Comptia A Certification Practice Test

The main functionality of the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is to perform the initial hardware checks after the computer is powered on and start up the operating system. True or False

Which of the following resources can be used by an Operating System (OS) to communicate with hardware? (Select 2 answers) Device Manager Secure Shell (SSH) Device drivers System BIOS Command-Line Interface (CLI)

In modern PCs, the procedure of replacing BIOS contents is sometimes referred to as: Hard boot Overclocking Flashing the BIOS Direct memory access (DMA)

BIOS updates are performed in order to: (Select all that apply) -Repair damaged BIOS -Fix physical hardware faults found in replaceable components inside the computer's case -Provide support for new types of attached hardware -Fix known programming errors discovered in the current BIOS version

Which of the following terms refer to BIOS types that can be updated without removing the BIOS chip from a motherboard? (Select 2 answers) EEPROM ROM Plug and Play (PnP) EPROM Flash Memory

Which Microsoft Windows OS utility can be used to view basic information about computer's BIOS? WINVER.EXE MSINFO32.EXE Control Panel SERVICES.MSC

Power failure during BIOS upgrade can be the cause of irreversible damage to the computer system. True or False

After a normal system shutdown, when the computer is turned off, contents of the memory used to store BIOS settings are: Erased Retained Stored in a page file Saved on a hard drive

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by the startup BIOS after the computer is powered on? IDE POTS QoS POST

After replacing a modular hardware component inside computer case, the updated information about specific parameters of the new device can be stored in: (Select 2 answers) System BIOS Flash memory Startup BIOS Secondary storage CMOS RAM

After completing the initial diagnostics and assigning system resources, the startup BIOS program checks for information about secondary storage devices that might contain the OS. The list of devices and the order in which they should be checked can be found and arranged in the CMOS setup utility, and this option is commonly referred to as: Boot record Master Boot Record (MBR) Partition table Boot sequence

In order to work, an integrated component such as Network Interface Card (NIC) on a newly assembled computer system may need to be first: Enabled in Windows Control Panel Updated with the latest driver in Device Manager Checked against the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) Enabled in the advanced BIOS settings menu

After launching Windows Virtual PC application a technician receives error message stating that the Hardware-Assisted Virtualization (HAV) feature is not enabled on the computer. Which of the following steps might help in fixing this problem? -Increasing the amount of physical RAM on the system -Re-installation of the Windows Virtual PC application -Getting into the CMOS setup utility and enabling the virtualization technology setting -Safe mode troubleshooting

The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing: -Reset button on the front panel of a computer case -The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing CMOS setup utility during boot -Del key during boot -F1 key while logged in Windows

CMOS settings can be set to factory defaults by: (Select all that apply) -Using a jumper that can be found on the motherboard -Changing settings in Windows Device Manager -Reseating the CMOS battery on the motherboard -Choosing the default configuration option in the CMOS setup utility

Which of the following answers refers to a firmware interface designed as a replacement for BIOS? UEFI ACPI CMOS USMT

What kind of user permission restrictions can be set in BIOS? (Select all that apply) -Group Policy settings -Windows User Account Control (UAC) settings -User password required to proceed when the computer is powered on -Password-restricted access to the BIOS setup utility (Supervisor password)

Which of the following statements is true? -Aborted BIOS update can be resumed by the transaction recovery system -A common security measure is to store BIOS on a non-rewritable memory chip -The process of BIOS update can be aborted and resumed at a later time -Aborted BIOS update could render the computer unusable

Which type of password provides the highest level of permissions in BIOS? root Supervisor Administrator Power User

What is LoJack? -Loopback adapter -Security feature used for locating stolen desktops, laptops, or tablets -Connector standard -RJ-11 plug

Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows for storing passwords, certificates, or encryption keys in a hardware chip? Access Control List (ACL) Encrypting File System (EFS) User Account Control (UAC) Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

While trying to enable the entire drive encryption feature in Windows technician receives the following error message: "A compatible Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Security Device must be present on this computer, but a TPM was not found". Knowing that the system has a TPM chip installed, which of the following steps might help in solving this problem? Re-installation of the OS Enabling the TPM security feature in CMOS setup menu Hard drive replacement Enabling the TPM security feature in Windows Control Panel

Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the features of UEFI? (Select all that apply) -DRM support -GUI mode -Mouse support -Support for hard drives with a maximum of 4 partitions per drive -Secure boot -Support for partitions/hard drives of up to 2TB -Network access

A computer supporting LoJack technology has two main components installed: an Application Agent residing in the operating system which sends tracking signals to the monitoring center allowing the law enforcement to locate and recover stolen device, and Persistence Module which restores the Application Agent and allows it to survive operating system re-installation or hard drive format. The highest level of security offered by LoJack can be achieved when Persistence Module resides in: Operating system Partition gap on the hard drive Computer's BIOS USB key

A UEFI functionality designed to prevent the loading of malware and unauthorized OSs during system start-up is known as: LoJack Bitlocker Secure boot Kerberos

What is the function of a SMTP server? Email handling Serving of web pages Name resolution File storage & sharing

Which of the server types listed below is used for the purpose of verification of the identity of a person or process? Proxy server DNS server Authentication server Web server

The term "Unified Threat Management" (UTM) refers to a network security solution (commonly in the form of a dedicated device called UTM appliance) which combines the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as for example URL filtering, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection, intrusion detection or prevention, content inspection, or malware inspection. True or False

The term "Intrusion Detection System" (IDS) refers to a device or software application designed to detect malicious activities and violations of security policies on a network and/or computer host. An IDS designed to monitor networks is known as Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS), an IDS installed on a particular host monitoring only that host is called Host Intrusion Detection System (HIDS). IDSs do not take any active steps to prevent or stop the intrusion relying only on passive response which may include sending an alert to a management console or saving information about the event in logs. True or False

Which of the following actions can be taken by an IDS? (Select 2 answers) Firewall reconfiguration Closing down connection Logging Terminating process Sending an alert

Which of the answers listed below illustrates the difference between passive and active security breach response? HIPS vs. NIPS UTM vs. Firewall CSMA/CD vs. CSMA/CA IDS vs. IPS

Which of the following statements describe(s) the characteristic features of open-source applications? (Select all that apply) -Proprietary software -Permission to modify and redistribute the application -Free access to the application code -Permission to use the application only under certain conditions -Lack of free access to the application code

Windows Phone, iOS, and Android are all examples of closed-source operating systems. True or False

Mobile apps for iOS are available for purchase and download through which of the following online marketplaces? Amazon Appstore App Store Windows Marketplace for Mobile Google Play

Which of the marketplaces listed below offer(s) apps for Android-based devices? (Select all that apply) App Store Google Play Windows Marketplace for Mobile Amazon Appstore

Modern mobile devices have the capability to present landscape or portrait views of the device's screen based on the way the device is being held. Which of the following built-in functionalities allows for determining screen orientation in those devices? Hypervisor Geotracking Accelerometer Gyroscope

Which of the following built-in functionalities available in modern mobile devices supplements the function of an accelerometer by offering more accurate recognition of movement within a 3D space? Direct3D Multitouch Gyroscope Hypervisor

Resistive touchscreen displays rely on the electrical properties of the human body to detect when and where on a display the user is touching. Because of this, resistive displays can be controlled with very light touches of a finger and generally cannot be used with a mechanical stylus or a gloved hand. Another characteristic feature of resistive touchscreens is that they do not require screen calibration. True or False

Capacitive touchscreen displays are composed of two flexible sheets coated with a resistive material and separated by an air gap or microdots. Pressure applied to the surface of the display by a finger or stylus causes the layers to touch, which completes electrical circuits and tells the device where the user is touching. As such, capacitive touchscreens require much more pressure to activate than resistive touchscreens as well as periodic screen calibration in order to be able to register the exact touch location. True or False

A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other GPS-enabled devices is known as: Geotagging Wireless survey Geotracking Tethering

Which of the solutions listed below was designed to alleviate cellular network coverage problems? Wi-Fi Calling Voice over IP (VoIP) Route aggregation Quality of Service (QoS)

A type of mobile user interface presenting the main view of the device with a group of shortcut icons to apps is known as: Title screen Launcher Virtual assistant Desktop

Which of the following acronyms refers to a set of tools used for developing applications for a specific platform? GUI SDLC API SDK

A package file format used by Android OS for distribution and installation of mobile apps is called: XAP APK IPA EXE

Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology that enables carrying out mobile payment transactions with the use of the physical phone device? WAP NFC IR RFC

A wireless network Access Point (AP) or site offering public wireless Internet access is commonly referred to as: Hotspot Proxy Hub Gateway

Which of the following terms refers a mobile device's capability to share its Internet connection with other devices? Pairing Clustering Tethering Bonding

The term "Airplane mode" refers to a functionality that allows to disable wireless transmission capability on a device that comes equipped with this feature. True or False

A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices centered around a single workstation is known as: PAN LAN SAN MAN

The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as: Linking Three-way handshake Crosstalk Pairing

Which of the following tools are used to provide protection against ESD? (Select all that apply) Antistatic bag Ground mat Tech bench Antistatic wrist strap

Examples of devices/device components regulated under special disposal procedures due to environmental/safety hazards include: (Select all that apply) PSUs Batteries CRTs Toner cartridges LCDs

Which of the following devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage? (Select all that apply) CRTs Power supplies Inverters CPUs Laser printers

A document describing procedures for safe handling, use, storage and disposal of potentially hazardous materials is called: AUP MSTSC MAU MSDS

Which of the terms listed below refers to an environmental control system? SCADA HIPS TEMPEST HVAC

The term "Brownout" refers to what kind of situation? Power spike Electromagnetic interference Temporary drop in voltage Power outage

What does the term "Blackout" refer to? Power outage Electromagnetic interference Power spike Drop in voltage

A device designed to provide emergency power during an unexpected main power source outage is called: UPS PoE SVC PSU

Which of the following solutions add(s) redundancy in areas identified as single points of failure? (Select all that apply) Virtualization RAID Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) Backup generator

