IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Comptia Certmaster Practice For Security+

468 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

Crypto-malware

ANSWER

A type of ransomware that encrypts the user's data. The user will be unable to access the files without obtaining the private encryption key, which is held by the attacker.

QUESTION 2

Trapdoor Function

ANSWER

A function that is easy to compute in one direction, yet believed to be difficult to compute in the opposite direction (finding its inverse) without special information, called the "trapdoor." Widely used in cryptography.

QUESTION 3

Ransomeware

ANSWER

is a type of Trojan malware that tries to extort money from the victim. It will display threatening messages, stating the computer will remain locked until the ransom is paid.

QUESTION 4

Trojan

ANSWER

is a malicious program hidden within an innocuous-seeming piece of software. Usually, the Trojan tries to compromise the security of the target computer.

QUESTION 5

Rogueware

ANSWER

is a fake antivirus, where a web pop-up claims to have detected viruses on the computer and prompts the user to initiate a full scan, which installs the attacker's Trojan.

QUESTION 6

Adware

ANSWER

is a type of software or browser plug-in that is similar to spyware. If the user accepts the data use policy and the program generally behaves like any other commercial software installation, then it's not spyware.

QUESTION 7

RAT (Remote Access Trojan) backdoor applications can allow the attacker to use the computer in a botnet to launch DDoS Attacks

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 8

RAT backdoor applications can allow the user to use the computer in a botnet to launch mass-mail spam attacks.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 9

A RAT does not have to establish a connection from the compromised host to a Command and Control (C2 or C&C) host or network operated by the attacker.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 10

Tailgating

ANSWER

is a social engineering technique to gain access to a building by following someone else (or persuading them to "hold the door").

QUESTION 11

Spyware

ANSWER

is a program that monitors user activity and sends the information to someone else. This can occur with or without the user's knowledge.

QUESTION 12

rootkit

ANSWER

is backdoor malware that changes core system files and programming interfaces, so that local shell processes, no longer reveal their presence.

QUESTION 13

botnet

ANSWER

is a set of computers that has been infected by a control program called a bot, that enables attackers to exploit the computers to mount attacks.

QUESTION 14

Remote Access Trojan (RAT)

ANSWER

functions as backdoor, and allows the attacker to access the PC, upload files, and install software on it

QUESTION 15

SIM swap fraud illustrates what type of an attacker?

ANSWER

Organized Crime

QUESTION 16

DNS harvesting

ANSWER

Using OSINT to gather info about a domain.

QUESTION 17

Topology discovery (footprinting)

ANSWER

is the part of the discovery phase where the attacker or pen tester starts to identify the structure of the target network.

QUESTION 18

Host Discovery

ANSWER

Determining which IP addresses in the network have live system. Techniques include ARP scans, passive listening, ICMP Sweeps, IPv6 neighbor discovery and many more.

QUESTION 19

Clickjacking

ANSWER

is a hijacking attack that forces a user to unintentionally click a link that is embedded in or hidden by other web page elements.

QUESTION 20

MitB attack

ANSWER

is where the web browser is compromised by installing malicious plug-ins or scripts or intercepting API calls. Vulnerability exploit kits can be installed to a website and actively try to exploit vulnerabilities in clients browsing the site.

QUESTION 21

XSRF

ANSWER

is a malicious script hosted on the attacker's site that can exploit a session started on another site in the same browser.

QUESTION 22

HTTP Response Splitting

ANSWER

occurs when the attacker would craft a malicious URL and convince the victim to submit it to the web server.

QUESTION 23

LSOs (Locally Shared Objects), or Flash cookies

ANSWER

are data that is stored on a user's computer by websites that use Adobe Flash Player. A site may be able to track a user's browsing behavior through LSOs.

QUESTION 24

replay attack

ANSWER

consists of intercepting a key or password hash, then reusing it to gain access to a resource, such as the pass-the-hash attack.

QUESTION 25

birthday attack

ANSWER

is a type of brute force attack aimed at exploiting collisions in hash functions. This type of attack can be used for the purpose of forging a digital signature.

QUESTION 26

War driving

ANSWER

is the practice of using a Wi-Fi sniffer to detect WLANs and then either making use of them or trying to break into them (using WEP and WPA cracking tools).

QUESTION 27

Skimming

ANSWER

is an RFID attack where an attacker uses a fraudulent RFID reader to read the signals from a contactless bank card. previous

QUESTION 28

DNS Server Cache poisoning

ANSWER

is a redirection attack, that aims to corrupt the records held by the DNS server itself. The intention is to redirect traffic for a legitimate domain to a malicious IP address.

QUESTION 29

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) poisoning

ANSWER

occurs when an attacker, with access to the network, redirects an IP address to the MAC address of a computer that is not the intended recipient.

QUESTION 30

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

ANSWER

is a malicious script hosted on the attacker's site or coded in a link injected onto a trusted site designed to compromise clients browsing the trusted site.

QUESTION 31

Bluesnarfing

ANSWER

refers to using an exploit in Bluetooth to steal information from someone else's phone. The exploit (now patched) allows attackers to circumvent the authentication mechanism.

QUESTION 32

consensus/social proof impersonation

ANSWER

an attacker fools users into believing that a malicious website is legitimate by posting fake reviews. The victims believe the reviews and place their trust in the website.

QUESTION 33

Refactoring

ANSWER

means the code performs the same function by using different methods. Refactoring means that the antivirus software may no longer identify the malware by its signature.

QUESTION 34

shim

ANSWER

The code library to enable legacy mode

QUESTION 35

pointer

ANSWER

is a reference to an object in memory. Attempting to access that memory address is called dereferencing.

QUESTION 36

integer overflow attack

ANSWER

causes the target software to calculate a value that exceeds the upper and lower bounds.

QUESTION 37

To crack WEP

ANSWER

a replay attack is used to make the AP generate lots of IV packets, usually by replaying ARP packets at it, and cycle through IV values quickly.

QUESTION 38

Mirroring mode

ANSWER

allows another VM to sniff the unicast packets addressed to a remote interface (like a spanned port on a hardware switch).

QUESTION 39

Distributed Reflection Denial of Service (DRDoS) attack

ANSWER

the adversary spoofs the victim's IP address and attempts to open connections with multiple servers. Those servers direct their SYN/ACK responses to the victim server. This rapidly consumes the victim's available bandwidth.

QUESTION 40

deauthentication attack

ANSWER

sends a stream of spoofed deauth frames to cause a client to deauthenticate from an AP. This might allow the attacker to interpose the rogue AP or sniff information about the authentication process.

QUESTION 41

disassociation attack

ANSWER

hits the target with disassociation packets and is used to perform a Denial of Service (DoS) attack against the wireless infrastructure.

QUESTION 42

ARP poisoning

ANSWER

occurs when an attacker, with access to the network, redirects an IP address to the MAC address of an unintended computer.

QUESTION 43

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) hijacking

ANSWER

is a type of spoofing attack where the attacker disconnects a host, then replaces it with his or her own machine, spoofing the original host's IP address.

QUESTION 44

watering hole attack

ANSWER

is a directed social engineering attack. It relies on the circumstance that a group of targets may use an unsecure third party website.

QUESTION 45

hoax attack

ANSWER

an email alert or web pop-up will claim to have identified some sort of security problem, like a virus infection, and offer a tool to fix the problem, but the tool will be some sort of Trojan application.

QUESTION 46

Pharming

ANSWER

relies on corrupting the way the victim's computer performs Internet name resolution, so that they are redirected from the genuine site to the malicious one.

QUESTION 47

Directory traversal

ANSWER

occurs when the attacker gets access to a file outside the web server's root directory.

QUESTION 48

Transitive access

ANSWER

describes the problem of authorizing a request for a service that depends on an intermediate service

QUESTION 49

NFC

ANSWER

A wireless technology (near field communication) that lets your mobile device communicate over very short distances, such as when paying for goods on wireless payment devices. It does not provide encryption.

QUESTION 50

Mutual authentication

ANSWER

is a security mechanism that requires that each party in a communication verifies each other's identity and helps in avoiding Man-in-the-Middle attacks.

QUESTION 51

URL hijacking (also called typosquatting)

ANSWER

relies on users navigating to misspelled domains. An attacker registers a domain name with a misspelling of an existing domain. Users who misspell a URL in a web browser are taken to the attacker's website.

QUESTION 52

Reflected Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

ANSWER

is a server-side input validation exploit that injects a script into a website. Once the victim visits the infected website, the malicious code executes in the user's browser.

QUESTION 53

Stored (or persistent) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

ANSWER

is a server-side script attack that inserts code into a back-end database used by the trusted site.

QUESTION 54

Document Object Model (DOM) Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

ANSWER

exploits vulnerabilities in client-side scripts to modify the content and layout of a web page.

QUESTION 55

Frequency Analysis

ANSWER

A technique that is based on how frequently certain letters appear in English versus others.

QUESTION 56

privacy filter

ANSWER

is a security control that allows only the user to see the screen contents, thus preventing shoulder surfing.

