fema is 242 Flashcards

What's on the cards

1. To be an effective communicator, you must be able to listen accurately. Paraphrasing demonstrates that you are listening by: A. Repeating the speaker's statement word for word. B. Expressing your agreement with the speaker's point of view. C. Asking the speaker to repeat the message more slowly. D. Restating in your own words the meaning of what you just heard.
2. True or false: Print media provide almost instantaneous messaging to those who have access.
3. True or false: Empathic listening is a part of active listening.
4. When trying to engage the audience during a presentation, direct questions that require a one- or two-word answer: A. Are used to confirm facts or to stop a discussion. B. Are the most effective way to stimulate thinking and decisionmaking. C. Are the best way to encourage discussion. D. Are more effective than open-ended questions for encouraging interaction.
5. All of the following are ways emergency communications differ from routine communications EXCEPT: A. Emergency messages are often harder for the public to hear and process. B. If official answers are not available, rumor and speculation quickly fill the information vacuum. C. Emergency warnings aim to elicit a specific response from the public. D. Emergency communications are designed to raise awareness and provide knowledge rather than provoke a desired response.
6. When presenting to an audience: A. Vary the pace of your presentation and slow down for important points. B. Keep the pace of the entire presentation the same, for consistency. C. Speak with a monotone voice so the content stands out. D. Avoid pausing, since pauses make the speaker seem unprepared.
7. All of the following can help you communicate more effectively with a diverse community EXCEPT: A. Make sure your materials are written at appropriate reading levels. B. Provide materials in the languages spoken in your community. C. Be sure disaster-related materials are written at 10th- to 12th-grade reading levels. D. Use multiple formats and media to reach the widest possible audience.
8. True or false: If you understand nonverbal cues you can use them to reinforce your message and to "read" your audience and confirm whether you are communicating successfully.
9. Which of the following internal roadblocks to effective listening is exemplified by the statement, "We've never done it that way before?" A. Hearing only facts and not feelings B. Stereotyping C. Not seeking clarification D. Resistance to change
10. When talking to a person with a hearing disability, you should: A. Speak in a normal tone and make sure your lips are visible. B. Raise your voice so the person can hear you clearly. C. Speak to the person's companion or interpreter instead. D. Exaggerate your lip movements and speak very slowly.
11. Which of the following media would you NOT use to inform the public of an approaching tornado? A. Emergency Alert System (EAS) radio broadcast B. Television news bulletin C. Social media post D. Newspaper article
12. How can you tell "in the moment" that your message isn't being received? A. Wait for the question-and-answer period at the end. B. Ask the audience to rate the presentation afterward. C. Look for changes in body language. D. Speak louder and repeat the message word for word.
13. In an emergency, the most effective communication tool is one that reaches the target audience, is timely and reliable, and __________. A. Enhances comprehension of the message content. B. Uses the newest available technology. C. Reaches the largest possible national audience. D. Delivers the message once, without repetition.
14. True or false: If the audience is slow to respond to your question, you should answer it yourself rather than let there be silence.
15. True or false: Communication is a one-way process.
16. True or false: Functions of emergency public information include seeking the public's cooperation, instilling public confidence, and providing information to help families reunite.
17. To communicate more effectively with your community you should: A. Simplify communications by using one main approach and format. B. Rely on a single high-technology channel such as a Web site. C. Write all materials at a college reading level. D. Use multiple formats and media to reach the widest possible audience.
18. Inclusive language: A. Places emphasis on the disability so needs are clear. B. Uses the word 'special' to describe separate services. C. Avoids mentioning people with disabilities at all. D. Places emphasis on the person instead of the disability.
19. True or false: Practicing a presentation serves little purpose if you are already familiar with the topic.
20. Strategies for engaging the audience include: A. Using natural gestures and positive facial expressions. B. Standing behind a lectern in a fixed position. C. Reading your prepared script word for word. D. Keeping your hands still at your sides throughout.
21. To help project your voice: A. Slow down and use shorter phrases. B. Raise your pitch so your voice carries. C. Talk over side conversations to keep control. D. Speed up so the audience stays alert.