A device designed to protect electronic devices from large voltage fluctuations is known as: Power Supply Unit (PSU) Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) Surge suppressor Voltage regulator module (VRM)

Which of the following tools would be used to clean the inside of a laser printer? (Select all that apply) Regular vacuum Cleaning brush Can of compressed air Toner vacuum

In cases where users are found in violation of policies related to prohibited content or activity, the elements of first response should include: (Select all that apply) Consulting co-workers Reporting through proper channels Multi-factor authentication Problem identification Data/device preservation

In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as: Proxy list Order of volatility Access log Chain of custody

A type of control access technology providing protection against copyright infringements is called: OEM EULA DRM AUP

An agreement granting a user the right to use software application in a manner determined by the software vendor is known as: AUP RMA EULA DRM

Which of the following acronyms refers to any type of information pertaining to an individual that can be used to uniquely identify that person? PIN Biometrics PII PKI

Examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult customer include: (Select 2 answers) -Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem -Restating the issue to verify understanding -Adjusting to the technical user conversation style by using technical jargon -Asking close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "Yes" or "No" -Clarifying customer statements by interrupting them if necessary

Which of the following is an example of good communication skills when dealing with a customer? -Asking close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "Yes" or "No" -Arguing with a technical user if necessary to educate them -Listening to the customer and avoiding interruptions until he or she has finished describing the problem -Relying on your own judgment and not restating/clarifying what the customer says

Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of appropriate handling of customer's confidential data in a situation where troubleshooting requires user's password? -Ask user to type in the password themselves -Ask user for password and their consent to use it -Break the password -Ask user for password and provide them with help in setting up new password after the problem is fixed

Which of the following actions should be the first step in the troubleshooting process? -Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem -Conducting external or internal research based on problem symptoms -Identifying the problem -Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem

Establishing a theory of probable cause of the problem is a troubleshooting step that apart from conducting research based on symptoms may also involve asking for assistance of a more experienced tech. True or False

Once the theory of probable cause of the problem has been established, the next troubleshooting step should involve: Verifying full system functionality Testing the theory to determine the problem cause Implementing the solution Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem

Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology process is to: Conduct research based on symptoms Test the theory to determine problem cause Implement the solution Establish a theory of probable cause of the problem

According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures should be performed: After documenting findings, actions and outcomes As the first step of the troubleshooting process After implementing the solution As the last step of the troubleshooting process

The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventive measures. True or False

If an application written for an earlier version of MS Windows doesn't run correctly the operating system can emulate its own older version to allow a given program to work with newer hardware or software. The compatibility mode settings in Windows can be changed manually by right-clicking the program icon and: -Choosing "Restore previous versions" option from the pop-up menu -Selecting "Run program using recommended compatibility settings" option from the pop-up menu -Clicking on the Properties menu item, and then applying the required settings on the Compatibility tab -Selecting "Run as administrator" option from the pop-up menu

Program Compatibility Troubleshooter is a Windows system utility used for automatic resolution of problems with older applications failing to run on newer versions of MS Windows. Program Compatibility Troubleshooter can be accessed via the Troubleshooting applet in Windows 7/8/8.1 Control Panel. Selecting the "Run programs made for previous versions of Windows" option in the Troubleshooting applet launches a guided tool for fixing problems with older programs installed on the current version of Windows. True or False

Which of the following could cause slow performance of a hard drive? (Select 3 answers) Disk striping File fragmentation Disk mirroring Disk thrashing Insufficient amount of RAM Disk duplexing

Disk Defragmenter is a software tool used for rearranging data on disks and drives in order to improve system performance. Defragmentation results in faster read/write operations of the magnetic hard drive's read/write heads as they can access the data sequentially without seeking data fragments in different areas of the disk (defragmentation consolidates data into smallest contiguous regions). True or False

What is the correct sequence of steps for launching the disk defragmenter utility in MS Windows? (Select 3 answers) -In Windows Vista/7: Open Windows Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Click on the Computer menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select Properties from the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Tools tab -In Windows 8/8.1: Open Windows Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Click on the Computer menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select Properties from the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Hardware tab -Press the R key while holding the Windows Logo key -> type in "cmd" (without quotation marks), and hit Enter -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility by typing in DEFRAG with the appropriate command switch -In Windows Vista/7: Open File Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Click on the This PC menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select Properties from the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Hardware tab -In Windows 8/8.1: Open File Explorer by pressing the E key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Click on the This PC menu item list on the left to display all drives -> Right-click on the drive and select Properties from the pop-up window -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility available on the Tools tab -Press the R key while holding the Windows Logo key -> Launch the disk defragmenter utility by typing in "DEFRAG" (without quotation marks) and pressing Enter

Similarly to magnetic drives, Solid State-Drives (SSDs) require periodic defragmentation in order to improve system performance. True or False

Which of the following might be the cause of slow computer system performance? (Select all that apply) Unpatched OS Disk mirroring Malware presence OS power management options Disk striping File fragmentation Disk thrashing

Automatic booting into Safe mode on a Windows-based host might be caused by: (Select 2 answers) Overheating MSCONFIG settings RAID failure Malware presence Corrupt device driver

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to troubleshooting solution(s) used when a Windows-based host does not start in Normal mode, but only in Safe mode? (Select all that apply) System Restore Change in boot order Driver rollback Troubleshooting system startup files Malware removal Startup Repair utility

Examples of MS Windows system utilities that allow to pinpoint corrupt device drivers include: (Select 2 answers) Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC) Event Viewer (EVENTVWR) Computer Management (COMPMGMT.MSC) Performance Monitor (PERFMON) Task Manager (TASKMGR)

Which of the Control Panel applets in Windows 7/8/8.1 provides access to a system tool used for troubleshooting mismatched file associations? File Explorer Options Default Programs Sync Center Programs and Features

Which of the answers listed below refer to possible causes of the "NTLDR is missing" error message displayed during system boot? (Select 2 answers) Kernel panic Damaged hard drive Corrupt NTLDR file Improper shutdown The system is trying to boot from a non-bootable drive

Which of the following solutions would be of help in troubleshooting the "NTLDR is missing" error message displayed during system boot? (Select all that apply) Startup Repair utility Disconnecting any external drives Safe mode troubleshooting Adjusting the boot sequence in CMOS setup utility System File Checker (SFC.EXE)

One of the fixes for the "NTLDR is missing" error message during system boot relies on replacing the corrupt NTLDR file with the same file copied from another Windows host using the same operating system (Windows XP), or restoring it from the Windows XP installation CD. Copying the NTLDR file manually requires access to the command-line interface which can be found as one of the options available in the Advanced Boot Options menu displayed after pressing the F8 key during system boot. After gaining access to the CLI, the NTLDR file can be restored with the COPY command from an external storage device (e.g. USB flash drive) to the root folder (typically C:\) of the drive containing the corrupt version of the file. True or False

While trying to start their Windows machine, a user receives "Windows Boot Configuration Data file is missing required information" error message. Which of the following BOOTREC options should be used by a technician for manual CLI troubleshooting of this error? BOOTREC /ScanOs BOOTREC /RebuildBcd BOOTREC /FixMbr BOOTREC /FixBoot

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to possible cause(s) of the "Missing operating system" error message displayed during system boot? (Select all that apply) Damaged hard drive BIOS does not detect the hard drive Windows starts in VGA mode System partition not set as active Kernel panic Corrupt Master Boot Record (MBR)

Which of the following actions would be of help in troubleshooting the "Missing operating system" error message displayed during system boot? Run Startup Repair utility Use BOOTREC.EXE to fix Master Boot Record (MBR) errors Verify that the drive is detected in BIOS Use DISKPART utility to label the system partition as active All of the above

Which of the solutions/software tools listed below would be of use when troubleshooting a missing system GUI in MS Windows? (Select all that apply) Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC) Safe mode video driver update Control Panel Display applet System File Checker (SFC.EXE) VGA mode

The term "Live CD" typically refers to a compact disc (although other types of media such as DVD or USB can also be used to offer similar functionality) with a fully operational bootable Linux operating system distribution (the term is also used with reference to other OSs) which is run in the computer's memory thus eliminating the need for its installation on the hard drive. Live CDs can be used as an OS installation media, but also provide a convenient way for testing a given distro before installation as well as means for troubleshooting various OS-related problems. True or False

"Kernel panic" is a term used to describe stop errors in: (Select all that apply) Windows Linux Android Mac OS

Which of the following locations would be the right source for finding information pertaining to a digital certificate validity? User Account Control (UAC) applet Web browser padlock icon menu Storage Spaces Control Panel applet Windows Security Account Manager (SAM)

Which of the file-related symptoms might indicate that the system has been infected by malware? Renamed system files Missing files File permission changes Denied file access All of the above

One of the best practices for malware removal involves the process of isolation of files and applications suspected of containing malware in order to prevent further execution and potential harm to the user's system. This process is referred to as: Quarantine Content filtering Protected mode Blacklisting

One of the recommended ways for enhancing a mobile device's security includes employing a web-based service (an app scanner) that allows users to check for known potential security/privacy risks related to a mobile application before downloading/purchasing the app. True or False

The term "Cell tower analyzer" refers to a software tool that can be used for obtaining data on coverage, location, and signal strength of a Wi-Fi network. True or False

A type of memory module form factor most commonly used for extending the capacity of primary storage in laptop computers is called: SO-DIMM SRAM MicroDIMM RDIMM

Which of the answers listed below refers to a memory type commonly used as an additional external storage in laptops? ROM Flash USB Magnetic drive

What is the most common type of laptop port used for the purpose of connecting peripheral devices? eSATA USB FireWire PS/2

Which of the following functionalities allows to overcome standard keyboard size restrictions in laptops? Touchpad Numeric keypad Fn key Digitizer

Internal hard drive types used in laptop computers include: (Select all that apply) Flash drives SSHDs USB drives Magnetic disks SSDs