QUESTION 57

colocation

ANSWER

is a data center that contains racks with networking equipment owned by different companies.

QUESTION 58

Kiting

ANSWER

is the act of continually registering, deleting, and reregistering a name within the five-day grace period without having to pay for it.

QUESTION 59

Tasting

ANSWER

is a Domain Name Server (DNS) exploit that involves registering a domain temporarily to see how many hits it generates within the five-day grace period.

QUESTION 60

initial exploitation phase

ANSWER

an exploit is used to gain access to the target's network. This might be accomplished using a phishing email and payload, or by obtaining credentials via social engineering.

QUESTION 61

Pen testing is considered an active reconnaissance technique.

ANSWER

true

QUESTION 62

Name 2 techniques in active reconnaissance

ANSWER

1. Gaining physical access 2. Using scanning tools

QUESTION 63

Is gathering OSINT referred to as a passive or active reconnaissance.

ANSWER

Passive

QUESTION 64

pivot point

ANSWER

is a system and/or set of privileges that allow the tester to compromise other network systems (lateral spread).

QUESTION 65

Host scanning

ANSWER

uses software tools to obtain information about a host or network topology, and is associated with the reconnaissance phase of a pen test.

QUESTION 66

Phishing

ANSWER

is the social engineering tactic in which an attacker attempts to obtain sensitive information from a user by posing as a trustworthy figure through email communications.

QUESTION 67

In what phase of Pen testing is a phishing email used?

ANSWER

Initial Exploitation phase

QUESTION 68

malicious payload

ANSWER

is code that will run on the target system, performing some kind of task or giving the attacker interactive control.

QUESTION 69

In what phase is a malicious payload used?

ANSWER

initial exploitation phase

QUESTION 70

Persistence

ANSWER

is the tester's ability to reconnect to the compromised host and use it as a remote access tool (RAT) or backdoor.

QUESTION 71

What follows persistence in a pen test attack life cycle?

ANSWER

Further reconnaissance

QUESTION 72

What precedes Persistence in a pen testing life cycle?

ANSWER

Initial exploitation

QUESTION 73

Action on objectives

ANSWER

means carrying out the work as defined by the tester or client.

QUESTION 74

An example of an Action on objectives

ANSWER

Data exfiltration

QUESTION 75

gray box pen test

ANSWER

the consultant is given some information; this resembles the knowledge of junior or non-IT staff to model types of insider threats.

QUESTION 76

Pen testing is always an active reconnaissance technique.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 77

Vulnerability scanning

ANSWER

is the process of auditing a network (or application) for known vulnerabilities.

QUESTION 78

Vulnerability scanning does exploit any vulnerabilities discovered

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 79

What are 3 ways to accomplish initial exploitation?

ANSWER

1. Phishing 2. Social Engineering Attack 3. Malicious payload

QUESTION 80

What phase is Host Scanning associated?

ANSWER

Reconnaissance

QUESTION 81

Why are active scans scheduled during periods of network downtime?

ANSWER

They are more likely to cause performance problems with the host.

QUESTION 82

Passive Scanning techniques

ANSWER

1. Sniffing Network traffic to identify assets communicating on the network. 2. To identify ports used 3. discover some types of vulnerabilities.

QUESTION 83

Active Scanning techniques

ANSWER

involve making a connection to the target host. This might mean authenticating and establishing a session with the host or running an agent on a host.

QUESTION 84

HSM

ANSWER

Hardware security module. A removable or external device that can generate, store, and manage RSA keys used in asymmetric encryption. High-volume e-commerce sites use HSMs to increase the performance of SSL sessions. High-availability clusters needing encryption services can use clustered HSMs.

QUESTION 85

TPM

ANSWER

Trusted Platform Module. This is a hardware chip on the motherboard included on many newer laptops. A TPM includes a unique RSA asymmetric key, and it can generate and store other keys used for encryption, decryption, and authentication. TPM provides full disk encryption.

QUESTION 86

IAM

ANSWER

Identity and Access Management is a security process that provides identification, authentication, and authorization mechanisms for users, computers, and other entities to work with organizational assets.

QUESTION 87

The kernels or operating systems that run on embedded system devices must be much more stable and reliable than the OS that runs a desktop computer or server.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 88

Two main issues with firewalls implemented on the device firmware.

ANSWER

1. The lack of processing power 2. The memory space available to run functions.

QUESTION 89

Wrappers

ANSWER

One way of increasing the security of data in transit for embedded systems. It usually includes a header, which precedes the encapsulated data, and a trailer, which follows it.

QUESTION 90

DLL injection

ANSWER

is a software vulnerability that can occur when a Windows-based application attempts to force another running application to load a dynamic-link library (DLL) in memory, that could cause the victim application to experience instability or leak sensitive information.

QUESTION 91

Two reasons why many medical devices with embedded systems are vulnerable to malicious exploits?

ANSWER

1. Their control systems use outdated operating systems. 2. They use unsecure communication protocols.

QUESTION 92

3 things that help ensure an application is secure before the release?

ANSWER

1. Error handling 2. Proper authentication and authorization 3. Input validation

QUESTION 93

Tethering

ANSWER

allows a mobile device to share its cellular data or WiFi connection with other devices (tethering). A malicious user can set up such an access point with something as basic as a smartphone with tethering capabilities.

QUESTION 94

USB OTG (On the Go)

ANSWER

allows a port to function either as a host or as a device.

QUESTION 95

Security on default configurations of devices from vendors is strong.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 96

Pinch Point

ANSWER

is a single point of failure that relies on a single hardware server or appliance or network channel.

QUESTION 97

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions)

ANSWER

is an email encryption standard that adds digital signatures and public key cryptography to email.

QUESTION 98

An out-of-band link offers better security than in-band.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 99

Rulesets

ANSWER

are a configuration setting for the intrusion detection system (IDS).

QUESTION 100

Examples of Rulesets

ANSWER

Content filtering, such as blocking URLs and applying keyword-sensitive blacklists or whitelists.

QUESTION 101

layer 3 device

ANSWER

operates on the network layer. Common devices like a router operate at layer 3 to route traffic based on IP addresses.

QUESTION 102

layer 2 device

ANSWER

A network device that makes decisions about where a packet is sent based on a MAC address or a logical name. Mostly describes a basic Ethernet switch.

QUESTION 103

VPN (Virtual Private Network) concentrator

ANSWER

a device that incorporates advanced encryption and authentication methods, to handle many VPN tunnels.

QUESTION 104

proxy server

ANSWER

places information retrieved from the internet into a temporary storage area so that if the information is requested again by another client, it already has it. This reduces the number of calls to the internet and speeds up performance.

QUESTION 105

switch loop

ANSWER

will cause network connections to drop, since the packet cannot make the appropriate hop to the next switch and to its final destination. They also generate broadcast storms.

QUESTION 106

broadcast storm

ANSWER

When there is an accumulation of broadcast and multicast packet traffic on the LAN coming from one or more network interfaces.

QUESTION 107

Dummy switches

ANSWER

Basic switches to allow traffic to flow freely. They normally don't have any advanced configurations.

QUESTION 108

Signature-based (or pattern-matching) detection

ANSWER

uses a database of attack patterns or signatures. If traffic matches a pattern, then the engine generates an incident.

QUESTION 109

Anomaly-based detection

ANSWER

uses an engine that looks for irregularities in the use of protocols. For example, the engine may check packet headers or the exchange of packets in a session against RFC standards and generate an alert, if they deviate from strict RFC compliance.

QUESTION 110

Heuristic-based detection

ANSWER

learns from experience to detect differences from the baseline. This type of detection is the same as behavioral-based detection.

QUESTION 111

Behavioral-based (statistical or profile-based) detection

ANSWER

uses an engine to recognize baseline "normal" traffic or events. Any deviation from the baseline (outside a defined level of tolerance) generates an incident.

QUESTION 112

tunnel mode

ANSWER

is used by IPsec to provide encrypted communication by encrypting the entire network packet. This method will be used mostly in unsecured networks.

QUESTION 113

transport mode

ANSWER

is used by IPsec to provide encrypted communication by only encrypting the payload. This method will be used mostly in private networks.

QUESTION 114

Cipher Modes

ANSWER

refers to the cryptographic product that processes multiple blocks. ECB or Electronic Code Book is the simplest mode of this kind.

QUESTION 115

counter mode

ANSWER

is a type of cipher mode of operation.

QUESTION 116

benefit (or pro) for deploying an SSL decryptor

ANSWER

is that it will block connections that use weak cipher suites or implementations and block connections that cannot be inspected.

QUESTION 117

multipurpose proxy server

ANSWER

can be configured with filters for multiple protocol types, such as HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), FTP (File Transfer Protocol), and SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).

QUESTION 118

web proxy,

ANSWER

will only filter out content from the web.

QUESTION 119

transparent class of proxies

ANSWER

requires no extra configuration of client computers. This proxy intercepts client traffic through a switch, router or other inline network appliance.

QUESTION 120

non-transparent class of proxies

ANSWER

requires a client to be configured with the proxy server address and port settings.

