Comptia Certmaster Practice For Security+
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Crypto-malware
A type of ransomware that encrypts the user's data. The user will be unable to access the files without obtaining the private encryption key, which is held by the attacker.
Trapdoor Function
A function that is easy to compute in one direction, yet believed to be difficult to compute in the opposite direction (finding its inverse) without special information, called the "trapdoor." Widely used in cryptography.
Ransomeware
is a type of Trojan malware that tries to extort money from the victim. It will display threatening messages, stating the computer will remain locked until the ransom is paid.
Trojan
is a malicious program hidden within an innocuous-seeming piece of software. Usually, the Trojan tries to compromise the security of the target computer.
Rogueware
is a fake antivirus, where a web pop-up claims to have detected viruses on the computer and prompts the user to initiate a full scan, which installs the attacker's Trojan.
Adware
is a type of software or browser plug-in that is similar to spyware. If the user accepts the data use policy and the program generally behaves like any other commercial software installation, then it's not spyware.
RAT (Remote Access Trojan) backdoor applications can allow the attacker to use the computer in a botnet to launch DDoS Attacks
True
RAT backdoor applications can allow the user to use the computer in a botnet to launch mass-mail spam attacks.
True
A RAT does not have to establish a connection from the compromised host to a Command and Control (C2 or C&C) host or network operated by the attacker.
False
Tailgating
is a social engineering technique to gain access to a building by following someone else (or persuading them to "hold the door").
Spyware
is a program that monitors user activity and sends the information to someone else. This can occur with or without the user's knowledge.
rootkit
is backdoor malware that changes core system files and programming interfaces, so that local shell processes, no longer reveal their presence.
botnet
is a set of computers that has been infected by a control program called a bot, that enables attackers to exploit the computers to mount attacks.
Remote Access Trojan (RAT)
functions as backdoor, and allows the attacker to access the PC, upload files, and install software on it
SIM swap fraud illustrates what type of an attacker?
Organized Crime
DNS harvesting
Using OSINT to gather info about a domain.
Topology discovery (footprinting)
is the part of the discovery phase where the attacker or pen tester starts to identify the structure of the target network.
Host Discovery
Determining which IP addresses in the network have live system. Techniques include ARP scans, passive listening, ICMP Sweeps, IPv6 neighbor discovery and many more.
Clickjacking
is a hijacking attack that forces a user to unintentionally click a link that is embedded in or hidden by other web page elements.
MitB attack
is where the web browser is compromised by installing malicious plug-ins or scripts or intercepting API calls. Vulnerability exploit kits can be installed to a website and actively try to exploit vulnerabilities in clients browsing the site.
XSRF
is a malicious script hosted on the attacker's site that can exploit a session started on another site in the same browser.
HTTP Response Splitting
occurs when the attacker would craft a malicious URL and convince the victim to submit it to the web server.
LSOs (Locally Shared Objects), or Flash cookies
are data that is stored on a user's computer by websites that use Adobe Flash Player. A site may be able to track a user's browsing behavior through LSOs.
replay attack
consists of intercepting a key or password hash, then reusing it to gain access to a resource, such as the pass-the-hash attack.
birthday attack
is a type of brute force attack aimed at exploiting collisions in hash functions. This type of attack can be used for the purpose of forging a digital signature.
War driving
is the practice of using a Wi-Fi sniffer to detect WLANs and then either making use of them or trying to break into them (using WEP and WPA cracking tools).
Skimming
is an RFID attack where an attacker uses a fraudulent RFID reader to read the signals from a contactless bank card. previous
DNS Server Cache poisoning
is a redirection attack, that aims to corrupt the records held by the DNS server itself. The intention is to redirect traffic for a legitimate domain to a malicious IP address.
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) poisoning
occurs when an attacker, with access to the network, redirects an IP address to the MAC address of a computer that is not the intended recipient.
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
is a malicious script hosted on the attacker's site or coded in a link injected onto a trusted site designed to compromise clients browsing the trusted site.
Bluesnarfing
refers to using an exploit in Bluetooth to steal information from someone else's phone. The exploit (now patched) allows attackers to circumvent the authentication mechanism.
consensus/social proof impersonation
an attacker fools users into believing that a malicious website is legitimate by posting fake reviews. The victims believe the reviews and place their trust in the website.
Refactoring
means the code performs the same function by using different methods. Refactoring means that the antivirus software may no longer identify the malware by its signature.
shim
The code library to enable legacy mode
pointer
is a reference to an object in memory. Attempting to access that memory address is called dereferencing.
integer overflow attack
causes the target software to calculate a value that exceeds the upper and lower bounds.
To crack WEP
a replay attack is used to make the AP generate lots of IV packets, usually by replaying ARP packets at it, and cycle through IV values quickly.
Mirroring mode
allows another VM to sniff the unicast packets addressed to a remote interface (like a spanned port on a hardware switch).
Distributed Reflection Denial of Service (DRDoS) attack
the adversary spoofs the victim's IP address and attempts to open connections with multiple servers. Those servers direct their SYN/ACK responses to the victim server. This rapidly consumes the victim's available bandwidth.
deauthentication attack
sends a stream of spoofed deauth frames to cause a client to deauthenticate from an AP. This might allow the attacker to interpose the rogue AP or sniff information about the authentication process.
disassociation attack
hits the target with disassociation packets and is used to perform a Denial of Service (DoS) attack against the wireless infrastructure.
ARP poisoning
occurs when an attacker, with access to the network, redirects an IP address to the MAC address of an unintended computer.
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) hijacking
is a type of spoofing attack where the attacker disconnects a host, then replaces it with his or her own machine, spoofing the original host's IP address.
watering hole attack
is a directed social engineering attack. It relies on the circumstance that a group of targets may use an unsecure third party website.
hoax attack
an email alert or web pop-up will claim to have identified some sort of security problem, like a virus infection, and offer a tool to fix the problem, but the tool will be some sort of Trojan application.
Pharming
relies on corrupting the way the victim's computer performs Internet name resolution, so that they are redirected from the genuine site to the malicious one.
Directory traversal
occurs when the attacker gets access to a file outside the web server's root directory.
Transitive access
describes the problem of authorizing a request for a service that depends on an intermediate service
NFC
A wireless technology (near field communication) that lets your mobile device communicate over very short distances, such as when paying for goods on wireless payment devices. It does not provide encryption.
Mutual authentication
is a security mechanism that requires that each party in a communication verifies each other's identity and helps in avoiding Man-in-the-Middle attacks.
URL hijacking (also called typosquatting)
relies on users navigating to misspelled domains. An attacker registers a domain name with a misspelling of an existing domain. Users who misspell a URL in a web browser are taken to the attacker's website.
Reflected Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
is a server-side input validation exploit that injects a script into a website. Once the victim visits the infected website, the malicious code executes in the user's browser.
Stored (or persistent) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
is a server-side script attack that inserts code into a back-end database used by the trusted site.
Document Object Model (DOM) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
exploits vulnerabilities in client-side scripts to modify the content and layout of a web page.
