NREMT Practice Test (EMT) with Answers
NREMT-style EMT practice for independent study: review 101 original questions, each answered from and quoted from the HHS CHEMM triage pages or the MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia of the National Library of Medicine. Not affiliated with the NREMT; these are not exam items.
EMT-level practice questions on mass casualty triage (START, JumpSTART, SALT), shock, bleeding control, burns, cold and heat emergencies, spinal and head injury, anaphylaxis, choking, CPR, stroke and heart attack, cited to CHEMM (U.S. Department of Health and Human Services) and the MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia (National Library of Medicine). Every answer is grounded in a quoted source line. Not affiliated with the NREMT.
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01START mass casualty triage is meant for patients who appear to be older than what age? A. 2 years old. B. 8 years old. C. 12 years old. D. 18 years old.
B. 8 years old. START covers patients who look older than 8; younger children are sorted with the pediatric JumpSTART tool.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“The START algorithm assigns patients who appear to be older than 8 years old to four triage categories”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗02In START triage, which tag goes on a patient with life-threatening injuries who still has a high chance of survival? A. Immediate (red). B. Delayed (yellow). C. Minor (green). D. Expectant (black).
A. Immediate (red). Red means severe or life-threatening injuries with a good chance of survival, so treatment and transport come first.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Immediate, Red Tag: Patient has severe or life-threatening injuries but a high potential for survival; immediate treatment/transportation is required.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗03A START patient has serious injuries that are not immediately life-threatening and is not expected to worsen for several hours. Which category fits? A. Immediate (red). B. Minor (green). C. Expectant (black). D. Delayed (yellow).
D. Delayed (yellow). Yellow covers serious injuries that can wait for transport because the patient should stay stable for hours.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Delayed, Yellow Tag: Patient has serious but not immediately life-threatening injuries. Patient is not expected to deteriorate over several hours, so transport can be delayed.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗04Which START category describes a patient with relatively minor injuries who may be able to help with their own care? A. Delayed (yellow). B. Immediate (red). C. Minor (green). D. Expectant (black).
C. Minor (green). Green patients have minor injuries, are unlikely to worsen for days and can wait until sicker patients are handled.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Minor, Green Tag: Patient has relatively minor injuries and their status is unlikely to deteriorate over days. Patient may be able to assist in their own care”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗05In START, which finding counts as adequate perfusion? A. A carotid pulse only. B. A palpable radial pulse or capillary refill under 2 seconds. C. Capillary refill under 5 seconds. D. A blood pressure reading above 90 systolic.
B. A palpable radial pulse or capillary refill under 2 seconds. START checks perfusion with a radial pulse or a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“A palpable radial pulse or a capillary refill rate of <2 seconds”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗06How does START assess mental status? A. By whether the patient can obey commands. B. By a full Glasgow Coma Scale score. C. By pupil size. D. By asking the date and place.
A. By whether the patient can obey commands. Mental status in START is judged simply by the patient's ability to follow commands.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Mental status, as assessed by ability to obey commands”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗07According to CHEMM, START is best suited to which kind of incident? A. Only chemical incidents. B. Only pediatric incidents. C. Single-patient medical calls. D. Traumatic incidents.
D. Traumatic incidents. START works best in trauma, though it can also help track patient status during chemical incidents.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“START is best used in traumatic situations but can provide support for the status of the patient during chemical incidents.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗08What expected respiratory rate range does JumpSTART use for children? A. 12 to 20 breaths per minute. B. 30 to 60 breaths per minute. C. 15 to 45 breaths per minute. D. 10 to 30 breaths per minute.
C. 15 to 45 breaths per minute. JumpSTART treats a rate inside 15-45 as expected and a rate outside it as a warning sign.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Respiratory rate inside or outside the expected range of 15-45 breaths per minute”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗09How does JumpSTART relate to START? A. It replaces START for all patients. B. It modifies START with age-appropriate physiological parameters for children. C. It is used only for chemical exposures. D. It is a hospital-only reassessment tool.
B. It modifies START with age-appropriate physiological parameters for children. JumpSTART keeps the START approach but adjusts the physiological thresholds for young patients.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“JumpSTART is a modification of START that applies age-appropriate physiological parameters to assessing the status of pediatric patients.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗10In JumpSTART, how is perfusion assessed? A. By the presence or absence of a palpable pulse. B. By blood pressure. C. By urine output. D. By skin temperature alone.
A. By the presence or absence of a palpable pulse. JumpSTART uses whether a pulse can be felt to judge perfusion.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Perfusion assessment by presence or absence of a palpable pulse”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗11In JumpSTART, which category fits a child who is breathing but is unlikely to survive given the injuries and the care available? A. Immediate (red). B. Delayed (yellow). C. Minor (green). D. Expectant (black).
D. Expectant (black). The black category covers a breathing child judged unlikely to survive, who should get comfort care and pain relief.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Expectant, Black Triage Tag Color: Patient who is breathing but is unlikely to survive given the severity of injuries, level of care available, or both.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗12A JumpSTART immediate (red) patient is expected to deteriorate within what time frame? A. Several hours. B. Days. C. Minutes. D. Weeks.