QUESTION 121

active/active cluster

ANSWER

provides Enterprise services to clients from both virtual servers. All services will transparently transfer to the other server if one virtual host goes offline.

QUESTION 122

active/passive cluster

ANSWER

provides Enterprise services to clients from only one virtual server. The other server comes online only when the currently active server goes offline.

QUESTION 123

session affinity setting

ANSWER

is used in load balancing scenarios. This is also known as source IP (internet protocol) and is a layer 4 approach to handling user sessions.

QUESTION 124

round robin setting

ANSWER

is used in load balancing scenarios. New client sessions are established with the next server in the group. Round robin and affinity provide stateless fault tolerance.

QUESTION 125

remote access virtual private network (VPN

ANSWER

involves VPN client agents connecting to a VPN-enabled router concentrator at the company's main network. This is ideal for telecommuters. If used with TLS or SSL VPN, port 443 will be used.

QUESTION 126

LS (Transport Layer Security) VPN

ANSWER

will require a remote server listening on port 443 (so no changes to firewalls) and optionally, a set of client certificates for authenticating the device (transparent for users after simple set up).

QUESTION 127

site-to-site VPN

ANSWER

A type of VPN in which VPN gateways at multiple sites encrypt and encapsulate data to exchange over a tunnel with other VPN gateways. Meanwhile, clients, servers, and other hosts on a site-to-site VPN communicate with the VPN gateway.

QUESTION 128

TPM or Trusted Platform Module

ANSWER

is a hardware security module that BitLocker uses to link an encrypted hard drive with a specific system.

QUESTION 129

Most Wi-Fi routers come with a transmit (Tx) power setting, which can be reduced to a lower output to reduce the range of the wireless signal.

ANSWER

true

QUESTION 130

Yagi or Yagi-Uda array

ANSWER

is describe as a rod with fins. It is a directional antenna.

QUESTION 131

rubber ducky or dipole antennas

ANSWER

are plastic-coated rods used on wireless access points (WAPs).

QUESTION 132

What do WAPs without any antennas use?

ANSWER

Omnidirectional vertical rod-type antennas, which receive and send signal in all directions.

QUESTION 133

MAC (media access control) filtering

ANSWER

specifies a list of valid MAC addresses of devices that will be allowed to connect to the WAP (wireless access point).

QUESTION 134

SSID

ANSWER

service set identifier is used to help users identify the correct WAP they are connecting to. An extended SSID or ESSID is used when multiple SSIDs are grouped into one.

QUESTION 135

access control list

ANSWER

contains rules that define the type of data packet and the appropriate action to take when it exits or enters a network or system. The general actions are to either deny or accept.

QUESTION 136

Data Leak Prevention

ANSWER

scans for content in a structured format like an e-mail and performs an action based on policy. (e.g., blocks an e-mail containing proprietary information).

QUESTION 137

Secure Sockets Layer

ANSWER

is network protocol that establishes an encrypted link between a web server and a browser. Users interact commonly with their bank's web portal using encrypted communication via an SSL or TLS connection.

QUESTION 138

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

ANSWER

is a means for the bridges to organize themselves into a hierarchy and prevent loops from forming.

QUESTION 139

Port security

ANSWER

is an advanced security feature that allows a certain amount of MAC addresses to access a physical port. After a certain number, new connections will be blocked.

QUESTION 140

flood guard

ANSWER

is a feature of a circuit-level firewall that prevents maliciously open connections from forming. This is not applicable to switching loops.

QUESTION 141

BitLocker will not be transparent to the user if a TPM chip is used.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 142

Other names for an Application Firewall

ANSWER

1. Application layer gateway firewall 2. stateful multilayer inspection firewall 3. deep packet inspection firewall

QUESTION 143

agentless health or posture assessment

ANSWER

supports a wide range of devices, such as smartphones and tablets, but less detailed information about the client is available.

QUESTION 144

non-persistent or dissolvable agent

ANSWER

is loaded into memory and never installed on the system. This option still requires an agent that may not be compatible with mobile devices.

QUESTION 145

bridge

ANSWER

connects two network segments together. An example includes a bridged connection between the wireless and Ethernet adapters of a laptop.

QUESTION 146

ad hoc network

ANSWER

is created when wireless network adapters are configured to connect to one another in a peer-to-peer WLAN (Wireless LAN) topology.

QUESTION 147

Firewalls can operate at many levels.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 148

SSL decryptor, inspector, or interceptor

ANSWER

is a type of proxy used to examine encrypted traffic before it enters or leaves the network. This ensures that traffic complies with data policies and strong cipher suites are used. It is positioned at the network's edge as a transparent bridge to evade a hacker's view. It will not be a regular device with an IP address on its own subnet range.

QUESTION 149

What does a SSL decryptor commonly integrate with?

ANSWER

A DLP or SIEM to apply security policies and provide effective monitoring and reporting.

QUESTION 150

SSL interceptors are found in a UTM.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 151

CARP

ANSWER

Common Address Redundancy Protocol

QUESTION 152

Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)

ANSWER

is Cisco's proprietary service to providing a load-balanced service with a VIP. GLBP and CARP are similar in functionality.

QUESTION 153

Why is placing the SSL decryptor at the edge of a network a drawback (or con).

ANSWER

he edge of the network is also the point where internal network meets the public network. The placement makes the SSL decryptor a single point of failure.

QUESTION 154

What does the technique of using foil on Wi-Fi routers accomplish?

ANSWER

is mainly used to increase the wireless range or its performance.

QUESTION 155

email certificate

ANSWER

can be used to sign and encrypt email messages, typically using S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) or PGP (Pretty Good Privacy).

QUESTION 156

-t switch pings

ANSWER

pings the specified server name or IP (Internet protocol) address until stopped. Typing CTL+C on the keyboard will stop the pings.

QUESTION 157

-n switch

ANSWER

sets the number of echo requests to send. The standard send count is four. The number can be specified after the -n switch.

QUESTION 158

-S switch

ANSWER

which is a capital S, is used to specify a source address to use that is different from the server that the admin is initiating the ping command from.

QUESTION 159

-r switch

ANSWER

records route for count hops. This is used for IPv4 addresses.

QUESTION 160

Proprietary company information is never stored in the same location as Windows operating system files and folders or the C: drive.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 161

%SystemRoot%\NTDS\NTDS.DIT file

ANSWER

stores domain user passwords and credentials.

QUESTION 162

Aircrack-ng

ANSWER

is a suite of utilities designed for wireless network security testing. The specific tool, which is also called aircrack-ng, can decode the authentication pre-shared key or password for WEP, WPA, and WPA2 using a dictionary word or a relatively short key.

QUESTION 163

inSSIDer

ANSWER

is a software that can survey Wi-Fi networks to determine SSID, BSSID (wireless access point MAC address), frequency band, and radio channel.

QUESTION 164

Netcat (nc)

ANSWER

is a remote access trojan (RAT) that is available for both Windows and Linux. It can be configured as a backdoor.

QUESTION 165

Wireshark

ANSWER

is a protocol analyzer. It can parse the headers network protocols and list their contents and derive purpose. This can help pinpoint the dropped packets and on what network adapter, so further troubleshooting can take place.

QUESTION 166

Sysinternals

ANSWER

is a suite of tools designed to assist with troubleshooting issues with Windows. Its Process Explorer can reveal all the processes and its details on the system. These tools are not useful for a networking issue.

QUESTION 167

Meterpreter

ANSWER

is an exploit module that uses in-memory DLL injection stagers.

QUESTION 168

Stagers

ANSWER

create a network connection between the hacker and the target. Since the stagers are in memory and never written to disk, any trace can be removed with a restart of the server.

QUESTION 169

Nexpose

ANSWER

is a vulnerability scanner. When integrated with Metasploit Pro, Metasploit can then read the scan report and confirm vulnerabilities to rule out false positives.

QUESTION 170

Kali or Kali Linux

ANSWER

is a Debian-derived Linux distribution designed for system forensics and penetration testing.

QUESTION 171

Nessus

ANSWER

is a vulnerability scanner from Tenable. A hacker may use a vulnerability scanner to seek out easy targets (e.g., open ports) to plan for an attack. previous

QUESTION 172

Active KillDisk

ANSWER

is a disk wiping sanitization software tool that can purge data on disk by overwriting data with 1s and 0s. Overwriting might also be performed in multiple passes. The disk can be recycled after using this software.

QUESTION 173

Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit

ANSWER

includes the Policy Analyzer Tool and the Local Group Policy Object (LGPO) Tool. Both are necessary to assess the local policies from a baseline and automate changes where needed.

QUESTION 174

Kerberos

ANSWER

is the preferred method in a Windows domain using a ticket granting system to login and access resources on the network.

QUESTION 175

Unlike LM and NTLM, Kerberos supports the use of tokens or biometric authentication.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 176

NTLM

ANSWER

New Technology LANMAN. Authentication protocol intended to improve LANMAN. The LANMAN protocol stores passwords using a hash of the password by first dividing the password into two seven-character blocks, and then converting all lowercase letters to uppercase. This makes LANMAN easy to crack. NTLM stores passwords in LANMAN format for backward compatibility, unless the passwords are greater than fifteen characters. NTLMv1 is older and has known vulnerabilities. NTLMv2 is newer and secure.

