledge about the target.

QUESTION 218

Number of use cases tested / total number of use cases

ANSWER

Test coverage is computed using the formula test coverage = number of use cases tested / total number of use cases. Code coverage is assessed by the other formulas, including function, conditional, and total code coverage.

QUESTION 219

Layer 4

ANSWER

TCP, UDP, and other transport layer protocols like SSL and TLS operate at the Transport layer.

QUESTION 220

Deterrence

ANSWER

Deterrence is the first functional goal of physical security mechanisms. If a physical security control presents a formidable challenge to a potential attacker, they may not attempt the attack in the first place.

QUESTION 221

Automated recovery

ANSWER

In an X, the system can recover itself against one or more failure types. In a manual recovery approach, the system does not fail into a secure state but requires an administrator to manually restore operations. In an automated recovery without undue loss, the system can recover itself against one or more failure types and also preserve data against loss. In function recovery, the system can restore functional processes automatically

QUESTION 222

SCP

ANSWER

Skip should use SCP - Secure Copy is a secure file transfer method. SSH is a secure command-line and login protocol, whereas HTTP is used for unencrypted web traffic. Telnet is an unencrypted command line and login protocol.

QUESTION 223

*Ben must have a conspicuously posted privacy policy on his site.

ANSWER

The California Online Privacy Protection Act requires that commercial websites that collect personal information from users in California conspicuously post a privacy policy. The Act does not require compliance with the EU DPD, nor does it use the DPD concepts of notice or choice, and it does not require encryption of all personal data.

QUESTION 224

*Reference monitor

ANSWER

The X is a component of the Trusted Computing Base (TCB) that validates access to resources.

QUESTION 225

Irises don't change as much as other factors.

ANSWER

Iris scans have a longer useful life than many other types of biometric factors because they don't change throughout a person's lifespan (unless the eye itself is damaged). Iris scanners can be fooled in some cases by high-resolution images of an eye, and iris scanners are not significantly cheaper than other scanners.

QUESTION 226

NDA Nondisclosure agreements

ANSWER

Prohibit employees from sharing sensitive information without authorization, even after their employment ends. They may also apply to business partners, contractors, customers and others. Service level agreements (SLAs) and operating level agreements (OLAs) specify the parameters of service that a vendor provides to a customer. Data loss prevention (DLP) technology prevents data loss but is a technical, rather than a policy control

QUESTION 227

3 Crypto Keys

ANSWER

They need a key for every possible pair of users in the cryptosystem. The first key would allow communication between Matthew and Richard. The second key would allow communication between Richard and Christopher. The third key would allow communication between Christopher and Matthew.

QUESTION 228

Callback

ANSWER

X disconnects a remote user after their initial connection, and then calls them back at a preauthorized number. CallerID can help with this but can be spoofed, making callback a better solution. CHAP is an authentication protocol, and PPP is a dial-up protocol. Neither will verify a phone number.

QUESTION 229

*Gramm Leach Bliley Act

ANSWER

The X is an example of civil law. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act, Electronic Communications Privacy Act, and Identity Theft and Assumption Deterrence Act are all examples of criminal law.

QUESTION 230

*Encrypt the email content

ANSWER

The SMTP protocol does not guarantee confidentiality between servers, making TLS or SSL between the client and server only a partial measure. Encrypting the email content can provide confidentiality; digital signatures can provide nonrepudiation.

QUESTION 231

SQL injection

ANSWER

The single quotation mark in the input field is a telltale sign that this is a SQL injection attack. The quotation mark is used to escape outside of the SQL code's input field, and the text following is used to directly manipulate the SQL command sent from the web application to the database.

QUESTION 232

Record retention

ANSWER

Record retention policies describe how long the organization should retain data and may also specify how and when destruction should occur. Classification policies describe how and why classification should occur and who is responsibile, whereas availability and audit policies may be created for specific purposes.

QUESTION 233

RTO<MTD

ANSWER

The goal of the business continuity planning process is to ensure that your recovery time objectives are all less than your maximum tolerable downtimes.

QUESTION 234

*Remediation 2

ANSWER

The Remediation phase of incident handling focuses on conducting a root cause analysis to identify the factors contributing to an incident and implementing new security controls, as needed.

QUESTION 235

This is an encrypted email message.

ANSWER

The S/MIME secure email format uses the P7S format for encrypted email messages. If the recipient does not have a mail reader that supports S/MIME, the message will appear with an attachment named smime.p7s.

