Comptia A+ 1001 Vs 1002
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Laptop memory: DDR and DDR2 Have how many SODIMM pins?
200
Laptop memory: DDR3 has how many SODIMM pins?
204
Laptop Memory: DDR4 Has How many SODIMM pins?
240
Name this drive: -All Memory, no moving parts -Silent, fast access time, less latency -2.5 and 1.8 inch form factors
SSD (Solid State Drive)
Name this drive: -Combines Flash Memory and Hard Drive Storage -SSD catches the hard drive data
SSHD (Solid State Hybrid Drive)
Software is most often proprietary that is distributed at no monetary cost to the end user. There is no agreed-upon set of rights, license, or EULA that defines this software unambiguously; every publisher defines its own rules. For instance, modification, redistribution by third parties, and reverse engineering without the author's permission are permitted by some publishers but prohibited by others. Unlike with free and open-source software, which are also often distributed free of charge, the source code for this software is typically not made available.
Freeware
Name that Laser Printer Part: -Responsible for melting toner and bonding it to paper -if toner rubs off or smears then the part is most likely not receiving enough heat and the part may need to be replaced.
Fuser Assembly
Name the Laser Printer problem. Solution: -Clean the Corona Wire -shake the toner cartridge to dislodge the clog
White vertical lines
The sharing of a mobile device's Internet connection with other connected computers, such as laptops. Supported connections include -USB -WiFi -Bluetooth
Tethering
After performing maintenance and booting up a computer, it reports that no bootable device has been found and windows fails to start. What is the most likely reason?
Loose SATA cable. (may have become disconnected during maintenance)
Name that acronym: A logical interface used by PCIe-based SSD drives to communicate with the bus.
NVMHCI (Non-Volatile Memory Host Controller Interface) or NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express)
You install memory into an ATX motherboard that supports duel channel memory. In order to utilize this feature which slots should you install the memory into?
Different colored slots
Name that acronym: A network service provided by the router or proxy server used normally to hide private IP addresses behind a single public IP address.
NAT (Network Address Translation)
Name that acronym: Programming that creates a safe and encrypted connection over a less secure network, such as the public internet.
VPN (Virtual Private Network)
Name that acronym: Part of the Active Directory Object Management and configuration infrastructure. Used to configure software deployment , Windows settings, and, through the use of administrative Templates, custom Registry settings. These settings can also be configured on a per-user per-computer basis. A means of applying security settings (as well as other administrative settings) across a range of computers and users.
GPO (Group Policy Object)
Name that acronym: A strategy for protecting data and preventing users from giving sensitive and critical data to unauthorized recipients.
DLP (Data Loss Prevention)
-saves user names, passwords, credit card information and WiFi network information across any Apple device you enable -can also keep email, contacts, calendar entries, and messages up to date across all of a users MAC computers.
iCloud keychain
Name that term: A complete copy of your entire data set. Often this is more time consuming and requires more space then other forms of backup.
Full backup
Name that term: Only backs up data that has changed since the previous backup.
Incremental backup
Name that acronym: -Contains the best source of information about the safe disposal or recycling of potentially hazardous components. -Contains information about exposure hazards, precautions, and first aid information. -Some manufactures provide this data on their websites otherwise information is widely distributed on the internet.
MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet)
Name that acronym: - a device that once inserted allows a computer to recognize that the device is there without user input -The user does not have to manually install drivers for the device or even tell the computer that a new device has been added. -usually refers to computer peripheral devices, such as keyboards and mice, it can also be used to describe internal hardware. For example, a video card or hard drive.
PnP
Name that acronym: -A security device that provides a broad range of security services to a network. -Often comes packaged with security appliances that help protect a network from malware and spam., contains firewall and intrusion prevention technology.
UTM (Unified Threat Management)
Name that tool: The first name of this tool refers to the routing of electronic signals, digital data streams, or flows of items back to their source without intentional processing or modification. It is used for testing the communication structure. It involves connecting pin 1 to pin 3 and pin 2 connects to pin 6. When you connect the tool to the port you should see a solid connection LED.
Loopback Plug
Name that term: VMs connected to this type of virtual switch cannot communicate with the Hyper-V Parent partition. You can create any number of these regardless of how many physical Network Interface Cards you may have.
Hyper-V Private Switch
What is the native resolution of a 4k UHD (Ultra High Definition) display. Also referred to as a 4k2k.
3840x2160 (pixels)
What are these file extensions examples of: .aif .cda .mid or .midi .mp3 .mpa .ogg .wav .wma .wpl
Audio file formats.
What are these file extensions examples of: .7z .arj .deb .pkg .rar .rpm .tar .z .zip
Compressed files.
How do you create a boot log the next time a Windows OS based computer starts up?