C. Minutes. Red patients have airway, breathing or circulation threats and are expected to get worse within minutes.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“requires immediate treatment and transport for survival. Condition expected to deteriorate within minutes.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗13After the triage officer tags patients, what do the rescuers who follow do? A. Re-run the full triage on every patient. B. Read the tag color and text and take the appropriate action. C. Remove the tags before transport. D. Treat patients in the order they were tagged.
B. Read the tag color and text and take the appropriate action. Tags carry the decision forward so later rescuers can act on them without repeating triage.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Rescuers following behind the triage officer would view the color and text of the triage tag and take appropriate action.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗14In the SALT global sort, which patients are assessed first? A. Those who are not moving or have an obvious life threat. B. Those who can walk. C. Those who can wave. D. Children before adults, regardless of condition.
A. Those who are not moving or have an obvious life threat. SALT checks still patients and obvious life threats first, then those who wave or move purposefully, then walkers.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Patients who are not moving or have an obvious life threat should be assessed first.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗15In SALT, what happens to patients who are able to walk? A. They are assessed first. B. They are tagged black. C. They are sent home. D. They are directed to a safe area and assessed last.
D. They are directed to a safe area and assessed last. Walking patients are moved to a safe area and assessed after the still and the waving patients.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Patients who are able to walk should be directed to a safe area and assessed last.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗16About how long should each SALT individual assessment take? A. About five minutes. B. About ten minutes. C. Less than one minute. D. As long as a full secondary exam takes.
C. Less than one minute. Individual SALT assessments should take under a minute and focus on finding and treating life threats.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Individual patient assessments should take less than one minute”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗17During SALT lifesaving interventions, what may be given to a child after opening the airway? A. Full CPR for two minutes. B. Two rescue breaths. C. Oral glucose. D. Nothing until transport.
B. Two rescue breaths. SALT allows two rescue breaths for children as part of opening the airway.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“identifying and treating life threats by opening the patient's airway (for children, two rescue breaths may be given)”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗18Which SALT lifesaving intervention is used to control major hemorrhage? A. A tourniquet. B. Elevation alone. C. An ice pack. D. A pressure point only.
A. A tourniquet. SALT names a tourniquet for major hemorrhage during the rapid individual assessment.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“controlling major hemorrhage with a tourniquet, providing needle decompression of the chest (if so trained), or administering an antidote, if available.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗19In SALT, what color tag marks the expectant category? A. Black. B. Red. C. Yellow. D. Grey.
D. Grey. SALT uses grey for expectant patients and keeps black for the dead.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Expectant, Grey Tag: Patient is not expected to survive given the nature/severity of injuries”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗20In SALT, what does a black tag mean? A. The patient is expectant but still breathing. B. The patient needs immediate transport. C. The patient is dead: not breathing or has injuries incompatible with life. D. The patient has minor injuries.
C. The patient is dead: not breathing or has injuries incompatible with life. Black in SALT is reserved for patients who are not breathing or whose injuries are incompatible with life.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Dead, Black Tag: Patient who is not breathing or who has injuries incompatible with life.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗21What was SALT developed in 2008 to be? A. A pediatric-only triage tool. B. A national all-hazards mass casualty initial triage standard for all patients. C. A hospital discharge scale. D. A chemical antidote protocol.
B. A national all-hazards mass casualty initial triage standard for all patients. SALT was built as one all-hazards initial triage standard for patients of every age.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“SALT was developed during 2008 as a national all-hazards mass casualty initial triage standard for all patients.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗22In a chemical incident, which two factors together determine a patient's exposure dose? A. Time and concentration of the chemical. B. Age and weight. C. Temperature and humidity. D. Skin color and pulse.
A. Time and concentration of the chemical. How long someone was exposed and how concentrated the chemical was both add to the dose.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Both time and concentration of the chemical contribute to the overall exposure dose”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗23A chemical-exposure patient also has blast injuries and severe burns. How should they be prioritized? A. Lowest priority until decontamination is complete. B. Same as an uninjured exposed patient. C. Delayed, because burns develop slowly. D. Highest priority for treatment and transport.
D. Highest priority for treatment and transport. Combined trauma and chemical exposure can cause a rapid decline, so these patients go first.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Patients who have blast injuries, severe thermal burns, or other traumatic injuries in addition to chemical exposure should be highest priority for treatment and transport”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗24Why do children lose heat faster than adults during decontamination? A. They shiver more strongly. B. They have thicker skin. C. They have a larger skin surface area relative to body mass. D. They breathe more slowly.
C. They have a larger skin surface area relative to body mass. More skin surface per unit of body mass means faster heat loss when children are washed down.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“will lose heat faster than adults during decontamination due to their larger skin surface area relative to body mass.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗25Why can a child appear stable and then quickly become critical? A. Children never compensate for shock. B. Their circulation can hold heart rate and blood pressure normal in early dehydration or shock. C. Their blood pressure drops first in every case. D. Children always show symptoms early.
