IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Cissp Chapters

90 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

The objectives of security are:

ANSWER

provide availability, integrity, and confidentiality protection to data and resources.

QUESTION 2

Vulnerability

ANSWER

is a weakness in a system that allows a threat source to compromise its security.

QUESTION 3

Threat

ANSWER

is the possibility that someone or something would exploit a vulnerability, either intentionally or accidentally, and cause harm to an asset.

QUESTION 4

Risk

ANSWER

is the probability of a threat agent exploiting a vulnerability and the loss potential from that action.

QUESTION 5

Countermeasure

ANSWER

also called a safeguard or control, mitigates the risk.

QUESTION 6

A control can be:

ANSWER

administrative, technical, or physical and can provide deterrent, preventive, detective, corrective, or recovery protection.

QUESTION 7

Compensating Control

ANSWER

is an alternative control that is put into place because of financial or business functionality reasons.

QUESTION 8

COBIT

ANSWER

is a framework of control objectives and allows for IT governance.

QUESTION 9

ISO/IEC 27001

ANSWER

is the standard for the establishment, implementation, control, and improvement of the information security management system.

QUESTION 10

ISO/IEC 27000

ANSWER

series were derived from BS 7799 and are international best practices on how to develop and maintain a security program.

QUESTION 11

Enterprise architecture frameworks

ANSWER

are used to build individual architectures that best map to individual organizational needs and business drivers.

QUESTION 12

Information security management system (ISMS)

ANSWER

is a coherent set of policies, processes, and systems to manage risks to information assets as outlined in ISO\ IEC 27001.

QUESTION 13

Enterprise security architecture

ANSWER

is a subset of business architecture and a way to describe current and future security processes, systems, and sub units to ensure strategic alignment.

QUESTION 14

Blueprints are

ANSWER

functional definitions for the integration of technology into business processes.

QUESTION 15

Zachman Framework

ANSWER

is an enterprise architecture framework

QUESTION 16

SABSA

ANSWER

is a security enterprise architecture framework.

QUESTION 17

COSO Internal Control—Integrated Framework

ANSWER

is a governance model used to help prevent fraud within a corporate environment.

QUESTION 18

ITIL

ANSWER

is a set of best practices for IT service management.

QUESTION 19

Six Sigma

ANSWER

is used to identify defects in processes so that the processes can be improved upon.

QUESTION 20

CMMI

ANSWER

is a maturity model that allows for processes to improve in an incremented and standard approach.

QUESTION 21

Security enterprise architecture should tie in

ANSWER

strategic alignment, business enablement, process enhancement, and security effectiveness.

QUESTION 22

NIST SP 800-53 uses the following control categories:

ANSWER

technical, management, and operational.

QUESTION 23

Civil law system

ANSWER

• Uses prewritten rules and is not based on precedence. • Is different from civil (tort) laws, which work under a common law system.

QUESTION 24

Common law system

ANSWER

Made up of criminal, civil, and administrative laws.

QUESTION 25

Customary law system

ANSWER

• Addresses mainly personal conduct and uses regional traditions and customs as the foundations of the laws. • Is usually mixed with another type of listed legal system rather than being the sole legal system used in a region.

QUESTION 26

Religious law system

ANSWER

Laws are derived from religious beliefs and address an individual's religious responsibilities; commonly used in Muslim countries or regions.

QUESTION 27

Mixed law system

ANSWER

Uses two or more legal systems.

QUESTION 28

Criminal law deals with

ANSWER

an individual's conduct that violates government laws developed to protect the public.

QUESTION 29

Civil law deals with:

ANSWER

wrongs committed against individuals or companies that result in injury or damages. Civil law does not use prison time as a punishment, but usually requires financial restitution.

QUESTION 30

Administrative, or regulatory, law covers

ANSWER

standards of performance or conduct expected by government agencies from companies, industries, and certain officials.

QUESTION 31

A patent grants

ANSWER

ownership and enables that owner to legally enforce his rights to exclude others from using the invention covered by the patent.

