IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Lockdown Enclosure Cissp

506 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

USPTO

ANSWER

United States Patent and Trademark Office

QUESTION 2

Glass-Steagall Act

ANSWER

This act separated investment and commercial banking activities

QUESTION 3

Lanham Act

ANSWER

a 1946 law that spells out what kinds of marks (including brand names) can be protected and the exact method of protecting them. Watermarks

QUESTION 4

FERPA

ANSWER

Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act

QUESTION 5

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

ANSWER

Federal law enacted in 1999 to control the ways that financial institutions deal with the private information of individuals

QUESTION 6

Library of Congress

ANSWER

the largest library in the U.S., which was originally intended for use by Congressmen for research

QUESTION 7

TVA (Tennessee Valley Authority)

ANSWER

Planned development of the Tennessee Valley region

QUESTION 8

United States Code

ANSWER

Criminal and Civil Law

QUESTION 9

Code of Federal Regulations

ANSWER

Final rules and regulations that have the force of the law

QUESTION 10

Privacy Act of 1974

ANSWER

a law that gives citizens access to the government's files on them

QUESTION 11

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

ANSWER

United States legislation that defines a comprehensive framework to protect government information, operations and assets against natural or man-made threats. FISMA was signed into law part of the Electronic Government Act of 2002.

QUESTION 12

electronic communications privacy act of 1986

ANSWER

extend restrictions on government wire taps of telephone calls to include transmissions of electronic data

QUESTION 13

ECPA (Electronic Communications Privacy Act)

ANSWER

Restricts the interception or monitoring of oral and wire communications unless the interception or monitoring is undertaken for a business purpose or by consent Employers may monitor employees' emails and communications with some exemptions

QUESTION 14

CALEA (Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act)

ANSWER

law enforcement can wiretap from communication service provider if needed.

QUESTION 15

HITECH Act of 2009

ANSWER

he goal of HITECH is not just to put computers into physician offices and on hospital wards, but rather to use them toward five goals for the US healthcare system: improve quality, safety and efficiency; engage patients in their care; increase coordination of care; improve the health status of the population;

QUESTION 16

reduction analysis and 5 key concepts to identify?

ANSWER

aka decomposing the application, system, or environment. 1) trust boundaries 2) data flow paths 3) input points 4) privileged operations 5) details about security stance and approach

QUESTION 17

US-EU Safe Harbor Framework

ANSWER

transfer personal data from the EU to the United States.

QUESTION 18

Clearing

ANSWER

Media to be reused in a same sensitive environment.

QUESTION 19

Purging

ANSWER

Media to be reused in a lower sensitive environment.

QUESTION 20

Sanitazation

ANSWER

Remove data from a system or media and ensure the data cannot be recovered by any means

QUESTION 21

Blowfish

ANSWER

A symmetric block cipher that operates on 64-bit blocks and can have a key length from 32 to 448 bits. 16-round. Also Linux system use bcrypt are using a tool based on this.

QUESTION 22

serpent

ANSWER

Serpent is a symmetric key block cipher that was a finalist in the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) contest, where it was ranked second to Rijndael. Serpent has a block size of 128 bits and supports a key size of 128, 192 or 256 bits.[2] The cipher is a 32-round substitution-permutation network operating on a block of four 32-bit words

QUESTION 23

AES

ANSWER

AES is a Symmetic key algorithm which has a fixed block size of 128 bits, and a key size of 128, 192, or 256 bits. Used by Bitlocker and MS Encryption File systems.

QUESTION 24

3DES (Triple DES)

ANSWER

Symmetric Key Algorithm, Applies DES three times, 168-bit key (+24 for parity) Block size 64bits.

QUESTION 25

DES

ANSWER

Symmetric Block cipher, key length 56 bit, block size 64 bits. Worst to best: ECB, CBC, CFB, OFB, CTR

QUESTION 26

RC6

ANSWER

A Symmetric cipher that has three key sizes (128,192, and 256 bit) and performs 20 rounds on each block.

QUESTION 27

RC2

ANSWER

A Symmetric block cipher that processes blocks of 64 bits.Key Length 8-128 bits. Default 64 bits.

QUESTION 28

POODLE (Padding Oracle on Dwongraded Legacy Encryption)

ANSWER

move from SSL 3.0 to TLS because it allows attackers to easily access SSL encrypted message

QUESTION 29

Stuxnet Worm

ANSWER

worm aimed at the iranian nuclear program

QUESTION 30

CRIME/BEAST

ANSWER

earlier attacks against SSL

QUESTION 31

European union's data protection principle

ANSWER

Notice, Purpose, Consent, Security, Disclosure, Access, Accountability

QUESTION 32

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

ANSWER

1. Lawfulness, fairness, and transparency 2. Purpose limitations 3. Data minimization 4. Accuracy 5. Storage limitation 6. Integrity and confidentiality 7. Accountability and compliance

QUESTION 33

COPPA (California Online Privacy Protection Act)

ANSWER

Operators of commercial websites and services post a prominently displayed privacy policy if they collect personal information on California residents. No encryption is needed by this law.

QUESTION 34

Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

ANSWER

is a Canadian privacy law

QUESTION 35

California Civil Code 1798.82

ANSWER

is part of the set of California codes that requires breach notification

QUESTION 36

PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)

ANSWER

A key-based encryption system for e-mail that uses a two-step verification process. Can also be used to encrypt files and entire disk drives.

QUESTION 37

M of N Control

ANSWER

a method of storing a private key detected and encrypted as the unique key. The key used for recovery is split into different parts and distributed to various individual is called key recovery operators. To use the recovery key a m number of the operators must be present with their part of the key

QUESTION 38

Digital Signature Standard (DSS)

ANSWER

DSA, RSA and ECDSA

QUESTION 39

HAVAL (Hash of Variable Length)

ANSWER

128; 160; 192; 224; 256. Also allows users to specify the number of rounds (3, 4, or 5) to be used to generate the hash.

QUESTION 40

TCB

ANSWER

The trusted computing base (TCB) of a computer system is the set of all hardware, firmware, and/or software components that are critical to its security, in the sense that bugs or vulnerabilities occurring inside the TCB might jeopardize the security properties of the entire system.

QUESTION 41

Maintenance hook

ANSWER

What is another name for a backdoor that was left in a product by the manufacturer by accident?

QUESTION 42

Biba Model

ANSWER

An access control model used to ensure integrity. It uses two primary rules: no read down and no write up. Compare to BellLaPadula model.Two security rules: the simple integrity axiom and the * integrity axiom

QUESTION 43

TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

ANSWER

Hardware Security technique that stores an encryption key on a chip on the motherboard and prevents someone from access and encrypted drive by installing it in another computer.

QUESTION 44

International Common Criteria (CC)

ANSWER

Protection Profile (PP): a set of security requirements and objects for the type of product to be tested Security Target (ST): the documentation that describes the ToE and any security requirements Target of Evaluation (TOE):the system or product that is to be tested Evaluated System EAL: a rating level that is assigned to the product after the product has been tested.

QUESTION 45

EAL 1

ANSWER

functionally tested (Common Criteria)

QUESTION 46

EAL 2

ANSWER

structurally tested (Common Criteria)

QUESTION 47

EAL 3

ANSWER

Methodically checked and tested (Common Criteria)

QUESTION 48

EAL 4

ANSWER

methodically designed, tested, and reviewed (Common Criteria)

QUESTION 49

EAL 5

ANSWER

semiformally designed and tested. (Common Criteria)

QUESTION 50

EAL 6

ANSWER

Semiformally verified designed and tested (Common Criteria)

QUESTION 51

EAL 7

ANSWER

Formally verified designed and tested (Common Criteria)

QUESTION 52

Fair Cryptosystem approach to key escrow

ANSWER

secret keys are divided into 2 or more pieces, each of which is given to a 3rd party

QUESTION 53

Multistate Systems

ANSWER

Certified to handle data from different security classifications simultaneously by implementing protection mechanisms that segregate data appropriately

QUESTION 54

Ring model

ANSWER

0 kernel 1 other os components 2 drivers and protocols 3 user level programs and applications; 0 - 2 are run in privileged mode and 3 is user mode. Use system calls to communicate with the CPU.

QUESTION 55

Verification

ANSWER

system assurance process provides an independent third-party evaluation of a system's controls that may be trusted by many different org.

QUESTION 56

MTTR

ANSWER

mean time to repair/recover

QUESTION 57

MTTF

ANSWER

Mean time to failure. The length of time you can expect a device to remain in operation before it fails. It is similar to MTBF, but the primary difference is that the MTBF metric indicates you can repair the device after it fails. The MTTF metric indicates that you will not be able to repair a device after it fails.

QUESTION 58

MTBF

ANSWER

Mean Time Between Failure: a measure of availability often quoted by hardware manufacturers. For example 2.56 years between failures means that, on average, the hardware can be expected to last 2.56 years before it goes wrong.

QUESTION 59

RTO

ANSWER

Recovery Time Objective

QUESTION 60

MTO

ANSWER

Maximum Tolerable Outage - time

QUESTION 61

Fire extinguisher class C

ANSWER

a dry chemical, potassium bicarbonate or potassium chloride used for electrical fires

QUESTION 62

Fire extinguisher class A

ANSWER

contained pressurized water-used on combustible fires such as paper, cloth, and wood

QUESTION 63

Fire extinguisher class B

ANSWER

contains carbon dioxide- used on gasoline, oil; paint, and cooking fat fires

QUESTION 64

Fire extinguisher class D

ANSWER

Combustible metals

QUESTION 65

Van Eck radiation phenomenon

ANSWER

Side-band electromagnetic radiation emissions are present in and, with the proper equipment, can be captured from keyboards, computer displays, printers, and other electronic devices.