QUESTION 177

BitLocker

ANSWER

A Windows feature that encrypts an entire drive

QUESTION 178

Cain and Abel

ANSWER

is used to recover Windows passwords and includes a password sniffing utility.

QUESTION 179

John the Ripper Tool

ANSWER

Is a free password cracking software tool. It is compatible with multiple platforms. It's one of the most popular password testing and breaking programs as it combines a number of password crackers into one package, auto detects password hash types, and includes a customizable cracker.

QUESTION 180

THC Hydra

ANSWER

A password cracking tool which utilizes a dictionary attack method. It is often used against remote authentication using protocols such as Telnet, FTP (file transfer protocol), HTTPS (hypertext transfer protocol secure), SMB (server message protocol), etc.

QUESTION 181

Zenmap

ANSWER

is the GUI (Graphical User Interface) version for Nmap. Also known as Nmap Security Scanner, it uses diverse methods of host discovery

QUESTION 182

OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) grabbing

ANSWER

is like banner grabbing or OS fingerprinting. The OUI can identify the manufacturer of the network adapter and therefore, conclude other assumptions related to system type and/or purpose.

QUESTION 183

OS (operating system) fingerprinting

ANSWER

is a method used by Nmap to probe hosts for running OS type and version, and even application names and device type (e.g., laptop or virtual machine).

QUESTION 184

Side channel attacks

ANSWER

is a technique used in cryptographic systems

QUESTION 185

In a general order of restoration, the first step is?

ANSWER

involves enabling and testing power delivery systems such as a power grid, generators, and even UPSs (uninterruptible power supplies). Without power, IT systems and network equipment cannot run.

QUESTION 186

In a general order of restoration, the third step is?

ANSWER

to enable and test network security appliances, like a firewall. The cloud service must enter the network to restore data.

QUESTION 187

In a general order of restoration, the seventh or final step is?

ANSWER

to enable client workstations, devices, and even client browser access.

QUESTION 188

Order of Restoration

ANSWER

The sequence in which different systems are reinstated.

QUESTION 189

Credentialed Scan

ANSWER

is given a user account with logon rights to various hosts. This method allows much more in-depth analysis, especially in detecting when applications or security settings may be misconfigured.

QUESTION 190

Banner grabbing

ANSWER

refers to probing a server like OS fingerprinting; however, it also involves opening random connections to common port or network protocols and gathering information from banner or error responses.

QUESTION 191

Microsoft's Policy Analyzer

ANSWER

is part of the Security Compliance Toolkit (SCT). It compares scanned hosts with a template of controls and configuration settings to determine system compliance.

QUESTION 192

Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM)

ANSWER

is a software management suite to manage a large amount of systems on multiple platforms. It does not include a policy analyzer tool and a LGPO tool.

QUESTION 193

The Department of Defense (DoD) 5220.22-M wipe method

ANSWER

involves a three-phase pass of writing 1s, 0s, and random characters onto a hard drive. This method will prevent the use of many software-based file recovery methods

QUESTION 194

Degaussing

ANSWER

is a method of erasing data on a hard drive with a powerful magnet. This process also renders the drive unusable because of permanent damage to the device's servo control data that is required to read and write.

QUESTION 195

Chain of trust

ANSWER

Relationship between subordinate certificate authorities

QUESTION 196

MTTF

ANSWER

Mean time to failure. The length of time you can expect a device to remain in operation before it fails. It is similar to MTBF, but the primary difference is that the MTBF metric indicates you can repair the device after it fails. The MTTF metric indicates that you will not be able to repair a device after it fails.

QUESTION 197

Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)

ANSWER

is a measure of the time taken to correct a fault so that the system is restored to full operation. Neither MTTF or MTBF can do this.

QUESTION 198

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) can be used to disable the USB ports on the motherboard.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 199

SATA

ANSWER

Serial Advanced Technology Attachment; interface that uses serial signals to transfer data, instructions, and information.

QUESTION 200

eSATA (External SATA)

ANSWER

Serial ATA-based connector for external hard drives and optical drives.

QUESTION 201

VIB (vSphere Installation Bundle)

ANSWER

is a zip file that provides additional features or integration capabilities with other devices, like NetApp storage.

QUESTION 202

SEP

ANSWER

Symantec Endpoint Protection is the commonly known anti-virus software that should be on every client image.

QUESTION 203

Process Explorer

ANSWER

It is part of Window's Sysinternals suite of tools. In addition to listing the running programs, Process Explorer can list the files and directories each process has open, as well as open handles and loaded DLLs.

QUESTION 204

SFC (System File Checker)

ANSWER

is a Windows tool used to manually verify operating system (OS) files.

QUESTION 205

Autoruns tool

ANSWER

which is part of Windows Sysinternals, can help with hunting down malware on a computer.

QUESTION 206

The WSUS (Windows Server Update Service) server

ANSWER

is a central repository for updates related to OS and applications like Microsoft Office. Once downloaded locally, WSUS distributes the updates to the client computers.

QUESTION 207

Storage segmentation

ANSWER

is personal data that is segmented from organizational data on a mobile device. It gives IT administrators control over corporate assets on employees' mobile devices.

QUESTION 208

baseband update

ANSWER

modifies the firmware of the radio modem used for cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, NFC, and GPS connectivity.

QUESTION 209

Jailbreaking

ANSWER

gives users the ability to obtain root privileges, sideload apps, change or add carriers and customize the interface. It is accomplished by booting the device with a patched kernel and can be done when the device is attached to a computer when it boots.

QUESTION 210

Indoor Positioning Systems (IPS)

ANSWER

finds a device's location by triangulating its proximity to other radio sources, such as Wi-Fi access points or Bluetooth beacons.

QUESTION 211

GPS tagging

ANSWER

is the process of adding geographical identification metadata, such as the latitude and longitude of where the device was located at the time, to media, such as photographs, SMS messages, video, and so on.

QUESTION 212

Device discovery

ANSWER

occurs when a device can be put into discoverable mode, meaning that it will connect to any other Bluetooth devices nearby, which can pose a security issue.

QUESTION 213

PANs

ANSWER

Personal Area Networks

QUESTION 214

Adaptive Network Topology (ANT)

ANSWER

is widely used in communicating health and fitness sensor data between devices. ANT+ is its associated product standard.

QUESTION 215

Both jailbreaking and rooting are methods that will give the user unrestricted access to a mobile device's entire file system.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 216

Implicit Transport Layer Security (FTPS)

ANSWER

negotiates an Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSl/TLS) tunnel before the exchange of any File Transfer Protocol (FTP) commands.

QUESTION 217

Explicit TLS (FTPES)

ANSWER

uses the AUTH TLS command to upgrade an unsecure connection.

QUESTION 218

Secure Shell (SSH) FTP (SFTP)

ANSWER

encrypted the authentication and data transfer between the client and server and a secure link is created between the client and server using SSH.

QUESTION 219

Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

ANSWER

is a connectionless protocol that provides file transfer services. It does not provide the guaranteed delivery offered by FTP.

QUESTION 220

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

ANSWER

provides an automatic method for network address allocation. As well, an IP address and subnet mask can include optional parameters.

QUESTION 221

Authentication Header (AH) protocol

ANSWER

performs a cryptographic hash on the packet plus a shared secret key (known only to the communicating hosts), and adds this HMAC (Hashed Message Authentication Code) in its header as an Integrity Check Value (ICV).

QUESTION 222

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+)

ANSWER

is more reliable than RADIUS. It uses TCP communications over port 49 and this reliable, connection-oriented delivery makes it easier to detect when a server is down. All of the data in TACACS+ packets is encrypted.

QUESTION 223

Directory services

ANSWER

is a network service that stores identity information in a particular network, including users, groups, servers, client computers, and printers.

QUESTION 224

stratum 2 server

ANSWER

would obtain the time from a stratum-1 server. Time must always be received from a higher level server.

QUESTION 225

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) v3

ANSWER

supports encryption and strong user-based authentication. Instead of community names, the agent is configured with a list of usernames and access permissions.

QUESTION 226

SNMPv1

ANSWER

uses community names that are sent in plaintext and should not be transmitted over the network, if there is any risk they could be intercepted. This protocol does not support encryption.

QUESTION 227

SNMPv2c

ANSWER

also uses community names that are sent in plaintext and should not be transmitted over the network, if there is any risk they could be intercepted. Like SNMPv1, this protocol does not support encryption

QUESTION 228

Management Information Base (MIB)

ANSWER

is the database that the agent within SNMP utilizes. The agent is a process that runs on a switch, router, server or other SNMP compatible network device.

QUESTION 229

What are most authentication and access control protocols dependent on?