22. Which of the following methods of communication is LEAST useful to inform the public of a collapsed bridge? A. Radio news broadcast B. Television news bulletin C. Social media post D. Magazine feature story
23. Which of the following messages is best suited to an informational presentation? A. Lead staff in a review of the Incident Command System. B. Gain community support for a preparedness initiative. C. Change residents' attitudes about flood insurance. D. Create awareness of the need for more volunteers.
24. In the IS-242.c communication model, what is encoding? A. The process of interpreting a message you receive B. Anything that reduces the clarity of the message C. The process of turning thoughts into communication D. The feedback the receiver gives the sender
25. In the communication model taught in IS-242.c, what is noise? A. Only loud sounds in the room where you speak B. The receiver's feedback to the sender C. The channel used to send the message D. Anything that reduces the clarity of the message
26. Mistakes in grammar are an example of which type of noise? A. Semantic noise B. Physiological-impairment noise C. Psychological noise D. Syntactical noise
27. Hunger, fatigue and headache are examples of which type of noise? A. Environmental noise B. Physiological-impairment noise C. Cultural noise D. Syntactical noise
28. Two people understanding the same word differently is an example of which type of noise? A. Syntactical noise B. Semantic noise C. Environmental noise D. Psychological noise
29. Stress, anger or sadness in the moment of communication is an example of which type of noise? A. Psychological noise B. Cultural noise C. Semantic noise D. Physiological-impairment noise
30. True or false: A good receiver gives the sender feedback to confirm what they decoded, not just what they heard.
31. According to IS-242.c, about how much of the time in communication should be spent listening? A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 90%
32. True or false: Hearing and listening are the same thing.
33. How does IS-242.c define listening? A. A sensory experience that gathers sound waves indiscriminately B. The ability to accurately receive and interpret messages in the communication process C. Restating the speaker's words exactly as spoken D. Waiting silently for your turn to speak
34. Which of the following is an external roadblock to effective listening? A. Emotional interference or defensiveness B. Multitasking distracters such as text messages and email C. Stereotyping D. Hearing what is expected instead of what is said
35. All of the following are internal roadblocks to effective listening EXCEPT: A. Emotional interference or defensiveness B. Hearing only facts and not feelings C. A setting with too many distractions D. Hearing what is expected instead of what is said
36. IS-242.c describes heuristics as: A. Formal rules for writing emergency warnings B. Errors in grammar that create noise C. Questions that require a yes or no answer D. Mental shortcuts that make thinking easier, which can lead to cognitive biases
37. Being overly influenced by the first piece of information you receive is called: A. Confirmation bias B. The Halo Effect C. Emotional contagion D. Anchoring bias
38. Noticing messages that support what you already believe while discounting contrary information is called: A. Anchoring bias B. The Halo Effect C. Confirmation bias D. Semantic noise
39. True or false: The Halo Effect occurs when one positive characteristic of a person dominates the way that person is viewed by others.
40. True or false: When paraphrasing, you should express your agreement or disagreement with what the speaker said.
41. True or false: Parroting back exactly what the speaker said is the best way to paraphrase.
42. IS-242.c describes empathy as: A. Feeling sorry for someone from a distance B. Agreeing with everything the speaker says C. Repeating the speaker's words exactly D. Perspective taking, staying out of judgment, recognizing emotions in others and communicating that emotion
43. Catching the emotions of another person, as IS-242.c describes it, is known as: A. Anchoring bias B. Emotional contagion C. The Halo Effect D. Semantic noise
44. When nonverbal cues don't match the spoken words, the result is: A. Active listening B. Emotional contagion C. Mixed messages D. Confirmation bias
45. Mixed messages can indicate all of the following about a speaker EXCEPT that the speaker: A. Is experiencing conflict B. Is well prepared and confident C. Is not sincere D. Is not committed to the message
46. According to IS-242.c, how far from your mouth should you generally hold a microphone? A. 2-10 inches B. Touching your lips C. 12-18 inches D. At least 2 feet
47. At transition points, or when you hear yourself adding a filler, IS-242.c recommends that you: A. Speed up to fill the silence B. Pause, take a breath and gather your thoughts C. Apologize to the audience D. Repeat your last sentence
48. For encouraging interaction, which type of question does IS-242.c say is more effective? A. Direct questions B. Open-ended questions C. Yes-or-no questions D. Rhetorical questions
49. Open-ended questions usually begin with: A. What, how, when or why B. Is, can, how many or does C. Do you agree D. Yes or no
50. True or false: When a participant gives a wrong answer to your question, you should declare that the answer is wrong.