QUESTION 66

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface)

ANSWER

A fast interface between a host adapter and the CPU that can daisy chain as many as 7 or 15 devices on a single bus.

QUESTION 67

tempest

ANSWER

reduces or suppresses natural electromagnetic emanations.

QUESTION 68

TOCTOU

ANSWER

"Time Of Check, Time Of Use--Altering a condition after it has been checked by the operating system but before it is used."

QUESTION 69

Data diddling

ANSWER

changing data before or during entry into a computer system in order to delete, alter, add, or incorrectly update key system data

QUESTION 70

Phlashing

ANSWER

malicious code embedded into BIOS or firmware -frequently used to remote control

QUESTION 71

Phreaking

ANSWER

attacking phone systems to obtain free phone line access, use phone lines to transmit malware, and to access, steal, and destroy data

QUESTION 72

Meet-in-the-middle attack

ANSWER

One cryptanalysis method that is used to defeat a multi-step encryption process uses both the original clear text to work forward toward an intermediate value, and the ending cipher text to work backward toward an intermediate value so that the key space that is to be defeated is smaller and more computationally manageable. Which one of the following terms describes this method?

QUESTION 73

chosen ciphertext attack

ANSWER

the attacker selects a ciphertext and is given the corresponding plaintext E.g., the attacker gains access to the decryption device but not the key

QUESTION 74

Greylisting

ANSWER

defending e-mail users against spam. A mail transfer agent (MTA) using greylisting will "temporarily reject" any email from a sender it does not recognize.

QUESTION 75

Emanation Security

ANSWER

Physical constraints used to prevent information from being compromised through signals emanated by a system, particularly electromagnetic radiation.

QUESTION 76

Skipjack

ANSWER

Promoted by the NSA. Skipjack uses an 80-bit key, supports the same four modes of operation as DES, and operates on 64-bit blocks of text. Skipjack provides cryptographic routines in support of Clipper and Capstone. Skipjack faced public opposition because it was developed so that the government could maintain information enabling legal authorities (with a search warrant or approval of the court) to reconstruct a Skipjack access key and decrypt private communications between affected parties.

QUESTION 77

State Machine Model

ANSWER

Describes the behavior of a system as it moves between one state and another, from one moment to another. Allows or dnies access to objects at different intervals of time.

QUESTION 78

capacitance sensor

ANSWER

works like a laptop's touchpad or a phone's touchscreen. Uses electron movement to sense fingerprint patterns

QUESTION 79

FM 200 System

ANSWER

does not remove the oxygen from the air. Chemical reaction and heat removal.

QUESTION 80

Inergen

ANSWER

mixture of nitrogen, argon and carbon; alrernative to halon

QUESTION 81

Bell-LaPadula Model

ANSWER

Simple Security Property (no read up) * - Property (no write down) All about confidentiality

QUESTION 82

Composition Theory

ANSWER

A Layer 2 WAN package switching technology that interconnects sites using private virtual circuits (PVC) provides a Committed Information Rate (CIR), which is a minimum bandwidth guarantee provided by the service provider to customers. Frame Relay requires a DTE/DCE at each connection point, with the DTE providing access to the frame relay network and a provider-supplied DCE, which transmits the data over the networks.

QUESTION 83

Frame Relay

ANSWER

A legacy packet switching network technology developed in the 1970s to move data across less than reliable public carriers.

QUESTION 84

X.25

ANSWER

Connects two client

QUESTION 85

wireless ad hoc mode

ANSWER

connect clients using a wireless access point, but not to a wired resources like a central network

QUESTION 86

wireless standalone mode

ANSWER

connects endpoints to a central network, not directly to each other

QUESTION 87

wirelss infrastructure mode

ANSWER

use a wireless access point to link wireless clients to a wired network

QUESTION 88

wireless wired extension mode

ANSWER

reset

QUESTION 89

RTS flag

ANSWER

54 Mbps - 5 GHz, use OFDM

QUESTION 90

802.11a

ANSWER

5GHz 1300mbps

QUESTION 91

802.11ac

ANSWER

Wireless networking standard that operates in the 2.4-GHz band with a theoretical maximum throughput of 54 Mbps and is backward compatible with 802.11b. use OFDM. Supports WEP,AES and TKIP. WPA use TKIP and WPA2 use AES with counter mode with CCMP.

QUESTION 92

802.11g

ANSWER

Wireless networking standard that can operate in both the 2.4-GHz and 5-GHz bands and uses multiple in/multiple out (MIMO) to achieve a theoretical maximum throughput of 100+ Mbps. use OFDM

QUESTION 93

802.11n

ANSWER

Telnet

QUESTION 94

TCP port 23

ANSWER

SMTP

QUESTION 95

TCP Port 25

ANSWER

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

QUESTION 96

TCP port 143 is used by:

ANSWER

LPD (Printers)

QUESTION 97

TCP Port 515

ANSWER

POP3. Used by clients accessing e-mail on servers. Receiving.

QUESTION 98

TCP port 110

ANSWER

SSH

QUESTION 99

TCP Port 22

ANSWER

6000-6063

QUESTION 100

X Windows TCP Port

ANSWER

FTP. Port 20 is used for transfer data, port 21 is to control commands.

QUESTION 101

TCP 20/21

ANSWER

TFTP

QUESTION 102

UDP port 69

ANSWER

A simple version of FTP that uses UDP as the transport protocol, and does not require a logon to the remote host.

QUESTION 103

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

ANSWER

Used by Bluetooth. (Frequency-Hopping Spread Spectrum) Allows the participants in a communication to hop between predetermined frequencies. Security is enhanced, because the participants can predict the next frequency to be used while a third party cannot easily predict the next frequency. FHSS can also provision extra bandwidth by simultaneously using more than one frequency.

QUESTION 104

FHSS

ANSWER

(Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum) Modulates data over an entire range of frequencies using a series symbols called chips . A chip is shorter in duration than a bit, meaning that chips are transmitted at a higher rate than the actual data. These chips not only represent encoded data to be transmitted, but also what appears to be random data. Because both parties involved in a DSSS communication know which chips represent actual data and which chips do not, if a third-party intercepted a DSSS transmission, it would be difficult for that party to eavesdrop on the data, because he would not easily know which chips represented valid bits. DSSS is more subject to environmental factors, as opposed to FHSS and OFDN, because it uses of an entire frequency spectrum.

QUESTION 105

DSSS

ANSWER

(Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) While DSSS used a high modulation rate for the symbols it sends, OFDM uses a relatively slow modulation rate for symbols. This slower modulation rate, combined with the simultaneous transmission of data over 52 data streams, helps OFDM support high data rates while resisting crosstalk between the various data streams.

QUESTION 106

OFDM

ANSWER

A form of radio transmission in which the signal is sent over more than one frequency to discourage eavesdropping.

QUESTION 107

spread spectrum

ANSWER

A form of transmission that allows multiple signals to travel simultaneously over one medium.

QUESTION 108

Multiplexing

ANSWER

Technique used by criminals to alter DNS records and drive users to fake sites, to committing phishing.

QUESTION 109

DNS poisoning

ANSWER

Sniffing the ID of a Domain Name System (DNS, the "phone book" of the Internet that converts a domain, or website name, to an IP address) request and replying before the real DNS server.

QUESTION 110

DNS spoofing

ANSWER

uses false ARP replies to map any IP address to any MAC address

QUESTION 111

ARP spoofing

ANSWER

Secure/ Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions. Used to secure e-mail. S/ MIME provides confidentiality, integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation. It can digitally sign and encrypt e-mail, including the encryption of e-mail at rest (stored on a drive) and in transit (data sent over the network). It uses RSA, with public and private keys for encryption and decryption, and depends on a PKI for certificates.

QUESTION 112

S/MIME

ANSWER

Internet Small Computer System Interface. A lower-cost alternative to traditional SANs. It supports sending traditional SCSI commands over an IP network. Cost less than fiber channel.

QUESTION 113

iSCSI

ANSWER

Multi-Protocol Label Switching. A technology use path labels instead of network address.

QUESTION 114

MPLS

ANSWER

Private Branch Exchange. A telephone switch used to telephone calls.

QUESTION 115

PBX

ANSWER

The IEEE standard that defines port-based security for wireless network access control

QUESTION 116

802.1x

ANSWER

The IEEE standard for Ethernet networking devices and data handling (using the CSMA/CD access method).

QUESTION 117

802.3

ANSWER

Bluetooth

QUESTION 118

802.15

ANSWER

Integrated services digital network. A single ISDN line carries data at 64 or 128 Kbps. Although video conferences are possible at slower speeds, ISDN is considered to be the minimum for acceptable-quality video transmission.

QUESTION 119

ISDN

ANSWER

Primary Rate Interface. An Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) interface to primary rate access. Primary rate access consists of a single 64-kbps D channel plus 23 (T1) or 30 (E1) B channels for voice or data.up to 1.544Mbps

QUESTION 120

PRI

ANSWER

(Basic Rate Interface) A BRI circuit contains two 64-kbps B channels and one 16-kbps D channel. Although such a circuit can carry two simultaneous voice conversations, the two B channels can be logically bonded together into a single virtual circuit (by using PPP's multilink interface feature) to offer a 128-kbps data path.