Frequency Analysis
A technique that is based on how frequently certain letters appear in English versus others.
privacy filter
is a security control that allows only the user to see the screen contents, thus preventing shoulder surfing.
colocation
is a data center that contains racks with networking equipment owned by different companies.
Kiting
is the act of continually registering, deleting, and reregistering a name within the five-day grace period without having to pay for it.
Tasting
is a Domain Name Server (DNS) exploit that involves registering a domain temporarily to see how many hits it generates within the five-day grace period.
initial exploitation phase
an exploit is used to gain access to the target's network. This might be accomplished using a phishing email and payload, or by obtaining credentials via social engineering.
Pen testing is considered an active reconnaissance technique.
true
Name 2 techniques in active reconnaissance
1. Gaining physical access 2. Using scanning tools
Is gathering OSINT referred to as a passive or active reconnaissance.
Passive
pivot point
is a system and/or set of privileges that allow the tester to compromise other network systems (lateral spread).
Host scanning
uses software tools to obtain information about a host or network topology, and is associated with the reconnaissance phase of a pen test.
Phishing
is the social engineering tactic in which an attacker attempts to obtain sensitive information from a user by posing as a trustworthy figure through email communications.
In what phase of Pen testing is a phishing email used?
Initial Exploitation phase
malicious payload
is code that will run on the target system, performing some kind of task or giving the attacker interactive control.
In what phase is a malicious payload used?
initial exploitation phase
Persistence
is the tester's ability to reconnect to the compromised host and use it as a remote access tool (RAT) or backdoor.
What follows persistence in a pen test attack life cycle?
Further reconnaissance
What precedes Persistence in a pen testing life cycle?
Initial exploitation
Action on objectives
means carrying out the work as defined by the tester or client.
An example of an Action on objectives
Data exfiltration
gray box pen test
the consultant is given some information; this resembles the knowledge of junior or non-IT staff to model types of insider threats.
Pen testing is always an active reconnaissance technique.
True
Vulnerability scanning
is the process of auditing a network (or application) for known vulnerabilities.
Vulnerability scanning does exploit any vulnerabilities discovered
False
What are 3 ways to accomplish initial exploitation?
1. Phishing 2. Social Engineering Attack 3. Malicious payload
What phase is Host Scanning associated?
Reconnaissance
Why are active scans scheduled during periods of network downtime?
They are more likely to cause performance problems with the host.
Passive Scanning techniques
1. Sniffing Network traffic to identify assets communicating on the network. 2. To identify ports used 3. discover some types of vulnerabilities.
Active Scanning techniques
involve making a connection to the target host. This might mean authenticating and establishing a session with the host or running an agent on a host.
HSM
Hardware security module. A removable or external device that can generate, store, and manage RSA keys used in asymmetric encryption. High-volume e-commerce sites use HSMs to increase the performance of SSL sessions. High-availability clusters needing encryption services can use clustered HSMs.
TPM
Trusted Platform Module. This is a hardware chip on the motherboard included on many newer laptops. A TPM includes a unique RSA asymmetric key, and it can generate and store other keys used for encryption, decryption, and authentication. TPM provides full disk encryption.
IAM
Identity and Access Management is a security process that provides identification, authentication, and authorization mechanisms for users, computers, and other entities to work with organizational assets.
The kernels or operating systems that run on embedded system devices must be much more stable and reliable than the OS that runs a desktop computer or server.
True
Two main issues with firewalls implemented on the device firmware.
1. The lack of processing power 2. The memory space available to run functions.
Wrappers
One way of increasing the security of data in transit for embedded systems. It usually includes a header, which precedes the encapsulated data, and a trailer, which follows it.
DLL injection
is a software vulnerability that can occur when a Windows-based application attempts to force another running application to load a dynamic-link library (DLL) in memory, that could cause the victim application to experience instability or leak sensitive information.
Two reasons why many medical devices with embedded systems are vulnerable to malicious exploits?
1. Their control systems use outdated operating systems. 2. They use unsecure communication protocols.
3 things that help ensure an application is secure before the release?
1. Error handling 2. Proper authentication and authorization 3. Input validation
Tethering
allows a mobile device to share its cellular data or WiFi connection with other devices (tethering). A malicious user can set up such an access point with something as basic as a smartphone with tethering capabilities.
USB OTG (On the Go)
allows a port to function either as a host or as a device.
Security on default configurations of devices from vendors is strong.
False
Pinch Point
is a single point of failure that relies on a single hardware server or appliance or network channel.
S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)
is an email encryption standard that adds digital signatures and public key cryptography to email.
An out-of-band link offers better security than in-band.
True
Rulesets
are a configuration setting for the intrusion detection system (IDS).
Examples of Rulesets
Content filtering, such as blocking URLs and applying keyword-sensitive blacklists or whitelists.
layer 3 device
operates on the network layer. Common devices like a router operate at layer 3 to route traffic based on IP addresses.
layer 2 device
A network device that makes decisions about where a packet is sent based on a MAC address or a logical name. Mostly describes a basic Ethernet switch.
VPN (Virtual Private Network) concentrator
a device that incorporates advanced encryption and authentication methods, to handle many VPN tunnels.
proxy server
places information retrieved from the internet into a temporary storage area so that if the information is requested again by another client, it already has it. This reduces the number of calls to the internet and speeds up performance.
switch loop
will cause network connections to drop, since the packet cannot make the appropriate hop to the next switch and to its final destination. They also generate broadcast storms.
broadcast storm
When there is an accumulation of broadcast and multicast packet traffic on the LAN coming from one or more network interfaces.
Dummy switches
Basic switches to allow traffic to flow freely. They normally don't have any advanced configurations.
Signature-based (or pattern-matching) detection
uses a database of attack patterns or signatures. If traffic matches a pattern, then the engine generates an incident.
Anomaly-based detection
uses an engine that looks for irregularities in the use of protocols. For example, the engine may check packet headers or the exchange of packets in a session against RFC standards and generate an alert, if they deviate from strict RFC compliance.
Heuristic-based detection
learns from experience to detect differences from the baseline. This type of detection is the same as behavioral-based detection.
Behavioral-based (statistical or profile-based) detection
uses an engine to recognize baseline "normal" traffic or events. Any deviation from the baseline (outside a defined level of tolerance) generates an incident.
tunnel mode
is used by IPsec to provide encrypted communication by encrypting the entire network packet. This method will be used mostly in unsecured networks.
transport mode
is used by IPsec to provide encrypted communication by only encrypting the payload. This method will be used mostly in private networks.
Cipher Modes
refers to the cryptographic product that processes multiple blocks. ECB or Electronic Code Book is the simplest mode of this kind.
counter mode
is a type of cipher mode of operation.
benefit (or pro) for deploying an SSL decryptor
is that it will block connections that use weak cipher suites or implementations and block connections that cannot be inspected.
multipurpose proxy server
can be configured with filters for multiple protocol types, such as HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).
web proxy,
will only filter out content from the web.
transparent class of proxies
requires no extra configuration of client computers. This proxy intercepts client traffic through a switch, router or other inline network appliance.
non-transparent class of proxies
requires a client to be configured with the proxy server address and port settings.
active/active cluster
provides Enterprise services to clients from both virtual servers. All services will transparently transfer to the other server if one virtual host goes offline.
active/passive cluster
provides Enterprise services to clients from only one virtual server. The other server comes online only when the currently active server goes offline.
session affinity setting
is used in load balancing scenarios. This is also known as source IP (internet protocol) and is a layer 4 approach to handling user sessions.
round robin setting
is used in load balancing scenarios. New client sessions are established with the next server in the group. Round robin and affinity provide stateless fault tolerance.
remote access virtual private network (VPN
involves VPN client agents connecting to a VPN-enabled router concentrator at the company's main network. This is ideal for telecommuters. If used with TLS or SSL VPN, port 443 will be used.