51. True or false: Each question you ask an audience should focus on a single issue.
52. All of the following are among the four key actions IS-242.c gives for communicating effectively with the whole community EXCEPT: A. Use one standard message format for everyone B. Ensure your message content is clear and understandable C. Tailor your message delivery to specific needs D. Identify alternate avenues for communication
53. As a baseline, IS-242.c says all communications should be: A. Written at a college reading level B. Clear, user-friendly and age appropriate C. Delivered only in English D. As detailed and technical as possible
54. What does IS-242.c call a guiding principle for serving individuals with disabilities? A. Access to effective communication B. Providing a shortened version of the message C. Communicating only through a companion D. Using special, separate services
55. True or false: People with disabilities must be given the same information provided to the general population.
56. Which of the following does IS-242.c give as an example of communicating information in an alternate format? A. Speaking more loudly to the whole group B. Sign language interpretation of spoken presentations C. Handing out the same small-print flyer to everyone D. Posting the message only on a Web site
57. According to IS-242.c, an estimated what share of American adults read at or below the 5th grade level? A. 5 percent B. 20 percent C. 50 percent D. 75 percent
58. True or false: In some Asian cultures, looking directly into a speaker's eyes indicates disrespect, while lowering the eyes is considered polite.
59. IS-242.c gives social distance, for social and business transactions, as: A. 0 to 18 inches B. 1.5 to 4 feet C. 4 to 12 feet D. More than 25 feet
60. True or false: In some cultures, a pause before replying indicates a polite and considered response.
61. What does IS-242.c advise about TLAs (Three-Letter Abbreviations) in cross-cultural communication? A. Use them often to save time B. Be careful of jargon and abbreviations that others may not understand C. Use them only in written materials D. Define them only if someone asks
62. True or false: Cross-cultural communication may take more time, so be patient.
63. True or false: When a person with a disability is accompanied, you should talk to the companion rather than to the person.
64. Why does IS-242.c advise avoiding the word 'special' when describing services for people with disabilities? A. It is too informal for official messages B. It is associated with separate and segregated services C. It is a legal term reserved for courts D. It is hard to translate into other languages
65. When meeting someone with a visual disability, IS-242.c says you should first: A. Take the person's arm to guide them B. Speak more loudly than normal C. Talk to the person's companion D. Identify yourself and others with you
66. When conversing with a person who is seated, such as a wheelchair user, IS-242.c recommends that you: A. Stand close and lean over the person B. Speak to the person's companion C. Place yourself at eye level with the person D. Keep the conversation as short as possible
67. To build cross-cultural relationships, IS-242.c suggests that you network by: A. Waiting for groups to contact your agency B. Talking to the leaders of the cultural groups in your community C. Sending the same press release to every group D. Relying on interpreters you have never met
68. IS-242.c says studies show that during an incident, information is as critically important to people as: A. Money B. Entertainment C. Food or water D. Transportation
69. How does emergency public information facilitate the tactical response? A. By calming fears and managing expectations B. By replacing the need for responders C. By delaying announcements until the incident ends D. By limiting information to official staff
70. According to IS-242.c, what happens if official answers are not available during an emergency? A. The public waits patiently for the next briefing B. The media stop covering the incident C. Responders can work without public attention D. Rumor and speculation quickly fill the information vacuum
71. Which factor affecting how people respond to a warning covers who issues it and how much they trust that source? A. Message source B. Perceptions C. Message format D. Social distance
72. True or false: Previous experience with a hazard and perceptions of proximity and risk can affect how people respond to a warning.
