nremt practice test Flashcards

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1. START mass casualty triage is meant for patients who appear to be older than what age? A. 2 years old. B. 8 years old. C. 12 years old. D. 18 years old.
2. In START triage, which tag goes on a patient with life-threatening injuries who still has a high chance of survival? A. Immediate (red). B. Delayed (yellow). C. Minor (green). D. Expectant (black).
3. A START patient has serious injuries that are not immediately life-threatening and is not expected to worsen for several hours. Which category fits? A. Immediate (red). B. Minor (green). C. Expectant (black). D. Delayed (yellow).
4. Which START category describes a patient with relatively minor injuries who may be able to help with their own care? A. Delayed (yellow). B. Immediate (red). C. Minor (green). D. Expectant (black).
5. In START, which finding counts as adequate perfusion? A. A carotid pulse only. B. A palpable radial pulse or capillary refill under 2 seconds. C. Capillary refill under 5 seconds. D. A blood pressure reading above 90 systolic.
6. How does START assess mental status? A. By whether the patient can obey commands. B. By a full Glasgow Coma Scale score. C. By pupil size. D. By asking the date and place.
7. According to CHEMM, START is best suited to which kind of incident? A. Only chemical incidents. B. Only pediatric incidents. C. Single-patient medical calls. D. Traumatic incidents.
8. What expected respiratory rate range does JumpSTART use for children? A. 12 to 20 breaths per minute. B. 30 to 60 breaths per minute. C. 15 to 45 breaths per minute. D. 10 to 30 breaths per minute.
9. How does JumpSTART relate to START? A. It replaces START for all patients. B. It modifies START with age-appropriate physiological parameters for children. C. It is used only for chemical exposures. D. It is a hospital-only reassessment tool.
10. In JumpSTART, how is perfusion assessed? A. By the presence or absence of a palpable pulse. B. By blood pressure. C. By urine output. D. By skin temperature alone.
11. In JumpSTART, which category fits a child who is breathing but is unlikely to survive given the injuries and the care available? A. Immediate (red). B. Delayed (yellow). C. Minor (green). D. Expectant (black).
12. A JumpSTART immediate (red) patient is expected to deteriorate within what time frame? A. Several hours. B. Days. C. Minutes. D. Weeks.
13. After the triage officer tags patients, what do the rescuers who follow do? A. Re-run the full triage on every patient. B. Read the tag color and text and take the appropriate action. C. Remove the tags before transport. D. Treat patients in the order they were tagged.
14. In the SALT global sort, which patients are assessed first? A. Those who are not moving or have an obvious life threat. B. Those who can walk. C. Those who can wave. D. Children before adults, regardless of condition.
15. In SALT, what happens to patients who are able to walk? A. They are assessed first. B. They are tagged black. C. They are sent home. D. They are directed to a safe area and assessed last.
16. About how long should each SALT individual assessment take? A. About five minutes. B. About ten minutes. C. Less than one minute. D. As long as a full secondary exam takes.
17. During SALT lifesaving interventions, what may be given to a child after opening the airway? A. Full CPR for two minutes. B. Two rescue breaths. C. Oral glucose. D. Nothing until transport.
18. Which SALT lifesaving intervention is used to control major hemorrhage? A. A tourniquet. B. Elevation alone. C. An ice pack. D. A pressure point only.
19. In SALT, what color tag marks the expectant category? A. Black. B. Red. C. Yellow. D. Grey.
20. In SALT, what does a black tag mean? A. The patient is expectant but still breathing. B. The patient needs immediate transport. C. The patient is dead: not breathing or has injuries incompatible with life. D. The patient has minor injuries.
21. What was SALT developed in 2008 to be? A. A pediatric-only triage tool. B. A national all-hazards mass casualty initial triage standard for all patients. C. A hospital discharge scale. D. A chemical antidote protocol.
22. In a chemical incident, which two factors together determine a patient's exposure dose? A. Time and concentration of the chemical. B. Age and weight. C. Temperature and humidity. D. Skin color and pulse.