ANSWER

Time synchronization

QUESTION 230

International frameworks

ANSWER

are governed by international standards and are to be implemented globally versus nationally

QUESTION 231

National Institute of Standards and Technology framework

ANSWER

regulates the cybersecurity risks and activities in the United States. It is part of the U.S. Department of Commerce and considered a national framework.

QUESTION 232

Regulatory frameworks

ANSWER

are based on specific laws and regulations and ensure compliance of those standards. Medical records are governed by regulatory laws.

QUESTION 233

Industry-specific frameworks

ANSWER

are governed according to the type of product provided. Financial information (i.e. credit card, bank account) is covered under industry-specific standards.

QUESTION 234

Control diversity

ANSWER

includes the use of multiple control types such administrative, technical and physical. This can include security guards (physical), IDS or Intrusion Detection System (technical), and penetration testing (administrative).

QUESTION 235

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

ANSWER

is a device used to generate, maintain and store cryptographic keys.

QUESTION 236

Vendor diversity

ANSWER

is the use of multiple vendors. This method increases security by adding several layers and also provides defense in depth to the network.

QUESTION 237

Defense-in-depth

ANSWER

uses a combination of control types for control diversity.

QUESTION 238

Secure Socket Layer (SSL) accelerator

ANSWER

is designed to offload tasks from servers allowing network load to be distributed. It can provide a seamless service to consumers of network applications, while balancing out session requests.

QUESTION 239

SSL decryptor

ANSWER

provides protection from malicious threats over secure connections and would be placed in the Demilitarized Zone (DMZ).

QUESTION 240

aggregation switch

ANSWER

can connect multiple subnets to reduce the number of active ports. When aggregating subnets, the subnets are connected to the switch.

QUESTION 241

wireless topology

ANSWER

is used to extend a wired local area network through the use of an antenna.

QUESTION 242

ad hoc zone

ANSWER

is created when two or more wireless devices connect to one another creating an on-demand network. This network architecture does not require an AP.

QUESTION 243

Firewalls

ANSWER

allow the network administrator to divide the network into different network segments known as zones

QUESTION 244

collector

ANSWER

combines multiple sensors to collect internet traffic for processing by an Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and other systems. Depending on its placement determines the type of traffic analyzed.

QUESTION 245

correlation engine

ANSWER

is part of a Security Information and Event Manager (SIEM). It captures and examines logged events to alert administrators of potential threats on a network.

QUESTION 246

Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID)

ANSWER

provide increased system availability and fault tolerance for disks.

QUESTION 247

Clustering

ANSWER

provides for high availability for servers and can remove the single point of failure. Clustering is similar to load balancing, but is more costly than RAID implementations.

QUESTION 248

extranet

ANSWER

is a zone created to allow authorized users access to company assets separate from the intranet.

QUESTION 249

intranet

ANSWER

is an internal company zone established to allow employees the ability to share content and communicate more effectively.

QUESTION 250

Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)

ANSWER

is a part of security as a service, and monitors network traffic between a company's network and cloud provider, enforcing security policies.

QUESTION 251

split tunnel VPN

ANSWER

administrators decide where traffic is routed. It can decipher whether traffic goes to a private network or not.

QUESTION 252

Isolating traffic

ANSWER

is the act of separating system services to protect applications from other parts of the system.

QUESTION 253

Creating an airgap

ANSWER

would physically isolate a system and its resources from other systems.

QUESTION 254

Automated triggers

ANSWER

are predefined security rules created in a SIEM that alert an administrator of malicious or suspicious events once triggered.

QUESTION 255

Aggregation in a SIEM

ANSWER

refers to the collection of data logs from multiple security devices.

QUESTION 256

Dynamic Network address translation (NAT)

ANSWER

uses multiple IP addresses to map one private IP to many public IP's, disguising them from the internet. It chooses which IP to use based on the load presented.

QUESTION 257

Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)

ANSWER

is radio frequencies emitted by external sources, such as power lines and lights that disturb data signals.

QUESTION 258

Shielding

ANSWER

can protect from data loss and interference. Electromagnetic Interference (EMI) can also be avoided through this method.

QUESTION 259

Self-Encrypting Drive (SED)

ANSWER

includes both the hardware and software to encrypt data on a drive. Keys are securely stored within for decryption.

QUESTION 260

mail gateway

ANSWER

examines incoming and outgoing email traffic. It can be configured to inspect email traffic for certain terms and force encryption based on policies. It can also deny email traffic that it views as vulnerable.

QUESTION 261

Least functionality

ANSWER

employs the principle of deploying systems with only the services and protocols required to perform the job.

QUESTION 262

master image

ANSWER

is a baseline for the system. This image includes the final product of software and security services running on a system.

QUESTION 263

Secure configuration of systems

ANSWER

refers to security measures that are implemented as a way to provide protection for computer systems.

QUESTION 264

Hardening an Operating System (OS)

ANSWER

is the practice of removing default values to ensure the system is more secure.

QUESTION 265

Multi-Level Security (MLS)

ANSWER

is an implementation of MAC that focuses on confidentiality. It is able to enforce the separation of multiple classifications of information.

QUESTION 266

hardware root of trust

ANSWER

is a known secure starting point by embedding a private key in the system. The key remains private until the public key is matched.

QUESTION 267

Secure boot

ANSWER

is a process that validates system files during the startup process to ensure they have not been modified.

QUESTION 268

Attestation

ANSWER

is the process of checking and validating system files during a boot process.

QUESTION 269

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

ANSWER

is a specification for a software program that connects a computer's firmware to its operating system. It is the replacement for BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) and has many advancements to include provisions for secure booting.

QUESTION 270

The Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) supports secure boot.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 271

sandbox

ANSWER

is an isolated environment that is often used for testing. Security, patches, and critical updates can be tested there also without touching the system before implementation.

QUESTION 272

staging environment

ANSWER

mimics that of production and allows for an environment to practice deployment. In the event deployment fails in this environment, it can roll back to the test and development environments.

QUESTION 273

production environment

ANSWER

is the final stage of the deployment effort. Testing in this environment would be too late, given it is the operational environment.

QUESTION 274

development environment

ANSWER

is a place for creation. Requirements are turned into reality in this environment. It is not a complete copy of production, but just the beginning of an application.

QUESTION 275

Error handling techniques

ANSWER

catch errors in action to avoid system failure. It is a secure coding method during the development process.

QUESTION 276

Code refactoring

ANSWER

is the process of improving existing code without changing its behavior and adding new requirements.

QUESTION 277

System on a Chip (SoC)

ANSWER

is a microchip that contains all necessary parts a computer needs to operate by itself. Examples include smartphones, tablets, and smartwatches. Data loss has become a primary security concern for theses systems.

QUESTION 278

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system

ANSWER

is an Industrial Control System (ICS) that is used to control infrastructure processes, facility-based processes, or industrial processes.

QUESTION 279

Infrastructure as Code (IaC)

ANSWER

is the process of managing data centers through automated means.

QUESTION 280

Code signing

ANSWER

verifies application code has not been modified by the use of digital signatures. The certificate provided with the signature identifies the author of the application and the code's authenticity. It is a secure coding practice.

QUESTION 281

Input Validation

ANSWER

verifies data is valid. It uses a set of rules to validate entries in fields for proper use. In the event an entry is invalid, the application will reject the entry.

QUESTION 282

Memory management

ANSWER

is the process of controlling and coordinating computer memory to maximize system performance. Poor memory management techniques can result in overflow issues.

QUESTION 283

stored procedure

ANSWER

is a set of Structured Query Language (SQL) statements stored in a database as a group, so it can be reused and shared by multiple programs. They can validate input.

QUESTION 284

Model verification

ANSWER

is the process of ensuring software meets its intended purpose and specifications.

QUESTION 285

state table

ANSWER

contains information about sessions between network hosts. This type of data is gathered by a stateful firewall.

QUESTION 286

static code analyzer

ANSWER

examines code quality and effectiveness without executing the code. It can be used in conjunction with development, for continued code quality checks or once the code is in its finalization stages.

QUESTION 287

Stress testing

ANSWER

attempts to simulate a production environment and focuses on the objective and threshold loads an application can handle while maintaining performance.

QUESTION 288

Regression testing

ANSWER

analyzes a running application to determine if changes have adversely affected the system.

QUESTION 289

Normalization

ANSWER

is used to optimize database performance by removing duplicates, use of primary keys, and related data contained in separate tables.

QUESTION 290

Client side input validation

ANSWER

verifies data is valid upon entry to the system.

QUESTION 291

Server side validations

ANSWER

occur on the web server or back-end and take more time to complete. It is more secure than client side validation.

QUESTION 292

Dynamic analysis

ANSWER

inspects code as it is running for code quality and vulnerabilities. Fuzzing is a common technique used.

QUESTION 293

Fuzzing

ANSWER

is a dynamic analysis technique that checks code as it is running. When using this technique, the system is attacked with random data to check for code vulnerabilities.

QUESTION 294

Continuous integration

ANSWER

allows for the merging of code changes into a central repository. The code is built and tested each time it is checked into the environment, providing a more efficient method to code production.