QUESTION 121

BRI

ANSWER

Spam over Internet Telephony. Caller ID spoofing.

QUESTION 122

SPIT

ANSWER

The unauthorized access of information from a wireless device through a Bluetooth connection.

QUESTION 123

bluesnarfing

ANSWER

1) PPTP 2) L2F 3) L2TP 4) IPSec -operate at OSI 2 (data link)

QUESTION 124

common VPN protocols (4)

ANSWER

Fiber Distributed Data Interface. Two rings.

QUESTION 125

FDDI

ANSWER

Synchronous Optical Network Technologies. A multiplexing protocol used to transfer data over optical fiber.

QUESTION 126

SONET

ANSWER

Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol. PEAP provides an extra layer of protection for EAP. PEAP-TLS uses TLS to encrypt the authentication process by encapsulating and encrypting the EAP conversation in a Transport Layer Security (TLS) tunnel. Since TLS requires a certificate, PEAP-TLS requires a certification authority (CA) to issue certificates.

QUESTION 127

PEAP

ANSWER

Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol. A modified version of the Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) created by Cisco.

QUESTION 128

leap

ANSWER

Not possible with the same IP range, i.e. same IP address cannot appear inside and outside a NAT router

QUESTION 129

double NATing

ANSWER

steal long distance service by manipulating line voltages

QUESTION 130

Tele Blackbox

ANSWER

simulate tones of coins being deposited into payphones

QUESTION 131

Tele red box

ANSWER

tone generators used to simulate the tones used for telephone networks

QUESTION 132

Tele blue box

ANSWER

dual tone, multi frequency generator to control phone system

QUESTION 133

Tele white box

ANSWER

Bits

QUESTION 134

Physical Layer

ANSWER

Frames. The second layer in the OSI model. This layer bridges the networking media with the Network layer. Its primary function is to divide the data it receives from the Network layer into frames that can then be transmitted by the Physical layer.

QUESTION 135

Data Link Layer

ANSWER

Packages. The third layer in the OSI model. Protocols in this layer translate network addresses into their physical counterparts and decide how to route data from the sender to the receiver.

QUESTION 136

Network Layer

ANSWER

Segments. The fourth layer of the OSI model. In this layer protocols ensure that data are transferred from point A to point B reliably and without errors. this layer services include flow control, acknowledgment, error correction, segmentation, reassembly, and sequencing.

QUESTION 137

Transport Layer

ANSWER

An attack in which the attacker "breaks out" of a VM's normally isolated state and interacts directly with the hypervisor.

QUESTION 138

VM escape

ANSWER

A leased-line connection capable of carrying data at 44,736,000 bps. Equal to 28 T1 lines

QUESTION 139

T3 line

ANSWER

A type of data connection able to transmit a digital signal at 1.544 Mpbs. Circuit -switched WAN technology. T1 and T3 primarily used in US, Canada, Japan and SC. E1 and E3 are used else where.

QUESTION 140

T1 line

ANSWER

Asynchronous Transfer Mode is a cell-switched WAN technology. fixed lengthen cell. 155 Mbps

QUESTION 141

ATM

ANSWER

fibre channel over ethernet - a networking protocol that is not routable at the IP layer and thus cannot work across large networks

QUESTION 142

FCoE

ANSWER

Set all of the possible flags on a TCP packet

QUESTION 143

Christmas Tree attack

ANSWER

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol. Tunneling protocol used with VPNs. L2TP is commonly used with IPsec (L2TP/ IPsec). L2TP uses port 1701. Use ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) as encryption.

QUESTION 144

L2TP

ANSWER

Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol. Tunneling protocol used with VPNs. PPTP uses TCP port 1723. it sends the intial packets of a session in plaintext, potentially including usernames and hashed passwords. PPTP does support EAP and was designed to encapsulate PPP packets.

QUESTION 145

PPTP

ANSWER

A protocol that enables systems to use hardware-based identifiers, such as fingerprint scanners or smart card readers, for authentication.

QUESTION 146

EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)

ANSWER

A form of UTP that contains four wire pairs and can carry up to 10 Mbps, with a possible bandwidth of 16 MHz.

QUESTION 147

Cat 3 (Category 3)

ANSWER

UTP capable of 100 Mbps. Four twisted wire pairs (eight wires). My be used for 10BaseT,10BaseT4, 10BaseT2, 100BaseTX and 1000BaseT Ethernet.

QUESTION 148

CAT-5 Cable

ANSWER

A UTP cable type that provides more than 1 Gb/s of throughput.

QUESTION 149

Cat 6 cable

ANSWER

A secure and direct communications path to a legitimate receiver, such as a login screen

QUESTION 150

Trusted Path

ANSWER

Used to get on the network. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol, operating on port 1812[1] that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA or Triple A) management for users who connect and use a network service. By default, RADIUS use UDP and only encrypt password and NOT username. It does support TLS and TCP. Not the entire content.

QUESTION 151

Radius

ANSWER

service provisioning ML: uses Requesting Authorities to issue SPML requests to a Provisioning Service Point.

QUESTION 152

SPML

ANSWER

Simple Object Access Protocol: messaging protocol and could be used for any XML messaging

QUESTION 153

SOAP

ANSWER

Commonly used by SDN. Extensible Access Control Markup Language A standard for an access control policy language using XML. Its goal is to create an attribute-based access control system that decouples the access decision from the application or the local machine. It provides for fine-grained control of activities

QUESTION 154

XACML

ANSWER

Google Account shared login to other sites

QUESTION 155

Federation

ANSWER

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over TLS/SSL (LDAPS). Support Encryption.

QUESTION 156

Port 636 (TCP/UDP)

ANSWER

Global Catalog: 3268 for LDAP and 3269 for LDAPS

QUESTION 157

Port 3268/3269

ANSWER

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

QUESTION 158

Port 389 TCP/UDP

ANSWER

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol. Directory services.

QUESTION 159

X.500

ANSWER

Stores password in plain text. require pre-encryption.

QUESTION 160

OpenLDAP

ANSWER

False Negative

QUESTION 161

Biometric factor type 1 error

ANSWER

False Positive

QUESTION 162

Biometric factor type 2 error

ANSWER

an open, decentralized, free framework for user-centric digital identity. Allow user to use an account from another service with his application

QUESTION 163

OpenID

ANSWER

What technology allows users to share resources stored on one site with a second site without forwarding their authentication credentials to the other site?

QUESTION 164

OAuth

ANSWER

Common Access Card

QUESTION 165

US Government CAC

ANSWER

RESTful, Jason-based authentication protocol that when paired with OAuth, can provide identity verification and basic profiles information.

QUESTION 166

OpenID Connect

ANSWER

federated identity solution designed to allow web-based SSO

QUESTION 167

Shibboleth

ANSWER

Open source project designed to provide users with control over release of their identity information.

QUESTION 168

Higgins

ANSWER

Simple Authentication and Security Layer for LDAP provides support for a range of authentication types, including secure methods

QUESTION 169

SASL

ANSWER

Open protocol designed to replace RADIUS including support for additional commands and protocols, replacing UDP traffic with TCP, and providing for extensible commands, but does not preserve backward compatibility with RADIUS.

QUESTION 170

diameter

ANSWER

default port for SQL Server

QUESTION 171

TCP port 1433

ANSWER

server message block (SMB) over TCP/IP. This is a core means for communication on a Microsoft-based LAN.

QUESTION 172

TCP port 445

ANSWER

Net bios / Net BT

QUESTION 173

Port 137-139

ANSWER

Code is altered, tests are expected to fail; way to design new software tests and to ensure the quality of tests

QUESTION 174

Mutation testing

ANSWER

HTTPS

QUESTION 175

TCP port 443

ANSWER

Web vulnerability scanner

QUESTION 176

Nikto

ANSWER

A tool that carries out static analysis without actually running the code

QUESTION 177

static analysis tool

ANSWER

A type of tool that works by bombarding our applications with all manner of data and inputs from a wide variety of sources, in the hope that we can cause the application to fail or to perform in unexpected ways

QUESTION 178

Fuzzer

ANSWER

Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer. Closed Sourced

QUESTION 179

MBSA

ANSWER

An open-source security tool for conducting port scanning, OS identification, and vulnerability assessments. A client computer (*nix or Windows) must connect to the server to perform the tests.

QUESTION 180

OpenVAS

ANSWER

Assessing Security and Privacy Controls in Federal Information Systems and Organizations: Building Effective Assessment Plans. Baseline. Disucusses security control baselines as a list of security controls.

QUESTION 181

NIST 800-53A

ANSWER

A form of fuzzing that develops inputs based on models of expected inputs to perform the same task. This is also sometimes called intelligent fuzzing.

QUESTION 182

Generational Fuzzing

ANSWER

A form of fuzzing that modifies known inputs to generate synthetic inputs that may trigger unexpected behavior. Aka dumb fuzzing.

QUESTION 183

Mutation Fuzzing

ANSWER

Network Time Protocol. Protocol used to synchronize computer times.

QUESTION 184

NTP

ANSWER

Threat Categorization: Spoofing Tampering Repudiation Information Disclosure Denial of Service Elevation of Privilege

QUESTION 185

STRIDE

ANSWER

Security Content Automation Protocol. A method with automated vulnerability management, measurement, and policy compliance evaluation tools. Used by NVD.