Run Msconfig
When programmed to do so under what file name does Windows store a boot log the next time it starts up?
ntbtlog.txt
What other connection method can be enabled if a computer tries to connect with a DHCP server and one cannot be found?
IP Alternate Configuration
Name that acronym: A form of cloud computing that provides virtualization computing resources over the internet. The cloud provider hosts the components traditionally present in on premises data centers such as servers, storage, and networking hardware, as well as virtualization or hypervisor layers. With this type of cloud computing service organizations often find it easier, faster and more cost-efficient to operate a workload without having to buy, manage and support the underlying infrastructure. A business can simply rent or lease that infrastructure from another business
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
What is the term: -when giving file permissions to a copy on the same or a different partition -permissions that are given to an object because it is a child of a parent object.
inherited permissions
Applications that are configured to launch automatically on start up can be enabled or disabled here.
Task Manager Startup Tab
Name that term: _______ _______ ________ returns the computer to its factory image but preserves user data, user accounts, windows store applications, and any applications that came installed on the computer, but not third party applications.
Push Button Refresh
Name that term: _____ _____ _____ re-installs the factory image but any changes are lost. This includes any user accounts, all data, and every installed application.
Push Button Reset
Name that utility: -its like putting puzzle pieces together. -normally running this utility helps solve problems with performance issues during disk sensitive activities that has gotten worse over time. -this has no effect on a Solid State Drive and will actually shorten its lifespan. ONLY use it on a HDD
Defrag
A touch sensitive glass panel covering a LCD screen. The panel converts touch to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input Examples: smart screens, tablets. Often used with a stylus.
Digitizer
Name that acronym: -A cloud application service. -This service is the most commonly utilized option for businesses in the cloud market -it utilizes the internet to deliver applications,which are managed by third party vendors It is sometimes referred to as "on-demand software", "Web-based software", and "hosted software"
SaaS (Software as a Service)
Name that file extension: 7 A Linux or unix Shell Script File
.sh
Name that file extension: A Java Script file that excutes in a web browser.
.js
Name that file extension: a updated version of DOS/Windows .bat file. the primary difference being .bat runs under command.com and this file extension runs under cmd.com
.cmd
Name that file extension: A PowerShell script used to run PowerShell commands in Windows
.ps1
Name that term: -A feature of Windows NT operating systems. -Controls the working environment of user accounts and computer accounts. -Provides centralized management and configuration of OS, applications, and user settings in a Active Directory environment.
Group Policy
Name the Motherboard form factor: Size: 9.6 by 9.6 inches (244mm x244mm) Has up to 4 expansion Slots
Micro-ATX
-A security feature in most modern Android phones. -When enabled it helps users locate and if needed remotely lock or wipe the device -In order to work the device must be linked to the user's Google account.
Android Device Manager
Name that acronym: -This contains Intel specifications for memory expanding upon, and above, the standard SPD specifications. -It is intended to make overclocking easier and more accessible to new users and has pre-defined overclocking configurations known to be stable.
XPS (Extreme Memory Profiles)
Name that acronym: -A standardized way to access information about a memory module. -is a memory hardware feature that makes it possible for the computer to know what memory is present, and what timings to use to access the memory.
SPD (Serial Presence Detect)
-A Microsoft server, that is a mail server and calendaring server developed by Microsoft. It runs exclusively on Windows Server operating systems. -The Server primarily uses a proprietary protocol called MAPI to talk to email clients, but subsequently added support for POP3, IMAP, and EAS. The standard SMTP protocol is used to communicate to other Internet mail servers. -it is usually an integrated provider option and clients can auto discover and sync information between devices. Normally a password and username are required. A domain and server name may also. Used to sync Email, contacts, calendar, tasks and notes.
Microsoft Exchange.
Name that acronym: A database built by CDMA service providers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower.
PRL (Preferred Roaming List)
Name that acronym: is a channel access method used by various radio communications technologies. Allows information to be simultaneously sent by several transmitters over a single communication channel it is associated with Sprint and Verizon cellular phone networks.
CDMA (Code-Division Multiple Access)
Name that acronym: A standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over a very short (usually around 4 inches) distances. Commonly used in contactless payment and similar technologies. ____ is based on RFID.
NFC (Near Field Communication)
Name that acronym: This utility is used to create a connection with a remote desktop session host (RD SessionHost) or another remote computer.
MSTSC (Microsoft Terminal Service Client)
Name that utility: A command line disk partitioning utility included in Windows 2000 and later. This utility prevents multi-partition creation for removable media such as flash drives. It is also used for partitioning internal hard drives.
diskpart
Name that utility: A command line utility in Windows 7,8,10 and Windows server 2008R2, Windows Server 2012. The command line is used to perform backups and restores from operating systems drive volumes, computer files, folders and applications from a command line interface.
WBAdmin
You have been tasked with shutting down or disabling all unused ports on a network switch. For what reason would you be so tasked?