LS (Transport Layer Security) VPN
will require a remote server listening on port 443 (so no changes to firewalls) and optionally, a set of client certificates for authenticating the device (transparent for users after simple set up).
site-to-site VPN
A type of VPN in which VPN gateways at multiple sites encrypt and encapsulate data to exchange over a tunnel with other VPN gateways. Meanwhile, clients, servers, and other hosts on a site-to-site VPN communicate with the VPN gateway.
TPM or Trusted Platform Module
is a hardware security module that BitLocker uses to link an encrypted hard drive with a specific system.
Most Wi-Fi routers come with a transmit (Tx) power setting, which can be reduced to a lower output to reduce the range of the wireless signal.
true
Yagi or Yagi-Uda array
is describe as a rod with fins. It is a directional antenna.
rubber ducky or dipole antennas
are plastic-coated rods used on wireless access points (WAPs).
What do WAPs without any antennas use?
Omnidirectional vertical rod-type antennas, which receive and send signal in all directions.
MAC (media access control) filtering
specifies a list of valid MAC addresses of devices that will be allowed to connect to the WAP (wireless access point).
SSID
service set identifier is used to help users identify the correct WAP they are connecting to. An extended SSID or ESSID is used when multiple SSIDs are grouped into one.
access control list
contains rules that define the type of data packet and the appropriate action to take when it exits or enters a network or system. The general actions are to either deny or accept.
Data Leak Prevention
scans for content in a structured format like an e-mail and performs an action based on policy. (e.g., blocks an e-mail containing proprietary information).
Secure Sockets Layer
is network protocol that establishes an encrypted link between a web server and a browser. Users interact commonly with their bank's web portal using encrypted communication via an SSL or TLS connection.
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
is a means for the bridges to organize themselves into a hierarchy and prevent loops from forming.
Port security
is an advanced security feature that allows a certain amount of MAC addresses to access a physical port. After a certain number, new connections will be blocked.
flood guard
is a feature of a circuit-level firewall that prevents maliciously open connections from forming. This is not applicable to switching loops.
BitLocker will not be transparent to the user if a TPM chip is used.
False
Other names for an Application Firewall
1. Application layer gateway firewall 2. stateful multilayer inspection firewall 3. deep packet inspection firewall
agentless health or posture assessment
supports a wide range of devices, such as smartphones and tablets, but less detailed information about the client is available.
non-persistent or dissolvable agent
is loaded into memory and never installed on the system. This option still requires an agent that may not be compatible with mobile devices.
bridge
connects two network segments together. An example includes a bridged connection between the wireless and Ethernet adapters of a laptop.
ad hoc network
is created when wireless network adapters are configured to connect to one another in a peer-to-peer WLAN (Wireless LAN) topology.
Firewalls can operate at many levels.
True
SSL decryptor, inspector, or interceptor
is a type of proxy used to examine encrypted traffic before it enters or leaves the network. This ensures that traffic complies with data policies and strong cipher suites are used. It is positioned at the network's edge as a transparent bridge to evade a hacker's view. It will not be a regular device with an IP address on its own subnet range.
What does a SSL decryptor commonly integrate with?
A DLP or SIEM to apply security policies and provide effective monitoring and reporting.
SSL interceptors are found in a UTM.
False
CARP
Common Address Redundancy Protocol
Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)
is Cisco's proprietary service to providing a load-balanced service with a VIP. GLBP and CARP are similar in functionality.
Why is placing the SSL decryptor at the edge of a network a drawback (or con).
he edge of the network is also the point where internal network meets the public network. The placement makes the SSL decryptor a single point of failure.
What does the technique of using foil on Wi-Fi routers accomplish?
is mainly used to increase the wireless range or its performance.
email certificate
can be used to sign and encrypt email messages, typically using S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) or PGP (Pretty Good Privacy).
-t switch pings
pings the specified server name or IP (Internet protocol) address until stopped. Typing CTL+C on the keyboard will stop the pings.
-n switch
sets the number of echo requests to send. The standard send count is four. The number can be specified after the -n switch.
-S switch
which is a capital S, is used to specify a source address to use that is different from the server that the admin is initiating the ping command from.
-r switch
records route for count hops. This is used for IPv4 addresses.
Proprietary company information is never stored in the same location as Windows operating system files and folders or the C: drive.
True
%SystemRoot%\NTDS\NTDS.DIT file
stores domain user passwords and credentials.
Aircrack-ng
is a suite of utilities designed for wireless network security testing. The specific tool, which is also called aircrack-ng, can decode the authentication pre-shared key or password for WEP, WPA, and WPA2 using a dictionary word or a relatively short key.
inSSIDer
is a software that can survey Wi-Fi networks to determine SSID, BSSID (wireless access point MAC address), frequency band, and radio channel.
Netcat (nc)
is a remote access trojan (RAT) that is available for both Windows and Linux. It can be configured as a backdoor.
Wireshark
is a protocol analyzer. It can parse the headers network protocols and list their contents and derive purpose. This can help pinpoint the dropped packets and on what network adapter, so further troubleshooting can take place.
Sysinternals
is a suite of tools designed to assist with troubleshooting issues with Windows. Its Process Explorer can reveal all the processes and its details on the system. These tools are not useful for a networking issue.
Meterpreter
is an exploit module that uses in-memory DLL injection stagers.
Stagers
create a network connection between the hacker and the target. Since the stagers are in memory and never written to disk, any trace can be removed with a restart of the server.
Nexpose
is a vulnerability scanner. When integrated with Metasploit Pro, Metasploit can then read the scan report and confirm vulnerabilities to rule out false positives.
Kali or Kali Linux
is a Debian-derived Linux distribution designed for system forensics and penetration testing.
Nessus
is a vulnerability scanner from Tenable. A hacker may use a vulnerability scanner to seek out easy targets (e.g., open ports) to plan for an attack. previous
Active KillDisk
is a disk wiping sanitization software tool that can purge data on disk by overwriting data with 1s and 0s. Overwriting might also be performed in multiple passes. The disk can be recycled after using this software.
Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit
includes the Policy Analyzer Tool and the Local Group Policy Object (LGPO) Tool. Both are necessary to assess the local policies from a baseline and automate changes where needed.
Kerberos
is the preferred method in a Windows domain using a ticket granting system to login and access resources on the network.
Unlike LM and NTLM, Kerberos supports the use of tokens or biometric authentication.