QUESTION 236

*Aggregation

ANSWER

Aggregation is a security issue that arises when a collection of facts has a higher classification than the classification of any of those facts standing alone. An inference problem occurs when an attacker can pull together pieces of less sensitive information from multiple sources and use them to derive information of greater sensitivity. In this case, only a single source was used. SQL injection is a web application exploit. Multilevel security is a system control that allows the simultaneous processing of information at different classification levels.

QUESTION 237

Polyinstantiation

ANSWER

X allows the storage of multiple different pieces of information in a database at different classification levels to prevent attackers from conducting aggregation or inference attacks. Kim could store incorrect location information in the database at lower classification levels to prevent the aggregation attack in this scenario. Input validation, server-side validation, and parameterization are all techniques used to prevent web application attacks and are not effective against inference attacks.

QUESTION 238

*Foreign key

ANSWER

The tail number is a database field because it is stored in the database. It is also a primary key because the question states that the database uniquely identifies aircraft using this field. Any primary key is, by definition, also a candidate key. There is no information provided that the tail number is a foreign key used to reference a different database table.

QUESTION 239

*Foreign key 2

ANSWER

X are used to create relationships between tables in a database. The database enforces referential integrity by ensuring that the foreign key used in a table has a corresponding record with that value as the primary key in the referenced table.

QUESTION 240

Waterfall

ANSWER

The X model uses an approach that develops software sequentially, spending quite a bit of time up front on the development and documentation of requirements and design. The spiral and agile models focus on iterative development and are appropriate when requirements are not well understood or iterative development is preferred. DevOps is an approach to integrating development and operations activities and is not an SDLC model.

QUESTION 241

Data owner

ANSWER

The X is a senior manager who bears ultimate responsibility for data protection tasks. The data owner typically delegates this responsibility to one or more data custodians.

QUESTION 242

*Unique salts should be stored for each user.

ANSWER

A X using a secure generation method and stored in that user's record. Since attacks against hashes rely on building tables to compare the hashes against, unique salts for each user make building tables for an entire database essentially impossible—the work to recover a single user account may be feasible, but large scale recovery requires complete regeneration of the table each time. A single salt allows rainbow tables to be generated if the salt is stolen or can be guessed based on frequently used passwords. Creating a unique salt each time a user logs in does not allow a match against a known salted hashed password.

QUESTION 243

*Examine and test

ANSWER

NIST SP800-53 describes three processes: Examination, which is reviewing or analyzing assessment objects like specifications, mechanisms, or activities Interviews, which are conducted with individuals or groups of individuals Testing, which involves evaluating activities or mechanisms for expected behavior when used or exercised Knowing the details of a given NIST document in depth can be challenging. To address a question like this, first eliminate responses that do not make sense; here, a mechanism cannot be interviewed, and test and assess both mean the same thing. This leaves only one correct answer.

QUESTION 244

Anomaly-based intrusion detection

ANSWER

X detection systems may identify a zero-day vulnerability because it deviates from normal patterns of activity. Signature-based detection methods would not be effective because there are no signatures for zero-day vulnerabilities. Strong patch management would not be helpful because, by definition, zero-day vulnerabilities do not have patches available. Full-disk encryption would not detect an attack because it is not a detective control.

QUESTION 245

Credential management

ANSWER

X systems provide features designed to make using and storing credentials in a secure and controllable way. AAA systems are authorization, authentication, and accounting systems. Two-factor authentication and Kerberos are examples of protocols.

QUESTION 246

*Secondary response procedures for first responders

ANSWER

The emergency response guidelines should include the immediate steps an organization should follow in response to an emergency situation. These include immediate response procedures, a list of individuals who should be notified of the emergency, and secondary response procedures for first responders. They do not include long-term actions such as activating business continuity protocols, ordering equipment, or activating disaster recovery sites.

QUESTION 247

A preventive access control; a mantrap

ANSWER

A mantrap uses two sets of doors, only one of which can open at a time. A mantrap is a type of preventive access control, although its implementation is a physical control.

QUESTION 248

Separation of duties 2

ANSWER

When following the separation-of-duties principle, organizations divide critical tasks into discrete components and ensure that no one individual has the ability to perform both actions. This prevents a single rogue individual from performing that task in an unauthorized manner and is also known as two-person control.

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