B. Their circulation can hold heart rate and blood pressure normal in early dehydration or shock. Children compensate well early on, so normal vital signs can hide shock until they decline fast.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“pediatric patients may change rapidly from stable to critical due to more flexibility in their circulatory systems to maintain normal heart rate and blood pressure during early stages of dehydration or shock.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗26For an infant too young to walk or follow commands, which set of findings should triage assess instead? A. Alertness, purposeful movement when touched or held, and turning toward sound or movement. B. Ability to walk and obey commands. C. Blood pressure and urine output. D. Pupil size and speech.
A. Alertness, purposeful movement when touched or held, and turning toward sound or movement. When walking and commands do not apply, look at alertness, purposeful movement and attention to sound or movement.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Consciousness and alertness, Ability to move purposefully in response to being touched or held, and Ability to attend to sound or movement by looking or turning the head.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗27Why should pregnant chemical-exposure patients be prioritized for urgent transport? A. Because they never need decontamination. B. Because they always have minor injuries. C. Because on-scene fetal monitoring is always available. D. For fetal assessment and more specialized care at a medical facility.
D. For fetal assessment and more specialized care at a medical facility. Pregnant patients need a facility that can assess the fetus and provide specialized care.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Pregnant patients should be prioritized for urgent treatment and transport to a medical facility for fetal assessment and more specialized care.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗28A tagged patient is getting rapidly worse while waiting on scene. What should happen? A. Keep the original tag. B. Move to the expectant category automatically. C. Re-triage to a more urgent category. D. Remove the tag.
C. Re-triage to a more urgent category. Triage is ongoing; a declining patient is moved to a more urgent category.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Patients with rapidly declining status should be re-triaged to a more urgent category for treatment and transport.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗29When can a chemical-exposure patient who was stable at first get worse? A. Only within the first five minutes. B. On scene or even hours to days after the event. C. Never, once stable. D. Only after hospital discharge.
B. On scene or even hours to days after the event. Delayed onset is common with some chemicals, so stable exposed patients need close monitoring.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Patients who are initially stable or asymptomatic may experience worsening symptoms while still on the scene”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗30Why might a child get a bigger dose of a ground-level chemical than an adult in the same place? A. Shorter stature puts them closer to ground-level contamination. B. Children breathe more slowly. C. Children have thicker skin. D. Children always move away faster.
A. Shorter stature puts them closer to ground-level contamination. Being shorter puts a child closer to ground-level contamination, and a faster breathing rate adds to the inhaled dose.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Shorter stature may increase exposure to contamination at ground level.”
— CHEMM (Chemical Hazards Emergency Medical Management), U.S. Department of Health and Human Services ↗31What is shock? A. A brief fainting spell that always resolves alone. B. A drop in blood sugar only. C. An allergic skin rash. D. A life-threatening condition in which the body is not getting enough blood flow.
D. A life-threatening condition in which the body is not getting enough blood flow. Shock means inadequate blood flow to the body, which is life-threatening.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the body is not getting enough blood flow.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗32Which type of shock is caused by damage to the nervous system? A. Obstructive shock. B. Hypovolemic shock. C. Neurogenic shock. D. Cardiogenic shock.
C. Neurogenic shock. Neurogenic shock follows nervous system damage, for example a spinal injury.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Neurogenic shock (caused by damage to the nervous system)”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗33Something outside the heart is preventing it from pumping enough blood. Which type of shock is this? A. Neurogenic shock. B. Obstructive shock. C. Septic shock. D. Anaphylactic shock.
B. Obstructive shock. Obstructive shock comes from a blockage outside the heart that stops it pumping effectively.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Obstructive shock (caused by something outside of the heart which prevents the heart from pumping enough blood)”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗34Which pair of findings fits a patient in shock? A. Pale, cool, clammy skin and a rapid but weak pulse. B. Hot, dry, flushed skin and a slow, strong pulse. C. Pink, warm skin and a normal pulse. D. Itchy hives with no pulse change.
A. Pale, cool, clammy skin and a rapid but weak pulse. Shock commonly shows pale, cool, clammy skin with a rapid, weak pulse.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Pale, cool, clammy skin Low or no urine output Profuse sweating , moist skin Rapid but weak pulse”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗35A conscious shock patient has no head, neck, spine or leg injury. How should you position them? A. Sitting upright with the head raised. B. Prone with arms above the head. C. On their back with the head raised on a pillow. D. On their back with legs raised about 12 inches, head not elevated.
D. On their back with legs raised about 12 inches, head not elevated. The shock position is supine with the legs raised about 12 inches and the head left flat.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Lay the person on their back and elevate their legs about 12 inches (30 centimeters). Do not elevate their head.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗36A shock patient has a suspected spinal injury and must be moved. What should you do? A. Raise their legs 12 inches. B. Sit them up. C. Log roll them, keeping the head, neck and back in line. D. Turn the head first, then the body.
C. Log roll them, keeping the head, neck and back in line. With a possible spinal injury, skip leg elevation and log roll the patient as one unit.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“If a spinal injury is suspected, "log roll" the person instead. To do this, keep the person's head, neck, and back in line, and roll the body and head as a unit.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗37A shock patient asks for water. What is the right response? A. Give small sips of water. B. Give nothing by mouth. C. Give a sugary drink. D. Give a salted drink.