Which of the following answers describe the features of Solid-State Drives (SSDs)? (Select 3 answers) Low performance High device cost Lower capacity compared to magnetic drives High performance Low device cost Higher capacity compared to magnetic drives

What is the name of an HDD type that combines high performance and capacity at a relatively low device cost? SSD Flash drive Magnetic drive USB drive SSHD

Which of the statements listed below refer to the characteristic features of traditional magnetic drives? (Select 3 answers) High capacity Low device cost High performance Low capacity High device cost Low performance

Which of the following answers lists the most common magnetic drive form factor used in laptops? 3.5-inch 5.25-inch 1.8-inch 2.5-inch

SSD form factors used in laptop computers include: (Select 2 answers) 1.5-inch 5.25-inch 1.8-inch 2.5-inch 1.3-inch

What is the most common battery type that can be found in modern portable devices? Alkaline Nickel-metal hydride Lithium-ion Nickel-cadmium

Compared to port replicators, docking stations: Cannot be used with portable computers Usually offer additional ports and capabilities Offer exactly the same features Usually offer less ports and capabilities

Which of the devices listed below offers the least amount of options when it comes to hardware upgrades that can be performed by the device user? Laptop Workstation Desktop Tablet

Portable devices combining the capabilities of mobile phones and handheld PCs are commonly referred to as: Phablets Smartphones PDAs Thick clients

The term "Phablet" refers to a type of mobile device designed to combine the format of smartphones and tablet computers. True or False

Which of the following answers refers to a portable device type designed primarily for the purpose of reading books in digital format? Phablet E-reader Subnotebook Digitizer

Which of the following technologies can be used by devices communicating in a WPAN? (Select all that apply) Bluetooth IEEE 802.3 Near Field Communication (NFC) Infrared (IR) 100BASE-T

A proprietary connector type used by Apple mobile devices is known as: 8P8C connector Lightning connector BNC connector Lucent Connector (LC)

A Wireless Access Point (WAP) or site offering public wireless Internet access is commonly referred to as: Hotspot Proxy Hub Gateway

The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing: (Select best answer) Reset button on the front panel of a computer case The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing CMOS setup utility during boot Del key during boot F1 key while logged in Windows

The Advanced Boot Options screen allows for starting Windows in advanced troubleshooting modes. The Advanced Boot Options menu can be accessed by turning on the PC and pressing a function key before Windows starts. Which of the following keys provides access to that menu? F1 Del F8 Esc

Unexpected system shutdowns and reboots can be caused by overheating of the PC's internal components. True or False

Which of the answers listed below refers to launching Windows only with default settings and basic device drivers? Standby mode System restore Safe mode Guest account

A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-frequency radio waves to communicate with each other is commonly referred to as: MAN WLAN LAN VLAN

The disadvantage from using this device results from a fact that any incoming signal on any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports, which in turn forces all the connected devices to share the total amount of available bandwidth. Hub Switch Access point Bridge

Which of the following answers refers to a data link layer (Layer 2) device designed to forward data packets between Local Area Network (LAN) segments? Router Hub Switch Firewall

A device designed to filter and transfer IP packets between dissimilar types of computer networks is called: Hub Switch Load balancer Router

An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to as: Captive portal Access Point (AP) Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) Active hub

What type of device would be the most convenient for interconnecting two or more physically separated network segments? Wireless bridge Layer 3 switch Wireless Access Point (WAP) Cable modem

Which of the devices listed below allows for establishing a communication channel over a PSTN? Analog modem ICS server Multilayer switch Default gateway

Which of the following devices can be installed in an AMR slot? Video adapter card CPU Modem Keyboard

A software or hardware that checks information coming from the Internet and depending on the applied configuration settings either blocks it or allows it to pass through is called: Antivirus Firewall Antispyware Malware

A simple device consisting of multiple computer ports arranged in rows used for the purpose of cable management is known as: F-connector Media converter Main Distribution Frame (MDF) Patch panel

A type of network device that amplifies received signal so it can be transmitted over greater distance without loss in quality is called: Patch panel Multiplexer Repeater Passive hub

Which of the answers listed below refers to a network device that allows to overcome limitations related to the maximum allowable cable segment length? Passive hub Extender Patch panel Multiplexer

A computer networking technology that enables sending data over wiring used for transmission of electrical power is called: PLC ECP PoE EPP

Which of the following acronyms refers to a solution that allows for carrying both data and electrical power over a single twisted-pair Ethernet cable? EPP PoE ECP PLC

Which of the following tools would be used for attaching RJ-45 connectors to a twisted-pair Ethernet cable? Cable tester Needle-nose pliers Punchdown tool Crimper

What is the name of a tool used for removing electrical insulation cover from electric wires? Cable crimper Snips Wire stripper Punchdown tool

Which of the tools listed below would be used for testing power supply voltage output? Torx screwdriver Toner and probe kit Loopback plug Multimeter

What is the name of a networking tool used for locating a cable in a cabling bundle or tracing individual wires in a cable? Spectrum analyzer Toner and probe kit Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) Multimeter

A type of tool used for verifying correct electrical connections of wires in a cable is known as: Loopback plug Tone generator Cable tester Multimeter

While troubleshooting problems with a Network Interface Card (NIC), connector pins on the NIC's port can be tested with the use of: POST card Cable tester Multimeter Loopback plug

Which of the networking tools listed below is used for attaching wires to a patch panel? Cable crimper Punchdown tool Cable stripper Needle-nose pliers

Which of the following networking tools would be of help in determining the optimal placement of a WAP? Pentest Vulnerability scanner Proximity reader Wi-Fi analyzer

A hardware solution designed to extend the functionality of a laptop computer by providing the capability to add various types of devices on an external expansion card is called: xD card ExpressCard SD card CompactFlash (CF)

A hardware technology designed as a replacement for the PCMCIA standard is called: PC Card CompactFlash (CF) CardBus ExpressCard

ExpressCard /34 and ExpressCard /54 are two form factors specified by the ExpressCard standard. Numbers after slash in these two form factors refer to the card's: Width Length Thickness Speed

A router configuration feature that allows for opening an inbound port temporarily based on the outbound requests made by hosts placed inside a private network is called: Port triggering Port bonding Port forwarding Port mirroring

A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is commonly referred to as: VPN Bridge VLAN DMZ

Which of the following solutions is used to hide the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device? NAC ACL NAT DMZ

A solution that alleviates the problem of depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private LAN to share a single public IP address is known as: DNS APIPA NAT DHCP

Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) provides a permanent mapping between a private IP address and a public IP address on a one-to-one basis. True or False

Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between private IP address and any of the IP addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool. True or False

Which of the following solutions allows network administrators to prioritize certain types of network traffic? NAC UAC NAT QoS

A software embedded into a hardware chip is commonly referred to as: Adware Shareware Malware Firmware

A type of architecture that simplifies networking by allowing devices to dynamically join a network, autoconfigure, and learn about the presence and capabilities of other devices is known as: DHCP UPnP S.M.A.R.T UEFI

Which of the answers listed below refers to zero-configuration networking? WAP UPnP TKIP PnP

Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network? WPA WPS UPnP WAP

Examples of technologies that are not recommended and should be disabled due to their known vulnerabilities or other security risks they might pose include: (Select 3 answers) WPS WAP UPnP WEP TKIP

The use of cable modems within a standard cable television infrastructure for Internet access is commonly referred to as: Broadband cable Frame relay Metro-Ethernet Dial-up

Which of the following enables broadband Internet access based on the cable television infrastructure? SONET GBIC DOCSIS SCADA

What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access? VDSL ADSL SDSL UDSL

Which of the following Internet access types takes advantage of the traditional PSTN lines? Fiber-optic Mobile broadband Dial-up WiMAX

Which of the Internet connection types listed below types is the slowest? Dial-up Cable Satellite DSL Fiber

Which of the following choices refers to an Internet connection type that offers the highest data signaling rate? DSL Dial-up Cable Satellite Fiber

What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select all that apply) Lack of signal interference Signal latency High connection speed Interference (weather dependent) Relatively low connection speed High connection speed

Which of the following solutions allows for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network services over a PSTN? WiMAX PoE ISDN HSPA+

A network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is commonly referred to as a: PAN LAN MAN WAN

A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is known as: PAN LAN MAN WAN

The Internet is an example of a large public WAN. True or False

A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among various types of personal devices centered around a single workstation is called: PAN LAN SAN MAN

A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city or campus is called: PAN LAN MAN WAN

Phishing scams targeting a specific group of people are generally referred to as: Vishing Spear phishing Spoofing Whaling

An email sent from an unknown source disguised as the source known to the message receiver is an example of: (Select 2 answers) Spoofing Dictionary attack Trojan horse Brute forcing Social engineering Tailgating

Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol used in the most common types of spoofing attacks? SMTP RDP SNMP Telnet

An unauthorized practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating people into disclosing sensitive data is known as: Zero-day attack MITM attack Social engineering Backdoor access

Which of the following fall(s) into the category of social engineering attacks? (Select all that apply) MITM attack Spear phishing Dictionary attack Shoulder surfing Zero-day attack Tailgating

In computer security, a situation in which an unauthorized person is able to view another user's display or keyboard to learn their password or other confidential information is known as: Spear phishing Tailgating Shoulder surfing Spoofing

A zero-day attack exploits: New accounts Patched software Vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software developer Well known vulnerability

A computer that has been compromised by a virus or Trojan horse that puts it under the remote control of an online hijacker is called: Honeypot Zombie Logic bomb Proxy

Which of the following terms is used to describe a collection of intermediary compromised systems under control of a hacker? Honeynet Botnet Intranet Malware

An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check all possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack. True or False

Which of the password attacks listed below takes advantage of a predefined list of words? Replay attack Birthday attack Dictionary attack Brute-force attack

What type of security measure is in place when a client is denied access to the network due to an outdated antivirus software? NAS DMZ NAC NAT