True
NTLM
New Technology LANMAN. Authentication protocol intended to improve LANMAN. The LANMAN protocol stores passwords using a hash of the password by first dividing the password into two seven-character blocks, and then converting all lowercase letters to uppercase. This makes LANMAN easy to crack. NTLM stores passwords in LANMAN format for backward compatibility, unless the passwords are greater than fifteen characters. NTLMv1 is older and has known vulnerabilities. NTLMv2 is newer and secure.
BitLocker
A Windows feature that encrypts an entire drive
Cain and Abel
is used to recover Windows passwords and includes a password sniffing utility.
John the Ripper Tool
Is a free password cracking software tool. It is compatible with multiple platforms. It's one of the most popular password testing and breaking programs as it combines a number of password crackers into one package, auto detects password hash types, and includes a customizable cracker.
THC Hydra
A password cracking tool which utilizes a dictionary attack method. It is often used against remote authentication using protocols such as Telnet, FTP (file transfer protocol), HTTPS (hypertext transfer protocol secure), SMB (server message protocol), etc.
Zenmap
is the GUI (Graphical User Interface) version for Nmap. Also known as Nmap Security Scanner, it uses diverse methods of host discovery
OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) grabbing
is like banner grabbing or OS fingerprinting. The OUI can identify the manufacturer of the network adapter and therefore, conclude other assumptions related to system type and/or purpose.
OS (operating system) fingerprinting
is a method used by Nmap to probe hosts for running OS type and version, and even application names and device type (e.g., laptop or virtual machine).
Side channel attacks
is a technique used in cryptographic systems
In a general order of restoration, the first step is?
involves enabling and testing power delivery systems such as a power grid, generators, and even UPSs (uninterruptible power supplies). Without power, IT systems and network equipment cannot run.
In a general order of restoration, the third step is?
to enable and test network security appliances, like a firewall. The cloud service must enter the network to restore data.
In a general order of restoration, the seventh or final step is?
to enable client workstations, devices, and even client browser access.
Order of Restoration
The sequence in which different systems are reinstated.
Credentialed Scan
is given a user account with logon rights to various hosts. This method allows much more in-depth analysis, especially in detecting when applications or security settings may be misconfigured.
Banner grabbing
refers to probing a server like OS fingerprinting; however, it also involves opening random connections to common port or network protocols and gathering information from banner or error responses.
Microsoft's Policy Analyzer
is part of the Security Compliance Toolkit (SCT). It compares scanned hosts with a template of controls and configuration settings to determine system compliance.
Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM)
is a software management suite to manage a large amount of systems on multiple platforms. It does not include a policy analyzer tool and a LGPO tool.
The Department of Defense (DoD) 5220.22-M wipe method
involves a three-phase pass of writing 1s, 0s, and random characters onto a hard drive. This method will prevent the use of many software-based file recovery methods
Degaussing
is a method of erasing data on a hard drive with a powerful magnet. This process also renders the drive unusable because of permanent damage to the device's servo control data that is required to read and write.
Chain of trust
Relationship between subordinate certificate authorities
MTTF
Mean time to failure. The length of time you can expect a device to remain in operation before it fails. It is similar to MTBF, but the primary difference is that the MTBF metric indicates you can repair the device after it fails. The MTTF metric indicates that you will not be able to repair a device after it fails.
Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)
is a measure of the time taken to correct a fault so that the system is restored to full operation. Neither MTTF or MTBF can do this.
The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) can be used to disable the USB ports on the motherboard.
True
SATA
Serial Advanced Technology Attachment; interface that uses serial signals to transfer data, instructions, and information.
eSATA (External SATA)
Serial ATA-based connector for external hard drives and optical drives.
VIB (vSphere Installation Bundle)
is a zip file that provides additional features or integration capabilities with other devices, like NetApp storage.
SEP
Symantec Endpoint Protection is the commonly known anti-virus software that should be on every client image.
Process Explorer
It is part of Window's Sysinternals suite of tools. In addition to listing the running programs, Process Explorer can list the files and directories each process has open, as well as open handles and loaded DLLs.
SFC (System File Checker)
is a Windows tool used to manually verify operating system (OS) files.
Autoruns tool
which is part of Windows Sysinternals, can help with hunting down malware on a computer.
The WSUS (Windows Server Update Service) server
is a central repository for updates related to OS and applications like Microsoft Office. Once downloaded locally, WSUS distributes the updates to the client computers.
Storage segmentation
is personal data that is segmented from organizational data on a mobile device. It gives IT administrators control over corporate assets on employees' mobile devices.
baseband update
modifies the firmware of the radio modem used for cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, NFC, and GPS connectivity.
Jailbreaking
gives users the ability to obtain root privileges, sideload apps, change or add carriers and customize the interface. It is accomplished by booting the device with a patched kernel and can be done when the device is attached to a computer when it boots.
Indoor Positioning Systems (IPS)
finds a device's location by triangulating its proximity to other radio sources, such as Wi-Fi access points or Bluetooth beacons.
GPS tagging
is the process of adding geographical identification metadata, such as the latitude and longitude of where the device was located at the time, to media, such as photographs, SMS messages, video, and so on.
Device discovery
occurs when a device can be put into discoverable mode, meaning that it will connect to any other Bluetooth devices nearby, which can pose a security issue.
PANs
Personal Area Networks
Adaptive Network Topology (ANT)
is widely used in communicating health and fitness sensor data between devices. ANT+ is its associated product standard.
Both jailbreaking and rooting are methods that will give the user unrestricted access to a mobile device's entire file system.
True
Implicit Transport Layer Security (FTPS)
negotiates an Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSl/TLS) tunnel before the exchange of any File Transfer Protocol (FTP) commands.
Explicit TLS (FTPES)
uses the AUTH TLS command to upgrade an unsecure connection.
Secure Shell (SSH) FTP (SFTP)
encrypted the authentication and data transfer between the client and server and a secure link is created between the client and server using SSH.
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
is a connectionless protocol that provides file transfer services. It does not provide the guaranteed delivery offered by FTP.
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
provides an automatic method for network address allocation. As well, an IP address and subnet mask can include optional parameters.
Authentication Header (AH) protocol
performs a cryptographic hash on the packet plus a shared secret key (known only to the communicating hosts), and adds this HMAC (Hashed Message Authentication Code) in its header as an Integrity Check Value (ICV).
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+)
is more reliable than RADIUS. It uses TCP communications over port 49 and this reliable, connection-oriented delivery makes it easier to detect when a server is down. All of the data in TACACS+ packets is encrypted.
Directory services
is a network service that stores identity information in a particular network, including users, groups, servers, client computers, and printers.
stratum 2 server
would obtain the time from a stratum-1 server. Time must always be received from a higher level server.
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) v3
supports encryption and strong user-based authentication. Instead of community names, the agent is configured with a list of usernames and access permissions.
SNMPv1
uses community names that are sent in plaintext and should not be transmitted over the network, if there is any risk they could be intercepted. This protocol does not support encryption.
SNMPv2c
also uses community names that are sent in plaintext and should not be transmitted over the network, if there is any risk they could be intercepted. Like SNMPv1, this protocol does not support encryption
Management Information Base (MIB)
is the database that the agent within SNMP utilizes. The agent is a process that runs on a switch, router, server or other SNMP compatible network device.