B. Give nothing by mouth. Shock patients should not be given anything to eat or drink.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not give the person anything by mouth, including anything to eat or drink.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗38What is the most important step for controlling external bleeding? A. Apply direct pressure. B. Apply a tourniquet first. C. Elevate the limb only. D. Pack the wound with ice.
A. Apply direct pressure. Direct pressure comes first for external bleeding.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“The most important step for external bleeding is to apply direct pressure.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗39Blood is soaking through the dressing you are holding on a wound. What do you do? A. Remove it and apply a fresh one. B. Stop pressure to check the wound. C. Rinse the wound with water. D. Leave it in place and add another cloth on top.
D. Leave it in place and add another cloth on top. Removing a soaked dressing disturbs clotting; add another layer over the first.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“If bleeding continues and seeps through the material being held on the wound, do not remove it. Simply place another cloth over the first one.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗40Where should a tourniquet be placed on a bleeding limb? A. Directly over the wound. B. Below the wound. C. 2 to 3 inches above the wound, avoiding the joint. D. Over the nearest joint.
C. 2 to 3 inches above the wound, avoiding the joint. Place it 2 to 3 inches above the bleeding wound and not over a joint.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“The tourniquet should be applied to the limb 2 to 3 in (5 to 7.7 cm) above the bleeding wound. Avoid the joint.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗41After applying a tourniquet, what must you record? A. The patient's blood type. B. The time it was applied. C. The color of the dressing. D. Nothing; it is self-explanatory.
B. The time it was applied. Recording the time matters because a tourniquet left on too long can injure nerves and tissue.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“always write down the time when the tourniquet was applied”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗42A patient has a knife stuck in the thigh. What should you do with the object? A. Leave it in, pad around it and tape it in place. B. Pull it out and apply pressure. C. Twist it to check depth. D. Cut it flush with the skin.
A. Leave it in, pad around it and tape it in place. Impaled objects stay in place and are stabilized with padding and tape.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Place pads and bandages around the object and tape the object in place.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗43Organs are showing through an abdominal wound. What is the correct care? A. Push them back inside gently. B. Cover with a dry, tight bandage and press hard. C. Leave the wound uncovered. D. Do not push them back; cover with a moist cloth or bandage.
D. Do not push them back; cover with a moist cloth or bandage. Never replace exposed organs; cover them with a moist dressing.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Cover the injury with a moist cloth or bandage.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗44For which injury is direct pressure NOT the method of choice for bleeding? A. A forearm cut. B. A shin abrasion. C. An eye injury. D. A cut on the palm.
C. An eye injury. Direct pressure is best for external bleeding except for eye injuries.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Direct pressure is best for external bleeding, except for an eye injury.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗45A burn is red, swollen, painful and blistered. Which depth is it? A. Superficial (formerly first-degree). B. Partial-thickness (formerly second-degree). C. Full-thickness (formerly third-degree). D. Not a burn.
B. Partial-thickness (formerly second-degree). Blistering with pain, redness and swelling marks a partial-thickness burn.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Partial-thickness burns (formerly known as second-degree burns) affect both the outer and underlying layer of skin. They cause pain, redness, swelling, and blistering.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗46A burn looks white or blackened and the skin is numb. Which depth is it? A. Full-thickness (formerly third-degree). B. Superficial (formerly first-degree). C. Partial-thickness (formerly second-degree). D. A minor burn needing no care.
A. Full-thickness (formerly third-degree). Full-thickness burns reach the deep skin layers and can be numb, which is why the worst burns can be painless.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Full-thickness burns (formerly known as third-degree burns) affect the deep layers of skin. They cause white or blackened, burned skin. The skin may be numb.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗47Burned clothing is stuck to a patient's skin. What should you do? A. Peel it off quickly. B. Soak it in oil and pull it off. C. Pull it off after cooling the skin. D. Leave it in place.
D. Leave it in place. Stuck clothing stays; removing it tears the burned skin.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not remove burned clothing that is stuck to the skin.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗48Why should a severe burn not be placed in cold water? A. It makes the blisters bigger. B. It speeds up healing too much. C. It can cause shock. D. It is only a problem for small burns.
C. It can cause shock. Cold-water immersion of a large severe burn can bring on shock.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not place a severe burn in cold water. This can cause shock.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗49A burn patient has an airway burn. Why should you not put a pillow under their head? A. It raises the blood pressure. B. It can close the airway. C. It cools the patient. D. It spreads the burn.
B. It can close the airway. Flexing the neck with a pillow can close an already swollen airway.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not place a pillow under the person's head if there is an airway burn. This can close the airway.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗50A person is still touching an exposed electrical wire. How should you separate them before first aid? A. With a non-metallic object. B. With your bare hands. C. With a metal pole. D. By pouring water on them.
A. With a non-metallic object. Use something that does not conduct electricity to push them away from the wire.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Use a non-metallic object to separate the person away from exposed wires before starting first aid.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗51Which age groups face a higher chance of complications and death from severe burns? A. Teenagers and young adults. B. Adults aged 30 to 50. C. Only infants under 6 months. D. Children under 5 and adults over 55.