Which of the following answers refer(s) to the implementation of best security practices in a corporate environment? (Select all that apply) User education Strong authentication Principle of least privilege Patch/update management Appropriate data destruction and disposal methods Virtualization support

What is tailgating? Acquiring unauthorized access to confidential data Looking over someone's shoulder in order to get information Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person Manipulating a user into disclosing confidential information

Which of the following is an example of active eavesdropping? Spoofing Zero-day attack Spear phishing MITM

The term "Mantrap" refers to a physical security access control system used to prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to restricted areas by following another person. An example mantrap could be a two-door entrance point connected to a guard station wherein a person entering mantrap from the outside remains locked inside until he/she provides authentication token required to unlock the inner door. True or False

Which of the security controls listed below is used to prevent tailgating? Hardware locks Mantraps Video surveillance EMI shielding

Which of the following provides physical security measure against laptop theft? Cable locks Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Geotracking LoJack for Laptops

Which of the tools listed below allows for secure disposal of physical documents? Shredder Hard drive sanitation Degaussing tool Recycle Bin

A type of identification badge that can be held within a certain distance of the reader to authenticate the holder is called: ID badge Smart card Security token RFID badge

Privacy filter (aka privacy screen) is a protective overlay placed on the computer screen that narrows the viewing angle so data is only visible directly in front of the monitor and cannot be seen by others nearby. Privacy filter is one of the countermeasures against shoulder surfing. True or False

Which of the following prevention methods fall(s) into the category of physical security controls? (Select all that apply) Key fob Door lock Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Biometrics Access Control List (ACL) RFID badge Firewall

The two factors that are considered important for creating strong passwords are: Password length Minimum password age Password history Password complexity Maximum password age

Authentication process can be based on different categories of authentication factors, including unique physical traits of each individual such as fingerprints ("something you are"), physical tokens such as smart cards ("something you have"), or user names and passwords ("something you know"). Additional factors might include geolocation ("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns, such as for example keyboard typing style ("something you do"). Multifactor authentication systems require implementation of authentication factors from two or more different categories. True or False

Which of the following examples meets the requirement of multifactor authentication? Password and biometric scan Username and PIN Smart card and identification badge Iris and fingerprint scan

Which of the following is an example of a valid subnet mask? 255.255.225.0 255.255.191.0 255.255.127.0 255.255.64.0 None of the above is a valid subnet mask

Which of the answers listed below refers to a CIDR notation for 255.255.224.0 subnet mask? /19 /20 /21 /22

What is the binary representation of 255.255.128.0 subnet mask? 11111111.11111111.10000000.00000000 11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000 11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000

Which of the following answers lists a CIDR notation for 255.255.128.0 subnet mask? /16 /17 /18 /19

Information required for manual configuration of network adapter settings in MS Windows includes: (Select all that apply) IP address Subnet mask Default gateway MAC address DNS server address SSID (aka network name)

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Control Connection for administering a session is established through port number: 20 22 21 25

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Data Connection for sending file data is established through port number: 23 25 20 21

The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol uses: Port 23 Port 25 Port 21 Port 22

Port number 23 is assigned to: Secure Shell (SSH) File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Telnet Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operates with the use of port: 110 25 143 23

Which of the following port numbers is used by Domain Name System (DNS)? 25 23 53 67

Port number 80 is used by: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS) Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) Telnet

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on port: 110 143 123 443

Port 143 is assigned to: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Which of the port numbers listed below is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)? 80 443 53 143

A network technician uses a Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS in order to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection? 1701 139 3389 548

Which of the following port numbers are reserved for NetBIOS services? (Select all that apply) 136 161 137 162 138 139

Port 445 is used by: (Select 2 answers) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) Server Message Block (SMB) Common Internet File System (CIFS) Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS) Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

What is the port number for Service Location Protocol (SLP)? 143 427 548 443

Which of the port numbers listed below is used by an Apple-proprietary file sharing protocol? 427 443 445 548

What is the function of POP3? Sending email messages Retrieving email messages from a mail server Translating domain names into IP addresses File exchange

IMAP4 is used for: Serving web pages Translating domain names into IP addresses Retrieving email messages from a mail server Sending email messages

A secure version of the HTTP protocol offering traffic encryption is known as: (Select all that apply) HSPA HTTP over SSL HSRP HTTP over TLS HTTPS

A Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with a graphical interface for connecting to another computer over a network is known as: RDP IPP RIP WAP

Which of the following would be in use when a WINS server tries to resolve a host name into an IP address on a Windows-based LAN? TCP/IP NetBIOS Telnet DNS

A laser printer component applying high temperature and pressure to bond the toner to the paper is called: Print head Transfer roller Fuser assembly Imaging drum

Which of the answers listed below refers to the correct sequence of steps in the laser printing process? -Processing, exposing, charging, transferring, developing, fusing, cleaning -Developing, cleaning, exposing, transferring, charging, fusing, processing -Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning -Cleaning, fusing, exposing, developing, transferring, processing, charging

In impact printing, calibration helps to ensure that the colors and layout represented on the monitor display match the colors and layout of the printed image. True or False

Which of the printer types are used in Point of Sale (PoS) systems? Inkjet Laser Thermal Impact

Which of the following printer types fall(s) into the category of impact printers? (Select all that apply) Laser Inkjet Daisy wheel Thermal Dot matrix

Which type of printer takes advantage of tractor feed during printing process? Inkjet Laser Impact Thermal

Which of the printer types listed below provide(s) the capability to produce duplicate pages (multipart forms) during printing process? (Select all that apply) Inkjet Thermal Impact Dot matrix Laser

Which of the following printer types use inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper? (Select 2 answers) Inkjet Daisy wheel Dot matrix Thermal Laser

A single sheet or roll of printing paper with holes punched along each side is designed for use with: Laser printers Dot-matrix printers Inkjet printers Thermal printers

Which of the printing methods utilizes the XPS format? Laser printing Inkjet printing Thermal printing Virtual printing

File formats commonly used in virtual printing include: (Select 2 answers) XPS GDI PCL PDF TXT

Which of the following answers refers to a legacy parallel printer port? RS-232 LPT COM USB

A language used for describing the appearance of a printed page is called: DLT CCFL SSL PCL

A Microsoft Windows OS component responsible for representing graphical objects and transmitting them to output devices such as monitors and printers is called: GDI IDS PostScript PCL

Which of the following allow(s) for print device sharing over a wired connection? (Select all that apply) USB Parallel 802.11x Bluetooth Ethernet Infrared (IR) Serial

Parallel printer cable connector examples include: (Select 2 answers) USB type A connector RJ-45 Ethernet cable connector Centronics connector USB type B connector DB-25 connector

Which of the answers listed below refer to parallel printer port operation modes? (Select 2 answers) ECP EFS ERD EPP ECC

Examples of network protocols designed to enable remote printing include: (Select 2 answers) IMAP RDP Telnet IPP LPD/LPR

Which of the following allow(s) for print device sharing over a wireless connection? (Select all that apply) Bluetooth Ethernet 802.11x Parallel USB Infrared (IR)

What are the characteristic features of fiber-optic cabling? (Select 3 answers) -High signal attenuation -Immunity to electromagnetic interference -Less suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling -Provides higher level of security than copper cabling (difficult to tap into) -Low bandwidth capacity -More suitable for carrying digital information than copper cabling

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to connector type(s) used with fiber-optic cabling? (Select all that apply) ST DB-25 SC RG-59 LC RG-6

RJ-11 and RJ-45 are connector types used with: Twisted-pair cabling Coaxial cabling Fiber-optic cabling Twinaxial cabling

An Ethernet crossover cable uses: -T568A pin/pair assignments on both ends -T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the opposite end -BNC connectors on both ends -T568B pin/pair assignments on both ends

Which of the following connector types are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers) ST MT-RJ BNC LC F-connector

The advantages of multi-mode fiber-optic cabling over single-mode cabling include data transfer rates over longer distances, higher speed, and lower cost. True or False

Which of the display standards listed below uses the 16:10 aspect ratio? XGA SXGA UXGA WUXGA

Examples of connectors providing the capability for carrying both video and audio signals include: (Select 2 answers) S-Video S/PDIF DVI-I DisplayPort HDMI

Which of the following answers refers to the features of DisplayPort? Analog video connector Audio only connector Digital audio/video connector Analog audio connector Video only connector

Which of the connector types listed below are used with coaxial cabling? (Select 2 answers) ST MT-RJ BNC LC F-connector

The PS/2 connector is a 6-pin Mini-DIN connector used for connecting: (Select all that apply) Modem Sound card Mouse Hard drive Keyboard

In computer security, the term "Biometrics" refers to physical characteristics of the human body that can be used for identification and access control purposes. True or False

Which of the following are biometric devices? (Select all that apply) Retinal scanner Flatbed scanner Iris scanner Barcode reader Fingerprint reader

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the function of digitizer? (Select all that apply) -Translates analog data into a format suitable for computer processing -Output device -An example of motion detector device -Component of a mobile device's screen that allows to control the device with a fingertip -An example of media converter device -Input device

Common areas of implementation of smart card reader devices include: (Select 2 answers) Physical security Mobile devices Computer networking Digital security Commerce

Which of the following answers refer to the examples of output devices? (Select 3 answers) Printer Barcode reader Display device Smart card reader Motion sensor Speaker

What is the name of a hardware device that allows for administering multiple hosts with the use of a single mouse, keyboard, and computer screen? Device Manager KVM switch Set-top box Port replicator UTM appliance

The term "Smart TV" refers to a type of advanced television set that enables more interactive user experience by offering additional features such as web browsing or video streaming. True or False

A standalone appliance connected to a TV set or other display device that enables receiving television signal and/or Internet data is commonly referred to as: Smart TV Thick client Set-Top Box UTM appliance

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a technical standard for digital representation and transmission of sound? MAPI MIDI MIME MIMO

Which of the following answers refer(s) to device(s) capable of providing both input and output functions? (Select all that apply) Touch screen KVM switch Touch pad Keyboard Smart TV Set-Top Box MIDI enabled devices

