Which Navy Wide Advancement Exam Candidate Group

The instructions to defer advancement or frocking of enlisted members who have failed their most recent PFA are outlines in what publication? A) SECNAVINST 5354.1 B) OPNAVINST 5354.1 C) OPNAVINST 6110.1 D) SECNAVINST 6110.1

The publishing of advancement exam bibliographies is the responsibility of what authority? A) NPC B) NETPDC C) NETC D) CPPD

The regulations for Frocking enlisted Sailors are outline in what MILPERSMAN article? A) 6130-010 B) 4300-060 C) 1420-060 D) 1440-080

Which Navy-Wide Advancement Exam candidate group receives Pass Not Advanced (PNA) Points? A) Sailors who possess AA/AS and BA/BA or above B) Top 25% of Standard Scorers C) Top 50% of Standard Scorers D) Top 75% of Performance Mark average

All of the following criteria are required to participate in the Navy-wide advancement examination, EXCEPT which one? A) Have successfully completed a service school, if required B) Be on the proper path of advancement C) Meet a minimum performance mark average of 3.4 D) Have minimum time-in rate

The Bureau of Naval Personnel Career Counselor Handbook is what instruction? A) NAVPERS 15878L B) OPNAVINST 5530.10 C) OPNAV 4790.2 D) SECNAVINST 5530.10

At what level is the reporting Career Development Board held? A) Command B) Departmental C) Work Center D) Division

The Seaman to Admiral (STA-21) Program is best defined in which of the following descriptions? A) Administrative Officer Accession Program B) Technical Specialist officer Accession Program C) Technically-oriented Officer Commissioning Program D) Undergraduate Education and Commissioning Program

An active duty Sailor's HYT is computed from what date? A) ADSD B) EAOS C) PEBD D) PRD

Undergraduate courses are available to Sailors aboard ship under what Navy Education Program? A) Selective Training and Reenlistment Program B) Program for Afloat Education C) College Level Examination Program D) Selective Conversion and Reenlistment

A C-WAY REEN request must be submitted what minimum number of months prior to the SEAOS date? A) 12 B) 24 C) 13 D) 15

Assisting a Sailor by providing information and support to help while they are a guest in foreign lands described which of the following programs? A) Navy Sponsor Program B) Overseas Duty Support Program C) Military Cash Awards Program D) Energy Conservation Program

For a Sailor with a Significant Problems (SP) evaluation, how many subsequent graded evaluations, if any, must they have recommending them for promotion before they can execute an extension? A) One B) Two C)Zero D) Three

Reenlistment leave may be granted for what maximum number of days? A) 60 B) 90 C) 30 D) 45

Upon completing 30 years of active duty service, you are qualified for which of the following categories of retirement? A) Fleet Reserve B) Navy Reserve Retired List C) Permanent Disability Retired List D) Regular Navy Retired List

Authority to upgrade a discharge is approved by what authority? A) Board for Correction of Naval Records B) Legal Officer C) Commanding Officer D) Chief of Naval Operations

The type of discharge a Sailor receives is generally based upon what factor? A) Paygrade at discharge B) Reason for discharge C) Length of service at discharge D) Suitability at discharge

Official Military Personnel Files are normally updated after which of the following member events? A) Reenlistment B)Advances in rate C) Completes an educational course D) Receives PCS orders

The acronym NSIPS represents what Navy system? A) Navy Service Information Planning System B) Naval System Integrate Personnel Standards C) Navy Special Information for Personnel System D) Navy Standard Integrated Personnel System

Mid-term counseling should be performed on a Petty Officer Third Class in what Month? A) December B) July C) June D) November

What is the maximum command percentage, if any, of Must Promote recommendations a leader is authorized to give Sailors E4 and below? A) 60% to include Early Promotes B) 10% C) No limit D) 20%

Block 29 of the Evaluation Report for E1 through E6 should include what specific content? A) Primary and watch standing duties only B) Primary, collateral, watch standing, and PFA C) Command employment and command achievements D) Primary and collateral duty only