D. Children under 5 and adults over 55. The very young and older adults do worst with severe burns.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Children under age 5 and adults over age 55 have a higher chance of complications and death from severe burns”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗52Below what body temperature is hypothermia defined? A. 98.6°F (37°C). B. 90°F (32°C). C. 95°F (35°C). D. 100°F (37.8°C).
C. 95°F (35°C). Hypothermia is a dangerously low body temperature below 95°F (35°C).
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Hypothermia is a dangerously low body temperature, below 95°F (35°C).”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗53Which rewarming method should be avoided for a hypothermic patient? A. Warm compresses to the neck, chest wall and groin. B. Direct heat such as a heating pad, heat lamp or hot water. C. Removing wet clothing. D. Covering with warm blankets.
B. Direct heat such as a heating pad, heat lamp or hot water. Direct heat should not be used; warm compresses go to the neck, chest wall and groin.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Apply warm compresses to the neck, chest wall, and groin.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗54You find a person lying motionless in the cold. What should you assume? A. Do not assume they are dead; start assessment and care. B. They are dead and need no care. C. They are only sleeping. D. They should be rubbed vigorously to wake them.
A. Do not assume they are dead; start assessment and care. Severe hypothermia can look like death, so never assume a cold, still person has died.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not assume that someone found lying motionless in the cold is already dead.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗55A patient has both frostbite and signs of hypothermia. Which do you treat first? A. The frostbite. B. Neither until transport. C. Whichever is more painful. D. The hypothermia.
D. The hypothermia. Hypothermia is the bigger threat, so it is treated before frostbite.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Look for signs of hypothermia and treat that condition first.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗56Why should a frostbitten area not be thawed if it cannot be kept thawed? A. Thawing is always harmful. B. Frostbite heals faster frozen. C. Refreezing causes more severe damage. D. Thawing raises blood pressure.
C. Refreezing causes more severe damage. Thaw-then-refreeze injures the tissue more than leaving it frozen until it can stay warm.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Refreezing of thawed extremities can cause more severe damage.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗57Which body areas are most prone to frostbite? A. Chest and abdomen. B. Hands, feet, nose and ears. C. Upper arms and thighs. D. Back and shoulders.
B. Hands, feet, nose and ears. The hands, feet, nose and ears are the usual frostbite sites.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“The hands, feet, nose, and ears are the places most prone to frostbite.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗58According to MedlinePlus, what is the first stage of heat illness? A. Muscle cramps. B. Heat stroke. C. Seizures. D. Loss of consciousness.
A. Muscle cramps. Cramps come first; untreated, they can progress to heat exhaustion and then heat stroke.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Muscle cramps are the first stage of heat illness.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗59Which finding points to heat stroke rather than heat exhaustion? A. Cool, moist skin. B. Mild thirst only. C. Muscle cramps with normal mental status. D. The body can no longer regulate temperature and sweating may stop.
D. The body can no longer regulate temperature and sweating may stop. In heat stroke the temperature keeps climbing and sweating may stop.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Heat stroke occurs when the body is no longer able to regulate its temperature, and it keeps rising. At this point, sweating may stop.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗60Where should cold compresses go for a person with a heat emergency? A. Forehead only. B. Hands and feet only. C. Neck, groin and armpits. D. Chest only.
C. Neck, groin and armpits. Cold compresses go to the neck, groin and armpits.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Place cold compresses on the person's neck, groin, and armpits.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗61Should a heat stroke patient be given aspirin or acetaminophen? A. Yes, aspirin only. B. No; fever medicines will not help and may be harmful. C. Yes, acetaminophen only. D. Yes, both together.
B. No; fever medicines will not help and may be harmful. Fever reducers do not treat heat illness and may cause harm.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not give the person medicines that are used to treat fever (such as aspirin or acetaminophen).”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗62You suspect a spinal injury in a patient lying on the ground. How should you hold the head and neck? A. In the position found, without straightening, bending or twisting the neck. B. Straightened into a neutral line right away. C. Turned to one side to open the airway. D. Raised on a pillow for comfort.
A. In the position found, without straightening, bending or twisting the neck. Hold the head and neck as found; do not straighten, bend or twist the neck.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Hold the person's head and neck in the position in which they were found. Do not try to straighten the neck. Do not allow the neck to bend or twist.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗63An injured football player may have a spinal injury. What should be done with the helmet and pads? A. Remove the helmet only. B. Remove the pads only. C. Remove both before moving the player. D. Leave them on.
D. Leave them on. When a spinal injury is suspected, the football helmet and pads stay on.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not remove a football helmet or pads if a spinal injury is suspected.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗64When is it acceptable to roll over a person with a suspected spinal injury? A. Whenever they say they are uncomfortable. B. As soon as you arrive, to inspect the back. C. When they are vomiting or choking on blood, or you must check breathing. D. Never, even if they are choking.
C. When they are vomiting or choking on blood, or you must check breathing. Roll only for vomiting, choking on blood or to check breathing, and keep the head, neck and back in line.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not roll the person over unless the person is vomiting or choking on blood, or you need to check for breathing.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗65What is the most common type of traumatic brain injury? A. Epidural hematoma. B. Concussion. C. Open skull fracture. D. Penetrating brain injury.