A printer's capability to print on both sides of a paper sheet is known as: Duplex printing Dual printing Double printing Simplex printing

In printing, the term "Collation" refers to a configuration setting for organizing printer output in a specific order. True or False

Network printer sharing through a wired connection can be implemented with the use of which of the following interfaces? (Select all that apply) Parallel USB Bluetooth Serial 802.11x Ethernet

An infrastructure device designed for connecting wireless/wired client devices to a network is commonly referred to as: Demarc Access Point (AP) Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) Active hub

A wireless networking topology in which client devices communicate directly with each other without the use of a controlling Access Point (AP) is known as: (Select 3 answers) Mesh topology Ad hoc mode Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) Peer-to-peer mode Infrastructure mode

Wireless interfaces that can be used for the purpose of network device sharing include: (Select 2 answers) 802.11x Serial USB Bluetooth Ethernet

A common network communication protocol used for enabling two hosts to establish a network connection and exchange data is known as: STP WPS UTP TCP

Which of the answers listed below refers to an Apple technology that allows for automatic discovery of services and network-enabled devices on a local network? iCloud Bonjour Spotlight Boot Camp

An Apple technology built into most popular printer models enabling network printing service without the need for manual configuration from the user side is called: AirPort TCP/IP AirPrint Bonjour

Which of the following answers refers to a laser printer component responsible for transferring the toner and image or text to the paper? Feeder Print head Duplexing assembly Imaging drum

What type of hardware components would be the most important for a custom Home Theater PC (HTPC)? (Select all that apply) TV tuner Surround sound audio HDMI output Motherboard form factor Specialized GPU Multicore CPU

A computer on a network where most functions are carried out on a central server, or a software application that uses client-server model wherein the server performs all the processing is commonly referred to as: Thick client Active Hub Thin client Virtual machine

Which of the following hardware components should be given priority in order to ensure optimal performance of a home server PC? (Select 2 answers) High-end video Gigabit NIC Multicore processor HDD RAID setup Specialized audio

Which of the LCD technologies listed below offers the fastest response time? Twisted Nematic (TN) Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) Ultra Extended Graphics Array (UXGA) In-Plane Switching (IPS)

What are the characteristic features of the In-Plane Switching (IPS) LCD panel technology? (Select 3 answers) High color quality Fast response times Wide viewing angles Low color quality Slow response times Low viewing angles

Which of the following answers describe the features of the Twisted Nematic (TN) LCD panel technology? (Select 3 answers) Low viewing angles Fast response times Low color quality High color quality Slow response times Wide viewing angles

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to an LCD panel taking advantage of fluorescent lamps? LED CCFL DFS OLED

Which of the following answers describe the function of a power inverter? (Select 2 answers) Converts AC power into DC power Used for supplying voltage to backlights of an LCD panel Converts DC power into AC power Used for supplying voltage to backlights of an OLED display

Examples of devices posing risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage include: (Select all that apply) CRTs Power supplies Inverters CPUs Laser printers

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a new type of thin and lightweight display devices offering higher contrast ratio and color quality in comparison to LCD without the need for a special light source to produce a visible image? OLED LED HDMI HTPC

In computer graphics, the frequency at which the screen is redrawn is called: Aspect ratio Interlacing Refresh rate Screen resolution

Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply) -A digital image displayed on the graphics monitor screen consists of pixels arranged in rows and columns -The term "screen resolution" refers to the maximum number of pixels in each dimension (horizontal and vertical) that can be addressed by a digital display device -In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a CRT monitor it is usually recommended to set the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the CRT's native resolution) -The term "screen resolution" refers to the relative horizontal and vertical size of a digital image displayed on the graphics monitor screen -The smallest unit of a digital image represented on the digital display device is known as pixel -In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a LCD monitor it is usually recommended to set the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the LCD's native resolution)

What type of unit is used to describe the refresh rate of a computer screen? Hz cd/m2 MHz Lumen KHz

Which of the following units is used for measuring the brightness of an image rendered by an image projector? dB cd/m2 Lumen Hz

The brightness of an LCD display screen is measured in: Hz Lumens dB cd/m2

Which of the following countermeasures prevents shoulder surfing? Cable locks Video surveillance Privacy filters Security guards Screensavers

A monitor filter used to reduce reflection from the surface of a CRT or LCD display is called: Widescreen Antiglare Flat panel Privacy filter

The relative horizontal and vertical size of a digital image displayed on the graphics monitor screen is referred to as: Frame rate Screen resolution Aspect ratio Native resolution

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of the Extended Graphics Array (XGA) display standard? (Select 2 answers) 4:3 aspect ratio 1280 x 1024 resolution 16:10 aspect ratio 1024 x 768 resolution 5:4 aspect ratio 1920 x 1200 resolution

Display devices with aspect ratios of 16:10 and 16:9 are commonly referred to as: UXGA displays Fullscreen displays Widescreen displays WUXGA displays

The Super Extended Graphics Array (SXGA) display standard features: (Select 2 answers) 1024 x 768 resolution 5:4 aspect ratio 1280 x 1024 resolution 16:10 aspect ratio 1920 x 1200 resolution 4:3 aspect ratio

Which of the following answers refers to the standard display format for HDTV? 4:3 aspect ratio 5:4 aspect ratio 16:9 aspect ratio 16:10 aspect ratio

What are the characteristic features of the Ultra Extended Graphics Array (UXGA) display standard? (Select 2 answers) 16:10 aspect ratio 1920 x 1200 resolution 5:4 aspect ratio 1280 x 1024 resolution 4:3 aspect ratio 1600 x 1200 resolution

Which of the answers listed below refer to the Widescreen Ultra Extended Graphics Array (WUXGA) display standard (Select 2 answers) 16:10 aspect ratio 1600 x 1200 resolution 4:3 aspect ratio 1024 x 768 resolution 4:3 aspect ratio 1920 x 1200 resolution

Which of the following display standards use(s) the 4:3 aspect ratio? (Select all that apply) XGA SXGA UXGA WUXGA

Which of the following connector types are used with twisted-pair copper cabling? (Select all that apply) ST RJ-45 RG-6 RJ-11 F-connector BNC RG-59

What are the characteristic features of the RJ-11 connector? (Select 2 answers) Used with telephone cabling Copper cabling connector Used with Ethernet network cabling Fiber-optic cabling connector Coaxial cabling connector

Which of the connector types listed below plugs into a port of an Ethernet NIC? DB15 S/PDIF RCA RJ-45

What are the characteristic features of the RJ-45 connector? (Select 2 answers) Used with telephone cabling Coaxial cabling connector Used with Ethernet network cabling Copper cabling connector Fiber-optic cabling connector

A single copper-based Thunderbolt cable provides the capability for a simultaneous transfer of: (Select all that apply) Data from connected PCI Express (PCIe) devices DC power Data from connected DisplayPort devices AC power

Which of the following answers lists the maximum allowable length for Thunderbolt copper cabling? 3 meters 4.5 meters 5 meters 10 meters

What is the maximum length of a fiber-optic Thunderbolt cable? 30 meters 40 meters 50 meters 60 meters

Thunderbolt v1 supports data transfer rates of: (Select 2 answers) 15 Gbps per channel 20 Gbps (total bandwidth) 10 Gbps per channel 40 Gbps (total bandwidth) 20 Gbps per channel 30 Gbps (total bandwidth)

Thunderbolt v2 allows for combining two physical channels into a single logical channel which results in a maximum available throughput of up to: 10 Gbps 20 Gbps 30 Gbps 40 Gbps

Thunderbolt v3 increases the bandwidth offered by its predecessors to: 10 Gbps 20 Gbps 30 Gbps 40 Gbps

Connector types used with Thunderbolt devices include: (Select 2 answers) USB Type-A DVI-A Mini DisplayPort (MDP) USB Type-B VGA connector USB Type-C

Which of the following answers list(s) examples of wireless connectivity media? (Select all that apply) RF HDMI IEEE 802.3 IR NFC Bluetooth

The 15-pin ATX PSU SATA power connector supplies electrical power at the voltage(s) of: (Select all that apply) +3 V +3.3 V +4 V +5 V +12 V

Which of the auxiliary PC connectors is used for supplying dedicated power to the CPU? 4/8-pin 12v P1 PCIe 6/8-pin T568B

Which of the following connectors would be used to increase the power consumption limit for a high-end graphics card? T568A 15-pin VGA PCIe 6/8-pin 4/8-pin 12v

The optional 6-pin PCIe connector increases the maximum allowable power consumption of a PCIe card by additional 75 Watts. True or False

The optional 8-pin PCIe power connector increases the power consumption limit for connected device to: 75 W 150 W 25 W 125 W

ATX PSU connectors providing main power to the PC motherboard consist of: (Select 2 answers) 14 pins 20 pins 22 pins 24 pins 28 pins

PC Power Supply Units (PSUs) may accept an AC current of 110-120 volts (standard AC current in the United States and Canada) or 220-240 volts (European AC standard). A PSU might have either a manual selector switch on the back of the device for adjusting the supplied voltage (these types of PSUs are referred to as fixed-input devices), or automatically adapt to the supplied AC voltage (auto-switching PSUs). True or False

Which of the acronyms listed below refers to the type of electric current supplied to most of the internal PC components? AC PFC DC A/V

PC Power Supply Units (PSUs) capable of operating with either 110-120 or 220-240 volt power input ranges are referred to as dual rail PSUs. True or False

Which of the hardware requirements listed below should be given priority while assembling a custom graphic/CAD/CAM design workstation? (Select 3 answers) High-end GPU Multicore CPU High-end cooling Maximum amount of RAM High-capacity HDD Dual monitors

What type of hardware components would be the most important for an A/V editing workstation? (Select all that apply) Maximum amount of RAM Specialized sound card Dual monitors Specialized GPU Multicore CPU High-capacity fast HDD

For best performance, a custom workstation designed for virtualization tasks requires: (Select 2 answers) High-capacity HDD Maximum amount of RAM Specialized GPU High-end cooling Multicore CPU