QUESTION 295

Provisioning

ANSWER

is the process of procuring, configuring and making available an application or system on certain services. Performing this on an application allows it to run on its intended platform.

QUESTION 296

Deprovisioning

ANSWER

is the act of removing or disabling access to a resource. Since the application has been replaced, the application should be deprovisioned to preserve resources.

QUESTION 297

waterfall method

ANSWER

maintains a top to bottom approach. When one stakeholder has finished a piece of work, the other can then begin. This approach ensures each phase of development is completed before another can proceed.

QUESTION 298

agile methodology

ANSWER

software development focuses on cross-functional teams working together throughout the life cycle of a project. This development encourages continued interaction between each stakeholder to produce continued deliverables at a quick pace.

QUESTION 299

DevOps

ANSWER

is an agile-like process that continually focuses on security. It also demands continuous interaction between stakeholders, but keeps security as a focus throughout the development.

QUESTION 300

Compiling code

ANSWER

occurs when a compiler is necessary to make the files executable. The compiler checks the code for errors, and if an error is found, it will not allow the code to execute.

QUESTION 301

Requirements gathering

ANSWER

is the process of collecting technical, functional and system necessities for a system.

QUESTION 302

kanban methodology

ANSWER

is an agile approach that focuses on the growth of products with continual delivery while not overburdening the development team.

QUESTION 303

Secure DevOps development model

ANSWER

combines the words development and operations. It is an agile-aligned model that includes security throughout its process.

QUESTION 304

immutable system

ANSWER

is the ability to create a secure image and test it in a controlled DevOps environment.

QUESTION 305

private cloud

ANSWER

is defined as computing services offered either over the Internet or within a private internal network. Only certain authorized users can access a private cloud infrastructure.

QUESTION 306

Public Cloud

ANSWER

exists on the premises of the cloud provider. A service provider makes resources available to the general public over the internet

QUESTION 307

Hybrid Cloud

ANSWER

is an environment that uses a mix of public, community and private cloud concepts with a single management platform.

QUESTION 308

community cloud

ANSWER

is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations that share a common interest.

QUESTION 309

Security as a Service (SECaaS)

ANSWER

is a part of the Software as a Service (SaaS) platform. It handles and manages security practices for a customer. Any security services provided in the cloud are a subset of SaaS cloud-based technologies.

QUESTION 310

PaaS provides security services.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 311

Type I Hypervisors

ANSWER

are virtualization solutions that run directly on system hardware. They do not require operating system involvement in order to run.

QUESTION 312

Type II Hypervisors

ANSWER

are virtualization solutions that run as software and do require a host operating system.

QUESTION 313

Virtual machine (VM) escape

ANSWER

refers to an unauthorized user taking control of a host machine through a VM. The attacker can take administrative control of the host and subsequently, the virtual machines connected.

QUESTION 314

Virtualization sprawl

ANSWER

is a phenomenon that occurs when the number of VM's on a network reaches a point where the administrator can no longer manage them effectively.

QUESTION 315

Distributive allocation

ANSWER

provides that multiple nodes are configured to work together on complex problems. A central processor divides the task into smaller pieces and coordinates tasking the nodes. If a single node fails, processing continues for a high availability solution.

QUESTION 316

Failover clusters

ANSWER

use multiple servers to maintain high availability for a server. One configuration remains active, while the other remains inactive. If the active node fails, the inactive one takes over the load.

QUESTION 317

Scalability

ANSWER

is the capacity to increase the workload on current resources.

QUESTION 318

Fault tolerance

ANSWER

is a product of redundancy and allows that, in the event of a crash, the system will maintain operations by removing the single point of failure. The system will continue to operate without notice.

QUESTION 319

automated scripting

ANSWER

can help keep systems in a secure state. It can continuously check configurations of a system and react accordingly to keep systems secure and available.

QUESTION 320

Access assessment

ANSWER

would be a process of evaluating what access users need to perform their jobs; this would not include implementation of policy.

QUESTION 321

account revocation

ANSWER

is more relevant to the closure of accounts and revocation of credentials than in the creation of a new account.

QUESTION 322

one-way trust

ANSWER

describes the relationship between parent and child domains. The child (in this case, IronCorp) trusts the parent (SteelCorp), but the parent does not trust the child.

QUESTION 323

Signature recognition technologies

ANSWER

match how the user applies their signature, analyzing aspects such as stroke, speed, and pressure, making it more difficult to spoof than a simple forgery.

QUESTION 324

Security Association Markup Language (SAML)

ANSWER

is not an identity provider; it is an open standard that allows identity providers (IdP) to pass authorization to service providers (SP). Shibboleth is both an IdP and an SP.

QUESTION 325

X.500 naming convention

ANSWER

the most specific attribute goes first, and definitions become broader further down the list. This option begins with the broadest definition.

QUESTION 326

distinguished name in an X.500 directory,

ANSWER

identifies a resource by attribute=value pairs, separated by commas. The attributes are listed in order from most specific to broadest term.

QUESTION 327

In what way does Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) protect against replay attacks?

ANSWER

The handshake is repeated with different challenge messages periodically throughout the session connection

QUESTION 328

Which of these correctly orders attributes of following the X.500 distinguished naming convention standard?

ANSWER

Common Name (CN), Organizational Unit (OU), Organization (O), Country (C), Domain Component (DC)

QUESTION 329

Analyze and select the items demonstrating advantages Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+) has over Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS). (Select two)

ANSWER

TACACS+ is similar to RADIUS, but Cisco designed it with flexibility in mind. Its connection-oriented delivery method increases reliability and flexibility. It is supported by third parties and open-source RADIUS implementations. All data in TACACS+ packets is encrypted (not just authentication data).

QUESTION 330

distinguished name

ANSWER

in an X.500 directory, or similar directory, this identifies a resource by attribute=value pairs, separated by commas. The attributes are listed in order from most specific to broadest term.

QUESTION 331

How does Security Association Markup Language (SAML) allow a Service Provider (SP) to trust an Identity Provider (IdP) in a federated network?

ANSWER

SAML tokens are signed with an eXtensible Markup Language (XML) digital signature

QUESTION 332

OpenID and OpenID Connect (OIDC)

ANSWER

are examples of user-centric identity management protocols, whereas SAML implementations are controlled by the system, or enterprise controlled. These use JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) and JSON Web Tokens (JWT) rather than eXtensible Markup Language (XML).

QUESTION 333

In the Server Manager tool menu, the person installing the RADIUS client chooses and confirms the shared secret for the RADIUS client.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 334

Name a primary difference between RADIUS and TACACS+.

ANSWER

TACACS+ is able to operate Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) functions separately, which gives it greater flexibility for device management, whereas RADIUS is used more for user network remote access.

QUESTION 335

What makes the basic version of Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) protocol vulnerable to Denial of Service (DoS) attacks?

ANSWER

The server does not require client authentication

QUESTION 336

The fact that transmissions are in plaintext makes the basic LDAP vulnerable to sniffing and man-in-the-middle attacks.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 337

Analyze the following statements and select the statement accurately describing the difference between OAuth and OpenID Connect (OIDC).

ANSWER

OAuth provides authorization services only, while OpenID Connect (OIDC) provides federated authentication

QUESTION 338

In an enterprise-controlled federated identity management solution, such as Security Association Markup Language (SAML), the choice of identity provider (IdP) is out of the user's hands, whereas, OpenID Connect is user-centric. The user selects their IdP.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 339

Compare features of Shibboleth and Security Association Markup Language (SAML) and determine what Shibboleth provides that SAML does not.

ANSWER

One of Shibboleth's main components, the Embedded Discovery Service, allows the user to choose a preferred identity provider. The user does not choose the identity provider in Security Association Markup Language (SAML).

QUESTION 340

In the Kerberos authentication system, the ticket granting ticket (TGT) is a logical token. What information does this ticket convey?

ANSWER

Time stamp, name and IP address

QUESTION 341

Which authentication protocols perform mutual authentication?

ANSWER

Kerberos and Microsoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)

QUESTION 342

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

ANSWER

is the ideal choice for assigning complex rule-based privileges. It makes access decisions based on subject and object attributes, as well as context-dependent and system-wide attributes, making it the most fine-tuned control.

QUESTION 343

A series of binary data are used for biometric enrollment. What information does this binary data store?

ANSWER

A biometric template

QUESTION 344

ACEs do not have to be in a certain order to enforce the ACL properly.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 345

What technical challenges must biometric technologies overcome to be more effective today?

ANSWER

Pattern matching from templates Biometric template storage and security

QUESTION 346

HMAC-Based One-time Password Algorithm (HOTP) and Time-Based One-time Password Algorithm (TOTP) use randomly generated numbers, not user-generated passwords.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 347

Susceptibility to interception is not a risk associated with one-time passwords.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 348

In Windows Active Directory, how do Organizational Units (OUs) help account managers designate permissions?

ANSWER

OUs divide a domain into different administrative realms

QUESTION 349

What vulnerability does User Account Control (UAC) protect against?