23. A chemical-exposure patient also has blast injuries and severe burns. How should they be prioritized? A. Lowest priority until decontamination is complete. B. Same as an uninjured exposed patient. C. Delayed, because burns develop slowly. D. Highest priority for treatment and transport.
24. Why do children lose heat faster than adults during decontamination? A. They shiver more strongly. B. They have thicker skin. C. They have a larger skin surface area relative to body mass. D. They breathe more slowly.
25. Why can a child appear stable and then quickly become critical? A. Children never compensate for shock. B. Their circulation can hold heart rate and blood pressure normal in early dehydration or shock. C. Their blood pressure drops first in every case. D. Children always show symptoms early.
26. For an infant too young to walk or follow commands, which set of findings should triage assess instead? A. Alertness, purposeful movement when touched or held, and turning toward sound or movement. B. Ability to walk and obey commands. C. Blood pressure and urine output. D. Pupil size and speech.
27. Why should pregnant chemical-exposure patients be prioritized for urgent transport? A. Because they never need decontamination. B. Because they always have minor injuries. C. Because on-scene fetal monitoring is always available. D. For fetal assessment and more specialized care at a medical facility.
28. A tagged patient is getting rapidly worse while waiting on scene. What should happen? A. Keep the original tag. B. Move to the expectant category automatically. C. Re-triage to a more urgent category. D. Remove the tag.
29. When can a chemical-exposure patient who was stable at first get worse? A. Only within the first five minutes. B. On scene or even hours to days after the event. C. Never, once stable. D. Only after hospital discharge.
30. Why might a child get a bigger dose of a ground-level chemical than an adult in the same place? A. Shorter stature puts them closer to ground-level contamination. B. Children breathe more slowly. C. Children have thicker skin. D. Children always move away faster.
31. What is shock? A. A brief fainting spell that always resolves alone. B. A drop in blood sugar only. C. An allergic skin rash. D. A life-threatening condition in which the body is not getting enough blood flow.
32. Which type of shock is caused by damage to the nervous system? A. Obstructive shock. B. Hypovolemic shock. C. Neurogenic shock. D. Cardiogenic shock.
33. Something outside the heart is preventing it from pumping enough blood. Which type of shock is this? A. Neurogenic shock. B. Obstructive shock. C. Septic shock. D. Anaphylactic shock.
34. Which pair of findings fits a patient in shock? A. Pale, cool, clammy skin and a rapid but weak pulse. B. Hot, dry, flushed skin and a slow, strong pulse. C. Pink, warm skin and a normal pulse. D. Itchy hives with no pulse change.
35. A conscious shock patient has no head, neck, spine or leg injury. How should you position them? A. Sitting upright with the head raised. B. Prone with arms above the head. C. On their back with the head raised on a pillow. D. On their back with legs raised about 12 inches, head not elevated.
36. A shock patient has a suspected spinal injury and must be moved. What should you do? A. Raise their legs 12 inches. B. Sit them up. C. Log roll them, keeping the head, neck and back in line. D. Turn the head first, then the body.
37. A shock patient asks for water. What is the right response? A. Give small sips of water. B. Give nothing by mouth. C. Give a sugary drink. D. Give a salted drink.
38. What is the most important step for controlling external bleeding? A. Apply direct pressure. B. Apply a tourniquet first. C. Elevate the limb only. D. Pack the wound with ice.
39. Blood is soaking through the dressing you are holding on a wound. What do you do? A. Remove it and apply a fresh one. B. Stop pressure to check the wound. C. Rinse the wound with water. D. Leave it in place and add another cloth on top.
40. Where should a tourniquet be placed on a bleeding limb? A. Directly over the wound. B. Below the wound. C. 2 to 3 inches above the wound, avoiding the joint. D. Over the nearest joint.
41. After applying a tourniquet, what must you record? A. The patient's blood type. B. The time it was applied. C. The color of the dressing. D. Nothing; it is self-explanatory.