QUESTION 186

SCAP

ANSWER

Security Flaw and Security configuration

QUESTION 187

NIST 800-126

ANSWER

Introduction to Computer Security

QUESTION 188

NIST 800-12

ANSWER

The Business Continuity plan guidelines are defined

QUESTION 189

NIST 800-34

ANSWER

Guide to Integrating Forensic Techniques into Incident Response

QUESTION 190

NIST 800-86

ANSWER

Developed by CCTA. The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and practices for Information Technology Services Management (ITSM), Information Technology (IT) development and IT operations. ITIL gives detailed descriptions of a number of important IT practices and provides comprehensive checklists, tasks and procedures that any IT organization can tailor to its needs. Not typically used for auditing. Five main tasks: Service strategy service design Service transition service operation Continual service improvement

QUESTION 191

ITIL

ANSWER

statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements 16 -used for auditing

QUESTION 192

SSAE 16

ANSWER

Information security continuous monitoring program

QUESTION 193

NIST 800-137

ANSWER

detailed code review that steps through planning, overview, preparation, inspection, rework, and follow-up phases

QUESTION 194

Fagan testing

ANSWER

Printer

QUESTION 195

TCP Port 9100

ANSWER

Scripted or recorded data

QUESTION 196

Synthetic transaction monitoring

ANSWER

provides info on the functions, statements, branches, and conditions or other elements

QUESTION 197

code coverage report

ANSWER

Cloud computing

QUESTION 198

NIST 800-145

ANSWER

Building an IT Security Awareness and Training Program

QUESTION 199

NIST 800-50

ANSWER

use langugage beyond typical use case diagrams, including threatens and mitigates

QUESTION 200

Misuse Case Diagrams

ANSWER

Score based system Damage - how bad would an attack be? Reproducibility - how easy is it to reproduce the attack? Exploitability - how much work is it to launch the attack? Affected users - how many people will be impacted? Discoverability - how easy is it to discover the threat?

QUESTION 201

DREAD

ANSWER

Attack trees are conceptual diagrams showing how an asset, or target, might be attacked.

QUESTION 202

threat trees

ANSWER

International Standard on Assurance Engagements - what SSAE-16 is based on

QUESTION 203

ISAE 3402

ANSWER

1) write blocking- intercepts write command sent to the device and prevents them from modifying data on the device. 2) returning data requested by a read operation 3) returning access significant info from the device 4) reporting errors from the device back to the forensic host.

QUESTION 204

forensic disk controller (4 functions)

ANSWER

Computer Security Incident Response Team

QUESTION 205

CSIRT

ANSWER

Project Management Body of Knowledge

QUESTION 206

PMBOK

ANSWER

Enterprise architecture framework used to define and understand a business environment developed by The Open Group.

QUESTION 207

TOGAF

ANSWER

An agreement that directs the escrow agent regarding terms and conditions under which the deed or other instruments are to be delivered to the parties and the disposition of the deed or other instruments on default.

QUESTION 208

Escrow Agreement

ANSWER

A DDoS attack type on a computer that floods the target system with a large amount of UDP echo traffic to IP broadcast addresses. Port 7 and port 19.

QUESTION 209

Fraggle Attack

ANSWER

A subclass to access methods belonging to a superclass

QUESTION 210

Inheritance

ANSWER

Web Application Firewall

QUESTION 211

WAF

ANSWER

Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability

QUESTION 212

Property of relational databases

ANSWER

use multiple propagation mechanisms to defeat system security controls but do not necessarily include hide the malware

QUESTION 213

multipartite virus

ANSWER

A virus that can change its own code or periodically rewrites itself to avoid detection

QUESTION 214

polymorphic virus

ANSWER

A problem that exists in database applications in which two users update the same data item, but only one of those changes is recorded in the data. Can be resolved using locking.

QUESTION 215

lost-update problem

ANSWER

In transaction management, when a transaction reads data that is not yet committed.

QUESTION 216

Dirty Read

ANSWER

A systematic way of testing all-pair combinations of variables using orthogonal arrays. It significantly reduces the number of all combinations of variables to test all pair combinations. See also combinatorial testing, n-wise testing, pairwise testing.

QUESTION 217

orthogonal array testing

ANSWER

one transaction is using an aggregate function to summarize data stored in a database while a second transaction is making modifications to the database, causing the summary to include incorrect information

QUESTION 218

Incorrect Summary

ANSWER

Use record from past software bugs to inform the analysis

QUESTION 219

Pattern testing

ANSWER

develops a matrix of all possible inputs and outputs to inform the test plan

QUESTION 220

matrix testing

ANSWER

Higher likelihood of detecting a zero-day exploit however it comes with high false positive

QUESTION 221

heuristic-based anti-malware software

ANSWER

an extremely destructive virus that attacks the master boot record (MBR) of a hard disk, resulting in hard disk failure.

QUESTION 222

MBR virus

ANSWER

Knowledge bank and inference engine

QUESTION 223

Expert Systems

ANSWER

A model intended to ensure that higher-level security functions don't interfere with lower-level functions.

QUESTION 224

Noninterference Model

ANSWER

Aslo called Chinese wall model. Designed to prevent conflicts of interest; commonly used in industries that handle sensitive data. Three main resources classes are considered in this model: objects, company groups, and conflict classes

QUESTION 225

Brewer and Nash Model

ANSWER

employs a directed graph to dictate how rights can be passed from one sub to another or from a sub to an obj. -i.e, a sub with the grant right can grant another sub or obj any other right they possess. -a sub with the take right can take a right from another sub -may adopt a create rule and remove rule to generate or delete rights

QUESTION 226

Take-Grant Model

ANSWER

Real-world integrity model that protects integrity by having subjects access objects via programs. Also, it uses SoD to ensure that no single user alone can modify sensitive data

QUESTION 227

Clark-Wilson Model

ANSWER

Take information from a higher layer and adds a header to it

QUESTION 228

Encapsulation

ANSWER

Group of subjects that share similar privileges or management controls

QUESTION 229

Security Domain

ANSWER

hiding the operational complexity of a system from the system's user

QUESTION 230

Abstraction

ANSWER

Bolted to the wall, the floor, or some other large, immobile surface

QUESTION 231

Lockdown Enclosure

ANSWER

also called a virtual machine monitor is a computer software/hardware platform virtualization software that allows multiple guest OS to run on host computer concurrently. Type 1 is on bare metal server, type 2 is application installed on host OS.

QUESTION 232

Hypervisor

ANSWER

TCP 513, remote login. Not encrypted.

QUESTION 233

rlogin

ANSWER

tcp/23 Telecommunication Network Insecure console access

QUESTION 234

Telnet

ANSWER

Password Authentication Protocol. An older authentication protocol where passwords are sent across the network in clear text. Rarely used today.

QUESTION 235

PAP

ANSWER

A person or element that has the power to carry out a threat.

QUESTION 236

threat agent

ANSWER

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol. Authentication mechanism where a server challenges a client. No password or ID is sent. Shared secure password. Hash the challenge and the secure password and send back to the server.

QUESTION 237

CHAP

ANSWER

The means by which an attack could occur.

QUESTION 238

Threat Vector

ANSWER

An IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method that runs both IPv4 and IPv6 on networking devices. A tunneling method, such as 4to6 tunneling must be implemented. IPv4 package is carried as the data payload of the IPv6 package.

QUESTION 239

Dual Stack

ANSWER

The extent to which subsystems depend on each other. High coupling means low cohension.

QUESTION 240

Coupling

ANSWER

1. Develop Policy 2. Conduct BIA 3. Identify Controls 4. Develop recovery strat 5. Develop IT contengency plan 6. Perform BCP training and testing 7. Perform BCP maintenance

QUESTION 241

BCP development process

ANSWER

used to remotely copy files in clear text

QUESTION 242

RCP

ANSWER

Remote Shell; port 514; good for use in scripts and making single commands. Clear text.

QUESTION 243

RSH

ANSWER

Another name for a table in a relational database

QUESTION 244

Relation

ANSWER

Rows in a relational database

QUESTION 245

Turple

ANSWER

Columns in a relational database

QUESTION 246

Attribute

ANSWER

Security Association is a collection of security configuration parameters that each end point agrees to use. If either ESP or AH is used, ISAKMP must establish two SAs. If both, four, two in each direction.

QUESTION 247

SA

ANSWER

Encrypted code book: Each block encrypted seperately. Maintains large scale patterns (can still see image). No IV.

QUESTION 248

ECB mode

ANSWER

Cipher block chaining mode. Previous block used to help decrypt next block. Mixes things up. Would be good, but difficult to implement. Chain encryption.

QUESTION 249

CBC mode

ANSWER

Cipher Feedback Mode (block cipher mode). Encrypt the IV, then XOR it with plaintext 1 to generate ciphertext 1. Then encrypt ciphertext 1 and XOR it with plaintext 2, etc. works in stream mode. stream mode is called feedback.

QUESTION 250

CFB mode (definition, pro)

ANSWER

Output Feedback Mode. Can be used to construct a synchronous stream cipher from a block cipher. Encrypts the IV over and over, XORing the result with the plaintext at each iteration. Does not propagate encryption error.