ANSWER

Using administrative accounts for mundane tasks

QUESTION 350

Generic Account Prohibition

ANSWER

It is best practice to use the default administrator accounts only to install the operating system (OS). Then they should be disabled. This makes it harder for attackers to find and compromise an admin account.

QUESTION 351

The rights and memberships of domain local and global groups are essentially opposite in scope.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 352

How does general account prohibition add a layer of safety to an Operating System (OS)?

ANSWER

General account prohibition makes it harder to identify and compromise an administrative account

QUESTION 353

workflow

ANSWER

is an onboarding process that involves identifying the roles and permissions users need. It is often a visual representation of an organization, organized by permissions and account types.

QUESTION 354

Privilege bracketing

ANSWER

The security method of allowing privileges to a user only when needed and revoking them as soon as the task is complete.

QUESTION 355

Microsoft's rule

ANSWER

"Accounts go into Global groups, which go into Domain Local groups, which get Permissions" (AGDLP)

QUESTION 356

Which type of service account has the most privileges?

ANSWER

System

QUESTION 357

In an Active Directory (AD), which type of group allows permissions over devices such as printers and file shares?

ANSWER

Domain local groups

QUESTION 358

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

ANSWER

is a contractual agreement setting out detailed terms (including support metrics) for future provided services.

QUESTION 359

Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

ANSWER

is used when any federal agency interconnecting its IT system to a third-party.

QUESTION 360

Adverse actions

ANSWER

are actions outlined and classified in a policy as a violation. Common ones that are part of a fair use policy are the use of equipment to defraud, defame, or to obtain illegal material. Prohibiting the use of cameras or video is also common.

QUESTION 361

Malicious actions

ANSWER

are actions intended to cause harm. Damaging company property, security breaches, and data theft are examples.

QUESTION 362

exploit

ANSWER

is the action of taking advantage of a weakness

QUESTION 363

Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)

ANSWER

is a formal agreement, or contract, that contains specific obligations rather than a broad understanding.

QUESTION 364

Privacy Threshold Analysis (PTA)

ANSWER

is an initial audit to determine whether a computer system or workflow collects, stores, or processes PII to the degree where a PIA must be performed.

QUESTION 365

Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)

ANSWER

is performed to identify vulnerabilities that may lead to data breach when storing, processing, and disclosing Personally Identifiable Information (PII). It also evaluates controls mitigating those risks.

QUESTION 366

system of records notice (SORN)

ANSWER

is a formal document listing PII maintained by a federal agency of the US government.

QUESTION 367

Incident Response Life Cycle

ANSWER

Preparation Detection & Analysis Containment, Eradication, & Recovery Post-Incident Activity

QUESTION 368

Tabletop Exercise

ANSWER

staff will "ghost" the same procedures as they would in a disaster, without actually creating disaster conditions or applying or changing anything.

QUESTION 369

Data integrity is typically the most important factor in prioritizing incidents and will often be based on the value of the at-risk data.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 370

Escalation

ANSWER

happens when additional senior staff become involved in the management of an incident.

QUESTION 371

order of volatility

ANSWER

serves as a guideline for determining what types of storage is more or less volatile than the other. Central processing unit (CPU) registers are extremely volatile. An Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache contains network addresses, and is highly volatile.

QUESTION 372

System memory is used for temporary storage, and is more volatile than a temporary file system

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 373

In terms of order of volatility, which is more volatile, a temporary file system or an ARP cache?

ANSWER

ARP cache

QUESTION 374

System memory is used for temporary storage, and is more volatile than cache memory.

ANSWER

False

QUESTION 375

System images

ANSWER

are copies of entire computer systems or data.

QUESTION 376

Image Acquisition

ANSWER

is a data backup/cloning technique, and is used in forensics.

QUESTION 377

Hashing should be used with system images.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 378

Legal holds

ANSWER

refer to information that may be relevant to a court case that must be preserved. This may include data or entire computer systems.

QUESTION 379

Preservation of evidence

ANSWER

is focused on ensuring evidence remains credible.

QUESTION 380

Keeping a valid timeline of events (such as a chain of custody) is an example of what?

ANSWER

preservation of evidence practice.

QUESTION 381

This is an example of snapshot technology.

ANSWER

Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS)

QUESTION 382

Synchronous replication is particularly sensitive to distance.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 383

Asynchronous replication

ANSWER

indicates data is mirrored from a primary site to a secondary site.

QUESTION 384

fair use policy is an example of what type of control?

ANSWER

Administrative control

QUESTION 385

Data sovereignty

ANSWER

describes the sociopolitical outlook of a nation concerning computing technology and information. Some nations may respect data privacy more or less than others. Care needs to be considered when storing such data.

QUESTION 386

technical control

ANSWER

is implemented in operating systems, software, and security appliances. Examples include Access Control Lists (ACL) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS). An ACL is used to provide access to a system resource.

QUESTION 387

Administrative security controls

ANSWER

are used to determine behavior through policies, procedures, and guidance.

QUESTION 388

compensating control

ANSWER

does not prevent an attack, but can restore functionality of systems through other means, such as a backup.

QUESTION 389

corrective control

ANSWER

responds to and fixes an incident. It may also prevent reoccurrence. An example is antivirus software.

QUESTION 390

deterrent control

ANSWER

may not physically or logically prevent access, but psychologically discourages an attacker from attempting an intrusion. A warning sign is an example.

QUESTION 391

detective control

ANSWER

may not prevent or deter access, but it will identify and record any attempted or successful intrusion. A security camera system is an example.

QUESTION 392

data owner

ANSWER

has the ultimate responsibility for maintaining the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information asset. They are also responsible for labeling the asset (such as determining who should have access and determining the asset's criticality and sensitivity).

QUESTION 393

data steward

ANSWER

is primarily responsible for data quality. This involves tasks such as ensuring data is labeled and identified with appropriate metadata, and that data is collected and stored in a format that complies with regulations.

QUESTION 394

data custodian

ANSWER

is responsible for managing the system where the data assets are stored. This includes responsibility for enforcing access control, encryption, along with backup and recovery measures.

QUESTION 395

system administrator

ANSWER

is responsible for ensuring the upkeep of the technical systems that provide functionality for the business.

QUESTION 396

Pulping

ANSWER

takes shredding one step further. Once data (such as documents) are subjected to shredding, the remains can be mixed with water (for example) for further destruction. Note that in this case, data is mentioned and not a storage disk which would likely use another method.

QUESTION 397

Archives

ANSWER

refer to sets of data. Since

QUESTION 398

data in use

ANSWER

is when data is present in volatile memory, such as system RAM or CPU cache.

QUESTION 399

data at rest

ANSWER

state means that the data is in some sort of persistent storage media. Examples of data include archived audiovisual media.

QUESTION 400

data in transit

ANSWER

is when data is transmitted over a network. The data can be sent over the WAN to its final location through a virtual private network (VPN).

QUESTION 401

In-band key exchange

ANSWER

(over an unencrypted channel) uses asymmetric encryption. The secret key is encrypted with recipient's public key and is decrypted by recipient's private key.

QUESTION 402

Out-of-band key exchange

ANSWER

involves sending the key by courier or transmitting it verbally. However, these methods increase the risk that the key will be compromised.

QUESTION 403

ticket granting service

ANSWER

is used by Kerberos for authentication services. Single Sign-On (SSO) services rely on Kerberos.

QUESTION 404

What is another term used for a "session key" when being exchanged in a digital envelope?

ANSWER

Secret key

QUESTION 405

Side Channel Attack

ANSWER

Gathering outside information by watching how it behaves with the goal of uncovering the encryption key. It means monitoring things like timing, power consumption, and electromagnetic emanation. These have a physical relation.

QUESTION 406

Keyspace

ANSWER

is a range of key values available to use with a particular cipher. It is approximately equivalent to two to the power of the size of the key. Using a longer key, such as 2048 bits rather than 1024 bits, makes the encryption scheme stronger.

QUESTION 407

substitution cipher

ANSWER

is an obfuscation technique where each unit of plaintext is kept in the same sequence when converted to ciphertext, but the actual value of the unit changes.

QUESTION 408

transposition cipher

ANSWER

the units stay the same in plaintext, but the order is changed according to a mechanism. For example, "HLOOLELWRD" would mean "HelloWorld".

QUESTION 409

Ciphertext

ANSWER

is data encoded with a cipher, which is an algorithm used to encrypt or decrypt data.

QUESTION 410

Ephemeral key

ANSWER

is the main component of ECDHE that gives it perfect forward secrecy. There is a different secret key for each session during transport.

QUESTION 411

PRNG (pseudorandom number generation)

ANSWER

is the process by which an algorithm produces numbers that approximate randomness without being truly random.

QUESTION 412

OTP (one time pad)

ANSWER

is an unbreakable encryption mechanism. It consists of exactly the same number of characters as the plaintext and must be generated by a truly random algorithm.

QUESTION 413

Confusion

ANSWER

means the key should not be derivable from the ciphertext. This can be achieved through more complex substitution and transposition operations.

QUESTION 414

Diffusion

ANSWER

means if any one bit of the plaintext is changed, many bits in the ciphertext will change. It is obtained through transposition.