QUESTION 32

Copyright

ANSWER

protects the expression of ideas rather than the ideas themselves.

QUESTION 33

Trademarks

ANSWER

protect words, names, product shapes, symbols, colors, or a combination of these used to identify products or a company. These items are used to distinguish products from the competitors' products.

QUESTION 34

Trade secrets

ANSWER

deemed proprietary to a company and often include information that provides a competitive edge. The information is protected as long as the owner takes the necessary protective actions.

QUESTION 35

Crime over the Internet has brought about jurisdiction problems for law enforcement and the courts.

ANSWER

Crime over the Internet has brought about jurisdiction problems for law enforcement and the courts.

QUESTION 36

Privacy laws

ANSWER

dictate that data collected by government agencies must be collected fairly and lawfully, must be used only for the purpose for which it was collected, must only be held for a reasonable amount of time, and must be accurate and timely.

QUESTION 37

When choosing the right safeguard to reduce a specific risk

ANSWER

the cost, functionality, and effectiveness must be evaluated and a cost/benefit analysis performed.

QUESTION 38

A security policy

ANSWER

is a statement by management dictating the role security plays in the organization.

QUESTION 39

Procedures are

ANSWER

detailed step-by-step actions that should be followed to achieve a certain task.

QUESTION 40

Standards are documents that outline

ANSWER

rules that are compulsory in nature and support the organization's security policies.

QUESTION 41

A baseline is

ANSWER

a minimum level of security.

QUESTION 42

Guidelines are

ANSWER

recommendations and general approaches that provide advice and flexibility.

QUESTION 43

OCTAVE is

ANSWER

a team-oriented risk management methodology that employs workshops and is commonly used in the commercial sector.

QUESTION 44

Security management should work from

ANSWER

the top down (from senior management down to the staff).

QUESTION 45

Risk can be

ANSWER

transferred, avoided, reduced, or accepted.

QUESTION 46

Threats × vulnerability × asset value =

ANSWER

Total Risk

QUESTION 47

(Threats × vulnerability × asset value) × controls gap =

ANSWER

Residual Risk

QUESTION 48

The main goals of risk analysis are the following:

ANSWER

1-Identify assets and assign values to them 2- Identify vulnerabilities and threats, 3- Quantify the impact of potential threats 4- Provide an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the safeguards.

QUESTION 49

Failure Modes and Effect Analysis (FMEA) is a method for:

ANSWER

1- Determining functions 2- Identifying functional failures 3- Assessing the causes of failure and their failure effects through a structured process.

QUESTION 50

A fault tree analysis is a useful approach to

ANSWER

detect failures that can take place within complex environments and systems.

QUESTION 51

A quantitative risk analysis attempts to assign

ANSWER

monetary values to components within the analysis.

QUESTION 52

A purely quantitative risk analysis

ANSWER

is not possible because qualitative items cannot be quantified with precision.

QUESTION 53

Capturing the degree of uncertainty when carrying out a risk analysis is important, because

ANSWER

it indicates the level of confidence the team and management should have in the resulting figures.

QUESTION 54

Automated risk analysis tools

ANSWER

reduce the amount of manual work involved in the analysis. They can be used to estimate future expected losses and calculate the benefits of different security measures.

QUESTION 55

Single loss expectancy × frequency per year =

ANSWER

annualized loss expectancy (SLE × ARO = ALE)

QUESTION 56

Qualitative risk analysis uses

ANSWER

judgment and intuition instead of numbers.

QUESTION 57

Qualitative risk analysis involves people with

ANSWER

the requisite experience and education evaluating threat scenarios and rating the probability, potential loss, and severity of each threat based on their personal experience.

QUESTION 58

The Delphi technique is

ANSWER

a group decision method where each group member can communicate anonymously.

QUESTION 59

Job rotation is a

ANSWER

detective administrative control to detect fraud.