What are most authentication and access control protocols dependent on?
Time synchronization
International frameworks
are governed by international standards and are to be implemented globally versus nationally
National Institute of Standards and Technology framework
regulates the cybersecurity risks and activities in the United States. It is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce and considered a national framework.
Regulatory frameworks
are based on specific laws and regulations and ensure compliance of those standards. Medical records are governed by regulatory laws.
Industry-specific frameworks
are governed according to the type of product provided. Financial information (i.e. credit card, bank account) is covered under industry-specific standards.
Control diversity
includes the use of multiple control types such administrative, technical and physical. This can include security guards (physical), IDS or Intrusion Detection System (technical), and penetration testing (administrative).
Hardware Security Module (HSM)
is a device used to generate, maintain and store cryptographic keys.
Vendor diversity
is the use of multiple vendors. This method increases security by adding several layers and also provides defense in depth to the network.
Defense-in-depth
uses a combination of control types for control diversity.
Secure Socket Layer (SSL) accelerator
is designed to offload tasks from servers allowing network load to be distributed. It can provide a seamless service to consumers of network applications, while balancing out session requests.
SSL decryptor
provides protection from malicious threats over secure connections and would be placed in the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).
aggregation switch
can connect multiple subnets to reduce the number of active ports. When aggregating subnets, the subnets are connected to the switch.
wireless topology
is used to extend a wired local area network through the use of an antenna.
ad hoc zone
is created when two or more wireless devices connect to one another creating an on-demand network. This network architecture does not require an AP.
Firewalls
allow the network administrator to divide the network into different network segments known as zones
collector
combines multiple sensors to collect internet traffic for processing by an Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and other systems. Depending on its placement determines the type of traffic analyzed.
correlation engine
is part of a Security Information and Event Manager (SIEM). It captures and examines logged events to alert administrators of potential threats on a network.
Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID)
provide increased system availability and fault tolerance for disks.
Clustering
provides for high availability for servers and can remove the single point of failure. Clustering is similar to load balancing, but is more costly than RAID implementations.
extranet
is a zone created to allow authorized users access to company assets separate from the intranet.
intranet
is an internal company zone established to allow employees the ability to share content and communicate more effectively.
Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
is a part of security as a service, and monitors network traffic between a company's network and cloud provider, enforcing security policies.
split tunnel VPN
administrators decide where traffic is routed. It can decipher whether traffic goes to a private network or not.
Isolating traffic
is the act of separating system services to protect applications from other parts of the system.
Creating an airgap
would physically isolate a system and its resources from other systems.
Automated triggers
are predefined security rules created in a SIEM that alert an administrator of malicious or suspicious events once triggered.
Aggregation in a SIEM
refers to the collection of data logs from multiple security devices.
Dynamic Network address translation (NAT)
uses multiple IP addresses to map one private IP to many public IP's, disguising them from the internet. It chooses which IP to use based on the load presented.
Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)
is radio frequencies emitted by external sources, such as power lines and lights that disturb data signals.
Shielding
can protect from data loss and interference. Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) can also be avoided through this method.
Self-Encrypting Drive (SED)
includes both the hardware and software to encrypt data on a drive. Keys are securely stored within for decryption.
mail gateway
examines incoming and outgoing email traffic. It can be configured to inspect email traffic for certain terms and force encryption based on policies. It can also deny email traffic that it views as vulnerable.
Least functionality
employs the principle of deploying systems with only the services and protocols required to perform the job.
master image
is a baseline for the system. This image includes the final product of software and security services running on a system.
Secure configuration of systems
refers to security measures that are implemented as a way to provide protection for computer systems.
Hardening an Operating System (OS)
is the practice of removing default values to ensure the system is more secure.
Multi-Level Security (MLS)
is an implementation of MAC that focuses on confidentiality. It is able to enforce the separation of multiple classifications of information.
hardware root of trust
is a known secure starting point by embedding a private key in the system. The key remains private until the public key is matched.
Secure boot
is a process that validates system files during the startup process to ensure they have not been modified.
Attestation
is the process of checking and validating system files during a boot process.
Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)
is a specification for a software program that connects a computer's firmware to its operating system. It is the replacement for BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) and has many advancements to include provisions for secure booting.
The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) supports secure boot.
False
sandbox
is an isolated environment that is often used for testing. Security, patches, and critical updates can be tested there also without touching the system before implementation.
staging environment
mimics that of production and allows for an environment to practice deployment. In the event deployment fails in this environment, it can roll back to the test and development environments.
production environment
is the final stage of the deployment effort. Testing in this environment would be too late, given it is the operational environment.
development environment
is a place for creation. Requirements are turned into reality in this environment. It is not a complete copy of production, but just the beginning of an application.
Error handling techniques
catch errors in action to avoid system failure. It is a secure coding method during the development process.
Code refactoring
is the process of improving existing code without changing its behavior and adding new requirements.
System on a Chip (SoC)
is a microchip that contains all necessary parts a computer needs to operate by itself. Examples include smartphones, tablets, and smartwatches. Data loss has become a primary security concern for theses systems.
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system
is an Industrial Control System (ICS) that is used to control infrastructure processes, facility-based processes, or industrial processes.
Infrastructure as Code (IaC)
is the process of managing data centers through automated means.
Code signing
verifies application code has not been modified by the use of digital signatures. The certificate provided with the signature identifies the author of the application and the code's authenticity. It is a secure coding practice.
Input Validation
verifies data is valid. It uses a set of rules to validate entries in fields for proper use. In the event an entry is invalid, the application will reject the entry.
Memory management
is the process of controlling and coordinating computer memory to maximize system performance. Poor memory management techniques can result in overflow issues.
stored procedure
is a set of Structured Query Language (SQL) statements stored in a database as a group, so it can be reused and shared by multiple programs. They can validate input.
Model verification
is the process of ensuring software meets its intended purpose and specifications.
state table
contains information about sessions between network hosts. This type of data is gathered by a stateful firewall.
static code analyzer
examines code quality and effectiveness without executing the code. It can be used in conjunction with development, for continued code quality checks or once the code is in its finalization stages.
Stress testing
attempts to simulate a production environment and focuses on the objective and threshold loads an application can handle while maintaining performance.
Regression testing
analyzes a running application to determine if changes have adversely affected the system.
Normalization
is used to optimize database performance by removing duplicates, use of primary keys, and related data contained in separate tables.
Client side input validation
verifies data is valid upon entry to the system.
Server side validations
occur on the web server or back-end and take more time to complete. It is more secure than client side validation.
Dynamic analysis
inspects code as it is running for code quality and vulnerabilities. Fuzzing is a common technique used.
Fuzzing
is a dynamic analysis technique that checks code as it is running. When using this technique, the system is attacked with random data to check for code vulnerabilities.
Continuous integration
allows for the merging of code changes into a central repository. The code is built and tested each time it is checked into the environment, providing a more efficient method to code production.
Provisioning
is the process of procuring, configuring and making available an application or system on certain services. Performing this on an application allows it to run on its intended platform.