B. Concussion. Concussion, usually from the brain being shaken, is the most common traumatic brain injury.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Concussion , most often in which the brain has been shaken, is the most common type of traumatic brain injury.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗66After a head injury, which pupil finding means the person needs medical help right away? A. Pupils of unequal sizes. B. Pupils that shrink in bright light. C. Pupils of equal size. D. Pupils that widen in a dark room.
A. Pupils of unequal sizes. Unequal pupils after a head injury are a red flag for a serious brain injury.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Has pupils (the dark central part of the eye) of unequal sizes”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗67A scalp wound is bleeding and you suspect a skull fracture. What is the correct care? A. Press firmly on the bleeding site. B. Pull out the debris, then press. C. Pack the wound tightly with gauze. D. No direct pressure and no debris removal; cover with sterile gauze.
D. No direct pressure and no debris removal; cover with sterile gauze. With a possible skull fracture, avoid direct pressure and leave debris; cover the wound with sterile gauze.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“If you suspect a skull fracture, do not apply direct pressure to the bleeding site, and do not remove any debris from the wound. Cover the wound with sterile gauze dressing.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗68Which mechanisms make a spinal cord injury likely along with a head injury? A. A minor bump on a cupboard door. B. A sunburn on the scalp. C. A fall from a significant height or ejection from a vehicle. D. A nosebleed.
C. A fall from a significant height or ejection from a vehicle. High falls and vehicle ejection carry a high chance of spinal cord injury.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“The spinal cord is also likely to be injured from falls from a significant height or ejection from a vehicle.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗69A head-injured person is unconscious, but breathing and heart rate are normal. How should you treat them? A. Sit them up to wake them. B. As if they have a spinal injury: stabilize the head and neck in line. C. Shake them gently to check response. D. Give them water.
B. As if they have a spinal injury: stabilize the head and neck in line. An unconscious head-injury patient is treated as having a spinal injury, with the head kept in line with the spine.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“If the person's breathing and heart rate are normal, but the person is unconscious , treat as if there is a spinal injury .”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗70A young child fell and shows a sign of head injury. Should you pick the child up? A. No; do not pick up a fallen child with any sign of head injury. B. Yes, to comfort the child. C. Yes, but only by the arms. D. Yes, if the child is crying.
A. No; do not pick up a fallen child with any sign of head injury. Leave a fallen child with any sign of head injury where they are and keep the head and neck still.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not pick up a fallen child with any sign of head injury.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗71In anaphylaxis, which voice change warns of dangerous throat swelling? A. A louder voice than normal. B. A high-pitched laugh. C. No voice change is ever a warning. D. A very hoarse or whispered voice.
D. A very hoarse or whispered voice. A very hoarse or whispered voice, or coarse sounds on breathing in, warns of throat swelling.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“A warning sign of dangerous throat swelling is a very hoarse or whispered voice, or coarse sounds when the person is breathing in air.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗72A bee stinger is still in the skin of a person having an allergic reaction. How should you remove it? A. Pull it out with tweezers. B. Squeeze it out between two fingers. C. Scrape it off with something firm, such as a fingernail or plastic card. D. Leave it in place.
C. Scrape it off with something firm, such as a fingernail or plastic card. Scrape the stinger off; squeezing it, as tweezers do, releases more venom.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“scrape the stinger off the skin with something firm (such as a fingernail or plastic credit card). Do not use tweezers. Squeezing the stinger will release more venom.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗73Is there a contraindication to giving epinephrine in a severe allergic reaction? A. Yes, any history of heart disease. B. No, there is no contraindication. C. Yes, age over 65. D. Yes, if the person has hives.
B. No, there is no contraindication. MedlinePlus states there is no contraindication to epinephrine in a severe allergic reaction.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“There is no contraindication to using epinephrine in a severe allergic reaction.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗74A person in anaphylaxis is having difficulty breathing. What should you do about their emergency allergy medicine? A. Use the epinephrine injector right away; give nothing by mouth. B. Give an oral antihistamine first. C. Wait for symptoms to worsen before using it. D. Have them swallow their pills with water.
A. Use the epinephrine injector right away; give nothing by mouth. Epinephrine is used immediately; oral medicine is not given when breathing is difficult.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not give medicine by the mouth if the person is having difficulty breathing. An epinephrine injector or intranasal epinephrine should be used immediately if it is available.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗75How quickly do anaphylaxis symptoms usually develop after exposure? A. Only after several days. B. Always exactly one hour later. C. Only after a second meal. D. Quickly, often within seconds or minutes.
D. Quickly, often within seconds or minutes. Anaphylaxis symptoms develop quickly, often within seconds or minutes.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Symptoms develop quickly, often within seconds or minutes.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗76A choking adult is coughing forcefully and can speak. What should you do? A. Start abdominal thrusts. B. Give 5 back blows. C. Do not intervene; encourage them to keep coughing. D. Sweep the mouth with a finger.
C. Do not intervene; encourage them to keep coughing. A strong cough can clear the object, so encourage coughing and be ready to act if it worsens.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not perform first aid if the person is coughing forcefully and is able to speak. A strong cough can dislodge the object.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗77A choking adult cannot speak. What cycle should you perform? A. 30 chest compressions and 2 breaths. B. 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts, repeated. C. 10 abdominal thrusts only. D. 2 back blows and 2 chest thrusts.
