IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Sybex Cissp

100 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

Detective Access Controls

ANSWER

Security guards, supervising users, incident investigations, IDS's

QUESTION 2

Physical Access Controls

ANSWER

Guards, fences, motion detectors locked doors, sealed windows, lights, backups, cable protections, laptop locks, swipe cards,dogs, CCTV, mantraps alarms

QUESTION 3

3 Recognized Authentication Factors

ANSWER

What you: Have, Know, Are

QUESTION 4

Cognitive Password

ANSWER

Series of ?'s about facts or predefined responses that only the subject should know (ex. What's your birthday...etc.)

QUESTION 5

8 Biometric Factors

ANSWER

Fingerprints, face scans, iris scans, retina scans, palm topography, palm geography, heart/pulse pattern, voice pattern, signature dynamics, keystroke patterns

QUESTION 6

Issues related to user acceptance of biometric enrollment and throughput rate

ANSWER

Enrollment times longer than two minutes are unacceptable; subjects will typically accept a throughput rate of about six seconds or faster

QUESTION 7

What Access Control technique employs security labels

ANSWER

Mandatory Access Controls

QUESTION 8

The Bell-LaPadula, Biba, and Clark-Wilson access control models were all designed to protect a single aspect of security. Name the corresponding aspect for each model.

ANSWER

Bell-LaPadula protects confidentiality, Biba and Clark-Wilson protect integrity

QUESTION 9

3 types of subjects and their roles in a security environment

ANSWER

The user access objects on a system to perform a work task, the owner is liable for protection of data, the data custodian is assigned to classify and protect data

QUESTION 10

Why is separation of duties and responsibilities a common security practice?

ANSWER

It prevents any single subject from being able to circumvent or disable security mechanisms

QUESTION 11

Principle of Least Privilege

ANSWER

Subjects should be granted only the amount of access to objects that is required to accomplish their assigned work tasks.

QUESTION 12

4 Key principles upon which access control relies

ANSWER

Identification, Authentication, Authorization, Accountability (IAAA)

QUESTION 13

How are domains related to Decentralized Access Control?

ANSWER

A domain is a realm of trust that shares a common security policy. This is a form of decentralized access control

QUESTION 14

Why is monitoring an important part of a security policy?

ANSWER

It's used to watch for security policy violations and to detect unauthorized or abnormal activities

QUESTION 15

What are the functions of an IDS

ANSWER

To automate the inspection of audit logs, and real time system events, detects intrusion attempts, and watches for violations of confidentiality, integrity, and availability

QUESTION 16

Pros and Cons of Host Based IDS

ANSWER

Can: Pinpoint resources compromised by a malicious user Can't: Detect network only attacks or on other systems, has difficulty detecting DoS attacks, and can be detected by intruders

QUESTION 17

Pros and Cons of Network Based IDS

ANSWER

Can: Montior a large network, can be hardened against attack. Can't: handle large data flows, doesn't work well on switched networks, can't pinpoint compromised resources

QUESTION 18

Differences between knowledge based and behavior based detections methods used by IDS

ANSWER

Knowledge based uses a signature database and tries to match monitored events to that database. Behavior based learns about the normal activities on your system through watching and learning

QUESTION 19

What is a honey pot and what is it used for?

ANSWER

Honey pots are face networks used to lure intruders in order to create sufficient audit trails for tracking them down and prosecuting.

QUESTION 20

How does penetration testing improve your system's security

ANSWER

Penetration testing is a good way to accurately judge the security mechanisms deployed by an org.

QUESTION 21

What is a DoS attack

ANSWER

An attack that prevents the system from receiving, processing, or responding to legitimate traffic or requests for resources and objects

QUESTION 22

What is a spoofing attack

ANSWER

The attacker pretends to be someone or something other than whom or what they are. They often replace the valid source and/or dest. IP address with node numbers with false ones.

QUESTION 23

What are countermeasures to spoofing?

ANSWER

Patching the OS and Software, enabling source/dest. verification on routers, and employing IDS to detect and block attacks

QUESTION 24

What is a Man in the Middle Attack?

ANSWER

An attack in which a malicious user is positioned between the two endpoints of a communication link

QUESTION 25

What is a replay or playback attack?