42. A patient has a knife stuck in the thigh. What should you do with the object? A. Leave it in, pad around it and tape it in place. B. Pull it out and apply pressure. C. Twist it to check depth. D. Cut it flush with the skin.
43. Organs are showing through an abdominal wound. What is the correct care? A. Push them back inside gently. B. Cover with a dry, tight bandage and press hard. C. Leave the wound uncovered. D. Do not push them back; cover with a moist cloth or bandage.
44. For which injury is direct pressure NOT the method of choice for bleeding? A. A forearm cut. B. A shin abrasion. C. An eye injury. D. A cut on the palm.
45. A burn is red, swollen, painful and blistered. Which depth is it? A. Superficial (formerly first-degree). B. Partial-thickness (formerly second-degree). C. Full-thickness (formerly third-degree). D. Not a burn.
46. A burn looks white or blackened and the skin is numb. Which depth is it? A. Full-thickness (formerly third-degree). B. Superficial (formerly first-degree). C. Partial-thickness (formerly second-degree). D. A minor burn needing no care.
47. Burned clothing is stuck to a patient's skin. What should you do? A. Peel it off quickly. B. Soak it in oil and pull it off. C. Pull it off after cooling the skin. D. Leave it in place.
48. Why should a severe burn not be placed in cold water? A. It makes the blisters bigger. B. It speeds up healing too much. C. It can cause shock. D. It is only a problem for small burns.
49. A burn patient has an airway burn. Why should you not put a pillow under their head? A. It raises the blood pressure. B. It can close the airway. C. It cools the patient. D. It spreads the burn.
50. A person is still touching an exposed electrical wire. How should you separate them before first aid? A. With a non-metallic object. B. With your bare hands. C. With a metal pole. D. By pouring water on them.
51. Which age groups face a higher chance of complications and death from severe burns? A. Teenagers and young adults. B. Adults aged 30 to 50. C. Only infants under 6 months. D. Children under 5 and adults over 55.
52. Below what body temperature is hypothermia defined? A. 98.6°F (37°C). B. 90°F (32°C). C. 95°F (35°C). D. 100°F (37.8°C).
53. Which rewarming method should be avoided for a hypothermic patient? A. Warm compresses to the neck, chest wall and groin. B. Direct heat such as a heating pad, heat lamp or hot water. C. Removing wet clothing. D. Covering with warm blankets.
54. You find a person lying motionless in the cold. What should you assume? A. Do not assume they are dead; start assessment and care. B. They are dead and need no care. C. They are only sleeping. D. They should be rubbed vigorously to wake them.
55. A patient has both frostbite and signs of hypothermia. Which do you treat first? A. The frostbite. B. Neither until transport. C. Whichever is more painful. D. The hypothermia.
56. Why should a frostbitten area not be thawed if it cannot be kept thawed? A. Thawing is always harmful. B. Frostbite heals faster frozen. C. Refreezing causes more severe damage. D. Thawing raises blood pressure.
57. Which body areas are most prone to frostbite? A. Chest and abdomen. B. Hands, feet, nose and ears. C. Upper arms and thighs. D. Back and shoulders.
58. According to MedlinePlus, what is the first stage of heat illness? A. Muscle cramps. B. Heat stroke. C. Seizures. D. Loss of consciousness.
59. Which finding points to heat stroke rather than heat exhaustion? A. Cool, moist skin. B. Mild thirst only. C. Muscle cramps with normal mental status. D. The body can no longer regulate temperature and sweating may stop.
60. Where should cold compresses go for a person with a heat emergency? A. Forehead only. B. Hands and feet only. C. Neck, groin and armpits. D. Chest only.
61. Should a heat stroke patient be given aspirin or acetaminophen? A. Yes, aspirin only. B. No; fever medicines will not help and may be harmful. C. Yes, acetaminophen only. D. Yes, both together.
62. You suspect a spinal injury in a patient lying on the ground. How should you hold the head and neck? A. In the position found, without straightening, bending or twisting the neck. B. Straightened into a neutral line right away. C. Turned to one side to open the airway. D. Raised on a pillow for comfort.