B. 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts, repeated. Repeat 5 back blows and 5 abdominal thrusts until the object comes out or the person becomes unconscious.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“You should perform repeated cycles of 5 back blows followed by 5 abdominal thrusts, until the object comes out or the person becomes unconscious.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗78The choking person is pregnant. What replaces the abdominal thrusts? A. Chest thrusts. B. More back blows only. C. Finger sweeps. D. Rescue breaths.
A. Chest thrusts. In pregnant or obese people, chest thrusts are done instead of abdominal thrusts.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“In pregnant or obese people, chest thrusts should be done instead of abdominal thrusts.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗79Where does the fist go for abdominal thrusts on a choking adult? A. On the lower end of the breastbone. B. Below the navel at the hips. C. Over the left side of the chest. D. Thumb side just above the navel, well below the breastbone.
D. Thumb side just above the navel, well below the breastbone. Place the thumb side of the fist just above the navel and well below the breastbone.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Place the thumb side of your fist just above the person's navel, well below the breastbone.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗80A choking adult becomes unconscious. What changes? A. Keep giving abdominal thrusts. B. Stop and wait for help. C. Switch from abdominal thrusts to chest compressions. D. Give back blows only.
C. Switch from abdominal thrusts to chest compressions. Abdominal thrusts are for a conscious choking victim; chest compressions are for an unconscious one.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Abdominal thrusts are for a conscious choking victim. Chest compressions are for an unconscious choking victim .”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗81An object is lodged in a choking person's throat. Why should you not grasp it? A. It will dissolve by itself. B. Grasping can push it farther into the airway. C. It is always too small to reach. D. Grasping is fine if done quickly.
B. Grasping can push it farther into the airway. Grasping a lodged object can drive it deeper; remove only a loose object you can see.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“If the object is lodged in the person's throat, do not try to grasp it. This can push the object farther into the airway.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗82How are back blows given to a choking infant under 1 year? A. Up to 5 quick, forceful blows between the shoulder blades with the palm. B. With a closed fist on the lower back. C. With two fingers on the chest. D. By shaking the infant upside down.
A. Up to 5 quick, forceful blows between the shoulder blades with the palm. Infant back blows use the palm, between the shoulder blades, up to 5 at a time.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Give up to 5 quick, forceful blows between the infant's shoulder blades (back blows). Use the palm of your free hand.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗83When should you try to remove an object from a choking infant's mouth? A. Always, with a blind finger sweep. B. Never, under any condition. C. Only after 10 minutes. D. Only if you can see it.
D. Only if you can see it. Only remove an object you can see.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Only try to remove an object if you can see it.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗84You are alone with a choking infant who has stopped breathing. When do you leave to call for help? A. Immediately, before any care. B. After 10 minutes of CPR. C. Only after performing 2 minutes of CPR. D. Never; keep doing back blows.
C. Only after performing 2 minutes of CPR. A lone rescuer gives 2 minutes of CPR before leaving, or carries the infant along, to call.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“If you are alone, leave the infant to call 911 or the local emergency number, or carry the infant with you, only after you have performed 2 minutes of CPR.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗85An infant stops breathing because of asthma, not choking. Should you give back blows and chest thrusts? A. Yes, always. B. No; give CPR instead. C. Yes, but only back blows. D. Yes, but only chest thrusts.
B. No; give CPR instead. Back blows and chest thrusts are for choking; for other causes such as asthma, infection, swelling or a head blow, give CPR.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do not do back blows and chest thrusts if the infant stops breathing for other reasons, such as asthma, infection, swelling, or a blow to the head. Do give the infant CPR in these cases.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗86How deep should chest compressions be for adult CPR? A. About 2 inches (5 centimeters). B. About 1/2 inch. C. About 4 inches. D. Just enough to feel resistance.
A. About 2 inches (5 centimeters). Press down about 2 inches and let the chest rise completely after each compression.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Press down about 2 inches (5 centimeters) into the chest. Let the chest rise completely after each compression.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗87What is the target compression rate for adult CPR? A. 60 to 80 per minute. B. 140 to 160 per minute. C. 30 per minute. D. 100 to 120 per minute, with pauses under 10 seconds.
D. 100 to 120 per minute, with pauses under 10 seconds. Compress at 100 to 120 per minute and keep pauses for breaths under 10 seconds.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Do 100 to 120 compressions per minute. Pauses in chest compressions for rescue breaths should be less than 10 seconds.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗88With two rescuers doing CPR, how often should they switch compressors? A. Every 30 seconds. B. Every 10 minutes. C. Every 2 minutes, or after about 5 cycles of 30:2. D. Only when one is exhausted.
C. Every 2 minutes, or after about 5 cycles of 30:2. Switch every 2 minutes or about 5 cycles to prevent rescuer fatigue.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“switch compressors every 2 minutes or after about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths to prevent rescuer fatigue”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗89Where do you place your hands for adult chest compressions? A. On the upper chest near the collarbones. B. Heel of one hand in the center of the chest, between the nipples. C. On the left side over the heart. D. On the upper abdomen.