QUESTION 251

OFB mode (definition, pro, con)

ANSWER

Counter Mode. Generates a key stream independently of the data. Increments IV for each block, encrypts that IV, and XORs it with the plaintext. Faster

QUESTION 252

CTR mode (definition, pros, con)

ANSWER

Both confidentially and integrity Combo of biba & Lapadula

QUESTION 253

Lipner Model

ANSWER

A security model focused on the secure creation and deletion of both subjects and objects. Access control matrix. Row is subject, column is object, cell is right.

QUESTION 254

Graham-Denning Model

ANSWER

Extend of Graham-Denning, including a right integrity protection system that prevents a subject from being created if that subject or object already exist in ACM.

QUESTION 255

Harrison-Ruzzo-Ullman model

ANSWER

monitors traffic that's passing through other ports on a switch, sometimes called Switched Port Analyzer ports or mirror ports.

QUESTION 256

promiscuous port

ANSWER

Fishing law enforcement

QUESTION 257

enticement

ANSWER

The act of registering a domain name that is the same as, or confusingly similar to, the trademark of another and then offering to sell that domain name back to the trademark owner.

QUESTION 258

Cybersquatting

ANSWER

a problem that occurs when someone registers purposely misspelled variations of well-known domain names

QUESTION 259

Typosquatting

ANSWER

The past U.S. military accepted set of standards and processes for computer systems evaluation and assurance, which combines function and assurance requirements A. Verified Protection B. Mandatory Protection C. Discretionary Protection D. Minimal Protection

QUESTION 260

TCSEC (Orange Book)

ANSWER

The flame sensor sends an electrical signal to a central controller. Visual.

QUESTION 261

Flame Sensor

ANSWER

DNS cache poisoning attacks that attempts to modify a DNS cache by providing invalid information to a DNS server.

QUESTION 262

pharming attack

ANSWER

Domain Name System Security Extensions. A suite of specifications used to protect the integrity of DNS records and prevent DNS poisoning attacks.

QUESTION 263

DNSSEC

ANSWER

Device has more than one network connection

QUESTION 264

Multi-home device

ANSWER

A random number used once during a cryptographic process. Can be added to URL to mitigate XSRF.

QUESTION 265

nonce

ANSWER

Cryptanalysis attack where the attacker is assumed to have access to sets of corresponding plaintext and ciphertext.

QUESTION 266

known plaintext attack

ANSWER

Using statistical tools to attempt to discover a pattern in ciphertexts; also called ciphertext only attack.

QUESTION 267

known ciphertext attack

ANSWER

Cryptanalysis attack where the attacker can choose arbitrary plaintexts to be encrypted and obtain the corresponding ciphertexts.

QUESTION 268

chosen plaintext attack

ANSWER

Serial Line Internet Protocol. lower overhead. bare-bone layer 2 protocol. Support encapsulation only IP traffic. Doesn't provide CIA.

QUESTION 269

SLIP

ANSWER

Point-to-Point Protocol. A protocol that provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous point-to-point and asynchronous point-to-point circuits. Can transmit more than IP. Layer 2 protocol. provides CIA. use PAP, CHAP and EAP for authentication. Use PPTP or L2TP for confidentiality. Support synchronous links, such as T1 lines or asynchronous links, such as dial-up modems.

QUESTION 270

PPP

ANSWER

Structured walkthrough

QUESTION 271

Table Top Exercise

ANSWER

a method of encrypting text by applying a series of Caesar ciphers based on the letters of a keyword. square matrix.

QUESTION 272

Vigenere Cipher

ANSWER

Use well known text to encrypt and decrypt

QUESTION 273

Book cipher

ANSWER

Substitution cipher that creates keystream values, commonly from agreed-upon text passages, to be used for encryption purposes.

QUESTION 274

Running Key Cipher

ANSWER

refer to the use of human-readable security attributes.

QUESTION 275

security marking

ANSWER

Simple Network Management Protocol. Used to collect system information from a remote computer. used to manage network devices. V1 and V2 dont use encryption, V3 does.

QUESTION 276

SNMP

ANSWER

A channel that conveys information by writing data to a common storage area where another process can read it.

QUESTION 277

covert storage channel

ANSWER

A channel that conveys information by altering the performance of a system component or modifying a resource's timing in a predictable manner.

QUESTION 278

Covert Timing Channel

ANSWER

use aliases or artificial identifier to represent other data

QUESTION 279

Pseudonymization

ANSWER

The act of permanently and completely removing personal identifiers from data, such as converting personally identifiable information (PII) into aggregated data.

QUESTION 280

Anonymization

ANSWER

technique of swapping fixed length block of memory to disk

QUESTION 281

Paging

ANSWER

The process of moving data from one entire running application out of RAM and into virtual memory.

QUESTION 282

Swapping

ANSWER

short period of low voltage

QUESTION 283

sag

ANSWER

Prolonged (more than a minute) undervoltage

QUESTION 284

brownout

ANSWER

a short period of power loss

QUESTION 285

fault

ANSWER

master device to coordinate data transmission by slave devices, typically used in mainframe

QUESTION 286

Polling

ANSWER

Type 2 Authentication - Something You Have; like a token or a smartcard

QUESTION 287

Transient authentication

ANSWER

The partial or full duplication of data from a source database to one or more destination databases.

QUESTION 288

Database replication

ANSWER

copy data from a table to another table in the same database

QUESTION 289

Database Transaction

ANSWER

Copies data from a live database to a read only copy. The database shadow is an offline backup, which is only made available in instances when the primary database is 'incapacitated'.

QUESTION 290

Database shadowing

ANSWER

Remote Procedure Call. Executing what looks like a normal procedure call (or method invocation) by sending network packets to some remote host. Layer 5

QUESTION 291

RPC

ANSWER

HTTP, FTP, TFTP, DHCP, DNS, SMTP, POP3, Telnet, SSH

QUESTION 292

Application Layer

ANSWER

GIF, JPEG, MPEG, QuickTime

QUESTION 293

Presentation Layer

ANSWER

PAP, RPC

QUESTION 294

Session Layer

ANSWER

UDP, TCP

QUESTION 295

NIST SP 800-30

ANSWER

A photoelectric or ionization device that reacts to the presence of smoke. Electrical Charge

QUESTION 296

smoke detector

ANSWER

a fire detection system that works by detecting the infrared or ultraviolet light produced by an open flame

QUESTION 297

Flame Detector

ANSWER

• A trusted third-party holds the keys • Allows access the data if the need arises

QUESTION 298

key escrow

ANSWER

OOP concept that enables data to be processed differently based on the data type when objects are instantiated from other objects.

QUESTION 299

Polymorphism

ANSWER

the process of developing one object from another object, but with different values in the new object. Allows the storage of multiple different pieces of information in a database at different classification levels.

QUESTION 300

Polyinstantiation

ANSWER

pretending to be another person online. Another name for spoofing.

QUESTION 301

masquerading

ANSWER

A substantive rule of contracts under which a court will not receive into evidence the parties' prior negotiations, prior agreements, or contemporaneous oral agreements if that evidence contradicts or varies the terms of the parties' written contract.

QUESTION 302

802.11b

ANSWER

A file setting that indicates whether a file should be backed up. Full or incremental backup resets the archive bit.

QUESTION 303

archive bit

ANSWER

trifouromethane, alrernative to halon. Safest in electrical environment. Can be breathed up to 30%. FM-200 is 15%.

QUESTION 304

FE-13

ANSWER

International Association of Computer Investigative Specialists. Offer certificates specifially designed for digital forensics investigators.

QUESTION 305

IACIS

ANSWER

Message Digest 5. A hashing function used to provide integrity. MD5 uses 128 bits. BGP, OSPF, RIPv2 (not v1), EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing protocol), IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate system) all support MD5.

QUESTION 306

MD5

ANSWER

HTTPS requires use of symmetric and asymmetric; S-HTTP can be used with only symmetric keys, but does support asymmetric. S-HTTP send over port 80 while HTTP send over port 443. S-HTTP encrypt all but HTTP header on application layer with DES or RC2 while HTTPS encrypt the entire message at the transport layer using SSL/TLS. S-HTTP defined by RFC2660. HTTPS defined by RFC2818.

QUESTION 307

HTTPS vs S-HTTP

ANSWER

100 mbps, 2000m, MMF

QUESTION 308

100Base-FX

ANSWER

A Gigabit Ethernet standard using multimode fiber cabling, with a 220- to 500-m maximum cable distance.

QUESTION 309

1000Base-SX

ANSWER

RIP Routing information protocol, OSPF open shortest path first, IGRP, EIGRP, BGP border gateway protocol

QUESTION 310

10Base-T

ANSWER

An Ethernet LAN designed to run on fiber-optic cabling. Runs at 100 Mbps and uses baseband signaling. Maximum cable length is 400 m for half-duplex and 2 km for full-duplex.

QUESTION 311

100Base-TX

ANSWER

as long as you are legally required to do so

QUESTION 312

How long should you maintain sensitive data?

ANSWER

The comparison of past security activities and events against the organization's current performance

QUESTION 313

Baselining

ANSWER

Common Vulnerability Scoring System; Open protocol for scoring new vulnerabilities. Influence by three metric groups: Base metrics (severity, set by vendor, largest influence), temporal metrics (urgency, set by vendor, can change, second score calculation) and environmental metrics (optional, set by end user, final score).

QUESTION 314

CVSS

ANSWER

1024 through 49151

QUESTION 315

Register Ports

ANSWER

49152 through 65535

QUESTION 316

Dynamic ports/private ports

ANSWER

A key agreement protocol, does not provide any security services nor digital signature. Use discrete logarithms. DH and El Gamal are asymmetric encryption.