73. True or false: To reach the whole community, you should rely on a single high-technology communication method.
74. Which advantage does IS-242.c attribute to in-person methods such as community meetings? A. They reach the largest audience instantly B. They require no planning or resources C. They give you full control once the message goes out D. They are interactive, letting participants voice questions and concerns
75. Which limitation does IS-242.c note for television and radio? A. They cannot reach people who speak other languages B. They cannot be used for emergency alerts C. The listener or viewer must choose to turn on the TV or radio D. They are never used for in-depth features
76. Which limitation does IS-242.c note for social media? A. Messages are delivered too slowly B. It cannot carry images or video C. Limited control once the message goes out D. It reaches only print readers
77. In a crisis, IS-242.c says which qualities of a message are vitally important? A. Clarity, specificity and consistency B. Length, humor and detail C. Speed alone, even at the cost of accuracy D. Technical jargon and codes
78. True or false: Crisis messages should use codes and acronyms to keep them short.
79. True or false: In IS-242.c, the terms alert and warning are used interchangeably for messages issued to the public.
80. In a warning message, how should the location be described? A. Using only the official grid reference B. Using local nicknames familiar to residents C. So that those without local knowledge can understand their risk D. Only after the impacts have occurred
81. What should the warning source element of an alert identify? A. The name of the reporter who wrote the story B. Every agency involved in the response C. An official source with public credibility D. The software that issued the alert
82. What advantage does IS-242.c give for using templates with pre-approved language for alerts and warnings? A. They remove the need to name a warning source B. They reduce delays and can be translated in advance C. They make every alert identical regardless of hazard D. They replace the need for public briefings
83. True or false: Important life-safety information should be held until the next scheduled briefing.
84. When preparing for a briefing, statements and handout materials should cover: A. Only the agency's budget and staffing B. Who, what, when, where, how and possibly why C. Every technical detail of the response D. Opinions about who is to blame
85. What are motivational presentations meant to do? A. Transmit specific knowledge only B. Feature statistics in logical sequence C. Create awareness, change attitudes or garner support D. Avoid vivid or interesting language
86. In an informational presentation, the conclusion should: A. Reiterate the main points briefly and ask questions to ensure understanding B. Introduce new main points C. Create tension or a need for the message D. Open with an attention-getting story
87. A motivational presentation, as IS-242.c describes it, ends by: A. Providing the action step that you want the audience to take B. Listing every statistic you gathered C. Apologizing for taking the audience's time D. Asking the audience to wait for more information
88. When practicing a presentation, IS-242.c suggests trying to gesture about how often? A. An average of twice in each sentence B. Never, to avoid distracting the audience C. Once at the start and once at the end D. Only when pointing at a slide
89. During a PowerPoint presentation, where should you position yourself? A. Directly in front of the screen B. To either side of the equipment and screen C. Behind the projector D. Facing the screen with your back to the audience
90. True or false: Turning the projector off or making the screen black when it is not in use helps you control attention.
91. True or false: On a whiteboard, pastel colors are easier to read than dark colors.
92. How tall should printing on a whiteboard or chart be, according to IS-242.c? A. About one-quarter inch B. No more than half an inch C. At least 1 inch tall D. At least 6 inches tall
93. Which part of a whiteboard does IS-242.c recommend writing on? A. Only the bottom half B. The lower corners C. Any part, as long as the text is small D. The top 2/3 of the board
94. How do interactive presentations such as media interviews and news conferences differ from static presentations? A. You have complete control of every question B. They never require advance planning C. They are always shorter than static presentations D. You are less in control of the content and flow, and they are hard to pre-script
95. Glossophobia, or speech anxiety, affects about what share of the population according to IS-242.c? A. About 7% B. About 25% C. About 70% D. Nearly 100%
96. True or false: Realizing that audiences want the presenter to succeed is one way presenters control their nerves.

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