63. An injured football player may have a spinal injury. What should be done with the helmet and pads? A. Remove the helmet only. B. Remove the pads only. C. Remove both before moving the player. D. Leave them on.
64. When is it acceptable to roll over a person with a suspected spinal injury? A. Whenever they say they are uncomfortable. B. As soon as you arrive, to inspect the back. C. When they are vomiting or choking on blood, or you must check breathing. D. Never, even if they are choking.
65. What is the most common type of traumatic brain injury? A. Epidural hematoma. B. Concussion. C. Open skull fracture. D. Penetrating brain injury.
66. After a head injury, which pupil finding means the person needs medical help right away? A. Pupils of unequal sizes. B. Pupils that shrink in bright light. C. Pupils of equal size. D. Pupils that widen in a dark room.
67. A scalp wound is bleeding and you suspect a skull fracture. What is the correct care? A. Press firmly on the bleeding site. B. Pull out the debris, then press. C. Pack the wound tightly with gauze. D. No direct pressure and no debris removal; cover with sterile gauze.
68. Which mechanisms make a spinal cord injury likely along with a head injury? A. A minor bump on a cupboard door. B. A sunburn on the scalp. C. A fall from a significant height or ejection from a vehicle. D. A nosebleed.
69. A head-injured person is unconscious, but breathing and heart rate are normal. How should you treat them? A. Sit them up to wake them. B. As if they have a spinal injury: stabilize the head and neck in line. C. Shake them gently to check response. D. Give them water.
70. A young child fell and shows a sign of head injury. Should you pick the child up? A. No; do not pick up a fallen child with any sign of head injury. B. Yes, to comfort the child. C. Yes, but only by the arms. D. Yes, if the child is crying.
71. In anaphylaxis, which voice change warns of dangerous throat swelling? A. A louder voice than normal. B. A high-pitched laugh. C. No voice change is ever a warning. D. A very hoarse or whispered voice.
72. A bee stinger is still in the skin of a person having an allergic reaction. How should you remove it? A. Pull it out with tweezers. B. Squeeze it out between two fingers. C. Scrape it off with something firm, such as a fingernail or plastic card. D. Leave it in place.
73. Is there a contraindication to giving epinephrine in a severe allergic reaction? A. Yes, any history of heart disease. B. No, there is no contraindication. C. Yes, age over 65. D. Yes, if the person has hives.
74. A person in anaphylaxis is having difficulty breathing. What should you do about their emergency allergy medicine? A. Use the epinephrine injector right away; give nothing by mouth. B. Give an oral antihistamine first. C. Wait for symptoms to worsen before using it. D. Have them swallow their pills with water.
75. How quickly do anaphylaxis symptoms usually develop after exposure? A. Only after several days. B. Always exactly one hour later. C. Only after a second meal. D. Quickly, often within seconds or minutes.
76. A choking adult is coughing forcefully and can speak. What should you do? A. Start abdominal thrusts. B. Give 5 back blows. C. Do not intervene; encourage them to keep coughing. D. Sweep the mouth with a finger.
77. A choking adult cannot speak. What cycle should you perform? A. 30 chest compressions and 2 breaths. B. 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts, repeated. C. 10 abdominal thrusts only. D. 2 back blows and 2 chest thrusts.
78. The choking person is pregnant. What replaces the abdominal thrusts? A. Chest thrusts. B. More back blows only. C. Finger sweeps. D. Rescue breaths.
79. Where does the fist go for abdominal thrusts on a choking adult? A. On the lower end of the breastbone. B. Below the navel at the hips. C. Over the left side of the chest. D. Thumb side just above the navel, well below the breastbone.
80. A choking adult becomes unconscious. What changes? A. Keep giving abdominal thrusts. B. Stop and wait for help. C. Switch from abdominal thrusts to chest compressions. D. Give back blows only.