Deprovisioning
is the act of removing or disabling access to a resource. Since the application has been replaced, the application should be deprovisioned to preserve resources.
waterfall method
maintains a top to bottom approach. When one stakeholder has finished a piece of work, the other can then begin. This approach ensures each phase of development is completed before another can proceed.
agile methodology
software development focuses on cross-functional teams working together throughout the life cycle of a project. This development encourages continued interaction between each stakeholder to produce continued deliverables at a quick pace.
DevOps
is an agile-like process that continually focuses on security. It also demands continuous interaction between stakeholders, but keeps security as a focus throughout the development.
Compiling code
occurs when a compiler is necessary to make the files executable. The compiler checks the code for errors, and if an error is found, it will not allow the code to execute.
Requirements gathering
is the process of collecting technical, functional and system necessities for a system.
kanban methodology
is an agile approach that focuses on the growth of products with continual delivery while not overburdening the development team.
Secure DevOps development model
combines the words development and operations. It is an agile-aligned model that includes security throughout its process.
immutable system
is the ability to create a secure image and test it in a controlled DevOps environment.
private cloud
is defined as computing services offered either over the Internet or within a private internal network. Only certain authorized users can access a private cloud infrastructure.
Public Cloud
exists on the premises of the cloud provider. A service provider makes resources available to the general public over the internet
Hybrid Cloud
is an environment that uses a mix of public, community and private cloud concepts with a single management platform.
community cloud
is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations that share a common interest.
Security as a Service (SECaaS)
is a part of the Software as a Service (SaaS) platform. It handles and manages security practices for a customer. Any security services provided in the cloud are a subset of SaaS cloud-based technologies.
PaaS provides security services.
False
Type I Hypervisors
are virtualization solutions that run directly on system hardware. They do not require operating system involvement in order to run.
Type II Hypervisors
are virtualization solutions that run as software and do require a host operating system.
Virtual machine (VM) escape
refers to an unauthorized user taking control of a host machine through a VM. The attacker can take administrative control of the host and subsequently, the virtual machines connected.
Virtualization sprawl
is a phenomenon that occurs when the number of VM's on a network reaches a point where the administrator can no longer manage them effectively.
Distributive allocation
provides that multiple nodes are configured to work together on complex problems. A central processor divides the task into smaller pieces and coordinates tasking the nodes. If a single node fails, processing continues for a high availability solution.
Failover clusters
use multiple servers to maintain high availability for a server. One configuration remains active, while the other remains inactive. If the active node fails, the inactive one takes over the load.
Scalability
is the capacity to increase the workload on current resources.
Fault tolerance
is a product of redundancy and allows that, in the event of a crash, the system will maintain operations by removing the single point of failure. The system will continue to operate without notice.
automated scripting
can help keep systems in a secure state. It can continuously check configurations of a system and react accordingly to keep systems secure and available.
Access assessment
would be a process of evaluating what access users need to perform their jobs; this would not include implementation of policy.
account revocation
is more relevant to the closure of accounts and revocation of credentials than in the creation of a new account.
one-way trust
describes the relationship between parent and child domains. The child (in this case, IronCorp) trusts the parent (SteelCorp), but the parent does not trust the child.
Signature recognition technologies
match how the user applies their signature, analyzing aspects such as stroke, speed, and pressure, making it more difficult to spoof than a simple forgery.
Security Association Markup Language (SAML)
is not an identity provider; it is an open standard that allows identity providers (IdP) to pass authorization to service providers (SP). Shibboleth is both an IdP and an SP.
X.500 naming convention
the most specific attribute goes first, and definitions become broader further down the list. This option begins with the broadest definition.
distinguished name in an X.500 directory,
identifies a resource by attribute=value pairs, separated by commas. The attributes are listed in order from most specific to broadest term.
In what way does Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) protect against replay attacks?
The handshake is repeated with different challenge messages periodically throughout the session connection
Which of these correctly orders attributes of following the X.500 distinguished naming convention standard?
Common Name (CN), Organizational Unit (OU), Organization (O), Country (C), Domain Component (DC)
Analyze and select the items demonstrating advantages Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+) has over Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS). (Select two)
TACACS+ is similar to RADIUS, but Cisco designed it with flexibility in mind. Its connection-oriented delivery method increases reliability and flexibility. It is supported by third parties and open-source RADIUS implementations. All data in TACACS+ packets is encrypted (not just authentication data).
distinguished name
in an X.500 directory, or similar directory, this identifies a resource by attribute=value pairs, separated by commas. The attributes are listed in order from most specific to broadest term.
How does Security Association Markup Language (SAML) allow a Service Provider (SP) to trust an Identity Provider (IdP) in a federated network?
SAML tokens are signed with an eXtensible Markup Language (XML) digital signature
OpenID and OpenID Connect (OIDC)
are examples of user-centric identity management protocols, whereas SAML implementations are controlled by the system, or enterprise controlled. These use JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) and JSON Web Tokens (JWT) rather than eXtensible Markup Language (XML).
In the Server Manager tool menu, the person installing the RADIUS client chooses and confirms the shared secret for the RADIUS client.
True
Name a primary difference between RADIUS and TACACS+.
TACACS+ is able to operate Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) functions separately, which gives it greater flexibility for device management, whereas RADIUS is used more for user network remote access.
What makes the basic version of Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) protocol vulnerable to Denial of Service (DoS) attacks?
The server does not require client authentication
The fact that transmissions are in plaintext makes the basic LDAP vulnerable to sniffing and man-in-the-middle attacks.
True
Analyze the following statements and select the statement accurately describing the difference between OAuth and OpenID Connect (OIDC).
OAuth provides authorization services only, while OpenID Connect (OIDC) provides federated authentication
In an enterprise-controlled federated identity management solution, such as Security Association Markup Language (SAML), the choice of identity provider (IdP) is out of the user's hands, whereas, OpenID Connect is user-centric. The user selects their IdP.
True
Compare features of Shibboleth and Security Association Markup Language (SAML) and determine what Shibboleth provides that SAML does not.
One of Shibboleth's main components, the Embedded Discovery Service, allows the user to choose a preferred identity provider. The user does not choose the identity provider in Security Association Markup Language (SAML).
In the Kerberos authentication system, the ticket granting ticket (TGT) is a logical token. What information does this ticket convey?
Time stamp, name and IP address
Which authentication protocols perform mutual authentication?
Kerberos and Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)
is the ideal choice for assigning complex rule-based privileges. It makes access decisions based on subject and object attributes, as well as context-dependent and system-wide attributes, making it the most fine-tuned control.
A series of binary data are used for biometric enrollment. What information does this binary data store?
A biometric template
ACEs do not have to be in a certain order to enforce the ACL properly.
False
What technical challenges must biometric technologies overcome to be more effective today?
Pattern matching from templates Biometric template storage and security
HMAC-Based One-time Password Algorithm (HOTP) and Time-Based One-time Password Algorithm (TOTP) use randomly generated numbers, not user-generated passwords.
True
Susceptibility to interception is not a risk associated with one-time passwords.
False
In Windows Active Directory, how do Organizational Units (OUs) help account managers designate permissions?
OUs divide a domain into different administrative realms
What vulnerability does User Account Control (UAC) protect against?