QUESTION 415

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)

ANSWER

is a type of trapdoor function used to generate public/private key pairs. Combined with D-H Ephemeral Mode (ECDHE), it provides a Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) mechanism for Transport Layer Security (TLS).

QUESTION 416

DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm)

ANSWER

is an adaptation of ElGamal's algorithm used for encryption and digital signing, rather than simply a mechanism for agreeing to a shared secret.

QUESTION 417

Group

ANSWER

can be any mathematical operation with the properties of a trapdoor function. Common groups used are group 1 (768-bit), group 2 (1024-bit), group 5 (1536-bit), and group 2048 (2048-bit).

QUESTION 418

ElGamal

ANSWER

Based on Diffie-Helmann and was invented in 1984 by Taher Elgamal. It is used in PGP implementations and GNU Privacy Guard software. The algorithm is comprised of 3 parts: the key generator, the encryption algorithm, and the decryption algorithm. This was made publicly available.

QUESTION 419

GCM (Galois Counter Mode)

ANSWER

combines the ciphertext with a type of message authentication code (GMAC), like an HMAC (hash-based message authentication code), to provide native message integrity.

QUESTION 420

CTM (Counter Mode)

ANSWER

functions like a stream cipher, but each block is combined with a nonce (non-repeating) counter value. This allows each block to process in parallel using multi-core CPUs.

QUESTION 421

ECB (Electronic Code Book) mode

ANSWER

applies the same key to each plaintext block. This indicates identical plaintext blocks can output identical ciphertexts, making the ciphertext vulnerable to cryptanalysis.

QUESTION 422

CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) mode

ANSWER

improves ciphertext integrity by applying an Initialization Vector (IV) to the first plaintext block and ensures the key produces a unique ciphertext from any given plaintext.

QUESTION 423

Bcrypt

ANSWER

is used in key stretching.

QUESTION 424

Key stretching

ANSWER

involves the initial key going through thousands of rounds of hashing. This makes it harder to apply brute force attacks on password hashes.

QUESTION 425

PBKDF2 (Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2)

ANSWER

is also used for key stretching like Bcrypt.

QUESTION 426

CBC (Cipher Block Chaining)

ANSWER

is not a cipher, rather a cipher mode applying an Intitialization Vector (IV) to improve ciphertext integrity and ensure a unique ciphertext with any plain text.

QUESTION 427

Password-Based Key Derivation Function 2 (PBKDF2) uses RSA security's public key cryptography standards (PKCS#5).

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 428

FIPS or Federal Information Processing Standards

ANSWER

is a set of standards adopted for use on government systems. The Secure Hashing Algorithm (SHA) is an example of a hashing algorithm listed there.

QUESTION 429

ROT13 (an example of a Caesarian cipher)

ANSWER

otates each letter 13 places (so A becomes N for instance). This is how the ciphertext "Uryyb Jbeyq" means "Hello World".

QUESTION 430

XOR operation

ANSWER

encodes a message where a value is combined with the plaintext message. XOR produces 0 if both values are the same, and 1 if the values are different.

QUESTION 431

PSK (Pre-shared Key)

ANSWER

is the password needed to gain access to a WAP. An example is a WPA2 enabled PSK. Using a personal password will not work.

QUESTION 432

Although a company's splash page or captive portal may advertise free Wi-Fi, it may only be for a predefined time. After this predetermined time, a payment must be made for extended access.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 433

open configuration

ANSWER

means setting no security configurations on the WAP. It can also mean removing all other security settings like MAC filtering or disabling ports to ensure a specific setting may not be blocking network access.

QUESTION 434

802.1x

ANSWER

is a Port-Based Network Access Control (PNAC) mechanism that uses Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP). Selecting the "Enterprise" option on a wireless router enables the use of 802.1x.

QUESTION 435

RADIUS federation

ANSWER

means that multiple organizations allow access to one another's users by joining their RADIUS servers into a RADIUS hierarchy or mesh.

QUESTION 436

For Guest Wi-Fi connections, 802.1x are almost never implemented.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 437

user certificate

ANSWER

is the most common certificate loaded onto an employee's smart card. In a Windows Active Directory environment, a user certificate will identify the user, and grant user access.

QUESTION 438

machine certificate

ANSWER

is not loaded onto a card, rather installed on a machine such as a server. It identifies the machine from a trusted CA (Certificate Authority) hierarchy.

QUESTION 439

wildcard certificate

ANSWER

describes a certificate used with multiple subdomains of a domain. These are not usually placed on a smart card.

QUESTION 440

SAN (Subject Alternative Name)

ANSWER

is an extension field on a web server certificate using multiple subdomain labels to support the identification of the server.

QUESTION 441

trust model

ANSWER

is a concept of the PKI (Public Key Infrastructure) to show how users and different CAs (Certificate Authorities) can trust one another. This is detailed in a certificate's certification path leading back to the root CA.

QUESTION 442

Stapling

ANSWER

is a term used with OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) that uses a SSL/TLS web server to make periodic requests from a CA about certificate statuses to reduce resource demands.

QUESTION 443

Certificate pinning

ANSWER

refers to validating a website's certificate by checking public keys of previously known certificates in the chain. It is not dependent on an offline CA.

QUESTION 444

root CA (Certificate Authority)

ANSWER

is the top level of the certificate hierarchy.

QUESTION 445

The intermediate Certificate Authority (CA) or subordinate CA

ANSWER

is in the middle of the certificate hierarchy.

QUESTION 446

The issuing CA

ANSWER

is the third level of the certificate hierarchy.

QUESTION 447

Registration

ANSWER

is a built-in function of certificate authorities. However, the function can be delegated to one or more of these authorities. These do not sign or issues certificates.

QUESTION 448

PFX or .pfx or .p12 extension

ANSWER

allows the export of a certificate along with its private key and is password protected. Commonly used to archive or transport a private key.

QUESTION 449

P7B or .p7b extension

ANSWER

bundles multiple certificates into a single file. It is often used to deliver a chain of certificates that must be trusted by the processing host. It does not contain a private key.

QUESTION 450

CER or .cer extension

ANSWER

is an actual certificate that can contain either binary DER (Distinguished Encoding Rules) or ASCII PEM data.

QUESTION 451

DER (Distinguished Encoding Rules)

ANSWER

All certificates use an encoding scheme to create a Binary form of a certificate instead of ASCII PEM format. Can have extensions of either .der or .cer.

QUESTION 452

certification path, also known as "certificate chaining" or a "chain of trust,"

ANSWER

is a verifiable path of the leaf certificate to the root CA (Certificate Authority). Both web certificates must show the same path.

QUESTION 453

HPKP (HTTP Public Key Pinning)

ANSWER

is a method of trusting digital certificates to bypass the CA hierarchy and chain of trust, and minimize MITM attacks. The client stores a public key that belongs (or is pinned) to a web server. If visiting again and the key does not exist in the certificate chain, a warning is presented.

QUESTION 454

CSR (Certificate Signing Request)

ANSWER

is a Base64 ASCII file sent by a subject to a CA to get a certificate.

QUESTION 455

Private organizations must load employee web browsers with internal root certificates to verify internal websites.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 456

A computer certificate is only installed on a server for which it identifies. Computer certificates are not shared.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 457

code signing certificate

ANSWER

is issued to a software publisher. The publisher uses this to sign the executables or DLLs that make up the program and guarantee the validity of a software.

QUESTION 458

registration authority

ANSWER

is a server assigned the task to complete identity checks and submit CSRs on behalf of end users. However, they do not actually sign or issue certificates.

QUESTION 459

CRT or .crt extension

ANSWER

is the same as a .cer file extension. It is a basic certificate that contains information about the subject.

QUESTION 460

three-level Certificate Authority (CA) hierarchy

ANSWER

can be described with a root server at the top-level, an intermediate or subordinate in the middle, and an issuing that issues signed certificates to users, computers, and other services.

QUESTION 461

Server or computer certificates can be issued to network appliances, such as routers, switches, and firewalls to identify itself to the network to gain access to the Local Area Network (LAN).

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 462

Pinning

ANSWER

refers to several techniques to ensure it is inspecting the proper certificate when a client inspects the certificate presented by a server or a code-signed application. An examples of this is submitting two or more public keys to an HTTP browser.

QUESTION 463

Extended Validation (EV)

ANSWER

refers to a more rigorous check on a subject's legal identity and control over the domain before issuing a certificate.

QUESTION 464

Domain Validation (DV)

ANSWER

is proving the ownership of a domain, which may be proved by responding to an email to the authorized point of contact. This process is highly vulnerable to compromise.

QUESTION 465

X.509

ANSWER

is a certificate standard and format.

QUESTION 466

Certificates with wrong server names can still be recognized and trusted by its root CA. It will not invalidate a certificate's chain of trust.

ANSWER

True

QUESTION 467

Worms

ANSWER

are memory-resident viruses that replicate over network resources.

QUESTION 468

Viruses

ANSWER

These spread from computer to computer, usually by "infecting" executable applications or program code.

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