ANSWER

It is similar to hijacking. A malicious user records the traffic between a client and a server and then retransmits them to the server with slight variations of the time stamp and source IP address

QUESTION 26

What is a sniffer attack?

ANSWER

Any activity that results in a malicious user obtaining information about a network or the traffic over that network

QUESTION 27

What is a spamming attack?

ANSWER

Directing floods of messages to a victim's email inboxes or other messaging system. Such attacks cause DoS issues by filling up storage space and preventing legitimate messages from being delivered.

QUESTION 28

What are some countermeasures to common attack methods?

ANSWER

Patching software, reconfiguring security, employing Firewalls, updating filters, using IDSs improving security policy, using traffic filters, improving physical access control, using system monitoring/auditing

QUESTION 29

Name the 7 Layers of the OSI Model

ANSWER

Application(7), Presentation(6),Session(5),Transport(4), Network(3), Data Link(2), Physical(1) (APSTNDP)

QUESTION 30

List the security features offered by the network layer of the OSI model

ANSWER

The Network Layer (Layer 3) offers confidentiality, authentication and integrity

QUESTION 31

What is the max throughput and max usable distance for 10Base2 cable

ANSWER

Throughput = 10MBps Distance = 185 Meters

QUESTION 32

Three Common Network TECHNOLOGIES

ANSWER

Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI

QUESTION 33

Name the Common Network TOPOLOGIES

ANSWER

Ring, bus, star, and mesh

QUESTION 34

What are the four layers of the TCP/IP protocols and how do they relate to the OSI Model layers?

ANSWER

The four layers of TCP/IP are application (layers 5-7 of OSI) Host to Host (layer 4 of OSI) Internet (layer 3 of OSI) and Network Access (layers 1 and 2 of OSI)

QUESTION 35

The 5 generation type of firewalls

ANSWER

Static packet filtering, application level gateway, stateful inspection, dynamic packet filtering, and kernel proxy

QUESTION 36

5 Networking device types other than firewalls

ANSWER

Routers, switches, hubs, repeaters, bridges, gateways, proxies

QUESTION 37

What is a proxy and what is it used for?

ANSWER

Any system that performs a function or requests a service on behalf of another system. Proxies are most often used to provide clie3nts with Internet access while protecting their identity

QUESTION 38

Name at least 10 network and protocol security mechanisms

ANSWER

IPSec, SKIP, SWIPE,SSL,S/MIME, SET,PEM,PGP,PPP,SLIP,PPTP,L2TP,CHAP,PAP,RADIUS, TACACS,S-RPC

QUESTION 39

Name at least 6 protocol services used to connect to LAN and WAN communication technologies

ANSWER

Frame Relay, SMDS,X.25,ATM,HSSI,SDLC,HDLC,ISDN

QUESTION 40

How are PVC, SVC, DTE, and DCE used in a Frame Relay Network?

ANSWER

Frame relay requires the use of DTE and a DCE at each connection point. PVC is always available; SVC is established using the best paths currently available

QUESTION 41

What are 3 remote access authentication mechanisms?

ANSWER

RADIUS, TACACS, S-RPC

QUESTION 42

What is tunneling and why is it used?

ANSWER

A process that protects the contents of packets by encapsulating them in another protocol. This creates the logical illusion of communications tunnel through an untrusted intermediary network.

QUESTION 43

What is a VPN?

ANSWER

A communication tunnel that provides point to Point transmission of both authentication and data traffic over an intermediary network.

QUESTION 44

What are the 4 primary VPN protocols?

ANSWER

PPTP,L2F,L2TP,and IPSec

QUESTION 45

What are the two modes available through IPSec and what do they do?

ANSWER

Transport mode, the IP packet data is encrypted but the header is not. Tunnel mode the entire IP packet is encrypted and a new header is added to govern transmission through the tunnel.

QUESTION 46

What is NAT?

ANSWER

Network Address Translation allows the private IP addresses defined in RFC 1918 to be used in a private network while still being able to communicate with the Internet

QUESTION 47

What is transparency?

ANSWER

A characteristic of a service, security control, or access mechanism that ensures it is unseen by users.