81. An object is lodged in a choking person's throat. Why should you not grasp it? A. It will dissolve by itself. B. Grasping can push it farther into the airway. C. It is always too small to reach. D. Grasping is fine if done quickly.
82. How are back blows given to a choking infant under 1 year? A. Up to 5 quick, forceful blows between the shoulder blades with the palm. B. With a closed fist on the lower back. C. With two fingers on the chest. D. By shaking the infant upside down.
83. When should you try to remove an object from a choking infant's mouth? A. Always, with a blind finger sweep. B. Never, under any condition. C. Only after 10 minutes. D. Only if you can see it.
84. You are alone with a choking infant who has stopped breathing. When do you leave to call for help? A. Immediately, before any care. B. After 10 minutes of CPR. C. Only after performing 2 minutes of CPR. D. Never; keep doing back blows.
85. An infant stops breathing because of asthma, not choking. Should you give back blows and chest thrusts? A. Yes, always. B. No; give CPR instead. C. Yes, but only back blows. D. Yes, but only chest thrusts.
86. How deep should chest compressions be for adult CPR? A. About 2 inches (5 centimeters). B. About 1/2 inch. C. About 4 inches. D. Just enough to feel resistance.
87. What is the target compression rate for adult CPR? A. 60 to 80 per minute. B. 140 to 160 per minute. C. 30 per minute. D. 100 to 120 per minute, with pauses under 10 seconds.
88. With two rescuers doing CPR, how often should they switch compressors? A. Every 30 seconds. B. Every 10 minutes. C. Every 2 minutes, or after about 5 cycles of 30:2. D. Only when one is exhausted.
89. Where do you place your hands for adult chest compressions? A. On the upper chest near the collarbones. B. Heel of one hand in the center of the chest, between the nipples. C. On the left side over the heart. D. On the upper abdomen.
90. How soon can permanent brain damage begin without oxygen? A. After only 4 minutes. B. After 30 minutes. C. After 1 hour. D. Only after 10 minutes.
91. A person found not breathing may have overdosed on fentanyl. What should be added to CPR if available? A. Aspirin. B. Activated charcoal by mouth. C. Nothing; stop CPR. D. Naloxone, without interfering with CPR.
92. When does an AED deliver a shock? A. Every time the pads are attached. B. Whenever the rescuer presses a button. C. Only if it detects that a shock is needed. D. Every 2 minutes automatically.
93. For CPR purposes, how is the onset of puberty defined? A. Age 18 for everyone. B. Breast development in females, armpit hair in males. C. Body weight over 100 pounds. D. Height over 5 feet.
94. What causes an ischemic stroke? A. A blood clot blocking a vessel that supplies the brain. B. A burst blood vessel bleeding into the brain. C. Low blood sugar. D. A seizure.
95. What happens in a hemorrhagic stroke? A. A clot blocks a brain artery. B. Blood sugar drops too low. C. The heart stops briefly. D. A weakened blood vessel in the brain bursts and blood leaks into the brain.
96. What is the main risk factor for stroke? A. Low blood pressure. B. Seasonal allergies. C. High blood pressure. D. Mild dehydration.
97. Why does the time of symptom onset matter so much in a clot-caused stroke? A. It decides which arm to check. B. Clot-busting treatment must start within 4 1/2 hours of symptom onset. C. Symptoms always stop after 1 hour. D. It sets the CPR rate.
98. During a stroke check, the patient raises both arms and one drifts downward. Which part of the F.A.S.T. check is this? A. Arms. B. Face. C. Speech. D. Time.
99. Which patients are more likely to have subtle or unusual heart attack symptoms? A. Young men only. B. Athletes only. C. Children only. D. Women, older adults and people with diabetes.
100. How is heart attack chest pain usually described? A. A sharp pain only when touched. B. Itching over the ribs. C. Pressure, squeezing or fullness in the center of the chest. D. Pain that only happens when lying down.
101. A possible heart attack patient has prescribed nitroglycerin for a known heart condition. What should you do? A. Take it away from them. B. Help them take it. C. Give it with a large meal. D. Ignore it.

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