QUESTION 317

Diffie-Hellman

ANSWER

De facto asymmetric algorithm used for encryption, digital signatures, and key exchange. Based upon the difficulty of factoring large numbers into their original prime numbers. Susceptible to chosen cipher text attack.

QUESTION 318

RSA Algorithm

ANSWER

An algorithm that uses elliptic curves instead of prime numbers to compute keys.

QUESTION 319

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)

ANSWER

Content Delivery Network - a system of distributed servers (network) that deliver webpages and other Web content to a user based on the geographic locations of the user, the origin of the webpage and a content delivery server.

QUESTION 320

CDN

ANSWER

Application-level proxy layer 7 circuit-level layer 5 packet filter layer 3 and 4 stateful layer 3 and 4, more secure than packet filter.

QUESTION 321

Firewalls

ANSWER

Trusted Network Interpretation book, DoD standard that describes security evaluation criteria for networked system, supplement to the orange book, since orange book doesn't define access control in network.

QUESTION 322

Red book

ANSWER

A single copper wire surrounded by layers of plastic insulation and sheathing; used mainly in cable television and cable Internet service.

QUESTION 323

coaxial cable

ANSWER

Contains control unit and ALU. Also known as brains of the computer.

QUESTION 324

CPU

ANSWER

The CPU is connected to the RAM via this bridge. Is an integrated circuit that is responsible for communications between the CPU interface and the memory.

QUESTION 325

Northbridge

ANSWER

Point to Point Encryption solution. Prevents merchants from performing key management. encrypt cardholder information as soon as it's swiped.

QUESTION 326

P2PE

ANSWER

Active Directory standard. Mostly replaced by SMTP.

QUESTION 327

X.400

ANSWER

Robust Security Network, also called WPA2

QUESTION 328

RSN

ANSWER

Channel service unit/data service unit. A device that is required to connect to a data terminal equipment (DTE) device, such as a router, to a digital circuit, such as a T1 line.

QUESTION 329

CSU/DSU

ANSWER

Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol. Feature of WPA2, used by AES. Create a message integrity code (MIC) that can be use for validation.

QUESTION 330

CCMP

ANSWER

Frame Check Sequence; checksum in a frame header. Used by Ethernet.

QUESTION 331

FCS

ANSWER

Contains a 7 byte field of alternating bits. This pattern enables bit-level synchronization between the frame sender and the frame receiver.

QUESTION 332

Ethernet Preamble

ANSWER

The most common cryptographic work function is a representation of the time and effort required to perform a successful brute-force attack. The work function should be greater in value than the time value of the asset being protected.

QUESTION 333

cryptographic work function

ANSWER

Computer Forensics Tool Testing. Created by NIST.

QUESTION 334

CFTT

ANSWER

Secure European System for Applications in a Multivendor Environment. Improves on Kerberos by using public keys.

QUESTION 335

SESAME

ANSWER

CPU to speed processing by switching between processes

QUESTION 336

Multitasking

ANSWER

Allows different parts of a single program to run concurrently.

QUESTION 337

Multithreading

ANSWER

Supports running a program on more than one CPU.

QUESTION 338

Multiprocessing

ANSWER

Technique that allows the CPU to work on more than one instruction at a time

QUESTION 339

Pipelining

ANSWER

Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture Traceability An enterprise security architecture framework that is similar to the Zachman framework. It uses the six communication questions (what, where, when, why, who, and how) that intersect with six layers (operational, component, physical, logical, conceptual, and contextual). It is a risk-driven architecture, a model for guiding the creation and design of a security architecture. It attempts to enhance the communication process between stakeholders.

QUESTION 340

SABSA

ANSWER

a methodology and set of resources for developing an enterprise architecture. Four domains, business, application, data and technology. use business requirement as a central point of comparison for every phase of the development.

QUESTION 341

TOGAF (The Open Group Architecture Framework)

ANSWER

provides six frameworks for providing information security, asking what, how, where, who, when, and why, and mapping those frameworks across rules including planner, owner, designer, builder, programmer, and user, but it does not create a chain of traceability.

QUESTION 342

Zachman Framework for Enterprise Architecture

ANSWER

Baselining, Patch-management, Vulnerability management

QUESTION 343

Configuration Management

ANSWER

application (7,6,5), transport (4), internet (3), network access (2, 1)

QUESTION 344

TCP/IP Model

ANSWER

1. Pad is made up of truly random values 2. Used once 3. Securely distributed to destination 4. Secured at sender's and receiver's sites 5. At least as long as the message

QUESTION 345

One-Time Pad Requirements

ANSWER

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis. Risk-based threat-modeling methodology that contains 7 stages

QUESTION 346

PASTA

ANSWER

risk-based threat-modeling that allows security audits to be performed consistently, reliably, and repeatably.

QUESTION 347

Trike

ANSWER

buffer overflow protection mechnism that forces an application fail immediately if a pointer is freed incorrectly.

QUESTION 348

Heap Metadata Protection

ANSWER

Address Layout Space Randomization. A buffer overflow protection mechanism that places executables into random memory addresses at boot time.

QUESTION 349

ALSR

ANSWER

Data Execution Prevention. A security feature in modern operating systems that monitors applications to make sure they use system memory safely. In Microsoft environment, DEP is defined as a set of hardware and software technologies that perform additional checks on memory to help protect against malicious code exploits. If a program tries to execute code from memory in a an incorrect way, DEP closes the program.

QUESTION 350

DEP

ANSWER

A buffer overflow protection mechanism that applies an exclusive or XOR random value with pointers, encoding the pointer value.

QUESTION 351

Pointer Encoding

ANSWER

Fire suppression system that consists of closed sprinklers attached to piping system that contains air under pressure

QUESTION 352

Dry pipe system

ANSWER

A fire suppression sprinkler system that keeps all individual sprinkler heads open and applies water to all areas when activated.

QUESTION 353

Deluge System

ANSWER

A connectionless transfer unit created with User Datagram Protocol designed for quick transfers over a packet-switched network. Layer 4.

QUESTION 354

Datagram

ANSWER

A short-term increase in electrical power availability, also known as a swell.

QUESTION 355

Spike

ANSWER

A long period of high voltage

QUESTION 356

surge

ANSWER

Can never be vulnerable to specific kinds of threats. Restrict the ways data can be used.

QUESTION 357

Type-safe programming:

ANSWER

Gathering outside information by watching how it behaves with the goal of uncovering the encryption key

QUESTION 358

Side Channel Attack

ANSWER

The process of supplying the PIN and handprint that the entity needs to authenticate the individual. Throughput can be measured by the amount of time the authentication process takes.

QUESTION 359

Througput

ANSWER

HTTP accepts both decimal and hexdecimal

QUESTION 360

Double encoding

ANSWER

searching for unlinked content on a webserver

QUESTION 361

forced browsing

ANSWER

Defines NAT.

QUESTION 362

RFC 1631

ANSWER

Attacker carries out a known-plaintext attack on several different messages encrypted with the same key, identifying specific output combination allows him to assign probability values to different keys, resulting on key display a pattern

QUESTION 363

Linear Cryptanalysis

ANSWER

Allows the operating system to provide well-defined and structured access to processes that need to use resources according to a controlled and tightly managed schedule. Each process is allocated time slot(s)

QUESTION 364

Time Multiplexing

ANSWER

Space on a hard disk or other storage device that simulates random access memory. Enable multitasking by sharing libraries between applications.

QUESTION 365

Virtual Memory

ANSWER

The Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC) protocol was developed in the mid-1970s for use in Systems Network Architecture (SNA) environments. SDLC is unique in that it was the first synchronous, link layer, bit-oriented protocol. The ISO modified SDLC to create the High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC) protocol and release it as a standard.

QUESTION 366

SDLC

ANSWER

A specific way of implementing ActiveX that runs through the web browser and functions like a miniature application. Primarily use DS as a security control. Support only on MS platform browsers.

QUESTION 367

ActiveX control

ANSWER

A Java program designed to be embedded into an HTML document, transferred over the Web, and executed in a browser. Primarily use sandbox as security control.

QUESTION 368

Java applet

ANSWER

Dynamic Random Access Memory - A type of random-access memory that stores each bit of data in a separate capacitor within an integrated circuit. slowest and cheapest. Smaller hardware requirement.

QUESTION 369

DRAM

ANSWER

Static Random Access Memory; the type of memory that does not need to be refreshed and that cache memory is made out of. Use flip flops.

QUESTION 370

SRAM

ANSWER

- Uses only one wire pair with a digital signal running in both directions on the wire - Uses the CSMA/CD protocol to help prevent collisions and to permit retransmitting if one occurs - If a hub is attached to a switch, it must operate in half-duplex mode because the end stations must be able to detect collisions - The network can only run half-duplex, and if two hosts communicate at the same time there will be a collision - Half-duplex Ethernet is only about 30 to 40 percent efficient because a large 100Base-T network will usually only give you 30 to 40 Mbps, at most, due to overhead

QUESTION 371

Half-Duplex Ethernet

ANSWER

accounts for all personnel after an evacuation.

QUESTION 372

meeting point leader

ANSWER

Safety wardens may also be known as safety officers, fire wardens, or building, floor or area wardens. Responsible for ensuring that everyone safely evacuates the building.

QUESTION 373

Safety Warden

ANSWER

renaming classes, fields, and methods, replacing them with new identifiers that lack intuitive meaning.