B. Heel of one hand in the center of the chest, between the nipples. The heel of the hand goes in the center of the chest, right between the nipples.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Place the heel of one hand in the center of the person’s chest -- right between the nipples.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗90How soon can permanent brain damage begin without oxygen? A. After only 4 minutes. B. After 30 minutes. C. After 1 hour. D. Only after 10 minutes.
A. After only 4 minutes. Brain damage begins after about 4 minutes without oxygen, which is why CPR must start immediately.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Permanent brain damage begins after only 4 minutes without oxygen, and death can occur as soon as 4 to 6 minutes later.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗91A person found not breathing may have overdosed on fentanyl. What should be added to CPR if available? A. Aspirin. B. Activated charcoal by mouth. C. Nothing; stop CPR. D. Naloxone, without interfering with CPR.
D. Naloxone, without interfering with CPR. For suspected opioid poisoning, give naloxone if available while CPR continues.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“If opioid poisoning (overdose of medicines, fentanyl, or heroin) is suspected, and the person is not breathing, give Naloxone if available, without interfering with CPR.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗92When does an AED deliver a shock? A. Every time the pads are attached. B. Whenever the rescuer presses a button. C. Only if it detects that a shock is needed. D. Every 2 minutes automatically.
C. Only if it detects that a shock is needed. An AED checks the rhythm and shocks if, and only if, a shock is needed.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“They automatically check the heart rhythm and give a sudden shock if, and only if, that shock is needed”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗93For CPR purposes, how is the onset of puberty defined? A. Age 18 for everyone. B. Breast development in females, armpit hair in males. C. Body weight over 100 pounds. D. Height over 5 feet.
B. Breast development in females, armpit hair in males. Puberty marks the switch to adult CPR technique.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“For the purposes of CPR, puberty is defined as breast development in females and the presence of axillary (armpit) hair in males.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗94What causes an ischemic stroke? A. A blood clot blocking a vessel that supplies the brain. B. A burst blood vessel bleeding into the brain. C. Low blood sugar. D. A seizure.
A. A blood clot blocking a vessel that supplies the brain. Ischemic stroke is a blockage by a clot; hemorrhagic stroke is a burst vessel.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Ischemic stroke occurs when a blood vessel that supplies blood to the brain is blocked by a blood clot.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗95What happens in a hemorrhagic stroke? A. A clot blocks a brain artery. B. Blood sugar drops too low. C. The heart stops briefly. D. A weakened blood vessel in the brain bursts and blood leaks into the brain.
D. A weakened blood vessel in the brain bursts and blood leaks into the brain. A hemorrhagic stroke is bleeding into the brain from a burst vessel.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“A hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood vessel in part of the brain becomes weak and bursts open. This causes blood to leak into the brain.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗96What is the main risk factor for stroke? A. Low blood pressure. B. Seasonal allergies. C. High blood pressure. D. Mild dehydration.
C. High blood pressure. High blood pressure is the main stroke risk factor.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“High blood pressure is the main risk factor for strokes”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗97Why does the time of symptom onset matter so much in a clot-caused stroke? A. It decides which arm to check. B. Clot-busting treatment must start within 4 1/2 hours of symptom onset. C. Symptoms always stop after 1 hour. D. It sets the CPR rate.
B. Clot-busting treatment must start within 4 1/2 hours of symptom onset. Thrombolytic therapy must begin within 4 1/2 hours of the first symptoms, and sooner is better.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“To be effective, this treatment must be started within 4 1/2 hours of when the symptoms first started.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗98During a stroke check, the patient raises both arms and one drifts downward. Which part of the F.A.S.T. check is this? A. Arms. B. Face. C. Speech. D. Time.
A. Arms. The Arms check looks for one arm drifting downward.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“ARMS. Ask the person to raise both arms. See if one arm drifts downward.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗99Which patients are more likely to have subtle or unusual heart attack symptoms? A. Young men only. B. Athletes only. C. Children only. D. Women, older adults and people with diabetes.
D. Women, older adults and people with diabetes. Women, older adults and people with diabetes often have atypical symptoms.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Women, older adults, and people with diabetes are more likely to have subtle or unusual symptoms.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗100How is heart attack chest pain usually described? A. A sharp pain only when touched. B. Itching over the ribs. C. Pressure, squeezing or fullness in the center of the chest. D. Pain that only happens when lying down.
C. Pressure, squeezing or fullness in the center of the chest. Typical pain is pressure, squeezing or fullness in the center of the chest and may spread to the jaw, shoulder, arms, back or stomach.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Chest pain that feels like pressure, squeezing, or fullness. The pain is most often in the center of the chest.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗101A possible heart attack patient has prescribed nitroglycerin for a known heart condition. What should you do? A. Take it away from them. B. Help them take it. C. Give it with a large meal. D. Ignore it.
B. Help them take it. Ask about prescribed chest pain medicine such as nitroglycerin and help the person take it.
VERIFIED AGAINST THE SOURCE
“Ask if the person takes any chest pain medicine, such as nitroglycerin for a known heart condition, and help them take it.”
— MedlinePlus Medical Encyclopedia, National Library of Medicine ↗Know questions we're missing?
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