eprc Flashcards

What's on the cards

1. Which agent blocks aerobic metabolism by interfering with the cell's use of oxygen?
2. Which class of chemical agent is considered a fast-effect agent?
3. How is a lung-damaging (pulmonary) agent casualty who develops respiratory distress less than 4 hours after exposure triaged?
4. A group of people present with a delayed onset of blisters and a dry cough that later turns productive. What is the likely agent?
5. The immediate concern after chlorine exposure is the effect on what?
6. Which device detects and discriminates between nerve and mustard vapors and can be used to sort contaminated from clean personnel during decontamination?
7. Which hazard control zone is the area immediately surrounding a hazardous material incident, extending far enough to protect personnel outside the zone from contamination?
8. How is a vesicant (blister agent) casualty with skin burns over less than 5 percent of body surface area and minor eye irritation triaged?
9. Which level of decontamination is carried out by a unit to reduce contamination to natural background or the lowest possible level?
10. What level of civilian chemical protective equipment do healthcare providers wear when giving initial medical treatment on the contaminated side of a patient decontamination station?
11. Which of these is NOT a recognized risk of wearing personal protective equipment: heat stress, psychological stress, impaired vision and mobility, or hyperactivity?
12. How is a nerve agent casualty who presents with convulsions triaged?
13. Which agent blocks an enzyme and produces a cholinergic crisis?
14. Which drug class is a cyanide antidote?
15. What term describes the deposit or absorption of radioactive material or of biological or chemical agents on personnel, structures or objects?
16. When conducting the initial medical assessment of a chemical casualty, what status is checked first?
17. Which form of detection provides warning in time to implement protective measures before exposure to the agent?
18. Which agent are the eyes most vulnerable to because of their thin, moist, warm mucosa?
19. Chlorine casualties who require immediate treatment are most likely to be suffering from what?
20. Decontamination is conducted in which hazard control zone?
21. A patient has fever, cough, dyspnea, prominent gastrointestinal symptoms and no buboes. Which form of plague is this?
22. Twenty co-workers develop cough, pulmonary edema and dyspnea; chest films show bilateral infiltrates and bronchial aspirates are rich in protein. Several die. What is the likely agent?
23. Processed foods and temperature-abused foods are most commonly associated with poisoning by which toxin?
24. Which bacterial (rickettsial) disease produces a non-specific illness that can cause prolonged disability but is rarely fatal?
25. Which statement does NOT describe the spores of Bacillus anthracis: highly stable, viable for years in soil, resistant to disinfectants, or sensitive to UV light?
26. A patient back from safari in Africa has high fever, mild hypotension, flushing, conjunctival injection and a bleeding rash. What class of viral infection is suspected?
27. Which biological toxin is derived from the bean of the castor plant?
28. Which bacterial disease is contagious from person to person?
29. Which bacterial disease produces an ulcer on the skin with regional lymphadenopathy?
30. A patient has 5-day-old lesions concentrated on the face, arms and hands, with fever that began several days before the rash. Chickenpox or smallpox?
31. A patient has nausea, vomiting, trouble with eye movement, dry mouth, dysphagia, no gag reflex and extreme weakness, yet is alert and oriented. What toxin, and how is it treated?
32. High doses of which form of ionizing radiation cause the delayed, irreversible skin changes known as radiation (beta) burns?
33. After a nuclear detonation, casualties with survivable injuries may also be contaminated. What is the correct course of action?
34. Which cells are most sensitive to radiation damage?
35. Which sub-syndrome of Acute Radiation Syndrome appears at the lower end of the exposure range?
36. Which sub-syndrome of Acute Radiation Syndrome appears at the higher end of the exposure range?
37. Which form of ionizing radiation penetrates deeply into body tissue?
38. What protective measures should a unit apply on arriving at a suspected radiological incident?
39. Which compound is given to reduce absorption of radioiodine by the thyroid?
40. Besides fires, earthquakes, hurricanes and terrorism, what is another valid application of ICS — for example planning and running a city's annual Labor Day parade and fair?
41. Who is responsible for directing the command and control of all incident operations?
42. Which command system is the widely used and accepted tool for command, control and coordination of a disaster response?
43. What is the purpose of a secondary explosive device at an incident scene?
44. Defense support of civil authorities is provided only when the requested action meets six criteria — what is the first of them?
45. Which phase of CBRN response synchronizes planning and execution with the efforts of the supported civil authorities?
46. Which phase of CBRN response focuses on prioritizing forces to deploy for mission tasks?
47. What does START stand for in mass casualty triage?
48. Which post-disaster phase is characterized by optimism brought on by an infusion of resources?
49. In which post-disaster phase do survivors accept responsibility for rebuilding their homes, businesses and lives?
50. Which is a common behavioral reaction to severe short-term traumatic stress?
51. Short-term stress reactions in disaster survivors fall into every category EXCEPT which one: emotional, physical, cognitive, behavioral, or intellectual?
52. What is the role of the Liaison Officer in the Hospital Incident Command System?

Answers are on the backs of the cards — or open the full eprc answer key to read them all at once.