Which of the following hardware requirements should be given priority while building a PC designed for computer gaming? (Select all that apply) Dual monitors Multicore CPU High-capacity fast HDD Specialized GPU High-end cooling High definition sound card

Which of the following statements refer(s) to the IEEE 1394a standard? (Select all that apply) Data transfer rate of up to 800 Mbps FireWire 400 Data transfer rate of up to 480 Mbps FireWire 800 Data transfer rate of up to 400 Mbps Parallel bus interface standard

Cable length for FireWire devices is limited to: 18 inches 2 meters 4.5 meters 5 meters

A single IEEE 1394 host controller can support up to: 255 devices 127 devices 15 devices 63 devices

Which of the following statements refer(s) to the IEEE 1394b standard? (Select all that apply) Data transfer rate of up to 400 Mbps FireWire 800 Parallel bus interface standard FireWire 400 Data transfer rate of up to 480 Mbps Data transfer rate of up to 800 Mbps

Which types of standard FireWire connectors have the capability of supplying voltage to a device? (Select 2 answers) 2-pin connector 4-pin connector 6-pin connector 8-pin connector 9-pin connector

For optical connections, The IEEE 1394b standard extends the maximum allowable cable length to 100 meters. True or False

What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 1.0 standard? 1.5 Gbps 1 Gbps 2.5 Gbps 3 Gbps

The SATA standard specifies a power connector consisting of: 7 pins 34 pins 40 pins 15 pins

A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect a motherboard slot with: Up to 3 devices Up to 2 devices Only 1 device Up to 4 devices

What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 2.0 standard? 480 Mbps 3 Gbps 800 Mbps 6 Gbps

The SATA standard defines data cable connector consisting of: 40 pins 34 pins 15 pins 7 pins

What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard? 6 Gbps 800 Mbps 3 Gbps 480 Mbps

What is the maximum length for external SATA (eSATA) cable? 5 meters 2 meters 1 meter 18 inches

"DB-15", "DE-15", and "HD-15" are terms referring to the different variants of the: RJ-45 connector BNC connector VGA connector 8P8C connector

Which of the answers listed below refers to the Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector? PCIe 6/8-pin connector Three-row 15-pin connector Two-row 40-pin connector Three-row 29-pin connector

Examples of interfaces providing the capability for transmission of both video and audio data include: (Select all that apply) S/PDIF DVI S-Video VGA HDMI

Which of the following answers list the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the VGA connectors and cables? (Select 2 answers) Video and audio Audio Video only Digital and analog Analog only

Which of the answers listed below describe the characteristic features of the signal that can be carried through the HDMI connectors and cables? (Select 2 answers) Analog signal Video only Digital signal Audio only Video and audio

Which of the following interfaces takes advantage of the 19-pin Type A connector? USB Thunderbolt FireWire DisplayPort HDMI

Which of the Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types does not provide support for digital signal transmission? DVI-D DVI-A DVI-I DVI-A/D

Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristic features of S/PDIF? (Select all that apply) Twisted-pair cabling Digital audio interface Coaxial cabling Video interface Fiber-optic cabling

"Phono connector", "Cinch connector", and "A/V jack" are terms that refer to a popular type of electrical connector commonly used to carry analog/digital audio and analog video signals. This type of connector is formally known as the: DVI connector RCA connector VGA connector RJ-45 connector

The DVI-I connector type provides support for both digital and analog video signal transmission. True or False

Examples of connector types used for carrying audio signals include: (Select all that apply) TRS connector DVI-A connector RCA connector VGA connector S/PDIF connector

Which of the Digital Visual Interface (DVI) connector types does not provide support for analog signal transmission? DVI-D DVI-A DVI-I DVI-A/D

As opposed to active cooling components such as cooling fans, heat sinks fall into the category of passive cooling components because they do not need to draw any electrical power in order to operate. True or False

Which of the following answers describe the features of Socket FM2? (Select 3 answers) LGA packaging Intel CPU socket 905 contacts PGA packaging AMD CPU socket PGA-ZIF packaging 904 contacts

A 64-bit CPU can be used either with a 32-bit or 64-bit version of the Microsoft Windows operating system. True or False

What are the characteristic features of Socket FM2+? (Select 3 answers) 906 contacts Intel CPU socket PGA packaging AMD CPU socket 905 contacts LGA packaging PGA-ZIF packaging

Which of the terms listed below refers to a situation where a single CPU appears as two virtual CPUs to the operating system? Stepping Multicore Hyperthreading Multitasking

What are the characteristic features of Socket AM3? (Select 3 answers) PGA packaging Intel CPU socket PGA-ZIF packaging 942 contacts AMD CPU socket LGA packaging 941 contacts

The most notable difference between Pin Grid Array (PGA) and Land Grid Array (LGA) packaging relates to the placement of contact pins, which in case of PGA can be found on the socket, and in case of LGA on the CPU. True or False

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to solution(s) aimed at improving CPU heat dissipation? (Select all that apply) Heat sink CPU fan Dual rail Thermal paste Liquid-based cooling P1 connector

Which of the following built-in functionalities allows a CPU to take over tasks normally executed by a dedicated graphics card? DisplayPort Integrated GPU Multicore architecture Hyperthreading VGA mode

What are the characteristic features of Socket FM1? (Select 3 answers) AMD CPU socket PGA-ZIF packaging 905 contacts PGA packaging Intel CPU socket LGA packaging 904 contacts

In CPU cooling, thermal compound is applied to fill in the narrow space between: CPU and heat sink Heat sink and CPU fan CPU and cooling pad Heat sink and cooling pad

Which of the answers listed below refers to the area of implementation of No-eXecute bit (NX bit)? Parity checks Malware protection Biometric authentication Data backup

What are the characteristic features of Socket AM3+? (Select 3 answers) LGA packaging 941 contacts PGA packaging AMD CPU socket PGA-ZIF packaging 942 contacts Intel CPU socket

A security feature used by CPUs for isolating areas of memory in order to prevent the execution of code from non-executable memory locations is known as: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) No-eXecute bit (NX bit) Error-Correcting Code (ECC) Parity bit

Which of the CPU models listed below are compatible with the LGA 775 socket? -Celeron, Sempron, Pentium, Core i3, Core i5, Core i7, Xeon E3, Xeon E5, Xeon E7 -Athlon II X2, Athlon II X3, Athlon II X4, Phenom II, Phenom II X2, Phenom II X4, Phenom II X6, FX -Pentium 4, Pentium D, Celeron, Celeron D, Pentium XE, Core 2 Duo, Core 2 Extreme, Core 2 Quad, Xeon -Celeron, Pentium, Core i3, Core i5, Core i7, Xeon E3, Xeon E5, Xeon E7, Opteron

Which of the following statements list(s) data transfer rates of the USB 1.1 standard? (Select all that apply) 400 Mbps 12 Mbps 800 Mbps 5 Gbps 480 Mbps 1.5 Mbps

USB version 1.1 offers two data transfer speeds: 1.5 Mbps designed for low data rate peripherals such as joysticks (sometimes referred to as "Low-Speed USB"), and 12 Mbps designed for higher-speed devices such as disk drives (sometimes referred to as "Full-Speed USB"). True or False

USB 2.0 (aka "Hi-Speed USB") specifies the maximum data transfer rate of: 800 Mbps 480 Mbps 12 Mbps 400 Mbps

Which of the following statements apply to the USB 3.0 standard? (Select all that apply) USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as Hi-Speed USB Backward compatibility with all preceding USB standards Speed of up to 800 Mbps USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as Full-Speed USB Speed of up to 5 Gbps USB 3.0 is also commonly referred to as SuperSpeed USB Maximum practical cable length of 3 meters

The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type A connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers) Target devices Devices that supply power Host devices Any type of device Devices that receive power

What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller? 31 63 127 255

The Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard specifies that type B connectors can be attached to: (Select 2 answers) Target devices Devices that supply power Host devices Any type of device Devices that receive power

What is the maximum allowable cable length for USB devices? 18 inches 4.5 meters 5 meters 1 meter

Which of the statements listed below apply to USB? (Select all that apply) Hot-pluggable devices Parallel communication interface Bootable devices Serial communication interface

"FireWire" is another term for which of the following standards? IEEE 802.11 IEEE 1284 IEEE 802.3 IEEE 1394

Which of the following units is used for measuring the speed of modern CPUs? GHz rpm Gbps MHz

A type of CPU architecture where a single physical CPU contains more than one execution core on a single die or chip is known as: Parallel processing Symmetric Multiprocessing (SMP) Multicore Hyperthreading (HTT)

The Land Grid Array (LGA) is a type of integrated circuit packaging that is notable for having pins arranged in a regular array on the underside of the package. True or False

Hardware enhancements adding support for virtualization developed by AMD for its CPUs are known as: Hyper-V AMD Catalyst VT-x AMD-V

What are the characteristic features of Socket T? (Select 3 answers) 775 contacts PGA packaging Intel CPU socket LGA packaging 1150 contacts AMD CPU socket

Which of the following provides a CPU with the fastest access to frequently used data? Flash memory Multi-level cache Random Access Memory (RAM) Secondary storage

The NX bit technology implemented in CPUs manufactured by Intel is called: EVP XD bit VT-x Hyper-V

Which of the answers listed below refer to the features of Socket H2? (Select 3 answers) LGA packaging AMD CPU socket 1155 contacts Intel CPU socket 1556 contacts PGA packaging

A CPU design based on instruction set that tries to improve speed by utilizing relatively few and simple instructions is known as: RISC HPFS EPIC CISC

The Pin Grid Array (PGA) is a type of surface-mount packaging for integrated circuits (ICs) that is notable for having pins on the socket rather than the integrated circuit. True or False

Which of the following answers describe the characteristic features of Socket H/H1? (Select 3 answers) AMD CPU socket 942 contacts PGA packaging 1156 contacts LGA packaging Intel CPU socket