QUESTION 374

lexical obfuscation

ANSWER

modify data and data structure in order to hide what the data is used for or what the structure do.

QUESTION 375

Data Obfuscation

ANSWER

making an application harder to understand or to decompile

QUESTION 376

Control flow obfuscation

ANSWER

make code obsecure to computers.

QUESTION 377

Prevention obfuscation

ANSWER

side-channel attack works by denying a smartcard enough power to operate correctly.

QUESTION 378

fault analysis attacks

ANSWER

directly connecting to pins and attempting to translate power fluctuations.

QUESTION 379

power monitoring attack

ANSWER

end-to-end encryption. Data is decrypted each step along the path

QUESTION 380

E2EE

ANSWER

A private electronic network that links a company with its suppliers and customers

QUESTION 381

Extranet

ANSWER

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1, also expressed as ::1

QUESTION 382

IPv6 loopback address

ANSWER

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0 or ::, indicate the absence of IPv6

QUESTION 383

IPv6 unspecific address

ANSWER

all have the prefix FF01::1

QUESTION 384

IPv6 Multicast Address

ANSWER

Create a table for each related attribute, give each a primary key, ensure data is atomic

QUESTION 385

1NF (First Normal Form)

ANSWER

All non-key columns must depend on the entire primary key.

QUESTION 386

2NF (Second Normal Form)

ANSWER

Move non-key dependencies to another table

QUESTION 387

3NF (Third Normal Form)

ANSWER

Three layers: Delivery header GRE header payload

QUESTION 388

GFE-encapsulated packet

ANSWER

12 bit field that follows the checksum n a GFE header.

QUESTION 389

Reserve0

ANSWER

If included, must be set as 0. included in the GFE header only if the checksum field is present

QUESTION 390

Reserve1

ANSWER

0 if no, 1 if yes.

QUESTION 391

Checksum present field

ANSWER

A type of network attack where an attacker captures network traffic and stores it for retransmission at a later time to gain unauthorized access to a network.

QUESTION 392

Replay Attack

ANSWER

Vampire connector. used to connect a transceiver to a coaxial cable n a Thicknet network.

QUESTION 393

vampire trap

ANSWER

49152 and above

QUESTION 394

Ephemeral ports

ANSWER

A communications path, such as the Internet, authorized for data transmission within a computer system or network.

QUESTION 395

Overt channel

ANSWER

Creates security contexts for faster message exchanges.

QUESTION 396

WS-SecureConversation

ANSWER

network segment where collision can occur when frames are sent among the devices on that network segment. A switch creates a seperate collision domain on each port.

QUESTION 397

Collison Domains

ANSWER

Testing, either functional or non-functional, without reference to the internal structure of the component or system. Such as fuzz testing, pairewise testing and combinatorial testing

QUESTION 398

Black Box Testing

ANSWER

Form of combinatorial software testing that tests unique pairs of inputs. A form of combinatorial testing. Test more than one component at a time. faster.

QUESTION 399

Pairwise testing

ANSWER

A means to identify a suitable subset of test combinations to achieve a predetermined level of coverage when testing an object with multiple parameters and where those parameters themselves each have several values, which gives rise to more combinations than are feasible to test in the time allowed. See also classification tree method, n-wise testing, pairwise testing, orthogonal array testing.

QUESTION 400

combinatorial testing

ANSWER

A black box test design technique in which test cases are designed to execute all possible discrete combinations of any set of n input parameters. See also combinatorial testing, orthogonal array testing, pairwise testing.

QUESTION 401

n-wise testing

ANSWER

A 2-dimensional array constructed with special mathematical properties, such that choosing any two columns in the array provides every pair combination of each number in the array.

QUESTION 402

orthogonal array

ANSWER

A black-box test design technique in which test cases, described by means of a classification tree, are designed to execute combinations of representatives of input and/or output domains

QUESTION 403

classification tree method

ANSWER

Preventive device that requires a key to be turned through channels (called wards) to unlock.

QUESTION 404

Warded lock

ANSWER

Three types: register file (fastest), L1 and L2 (outside of CPU).

QUESTION 405

cache memory

ANSWER

identify vulnerability, maintain the CVE database

QUESTION 406

Mitre

ANSWER

MS vulnerabilities managed by MS

QUESTION 407

Microsoft bulletin

ANSWER

Secure development metrics rank security issue in order to quantify risk.

QUESTION 408

Risk Density

ANSWER

A(n) ____________ is a measure of program size based on the number and complexity of inputs, outputs, queries, files, and program interfaces.

QUESTION 409

Function Poin

ANSWER

metrics that estimate the size of an application by the number of executable lines of source code

QUESTION 410

LoC

ANSWER

The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or system (expressed in standard measurement terms, e.g. lines-of-code, number of classes or function points). Does not gauge overall security.

QUESTION 411

defect density

ANSWER

Online Certificate Status Protocol. An alternative to using a CRL. It allows entities to query a CA with the serial number of a certificate. The CA answers with good, revoked, or unknown.

QUESTION 412

OCSP

ANSWER

program that hides in a computer and allows someone from a remote location to take full control of the computer

QUESTION 413

Rookit

ANSWER

If anything is changed on an already-tested module, regression testing is done to be sure that this change has not introduced a new error into code that was previously correct.

QUESTION 414

Regression Testing

ANSWER

An interface identifier in EUI-64 format is created by taking the first half of the host's MAC address, add FFFE, then the second half. The seventh bit is 00 if address is local unique, 02 if global unique. 2000::/3 is global unique. An IPv4-compatible IPv6 address is written by using zeros for the first 96 bits and then use IPv4 address as the last 32 bits.

QUESTION 415

IPv6

ANSWER

mutual assistance agreement: 1. require close proximity 2. cost effective

QUESTION 416

MAA

ANSWER

Write Once Read Many

QUESTION 417

WORM

ANSWER

A security mechanism that requires that each party in a communication verify its identity.

QUESTION 418

mutual authentication

ANSWER

hierarchical model that defines layer of privilege. Subjects in a lattice-based model are assigned to layers and are allowed to access objects reside in the same layer. layers typical dont talk to each other.

QUESTION 419

Lattice-Based Mdel

ANSWER

Personal Area Network. used to connect and share data among devices that located within a very close proximity, such as a bluetooth network.

QUESTION 420

PAN

ANSWER

Maintains activities at different security levels to separate these levels from each other. Also called encapsulation.

QUESTION 421

Data Hiding

ANSWER

(Careful, prepare)minimum level of information protection that an organization must achieve. Is a means by which an entity can ensure that its business practices are practices that any reasonable individual would consider prudent and appropriate.

QUESTION 422

Due care

ANSWER

(Legally & professionally, act)requires an organization to continually review its practices to ensure that protection requirements are met. Due diligence typically follows due care. more specific.

QUESTION 423

Due Diligence

ANSWER

data collected by an organization that monitors its employee be used for a specific, explicit and legitimate purpose.

QUESTION 424

Finality

ANSWER

week 24 bit IV and sent in clear text. Also susceptible to bit-flipping attack, which exploit a weakness in ICV. it can provide either 64 bit or 128 bit encryption, but with IV added. It support only static, preshared keys.

QUESTION 425

WEP

ANSWER

examines the veins in the hands of the user. The position and diameter of the veins within the hands are compared to known samples in the database. more accurate than fingerprint.

QUESTION 426

vascular pattern scan

ANSWER

Substitution cipher using multiple alphabets. Vigenere cipher, running-key cipher and cipher disk (can be both)

QUESTION 427

Polyalphabetic Cipher

ANSWER

a substitution cipher which is done uniformly (e.g: every occurrence of x is replaced with y). Caeser cipher.

QUESTION 428

Monoalphabetic Cipher

ANSWER

Transmit the journal or transaction log offsite to a backup location. Typically more frequent than E-Vault

QUESTION 429

Remote Journaling

ANSWER

A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. No fix.

QUESTION 430

zero-day vulnerability

ANSWER

System component that enforces access controls on an object.

QUESTION 431

Reference Monitor

ANSWER

Open Shortest Path First; Link-state routing protocol. learns the entire topology for the area. Use cost, based on bandwidth of the link, as a metric. typically faster. Send update only when topology changes, and only the changed portion is sent.

QUESTION 432

OSPF

ANSWER

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), only aware of directly connected neighbour routers. Use hop count as metric. Send routing table to neighbour routers every 30 seconds.

QUESTION 433

Distant vector routing protocol

ANSWER

Kerberos

QUESTION 434

Port 88 TCP/UDP

ANSWER

Internet Key Exchange (IKE) (used with IPSec)

QUESTION 435

Port 500 UDP

ANSWER

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP). it actually operates on layer 5.

QUESTION 436

Port 1701 UDP

ANSWER

FE80::/10. used for unicast link-local address.

QUESTION 437

Computer automatically configure an IPv6 for itself.

ANSWER

Address Prefix of 2000::/3

QUESTION 438

IPv6 Global unicast

ANSWER

FC00::/7

QUESTION 439

IPv6 local unicast address

ANSWER

utility that rearranges files to be stored in contiguous clusters

QUESTION 440

Defragmentation

ANSWER

rely on a built-in stop and start flag or bit. It's less efficient than synchronous communication

QUESTION 441

asynchronous communication

ANSWER

synchronous communications, the stream of data to be transferred is encoded as fluctuating voltage levels in one wire (the 'DATA'), and a periodic pulse of voltage on a separate wire (called the "CLOCK" or "STROBE") which tells the receiver "the current DATA bit is 'valid' at this moment in time".