QUESTION 60

Mandatory vacations are

ANSWER

a detective administrative control type that can help detect fraudulent activities.

QUESTION 61

Separation of duties ensures

ANSWER

no single person has total control over a critical activity or task. It is a preventative administrative control.

QUESTION 62

Split knowledge and dual control are

ANSWER

two aspects of separation of duties.

QUESTION 63

Management must define the scope and purpose of

ANSWER

security management, provide support, appoint a security team, delegate responsibility, and review the team's findings.

QUESTION 64

The risk management team should include

ANSWER

individuals from different departments within the organization, not just technical personnel.

QUESTION 65

Social engineering

ANSWER

is a nontechnical attack carried out to manipulate a person into providing sensitive data to an unauthorized individual.

QUESTION 66

Personally identifiable information (PII)

ANSWER

is a collection of identity-based data that can be used in identity theft and financial fraud, and thus must be highly protected.

QUESTION 67

Security governance is

ANSWER

a framework that provides oversight, accountability, and compliance.

QUESTION 68

ISO/IEC 27004:2009

ANSWER

is an international standard for information security measurement management.

QUESTION 69

NIST SP 800-55

ANSWER

is a standard for performance measurement for information security.

QUESTION 70

Business continuity management (BCM)

ANSWER

is the overarching approach to managing all aspects of BCP and DRP.

QUESTION 71

A business continuity plan (BCP)

ANSWER

contains strategy documents that provide detailed procedures that ensure critical business functions are maintained and that help minimize losses of life, operations, and systems.

QUESTION 72

A BCP provides procedures for

ANSWER

emergency responses, extended backup operations, and post-disaster recovery.

QUESTION 73

A BCP should have

ANSWER

an enterprise-wide reach, with individual organizational units each having its own detailed continuity and contingency plans.

QUESTION 74

A BCP needs to prioritize

ANSWER

critical applications and provide a sequence for efficient recovery.

QUESTION 75

A BCP requires senior executive management

ANSWER

support for initiating the plan and final approval.

QUESTION 76

BCPs can quickly become outdated due to:

ANSWER

personnel turnover, reorganizations, and undocumented changes.

QUESTION 77

Executives may be held liable if proper BCPs

ANSWER

are not developed and used.

QUESTION 78

Threats can be:

ANSWER

natural, manmade, or technical.

QUESTION 79

The steps of recovery planning include:

ANSWER

initiating the project; performing business impact analyses; developing a recovery strategy; developing a recovery plan; and implementing, testing, and maintaining the plan.

QUESTION 80

The project initiation phase involves:

ANSWER

getting management support, developing the scope of the plan, and securing funding and resources.

QUESTION 81

The business impact analysis (BIA) is

ANSWER

one of the most important first steps in the planning development.

QUESTION 82

Qualitative and quantitative data on the business impact of a disaster need to be

ANSWER

gathered, analyzed, interpreted, and presented to management.

QUESTION 83

Executive commitment and support are

ANSWER

the most critical elements in developing the BCP.

QUESTION 84

A business case must be presented to gain executive support.

ANSWER

This is done by explaining regulatory and legal requirements, exposing vulnerabilities, and providing solutions.

QUESTION 85

Plans should be prepared by

ANSWER

the people who will actually carry them out.

QUESTION 86

The planning group should comprise representatives from

ANSWER

all departments or organizational units.

QUESTION 87

The BCP team should identify the individuals who will interact with external players

ANSWER

such as the reporters, shareholders, customers, and civic officials.

QUESTION 88

Response to the disaster should be done

ANSWER

quickly and honestly, and should be consistent with any other organizational response.

QUESTION 89

ISO/IEC 27031:2011

ANSWER

describes the concepts and principles of information and communication technology (ICT) readiness for business continuity.

QUESTION 90

ISO/IEC 22301

ANSWER

is the standard for business continuity management (BCM).

Looking for a different version?

CBTs get updated every year. Search for the exact version you're taking (e.g. "cyber awareness 2025").

Search all study materials