The bus between the CPU and the internal memory cache (L2 cache) inside the CPU housing is called: I/O Controller Hub (ICH) Front-side bus (FSB) Universal Serial Bus (USB) Back-side bus (BSB)

A set of Intel CPU hardware enhancements improving support for virtualization is known as: EPV VT-x Catalyst Hyper-V

What are the characteristic features of Socket B? (Select 3 answers) 1366 contacts Intel CPU socket 775 contacts LGA packaging AMD CPU socket PGA packaging

The bus between the CPU and northbridge is called: Back-side bus (BSB) Universal Serial Bus (USB) I/O Controller Hub (ICH) Front-side bus (FSB)

An additional ATX12V power connector designed to supply dedicated power for the CPU is known as: Mini-DIN P4 connector BNC connector P1 connector

Which of the answers listed below describe the features of Socket H3? (Select 3 answers) 1366 contacts LGA packaging AMD CPU socket 1150 contacts PGA packaging Intel CPU socket

Which of the following acronyms refers to a specific feature of certain types of microprocessor sockets that facilitates the insertion and removal of a CPU chip? ZIF TPM ZIP FRU

What is the name of a microprocessor component that performs all comparisons and calculations? FRU UART ALU LUN

Which of the following answers refer(s) to example(s) of Intel CPU(s) designed for desktop and workstation computers? (Select all that apply) Itanium Celeron Pentium Core i3 Athlon Core i5 Core i7

What is the name of a server-dedicated CPU series designed by AMD? Athlon Opteron Itanium Phenom Sempron

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristics of Socket R? (Select 3 answers) Intel CPU socket PGA packaging 2011 contacts AMD CPU socket LGA packaging 1366 contacts

Intel CPU server brands include: (Select 2 answers) Xeon Celeron Opteron Itanium Sempron Atom

The NX bit technology implemented by AMD in its CPUs is known as: EVP XD bit VT-x Hyper-V

The AMD CPU brands designed for desktop and workstation computers include: (Select all that apply) Opteron Athlon Sempron Phenom FX

Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of storage media type(s) that can be erased and written to multiple times? (Select all that apply) BD-R CD-ROM DVD-RW BD-RE DVD-ROM CD-RW

Platters of a magnetic hard drive spin at a rate measured in: Revolutions per second Iterations per minute Revolutions per minute Iterations per second

The capability for replacing computer system components without causing interruption to the system operation is known as: Multitasking Hardware acceleration Hot swapping Cold plugging

Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of hot-swappable drives? (Select all that apply) USB drive PATA drive FireWire drive IDE drive SATA drive eSATA drive

A type of storage device with no moving parts that uses memory chips instead of magnetic platters is commonly referred to as a Solid-State Drive (SSD). True or False

Flash memory card formats include: (Select all that apply) xD-Picture Card SATA CompactFlash (CF) IEEE 1394 Secure Digital (SD) eSATA

Which of the terms listed below refers to a proprietary flash memory card format used mainly in older digital cameras? xD SD SSD Mini-SD Micro-SD

A hybrid drive provides a combination of which of the following technologies? (Select 2 answers) SD HDD xD SSD CF

A type of media used as a secondary system storage in tablets and mobile phones is known as: CF Mini-SD eMMC Micro-SD xD

A storage technology that combines multiple disk drive components into a single logical unit to increase logical volume size, improve performance, or reliability is known as: Serial ATA (SATA) Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) Single Large Expensive Disk (SLED) Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) Parallel ATA (PATA)

Which of the following solutions does not offer fault tolerance? RAID 5 Disk duplexing RAID 0 Disk mirroring RAID 1

RAID Level 0: (Select 3 answers) -Is also known as disk striping -Decreases reliability (failure of any disk in the array destroys the entire array) -Is also referred to as disk mirroring -Offers less volume capacity in comparison to RAID 1 -Requires at least 3 drives to implement -Is suitable for systems where performance has higher priority than fault tolerance

RAID Level 1: (Select 3 answers) -Requires at least 2 drives to implement -Is also known as disk striping -Offers improved performance in comparison to RAID 0 -Offers improved reliability by creating identical data sets on each drive (failure of one drive does not destroy the array as each drive contains identical copy of the data) -Is also referred to as disk mirroring

RAID Level 5: (Select 2 answers) -Requires at least 2 drives to implement -Continues to operate in case of failure of more than 1 drive -Requires at least 3 drives to implement -Offers increased performance and fault tolerance (single drive failure does not destroy the array and lost data can be re-created by the remaining drives) -Requires at least 4 drives to implement

Which RAID type has the highest disk overhead? RAID Level 3 RAID Level 5 RAID Level 6 RAID Level 1

RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of: 2 drives 3 drives 4 drives 5 drives

Which of the answers listed below refer to a nested (hybrid) RAID level? (Select 2 answers) RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 1+0 RAID 5 RAID 10

Which type of RAID level creates a striped set from a series of mirrored drives? RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10

A single-sided, single-layer DVD disc can store up to: 4.7 GB of data 7.8 GB of data 8.5 GB of data 15.6 GB of data

A single-sided, double-layer DVD disc can store up to: 8.5 GB of data 15.6 GB of data 4.7 GB of data 7.8 GB of data

Which of the following statements describing the Blu-ray Disc (BD) technology are true? (Select 4 answers) -A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 15 GB of data -BD-RE discs can be erased and written to multiple times -A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 50 GB of data -BD-R discs can be written to once -A standard-size single-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB of data -BD-RE discs can be written to once -A standard-size dual-layer Blu-ray disc can store up to 30 GB of data -BD-R discs can be erased and written to multiple times

A single-layer mini Blu-ray disc can store up to: 8.544 GB of data 4.7 GB of data 7.8 GB of data 15.6 GB of data

What is the capacity of a dual-layer mini Blu-ray disc? 8.544 GB 4.7 GB 7.8 GB 15.6 GB

Which of the answers listed below describe the features of tape drives? (Select 3 answers) Fast seek times Low capacity Volatile storage media Magnetic media Slow seek times High capacity

Which of the following answers lists storage media types arranged from lowest to highest capacity? Floppy disk, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray), Tape Floppy disk, CD, DVD, Tape, BD (Blu-ray) CD, DVD, Floppy disk, BD (Blu-ray), Tape Floppy disk, Tape, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray)

Which of the following answers lists the number of pins used by SO-DIMM DDR SDRAM memory modules? 168 172 200 204

DDR2 SO-DIMM memory modules have: (Select 2 answers) 144 pins 172 pins 200 pins 214 pins 240 pins

What is the number of contact pins used by SO-DIMM DDR3 SDRAM modules? 168 172 204 214

A memory module form factor commonly used in sub-notebook devices is known as: C-RIMM MicroDIMM SO-DIMM DIMM

Which of the answers listed below refers to the number of pins used by MicroDIMM DDR SDRAM memory modules? 168 172 204 214

What is the number of contact pins used by MicroDIMM DDR2 SDRAM modules? 200 204 214 240

ECC type RAM: -Can only detect errors, but does not have the capability to correct them -Refers to parity RAM (the two terms are interchangeable) -Offers better performance in terms of speed when compared to a non-ECC type of RAM -Can detect and correct errors

Certain types of RAM take advantage of an additional bit in order to detect whether a data error has occurred. An extra bit is used to store information about the number of bits set to the value of one in a given string of data (typically one byte) and by examining that information at different stages of processing it is possible to detect whether the data has been corrupted or not. What is the name of that extra bit? Digest Archive bit Hash value Parity bit

Compared to a non-ECC type of memory, the ECC RAM is a less expensive option and will always perform faster. True or False

The color-coded memory slots on the motherboard indicate that the system is capable of taking advantage of the multi-channel memory architecture. True or False

Which of the following characteristics apply to the type of RAM most commonly used as the main system memory in desktop PCs? (Select 3 answers) Buffered memory Non-ECC memory Static RAM Unbuffered memory Dynamic RAM ECC memory

Taking advantage of the performance benefits offered by the multi-channel memory architecture requires: (Select all that apply) -Memory modules of matching types -Memory modules of matching speeds -Installing memory modules in any of the free memory slots on the motherboard -Memory modules of the same capacity -Installing modules in appropriate memory slots (slots of matching color) on the motherboard

A type of typically more expensive memory modules equipped with additional circuitry designed to ensure better system stability and accuracy of data processing is known as: (Select all that apply) VRAM Buffered memory RDIMM Synchronous DRAM UDIMM Unbuffered memory

A single-sided memory module type can have memory chips placed on both sides of the module. True or False

Which of the following RAM types would be the most suitable choices for a high-end server? (Select 3 answers) UDIMM Buffered memory Non-ECC memory RDIMM Unbuffered memory ECC memory

A special-purpose memory type used by graphics controllers is known as: UDIMM Registered memory SRAM MicroDIMM VRAM

Which of the memory types listed below allows for permanent storage of data? VRAM DVD-RAM Static RAM Buffered memory DRAM

A type of Printed Circuit Board (PCB) that can be installed in a motherboard slot in order to extend the system functionality is commonly referred to as an expansion card. True or False

What type of safety measures should accompany the installation of an adapter card? ESD protection EMI protection RFI protection EMP protection

If a system fails to autoconfigure the newly added adapter card through PnP, finishing the configuration process requires manual installation of device drivers. True or False

A type of daughterboard equipped with expansion slots providing the capability for attaching further expansion cards that are placed parallel with the mainboard in order to save space inside the system case is known as: FireWire card Riser card Storage card Thunderbolt card

Which of the following answers list(s) example(s) of storage media type(s) that can be read, but not written to? (Select all that apply) BD-R CD-ROM DVD-RW BD-RE DVD-ROM CD-RW

Which of the terms listed below refers to computer data storage systems, data storage devices, and data storage media that can be written to once, but read from multiple times? DVD-RW Tape library Floppy disk WORM

Which of the following is an example of Write Once, Read Many (WORM) storage media type? BD-R Flash drive CD-RW Magnetic tape CD-ROM