Security
Name that command line: this command supports several options for filtering file copies including file attributes. -It can also be used to set for remove attributes during the the file copy process.
Robocopy
A utility in Windows systems that allows users to scan for and restore corruptions in system files. This utility is in Windows 98, Win 2000 and all subsequent versions of Windows NT family Operating Systems.
SFC (System File Checker)
This utility prevents the replacement of essential system files, folders, and registry keys that are installed as part of the operating system -SFC in windows Vista , 7, and 10 has been integrated into this Windows based utility.
WRP (Windows Resource Protection)
Name that device acronym: This device quickly breaks an electrical circuit to prevent serious harm from on ongoing electric shock It is also known as Residual Current Device or RCD in the United Kingdom.
GFI (Ground Fault interrupter)
Name that device: -This device is designed to ensure clean power on a incoming AC line. -It protects against short duration over and under voltage conditions. -It does not however protect against power loss.
Line conditioner
Name that term: -A brief over voltage condition.
Power Spike
Name that device: -An inexpensive way to protect against over voltage. -Does not supply power to connected devices
Surge Suppressor
A windows recovery tool that can fix certain system problems that might prevent Windows from starting To access this recovery tool do the following: 1 first boot to Advanced Startup Options 2 click on trouble shoot 3 click on advanced options 4 click on ______ ______
Startup Repair
A Windows proprietary Remote Desktop service that allows users to access RemoteApp and Desktop Connection through the start menu or a Web Browser. This feature is available in windows server 2008 R2, and windows Server 2012
Remote Desktop Web Access
Name that acronym: This is a large scale attack in which a targeted computer is flooded with traffic from many compromised systems infected with malware and Trojan viruses. Since the incoming traffic flooding the victim originates from different sources, it may be impossible to stop the attack simply by using ingress filtering. It also makes it difficult to distinguish legitimate user traffic from attack traffic when spread across multiple points of origin.
DDoS (Distributed Denial-of-Service )
A 32 bit OS can acess how much Physical Ram?
4GB
A 64 bit OS can theoretically access a maximum memory threshold of how many exabytes?
16EB
Name that acronym: An agreement that refers to what a purchaser can and cannot do with software and hardware. Including restrictions on a mobile app so that it can be used on specific providers phones only.
DRM (Digital Rights Management)
Name that acronym: An agreement between an individual purchaser and a software manufacture that describes how the software can and cant not be used. It also contains other licencing terms, such as limits on the manufacturers liability.
EULA (End User Licence Agreement)
This is a feature in Microsoft Windows that allows the user to revert their computer's state (including system files, installed applications, Windows Registry, and system settings) to that of a previous point in time, which can be used to recover from system malfunctions or other problems.
System Restore
A full volume encryption feature included with MS Windows starting with Windows Vista. -It uses the AES encryption System in a Ciper Block Chaining (CBC) or XTS mode with a 128 or 256 bit key. Requirements: TPM version 1.2 or later Two NTFS partitions Note: A TPM is not required if the BIOS or UEFI firmware has the ability to read a USB containing the __________ start up key Windows 8 was the earliest version to provide support.
BitLocker
Desktop Memory: DDR has how many DIMM notch pins?
184
Desktop Memory: DDR2 and DDR3 have how many DIMM notch pins?
240
Desktop Memory: DDR4 has how many DIMM notch pins?
288
What does SODIMM stand for?
Small Outline DIMM
What does DIMM stand for?
Dual In-Line Memory Module
What is another acronym for Non-Volatile Memory Host Controller Interface?
NVMe
Name that acronym: This memory uses 8 bits for memory and 1 bit to check parity for errors. This type of memory is a type of computer data storage that can detect and correct the most-common kinds of internal data corruption. This memory is used in most computers where data corruption cannot be tolerated under any circumstances, such as for scientific or financial computing. This memory has an extra chip and an 72-bit data bus rather then 64-bit. The motherboard must support this type of memory and it cant not be mixed with other types of memory.
ECC (Error Checking and Correcting)
Name that acronym: This is the standard means of attaching internal storage drives to a desktop PC. It has superseded Parallel advanced technology attachment.
SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment)
Name that SATA Revision: 1.5 Gb/s. The bandwidth throughput, which is supported by the interface, is up to 150MB/s.
SATA 1 (or revision 1.x)
Name that SATA Revision: 3.0 Gb/s. The bandwidth throughput, which is supported by the interface, is up to 300MB/s.
SATA 2 (or revision 2.x)
Name that ATA Revision: 6.0Gb/s. The bandwidth throughput, which is supported by the interface, is up to 600MB/s.
SATA 3 (or revision 3.x)
What is the Acronym for the expected number of hours that a device should operate under optimal performance before a critical incident can be expected? This the predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a mechanical or electronic system, during normal system operation.