QUESTION 48

What are some important aspects to consider when designing email security?

ANSWER

Nonrepudiation, access control, message integrity, source authentication, verified delivery, acceptable use policies, privacy , management, and backup and retention policies

QUESTION 49

What is the most serious threat to Email?

ANSWER

Email is the most common delivery mechanism for viruses, worms, Trojans, documents with destructive macros, and other malicious code

QUESTION 50

What are possible mechanisms for adding security to email?

ANSWER

S/MIME, MOSS, PEM, and PGP

QUESTION 51

What are elements of effective user training against social engineering attacks?

ANSWER

Always err toward caution whenever communications are odd or unexpected. Always request proof of identity. Classify information for voice communications. Never change passwords over the phone.

QUESTION 52

What are the most common threats against communications systems?

ANSWER

DoS, eavesdropping, impersonation, replay, and modification

QUESTION 53

What are countermeasures to eavesdropping?

ANSWER

Maintaining physical access security, using encryption, employing one-time authentication methods

QUESTION 54

What is an ARP attack?

ANSWER

The modification of ARP mappings. WHen ARP mappings are falsified, packets are not sent to their proper dest. ARP mappings can be attacked through spoofing. Spoofing provides false MAC's for requested IP's.

QUESTION 55

What is privacy?

ANSWER

Prevention of unauthorized intrusion, knowledge that information deemed personal or confidential won't be sheared with unauthorized entities, freedom from being observed without consent

QUESTION 56

What are the requirements for Accountability?

ANSWER

Identification, authentication, authorization and auditing

QUESTION 57

What is nonrepudiation?

ANSWER

It prevents a subject from claiming not to have sent a message, not to have performed an action, or not to have been the cause of an event.

QUESTION 58

What is layering?

ANSWER

Layering is simply the use of multiple controls in a series. The use of a multi-layered solution allows for numerous controls to be brought to bear against whatever threats come to pass.

QUESTION 59

How is abstractions used?

ANSWER

Abstraction is used to collect similar elements into groups, classes, or roles that are assigned security controls, restrictions, or permissions.

QUESTION 60

What is data hiding ?

ANSWER

Data hiding is preventing data from being known by a subject. Keeping a database from being accessed by unauthorized visitors is a form of data hiding.

QUESTION 61

What is Change control or change management?

ANSWER

A mechanism used to systematically manage change. Typically, it involves extensive logging, auditing, and monitoring of activities related to security controls and security solutions

QUESTION 62

What are the goals of change mgmt?

ANSWER

Changes implemented in orderly manner, formalized testing, changes can be reversed, users informed of changes, changes systematically analyzed, negative impact of changes minimized.

QUESTION 63

What is data classification?

ANSWER

The primary means by which data is protected based on categories of secrecy, sensitivity, or confidentiality

QUESTION 64

What criteria are used to classify data?

ANSWER

Usefulness, timeliness, value or cost, maturity or age, lifetime or expiration period, disclosure damage assessment, modification damage assessment, national security implications, storage

QUESTION 65

What is the gov/military data classification scheme?

ANSWER

TS,S,C,SBU,U

QUESTION 66

What is the commercial business/private sector classification scheme?

ANSWER

Confidential, private, sensitive, public

QUESTION 67

Name 7 security mgmt concepts and principles.

ANSWER

CIA Triad, confidentiality, integrity, availability, privacy, identification, authentication, authorization, auditing, accountability, and nonrepudiation

QUESTION 68

What are the elements of a termination procedure policy?

ANSWER

Have at least one witness; escort terminated employee off the premisses immediately; collect identification, access, or security devices; perform exit interview; disable network account

QUESTION 69

What is the function of the data owner security role?

ANSWER

Classifying information for protection within the security solutions

QUESTION 70

What is the data custodian security role?

ANSWER

Implementing the prescribed protection defined by the security policy and upper mgmt.

QUESTION 71

What is the function of the auditor security role?

ANSWER

For testing and verifying that security policy is properly implemented and the derived security solutions are adequate.

QUESTION 72

What should the documents that make up a formalized security structure include?

ANSWER

Policies, standards, baselines, guidelines, and procedures

QUESTION 73

What is generally involved in the process of risk management?