What are the storage limitations of a standard CD-ROM media format? (Select 2 answers) Less than 800 MB of data storage capacity 120 minutes of uncompressed audio More than 800 MB of data storage capacity Up to 80 minutes of uncompressed audio

For CPUs without integrated memory controller, which part of the chipset manages communication between the CPU and memory? I/O Controller Hub (ICH) Northbridge Fusion Controller Hub (FCH) Southbridge

In order to retain its configuration data, CMOS RAM requires constant supply of electricity which is provided by the: AC adapter Power Supply Unit (PSU) CMOS battery Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) Power inverter

Which of the answers listed below refers to a source of power for an RTC when the computer is turned off? Power inverter CMOS battery Power Supply Unit (PSU) AC adapter

What is the name of the most common connector type used for providing power to various hardware components inside the computer case? RJ-45 BNC Molex USB

A switch, button, or LED on the front/top panel of a computer case has a connector linked to it that must be attached to the appropriate pins on the: Riser card Expansion slot Power supply Motherboard

Which of the memory types listed below are designed to store permanent data that cannot be changed? (Select all that apply) RAM EPROM ROM PROM EEPROM

Random Access Memory (RAM) falls into the category of the so-called volatile storage media. It requires a continuous flow of electricity to preserve its contents thus all the data stored in RAM lasts only while the power is on. True or False

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)? (Select all that apply) -Non-volatile storage media type -Faster than Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) -Widely used as system's primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard) -More expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) -Slower than Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM) -Volatile storage media type -Utilized for CPU cache memory chips -Less expensive in comparison to Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)

Which of the following answers describes(s) the characteristics of Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)? (Select all that apply) -Volatile storage media type -Utilized for CPU cache memory chips -More expensive in comparison to Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) -Non-volatile storage media type -Slower than Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) -Widely used as system's primary storage media (regular RAM modules installed in memory slots on the motherboard) -Faster than Static Random Access Memory (SRAM) -Less expensive in comparison to Static Random Access Memory (SRAM)

The term "Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDRAM)" refers to a broad category of DRAM modules that rely on the signal sent by the system clock in order to coordinate their functioning with other internal PC components. True or False

Which of the statements listed below are true? (Select all that apply) -The speed of the system bus is measured in clock cycles -In computer architecture, the term "word" refers to a group of bits processed as a unit -The speed of the system bus in modern PCs is measured in GHz (i.e. billions of cycles per second) -A single clock cycle is an equivalent of a period of time between two adjacent signals sent by the system clock -The speed of the system bus in modern PCs is measured in MHz (i.e. millions of cycles per second) -Depending on the system specs, a single clock cycle might be an equivalent of multiple ticks of the system clock

A Single Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (SDR SDRAM) can read/write one word of data per clock cycle. True or False

What is the number of contact pins used in SDR SDRAM modules? 144 168 184 240

The placement of a notch on the RAM module contact surface allows for proper alignment of the module with the memory bank on the motherboard and prevents the installation of incompatible memory types. True or False

What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (DDR SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers) 184 contact pins Reads/writes 2 words of data per clock cycle 168 contact pins 1 notch on the module contact surface Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle 2 notches on the module contact surface

Which of the answers listed below refers to the industry name used for DDR-333 modules? PC-2100 PC-2400 PC-2700 PC-3200

What is the peak transfer rate of a DDR-266 module? 1600 MB/s 2133 MB/s 2666 MB/s 3200 MB/s

What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 2 Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (DDR2 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers) Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle 1 notch on the module contact surface 204 contact pins Reads/writes 8 words of data per clock cycle 240 contact pins 2 notches on the module contact surface

Which of the following answers refers to the industry name used for DDR2-1066 modules? PC2-4200 PC2-5300 PC2-6400 PC2-8500

What is the total bandwidth of a DDR2-533 module? 3200 MB/s 4266 MB/s 5333 MB/s 6400 MB/s

What are the characteristic features of the Double Data Rate 3 Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory (DDR3 SDRAM)? (Select 3 answers) 1 notch on the module contact surface Reads/writes 4 words of data per clock cycle 204 contact pins 2 notches on the module contact surface 240 contact pins Reads/writes 8 words of data per clock cycle

Which of the answers listed below refers to the industry name used for DDR3-1333 modules? PC3-6400 PC3-8500 PC3-10600 PC3-12800

What is the maximum amount of data that can be transferred each second by a DDR3-1600 module? 6400 MB/s 8533 MB/s 10667 MB/s 12800 MB/s

Which of the answers listed below describe(s) the characteristics of Dual In-line Memory Modules (DIMMs)? (Select all that apply) -Printed Circuit Board (PCB) type used as a placeholder for memory chips -32-bit data path -Separate electrical contacts on each side of the module -Obsolete memory packaging type used only in legacy systems -64-bit data path -Unified electrical contact surface spanning both sides of the module -Used with various SDRAM memory types (SDR, DDR, DDR2, and DDR3)

What is the most common memory module form factor type used in laptop computers? SO-DIMM DIMM MicroDIMM C-RIMM

Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled/disabled in the BIOS setup utility (if a BIOS comes equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the computer case, this functionality can be used to check if the case was opened and display a notification alert during next boot. True or False

A standardized specification of a motherboard (including its dimensions, supported power supply types, and layout of components) is known as the motherboard's: Architecture Blueprint Form factor Diagram

Which of the following terms are used to describe a motherboard's size and purpose? (Select all that apply) Micro-ATX PCI-X ITX ATX Mini-ITX

What is the most common motherboard type used in desktop PCs? ITX LPX ATX NLX

Which of the answers listed below refers to a VIA-proprietary low-power consumption SFF type motherboard known for industrial and embedded PC applications? NLX Mini-ITX ATX LPX Mini-ATX

Low Profile Extended (LPX) and New Low profile eXtended (NLX) are motherboard form factors known for the usage of a riser card (daughterboard) inserted into a slot near the edge of the board. The main advantage of this type of design is that expansion cards that plug into a riser card on the LPX/NLX motherboard are parallel with the board which saves space and allows for a smaller system case. True or False

Which of the following statements are true? (Select 3 answers) -A parallel bus transmits data across multiple wires In computer architecture, the term "bus" describes a system of communication paths used to connect computer components and transfer data between them -A parallel bus transmits data sequentially one bit at a time over a single communication channel -A serial bus transmits data across multiple wires -A serial bus transmits data sequentially one bit at a time over a single communication channel

Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is an example of a parallel expansion bus (and a corresponding slot type) used for attaching hardware devices (in the form of an integrated circuit or expansion card) to the motherboard inside the computer case. True or False

What are the characteristic features of conventional PCI? (Select all that apply) Serial interface 32-bit bus width Maximum throughput of up to 1064 MB/s 64-bit bus width Parallel interface Maximum throughput of up to 533 MB/s

The Peripheral Component Interconnect eXtended (PCI-X) is an advanced version of PCI which: (Select all that apply) -Doubles the bandwidth of PCI -Provides much faster data transfer rates in comparison to PCI -Offers backward compatibility with PCI devices -Supersedes all previous standards, including PCIe -Didn't get much of a market success due to the development and widespread adoption of the PCIe standard -Was intended for devices with higher bandwidth requirements such as servers and high-end workstations

Which of the following answers describe(s) the feature(s) of the PCI-X standard? (Select all that apply) 32-bit bus width Parallel interface Maximum throughput of up to 1064 MB/s 64-bit bus width Maximum throughput of up to 533 MB/s Serial interface

Which of the answers listed below refers to a standard that relies on serial communication? ISA PCI-X IEEE 1284 PCI PATA PCIe

Motherboard slots that enable installation of dedicated graphics controllers include: (Select 2 answers) PGA AGP CNR slot ATX connector PCIe

Peripheral Component Interconnect Express (abbr. as PCIe) is a high-speed, serial expansion bus designed as a replacement for: (Select all that apply) PCI SATA USB PCI-X AGP

In PCIe architecture, a single full-duplex point-to-point serial communication path consisting of two pairs of wires (where one pair is used for transmitting data and the other pair for receiving data) is known as: Lane Dual rail Dual channel Duplexing assembly

The PCIe labeling (×1, ×4, ×8, ×12, ×16 and ×32) refers to the number of communication links (lanes) available in different versions of the PCIe interface. The base value (x1) relates to the speed of a single lane expressed in MB/s. The multiplier (x) allows for easy calculation of the maximum throughput of the entire interface for a given PCIe variant. True or False

Which of the values listed below refers to the speed of a single-lane (x1) PCIe v1.x link? 125 MB/s 250 MB/s 500 MB/s 985 MB/s 1969 MB/s

A single-lane (x1) PCIe v2.x link offers maximum throughput of up to: 125 MB/s 250 MB/s 500 MB/s 985 MB/s 1969 MB/s

Which of the following answers lists the speed of a single-lane (x1) PCIe v3.x link? 125 MB/s 250 MB/s 500 MB/s 985 MB/s 1969 MB/s

A type of PCI slot for expansion cards installed in laptops characterized by a much smaller form factor when compared to its desktop counterpart is called: miniPCI PCIe Mini-SD PCI-X Mini-ITX

Which of the following slot types allows for adding primary storage modules to the motherboard? USB SATA RAM PATA

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the features of a motherboard's CPU socket? (Select all that apply) PGA TPM LGA FRU ZIF PGA2

Which of the following integrated circuit types defines the core functionality and capabilities of a motherboard? Chipset Northbridge I/O Controller Hub (ICH) Southbridge Fusion Controller Hub (FCH)

In a northbridge/southbridge chipset computer architecture, the function of southbridge is to provide high-speed data links between CPU, RAM, and PCIe graphics controllers. True or False

The term "northbridge" refers to a part of the computer chipset that controls peripheral buses used for connecting lower-speed I/O devices such as hard drives, keyboards, mice, PCI devices, as well as embedded hardware including BIOS, integrated graphics/audio, USB, or Ethernet interfaces. True or False