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
Name that acronym: A monitoring system included in computer hard disk drives (HDDs), solid-state drives (SSDs),[1] and eMMC drives. Its primary function is to detect and report various indicators of drive reliability with the intent of anticipating imminent hardware failures.
SMART (Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology)
Name that acronym: -A parallel bus -One Host Bus Adapter (HBA) can control multible devices -has a command language that allows the host adapter to identify which devices are connected to the bus and how they are accessed. -These devices were typically used on server -class hardware rather then on desktop PCs -Originally supported 8 devices but ultimately suported up to 16 (with the host adapter counting as 1 device.)
SCSI (Small Computer System Interface)
Name that acronym: -features a 40-pin port but typicaly uses 80-wire shield cables. -the cable is up to 46cm (18 inces) long -supports up to 2 devices and has 3 connectors, one for the motherboard itself and one for each device.
PATA (Parallel Advanced Technology Attachment)
Name that acronym: -Supports over 16,000 devices -offers point to pint links as opposed to shared bandwidth -supports bandwidths up to 12 Gbps
SAS (Serial Attached SCSI)
Name that term: -a technique where data is divided into blocks and spread in a fixed order among all the disks in the array.
Disk Striping
Name that RAID Level: -requires at least two two hard disks -principal advantage is to improve performance by spreading disk I/O over multiple drives. -Provides no redundancy -if any physical disk in the array fails the whole logical volume will fail.
RAID 0 (Striping without Parity)
Name that RAID level: -requires at least 2 hard disks. -the data on disk 1 is exactly the same on disk 2 -if one disk fails another takes over with little impact on performance -Because all information is copied disk space is reduced by half.
RAID 1 (Mirroring)
Name that RAID level: -requires at least three drives but can be configured with more -data is distributed across all the disks in the array. -if one disk fails enough information is spread across the remaining disks to allow the data to be completely reconstructed. -however when a disk has failed the need to recover the data from the parity information degrades read performance. - as you add disks to the set fault tolerance decreases but the available disk space increases. Example: if you use 3 disks, 1/3rd of each disk would be set aside for parity. However if you use 4 only 1/4th would be used.
RAID 5 (Striping with Distributed Parity)
Name that RAID level: -needs at least 4 disks to create this configuration and there must be a even number of disks. -The logical striped volume is configured with mirrored arrays. -data is distributed across all disks -data is copied across all disks in a sub-volume
RAID 10 (also known as Raid 1+0)
A technician notices a networked cable has become flattened and untwisted. What affect could this type of damage cause to the networked equipment?
Slow Transfer Speeds.
You are unable to connect to the internet and when you enter ipconfig into command line prompt you receive a IP address of 169.254.100.1. What type of address is this called?
APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)
You are trouble shooting a networked computer and need to see all the paths and hops taken from it to its desired destination of google.com. What command line prompt diagnostic tool will display this information?
tracert
What basic command line prompt diagnostic tool allows you determine if two computers can communicate with each other?
ping
This utility allows users to scan and restore corruptions within Windows system files.
System File Checker (SFC)
A document detailing how, what, and who was there to witness the destruction of a hard drive. it will contain serial numbers and provide detailed information regarding the chain of custody and handling.
certificate of destruction (COD)
A network protocol operating on Port 1812 that provides centralized authentication authorization and accounting management for users who connect and use a Network service.
RADIUS (remote authentication dial-in user service)
when used in a batch file this command creates a loop.
FOR(example FOR/L%%BIN(1,2,101)echo%%g)
This is something worn and used to prevent an electrical discharge from damaging sensitive components. One end is connected to the equipment being worked on and the other to the technician to ensure both are at the same ground potential.
ESD strap (electrostatic discharge strap also known as a anti-static strap)
a mini_pcie expansion slot is normally found in what types of devices?
laptops and mobile devices
what port is utilized by File Transfer Protocol (FTP) for data transfer?
port 20
what port is used by file transfer protocol (FTP) for control?
port 21
this is a protocol for receiving email by downloading it to your computer from a mailbox on the server of an internet service provider.
POP3
this is a Windows server edition that is only available in 64 bit.
windows 2016
this Mac OS system is only available in 64-bit
Mac OS X
this utility allows you to manage Windows startup and boot options
msconfig
this utility contain system hardware and software configuration information and should be should be used with extreme caution as editing may cause permanent damage if any mistakes or errors are inputted into it.
regedit
the order of devices listed in BIOS that the computer will look for operating system information on. By default most computers will have the the OS look for the information first on the hard drive however if you wish to alter this you can have it look on the CD, DVD, or flash drive.
Boot Sequence
this is a container with in a Microsoft active directory domain which can hold users, groups and computers. I can also be used as a target for applying group policies.
organizational unit (OU)
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