ANSWER

Analyzing an environment for risks, evaluating each risk as to its likelihood and damage, assessing the cost of countermeasures, and creating a cost/benefit report to present to upper mgmt.

QUESTION 74

What should be considered when establishing the value of an asset?

ANSWER

Cost of purchase, development, maintenance, acquisition, and protection; value to owners/users/competitors; equity value; market valuation; liability of asset loss; and usefulness

QUESTION 75

Name at least 5 possible threats that should be evaluated when performing a risk analysis.

ANSWER

Viruses; buffer overflows; coding errors; user errors; intruders; natural disasters; equipment failure; misuse of data, resources, or services; loss of data; physical theft

QUESTION 76

What is single loss expectancy, and how is it calculated?

ANSWER

The cost associated with a single realized risk against a specific asset. SLE = asset value (AV)(exposure factor (EF)). The SLE is expressed in a dollar value.

QUESTION 77

What is annualized loss expectancy?

ANSWER

the possible yearly cost of all instance of a specific realized threat against a specific asset ALE = single loss expectancy (SLE) (annualized rate of occurence(ARO))

QUESTION 78

What are the basic distinctions between qualitative and quantitative risk analysis

ANSWER

Quantitative assigns real dollar figures to the loss of an asset. Qualitative assigns subjective and intangible values to the loss of and asset.

QUESTION 79

What are the 4 possible responses by upper/sr. mgmt to risk?

ANSWER

Reduce/mitigate, assign/transfer, accept, or reject/deny

QUESTION 80

What is residual risk?

ANSWER

Once countermeasures are implemented, the risk that remains is resiudal risk. It's the risk that mgmt has chosen to accept rather than mitigate

QUESTION 81

What is total risk?

ANSWER

The amount of risk an org. would face if no safeguards were implemented. A formula for total risk is (threats)(vulnerabilities)(asset value) = total risk

QUESTION 82

What is the controls gap?

ANSWER

The diff between total risk and residual risk. The amount of risk that is reduced by implementing safeguards.

QUESTION 83

What are the 3 levels of security?

ANSWER

Awareness, training, education.

QUESTION 84

What are the 3 types of plans employed in security mgmt planning?

ANSWER

A strategic plan is a long term plan that is fairly stable, the tactical plan is a midterm plan that provides more details, operational plans are short term and highly detailed.

QUESTION 85

How many primary keys can each database table have?

ANSWER

One.

QUESTION 86

What type of malicious code spreads through the sharing of infected media?

ANSWER

Viruses

QUESTION 87

What term is used to describe intelligent code objects that perform actions on behalf of a user

ANSWER

Agent

QUESTION 88

What term is used to describe code sent by a server to a client for execution on the client machine?

ANSWER

Applet

QUESTION 89

What language by Sun Microsystems is often used for applet programming and development?

ANSWER

Java

QUESTION 90

What type of database key enforces relationships between tables?

ANSWER

A foreign key.

QUESTION 91

What security principle ensures that multiple records are created in a database table for viewing at different security levels?

ANSWER

Polyinstantiation

QUESTION 92

What process evaluates the technical and nontechnical security features of an IT system?

ANSWER

Certification and Accreditation

QUESTION 93

What type of accreditation evaluates the systems and applications at a specific self-contained location?

ANSWER

Site accreditation

QUESTION 94

In which phase of the Software Capability Model do you often find hard-working people charging ahead in a disorganized fashion?

ANSWER

Initial

QUESTION 95

In which layer of the ring protection scheme do user applications reside?

ANSWER

Layer 3

QUESTION 96

What system mode requires that the system process only one classification level at a time and all system users have clearance and need to know that information

ANSWER

Dedicated security mode.

QUESTION 97

What is another term for the Master Boot record?

ANSWER

Boot sector.

QUESTION 98

What type of virus embeds itself in application documents?

ANSWER

Macro Virus

QUESTION 99

What can AV programs do when they encounter a virus infection?

ANSWER

Delete, disinfect or quarantine.

QUESTION 100

What type of virus modifies itself each time it infects a new system in an attempt to avoid detection?

ANSWER

Polymorphic Virus

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