Using administrative accounts for mundane tasks
Generic Account Prohibition
It is best practice to use the default administrator accounts only to install the operating system (OS). Then they should be disabled. This makes it harder for attackers to find and compromise an admin account.
The rights and memberships of domain local and global groups are essentially opposite in scope.
True
How does general account prohibition add a layer of safety to an Operating System (OS)?
General account prohibition makes it harder to identify and compromise an administrative account
workflow
is an onboarding process that involves identifying the roles and permissions users need. It is often a visual representation of an organization, organized by permissions and account types.
Privilege bracketing
The security method of allowing privileges to a user only when needed and revoking them as soon as the task is complete.
Microsoft's rule
"Accounts go into Global groups, which go into Domain Local groups, which get Permissions" (AGDLP)
Which type of service account has the most privileges?
System
In an Active Directory (AD), which type of group allows permissions over devices such as printers and file shares?
Domain local groups
Service Level Agreement (SLA)
is a contractual agreement setting out detailed terms (including support metrics) for future provided services.
Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)
is used when any federal agency interconnecting its IT system to a third-party.
Adverse actions
are actions outlined and classified in a policy as a violation. Common ones that are part of a fair use policy are the use of equipment to defraud, defame, or to obtain illegal material. Prohibiting the use of cameras or video is also common.
Malicious actions
are actions intended to cause harm. Damaging company property, security breaches, and data theft are examples.
exploit
is the action of taking advantage of a weakness
Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)
is a formal agreement, or contract, that contains specific obligations rather than a broad understanding.
Privacy Threshold Analysis (PTA)
is an initial audit to determine whether a computer system or workflow collects, stores, or processes PII to the degree where a PIA must be performed.
Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)
is performed to identify vulnerabilities that may lead to data breach when storing, processing, and disclosing Personally Identifiable Information (PII). It also evaluates controls mitigating those risks.
system of records notice (SORN)
is a formal document listing PII maintained by a federal agency of the US government.
Incident Response Life Cycle
Preparation Detection & Analysis Containment, Eradication, & Recovery Post-Incident Activity
Tabletop Exercise
staff will "ghost" the same procedures as they would in a disaster, without actually creating disaster conditions or applying or changing anything.
Data integrity is typically the most important factor in prioritizing incidents and will often be based on the value of the at-risk data.
True
Escalation
happens when additional senior staff become involved in the management of an incident.
order of volatility
serves as a guideline for determining what types of storage is more or less volatile than the other. Central processing unit (CPU) registers are extremely volatile. An Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache contains network addresses, and is highly volatile.
System memory is used for temporary storage, and is more volatile than a temporary file system
True
In terms of order of volatility, which is more volatile, a temporary file system or an ARP cache?
ARP cache
System memory is used for temporary storage, and is more volatile than cache memory.
False
System images
are copies of entire computer systems or data.
Image Acquisition
is a data backup/cloning technique, and is used in forensics.
Hashing should be used with system images.
True
Legal holds
refer to information that may be relevant to a court case that must be preserved. This may include data or entire computer systems.
Preservation of evidence
is focused on ensuring evidence remains credible.
Keeping a valid timeline of events (such as a chain of custody) is an example of what?
preservation of evidence practice.
This is an example of snapshot technology.
Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)
Synchronous replication is particularly sensitive to distance.
True
Asynchronous replication
indicates data is mirrored from a primary site to a secondary site.
fair use policy is an example of what type of control?
Administrative control
Data sovereignty
describes the sociopolitical outlook of a nation concerning computing technology and information. Some nations may respect data privacy more or less than others. Care needs to be considered when storing such data.
technical control
is implemented in operating systems, software, and security appliances. Examples include Access Control Lists (ACL) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS). An ACL is used to provide access to a system resource.
Administrative security controls
are used to determine behavior through policies, procedures, and guidance.
compensating control
does not prevent an attack, but can restore functionality of systems through other means, such as a backup.
corrective control
responds to and fixes an incident. It may also prevent reoccurrence. An example is antivirus software.
deterrent control
may not physically or logically prevent access, but psychologically discourages an attacker from attempting an intrusion. A warning sign is an example.
detective control
may not prevent or deter access, but it will identify and record any attempted or successful intrusion. A security camera system is an example.
data owner
has the ultimate responsibility for maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information asset. They are also responsible for labeling the asset (such as determining who should have access and determining the asset's criticality and sensitivity).
data steward
is primarily responsible for data quality. This involves tasks such as ensuring data is labeled and identified with appropriate metadata, and that data is collected and stored in a format that complies with regulations.
data custodian
is responsible for managing the system where the data assets are stored. This includes responsibility for enforcing access control, encryption, along with backup and recovery measures.
system administrator
is responsible for ensuring the upkeep of the technical systems that provide functionality for the business.
Pulping
takes shredding one step further. Once data (such as documents) are subjected to shredding, the remains can be mixed with water (for example) for further destruction. Note that in this case, data is mentioned and not a storage disk which would likely use another method.
Archives
refer to sets of data. Since
data in use
is when data is present in volatile memory, such as system RAM or CPU cache.
data at rest
state means that the data is in some sort of persistent storage media. Examples of data include archived audiovisual media.
data in transit
is when data is transmitted over a network. The data can be sent over the WAN to its final location through a virtual private network (VPN).
In-band key exchange
(over an unencrypted channel) uses asymmetric encryption. The secret key is encrypted with recipient's public key and is decrypted by recipient's private key.
Out-of-band key exchange
involves sending the key by courier or transmitting it verbally. However, these methods increase the risk that the key will be compromised.
ticket granting service
is used by Kerberos for authentication services. Single Sign-On (SSO) services rely on Kerberos.
What is another term used for a "session key" when being exchanged in a digital envelope?
Secret key
Side Channel Attack
Gathering outside information by watching how it behaves with the goal of uncovering the encryption key. It means monitoring things like timing, power consumption, and electromagnetic emanation. These have a physical relation.
Keyspace
is a range of key values available to use with a particular cipher. It is approximately equivalent to two to the power of the size of the key. Using a longer key, such as 2048 bits rather than 1024 bits, makes the encryption scheme stronger.
substitution cipher
is an obfuscation technique where each unit of plaintext is kept in the same sequence when converted to ciphertext, but the actual value of the unit changes.
transposition cipher
the units stay the same in plaintext, but the order is changed according to a mechanism. For example, "HLOOLELWRD" would mean "HelloWorld".
Ciphertext
is data encoded with a cipher, which is an algorithm used to encrypt or decrypt data.
Ephemeral key
is the main component of ECDHE that gives it perfect forward secrecy. There is a different secret key for each session during transport.
PRNG (pseudorandom number generation)
is the process by which an algorithm produces numbers that approximate randomness without being truly random.
OTP (one time pad)
is an unbreakable encryption mechanism. It consists of exactly the same number of characters as the plaintext and must be generated by a truly random algorithm.
Confusion
means the key should not be derivable from the ciphertext. This can be achieved through more complex substitution and transposition operations.
Diffusion
means if any one bit of the plaintext is changed, many bits in the ciphertext will change. It is obtained through transposition.
Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)
is a type of trapdoor function used to generate public/private key pairs. Combined with D-H Ephemeral Mode (ECDHE), it provides a Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) mechanism for Transport Layer Security (TLS).
DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm)
is an adaptation of ElGamal's algorithm used for encryption and digital signing, rather than simply a mechanism for agreeing to a shared secret.
Group
can be any mathematical operation with the properties of a trapdoor function. Common groups used are group 1 (768-bit), group 2 (1024-bit), group 5 (1536-bit), and group 2048 (2048-bit).
ElGamal
Based on Diffie-Helmann and was invented in 1984 by Taher Elgamal. It is used in PGP implementations and GNU Privacy Guard software. The algorithm is comprised of 3 parts: the key generator, the encryption algorithm, and the decryption algorithm. This was made publicly available.
GCM (Galois Counter Mode)
combines the ciphertext with a type of message authentication code (GMAC), like an HMAC (hash-based message authentication code), to provide native message integrity.
CTM (Counter Mode)
functions like a stream cipher, but each block is combined with a nonce (non-repeating) counter value. This allows each block to process in parallel using multi-core CPUs.
ECB (Electronic Code Book) mode
applies the same key to each plaintext block. This indicates identical plaintext blocks can output identical ciphertexts, making the ciphertext vulnerable to cryptanalysis.
CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode
improves ciphertext integrity by applying an Initialization Vector (IV) to the first plaintext block and ensures the key produces a unique ciphertext from any given plaintext.
Bcrypt
is used in key stretching.
Key stretching
involves the initial key going through thousands of rounds of hashing. This makes it harder to apply brute force attacks on password hashes.
PBKDF2 (Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2)
is also used for key stretching like Bcrypt.
CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)
is not a cipher, rather a cipher mode applying an Intitialization Vector (IV) to improve ciphertext integrity and ensure a unique ciphertext with any plain text.
Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2 (PBKDF2) uses RSA security's public key cryptography standards (PKCS#5).
True
FIPS or Federal Information Processing Standards
is a set of standards adopted for use on government systems. The Secure Hashing Algorithm (SHA) is an example of a hashing algorithm listed there.
ROT13 (an example of a Caesarian cipher)
otates each letter 13 places (so A becomes N for instance). This is how the ciphertext "Uryyb Jbeyq" means "Hello World".
XOR operation
encodes a message where a value is combined with the plaintext message. XOR produces 0 if both values are the same, and 1 if the values are different.
PSK (Pre-shared Key)
is the password needed to gain access to a WAP. An example is a WPA2 enabled PSK. Using a personal password will not work.
Although a company's splash page or captive portal may advertise free Wi-Fi, it may only be for a predefined time. After this predetermined time, a payment must be made for extended access.
True
open configuration
means setting no security configurations on the WAP. It can also mean removing all other security settings like MAC filtering or disabling ports to ensure a specific setting may not be blocking network access.
802.1x
is a Port-Based Network Access Control (PNAC) mechanism that uses Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP). Selecting the "Enterprise" option on a wireless router enables the use of 802.1x.
RADIUS federation
means that multiple organizations allow access to one another's users by joining their RADIUS servers into a RADIUS hierarchy or mesh.
For Guest Wi-Fi connections, 802.1x are almost never implemented.
True
user certificate
is the most common certificate loaded onto an employee's smart card. In a Windows Active Directory environment, a user certificate will identify the user, and grant user access.
machine certificate
is not loaded onto a card, rather installed on a machine such as a server. It identifies the machine from a trusted CA (Certificate Authority) hierarchy.
wildcard certificate
describes a certificate used with multiple subdomains of a domain. These are not usually placed on a smart card.
SAN (Subject Alternative Name)
is an extension field on a web server certificate using multiple subdomain labels to support the identification of the server.
trust model
is a concept of the PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) to show how users and different CAs (Certificate Authorities) can trust one another. This is detailed in a certificate's certification path leading back to the root CA.
Stapling
is a term used with OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) that uses a SSL/TLS web server to make periodic requests from a CA about certificate statuses to reduce resource demands.
Certificate pinning
refers to validating a website's certificate by checking public keys of previously known certificates in the chain. It is not dependent on an offline CA.
root CA (Certificate Authority)
is the top level of the certificate hierarchy.
The intermediate Certificate Authority (CA) or subordinate CA
is in the middle of the certificate hierarchy.
The issuing CA
is the third level of the certificate hierarchy.
Registration
is a built-in function of certificate authorities. However, the function can be delegated to one or more of these authorities. These do not sign or issues certificates.
PFX or .pfx or .p12 extension
allows the export of a certificate along with its private key and is password protected. Commonly used to archive or transport a private key.
P7B or .p7b extension
bundles multiple certificates into a single file. It is often used to deliver a chain of certificates that must be trusted by the processing host. It does not contain a private key.
CER or .cer extension
is an actual certificate that can contain either binary DER (Distinguished Encoding Rules) or ASCII PEM data.
DER (Distinguished Encoding Rules)
All certificates use an encoding scheme to create a Binary form of a certificate instead of ASCII PEM format. Can have extensions of either .der or .cer.
certification path, also known as "certificate chaining" or a "chain of trust,"
is a verifiable path of the leaf certificate to the root CA (Certificate Authority). Both web certificates must show the same path.
HPKP (HTTP Public Key Pinning)
is a method of trusting digital certificates to bypass the CA hierarchy and chain of trust, and minimize MITM attacks. The client stores a public key that belongs (or is pinned) to a web server. If visiting again and the key does not exist in the certificate chain, a warning is presented.
CSR (Certificate Signing Request)
is a Base64 ASCII file sent by a subject to a CA to get a certificate.
Private organizations must load employee web browsers with internal root certificates to verify internal websites.
True
A computer certificate is only installed on a server for which it identifies. Computer certificates are not shared.
True
code signing certificate
is issued to a software publisher. The publisher uses this to sign the executables or DLLs that make up the program and guarantee the validity of a software.
registration authority
is a server assigned the task to complete identity checks and submit CSRs on behalf of end users. However, they do not actually sign or issue certificates.
CRT or .crt extension
is the same as a .cer file extension. It is a basic certificate that contains information about the subject.
three-level Certificate Authority (CA) hierarchy
can be described with a root server at the top-level, an intermediate or subordinate in the middle, and an issuing that issues signed certificates to users, computers, and other services.
Server or computer certificates can be issued to network appliances, such as routers, switches, and firewalls to identify itself to the network to gain access to the Local Area Network (LAN).
True
Pinning
refers to several techniques to ensure it is inspecting the proper certificate when a client inspects the certificate presented by a server or a code-signed application. An examples of this is submitting two or more public keys to an HTTP browser.
Extended Validation (EV)
refers to a more rigorous check on a subject's legal identity and control over the domain before issuing a certificate.
Domain Validation (DV)
is proving the ownership of a domain, which may be proved by responding to an email to the authorized point of contact. This process is highly vulnerable to compromise.
X.509
is a certificate standard and format.
Certificates with wrong server names can still be recognized and trusted by its root CA. It will not invalidate a certificate's chain of trust.
True
Worms
are memory-resident viruses that replicate over network resources.
Viruses
These spread from computer to computer, usually by "infecting" executable applications or program code.
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