QUESTION 442

synchronous communication

ANSWER

an AP that requires users to agree to some condition before that can use the network / internet

QUESTION 443

Captive Portal

ANSWER

SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

QUESTION 444

TCP handshake

ANSWER

clear the buffer, send data immediately

QUESTION 445

TCP PSH

ANSWER

End a connection

QUESTION 446

TCP FIN

ANSWER

exit; opening for going out; act of going out; OP. ingress

QUESTION 447

egress

ANSWER

entrance

QUESTION 448

ingress

ANSWER

links identity information between multiple organizations.

QUESTION 449

Compiled languages vs. interpreted languages

ANSWER

An Internet connection such as DSL or cable modem that offers higher bandwidth, and therefore faster transmission speed, than standard modem connections. Cable modems, ISDN. analog

QUESTION 450

broadband connection

ANSWER

A transmission technique in which digital signaling is used to send data over a single transmission medium using the entire bandwidth of that medium. Ethernet. Digital.

QUESTION 451

baseband transmission

ANSWER

Maximum Tolerable Downtime

QUESTION 452

MTD

ANSWER

pretending to be another person online, relies on stolen or falsified authentication credentials.

QUESTION 453

Parol Evidence Rule

ANSWER

doctrine whereby the original, or best available evidence should be presented in court

QUESTION 454

Best Evidence Rule

ANSWER

A variable that belongs to the class, and is not specific to any particular object, indicated by the word "static", of which only a single copy exists, regardless of how many instances of the class exist.

QUESTION 455

class variable

ANSWER

variables only available to members of certain class

QUESTION 456

member variables

ANSWER

Law designed to improve copyright protection for media companies, and make it illegal to bypass copy protection systems such as DRM. protecting ISP.

QUESTION 457

DMCA

ANSWER

Guide for Developing Security Plans for Information Technology Systems. System owner should update the system security plan when a significant change occurs.

QUESTION 458

NIST 800-18

ANSWER

Electronic discovery reference model. A suggested model for the procedures in electronic discovery. Information management, Identification, Preservation, Collection, Processing, Review, Analysis, production, presentation

QUESTION 459

EDRM

ANSWER

vulnerability scanning tool. Propitiatory.

QUESTION 460

SAINT

ANSWER

Sniffers. A suite for man in the middle attacks on LAN. It features sniffing of live connections, content filtering on the fly and many other interesting tricks. It supports active and passive dissection of many protocols (even ciphered ones) and includes many feature for network and host analysis.

QUESTION 461

Ettercap

ANSWER

A password cracking tool which utilizes a dictionary attack method

QUESTION 462

THC Hydra

ANSWER

system for cross domain identity management.

QUESTION 463

SCIM

ANSWER

The variability of latency over time across a network. Different for different packets.

QUESTION 464

jitter

ANSWER

TS dont need to be public and dont have expiration.

QUESTION 465

Trade secret vs patent

ANSWER

National Vulnerability Database; Connects to CVE and others

QUESTION 466

NVD

ANSWER

Network Access Control. used to authenticate users, and then validate their system's compliance with a security standard before they are allowed to connect to the network.

QUESTION 467

NAC

ANSWER

-statement -branch (or decision coverage) -loop coverage -path coverage -data flow coverage

QUESTION 468

structural coverage

ANSWER

often contain scripts that can be misused.

QUESTION 469

Test directory

ANSWER

List of files within the system. Typically turned on due to misconfig.

QUESTION 470

Directory Indexing

ANSWER

Cross-site tracing leverages HTTP race or track methods, and could be used to steal a user's cookies via cross-site scripting.

QUESTION 471

XST attack

ANSWER

Encrypt the message but not the header.

QUESTION 472

ESP Transport Mode

ANSWER

Software Capability Maturity Model. initial no kpas. repeatable defined (peer review, intergroup coordination, training programs ) managed (software quality mgmt, quantitative mgmt) optimized (defect prevention, process/tech change management).

QUESTION 473

SW-CMM

ANSWER

Requires a user to answer a question to verify their identity; commonly used as a form of secondary access

QUESTION 474

Cognitive Password

ANSWER

A type of antenna that concentrates the signal beam in a single direction. Yagis, panel, cantennas and parabolic antennas.

QUESTION 475

directional antenna

ANSWER

permissions include both the access and action you can take on an object, rights usually refer to the ability to take action on an object, and don't include the access to it. privilege is a combination of those two.

QUESTION 476

permission vs right

ANSWER

inform a receiving station that certain data within a segment is urgent and should be prioritized

QUESTION 477

TCP URG

ANSWER

Congestion window reduced and ECN-Echo. used to manage transimission over congested links and are rarely seen in modern days.

QUESTION 478

TCP CWR/ECE

ANSWER

(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) A set of rules that allow network client computers to find and use the Internet address that corresponds to a domain name. Windows will assign themselves an APIPA address between 169.254.0.1 and 169.254.255.254 if they cannot contact the server. Use UDP. DORA. Discover, offer, request, acknowledge.

QUESTION 479

DHCP

ANSWER

DHCP Client

QUESTION 480

UDP port 68

ANSWER

DHCP server

QUESTION 481

UDP Port 67

ANSWER

making sure the system is making profit. also referred as mission owner.

QUESTION 482

Business Owner

ANSWER

CVE numbering authority

QUESTION 483

CNA

ANSWER

A type of coaxial cable. Often used as a network's backbone. 10Base5 has a maximum span of 500 meters with maximum throughput of 10 Mbps. Also called thicknet.

QUESTION 484

10Base5

ANSWER

Ethernet LAN designed to run on twisted pair cabling. 10BaseT runs at 10 Mbps. The maximum length for the cabling between the NIC and the switch (or hub, repeater, etc.) is 100 meters. It uses baseband signaling. No industry-standard naming convention exists, so sometimes it's written 10BASE-T or 10Base-T.

QUESTION 485

Routing Protocols

ANSWER

Low orbit ion cannon. example of DDoS and botnet.

QUESTION 486

LOIC

ANSWER

Certificates can be invalidated by the trusted third party that originally issued the certificate. What is the name of the mechanism that is used to distribute information about invalid certificates?

QUESTION 487

CRL (Certificate Revocation List)

ANSWER

Backups are automatically transmitted over the Internet on a continuous basis to an off-site server maintained by a third party. Typically daily.

QUESTION 488

Electronic Vaulting

ANSWER

Syslog

QUESTION 489

UDP Port 514

ANSWER

Preparation Detection Response Mitigation Reporting Recovery Remediation: root cause analysis Lessons Learned

QUESTION 490

Incident response stages

ANSWER

number of use cases tested / total number of use cases.

QUESTION 491

test coverage

ANSWER

Code coverage is a measurement of how many lines/blocks/arcs of your code are executed while the automated tests are running. Code coverage is collected by using a specialized tool to instrument the binaries to add tracing calls and run a full set of automated tests against the instrumented product. A good tool will give you not only the percentage of the code that is executed, but also will allow you to drill into the data and see exactly which lines of code were executed during a particular test.

QUESTION 492

Code coverage

ANSWER

includes mechanisms to ensure that specific objects are protected to prevent their loss

QUESTION 493

automated recovery without undue loss

ANSWER

Foreign Key

QUESTION 494

What key can enforce referential integrity for the database?

ANSWER

man in the middle attack.

QUESTION 495

what attack is likely to happen after arp spoofing?

ANSWER

Bound to a subject and list what objects it can access

QUESTION 496

Capability table

ANSWER

A two-dimensional table that allows for individual subjects and objects to be related to each other with the permission. capability table doens't come with permission.

QUESTION 497

Access Control Matrix

ANSWER

also called network flows, are captured to provide insight into network traffic for security, troubleshooting and performance management

QUESTION 498

Flow logging

ANSWER

used in troubleshooting specific software packages as they perform their functions.

QUESTION 499

trace log

ANSWER

This type of scan connects to the target port and completes the connection (3 way handshake) and can be easily detected by the target system, but it's the most reliable. It's the fastest, but not the stealthiest. Do not need privileged permission

QUESTION 500

TCP Connect Scan

ANSWER

Half open scan (not 3 way) | Stealthy design to evade IDS systems, but most now detect it; OPEN PORTS: Reply SYN/ACK; CLOSED PORTS: Return RST/ACK. Need elevated access.

QUESTION 501

TCP SYN Scan

ANSWER

help identify rogue devices

QUESTION 502

passive scanning

ANSWER

A security scanner is granted authenticated read‐only access to the servers being scanned - typically via a user account - and can use this access to read configuration information from the target system and use that information when analyzing vulnerability testing results.

QUESTION 503

authenticated scan

ANSWER

The transaction property that requires all parts of a transaction to be treated as a single, indivisible, logical unit of work. All parts of a transaction must be completed or the entire transaction is aborted.

QUESTION 504

atomicity

ANSWER

once a transaction is committed to the database it must be preserved.

QUESTION 505

durability

ANSWER

a graphical network model that depicts a project's tasks and the relationships between them. notes to represent milestones and the testimated time to move between milestones.

QUESTION 506

PERT chart

ANSWER

the input of one user can be seen by another user on a website

Looking for a different version?

CBTs get updated every year. Search for the exact version you're taking (e.g. "cyber awareness 2025").

Search all study materials