IT CertificationsComprehensive Study Set

Cisa Doshi

305 questions across 0 topics. Use the find bar or section chips to jump to what you need.

Community-sourced. Answers may be wrong or out of date. Always verify with your official training portal before submitting. Not affiliated with any branch, agency, or vendor. Details.
QUESTION 1

Steps in the Risk Management Process

ANSWER

1. Understand the business 2. Identify Assets 3. Identify risks / vulnerabilities / threats 4. Impact Analysis 5. Prioritize Risks 6. Evaluate Controls 7. Risk treatment / Apply controls ✔This process is subjective ✔Is used to make security policy decisions. ✔Needs to consider the ENTIRE IT Environment

QUESTION 2

Information Security Policy

ANSWER

Defines how the organization will protect its assets and how it will respond to threats and incidents. Security should be separate from IT to stay objective. It includes: ✔Roles and responsibilities ✔Risk Management ✔Security Processes ✔Acceptable use It is VERY General - few specifics

QUESTION 3

Audit Initiation Meeting

ANSWER

A meeting used to discuss the scope of the audit

QUESTION 4

Define Risk / Define Business Risk

ANSWER

Risk = Probability * Impact or Risk = Asset Value Vulnerability Threat

QUESTION 5

Audit Work Papers

ANSWER

✔All audit plans, programs, activities, tests, findings, and incidents ✔The bridge between the Audit Objectives and and the Final Report

QUESTION 6

Threat

ANSWER

Whatever we are trying to protect against

QUESTION 7

Vulnerability

ANSWER

Weakness or gap in our protection efforts. Absence of proper security measures

QUESTION 8

Types of Risk

ANSWER

✔Inherent Risk - The Business with no controls ✔Residual Risk - Risk that remains after controls ✔Detection Risk - Risk that Auditors fail to detect a misstatement in the log ✔Control Risk - Risk that the controls won't catch the problem ✔Audit Risk = Inherent Risk * Control Risk * Detection Risk

QUESTION 9

Risk Treatment

ANSWER

Risk Mitigation / Risk Reduction - An umbrella (Add Controls) Risk Avoidance - don't go out Risk Acceptance - just get wet Risk Transfer - insurance or Vendor

QUESTION 10

Senior Management

ANSWER

Is responsible for managing Risk

QUESTION 11

Security Policies

ANSWER

Are derived as a result of a risk assessment

QUESTION 12

Audit Charter

ANSWER

A document that defines the Internal IS audit function's responsibility; authority, roles, scope, objectives, and accountability. ✔Approved and Changed by The Audit Committee ✔Independent from IS and IT ✔It is a Static Document ✔Does NOT include audit calendar, audit planning, yearly resource allocation, travel expenses, and other routine audit activities.

QUESTION 13

Compliance Testing

ANSWER

✔Verifies processes ✔Checks for controls ✔Attribute Sampling is used (the control is there or it is not) ✔Is done before Substantive Testing ✔Usually checks a Procedure or Policy

QUESTION 14

Substantive Testing

ANSWER

✔Verifies data or transactions of the data ✔Checks for completeness, accuracy, and validity of the data ✔Variable Sampling is used ✔Is done after Compliance Testing

QUESTION 15

Compliance Testing vs Substantive Testing

ANSWER

Compliance Testing verifies Processes with Attribute Sampling Substantive Testing verifies Transactions with Variable Sampling

QUESTION 16

CSA - Control Self-Assessment

ANSWER

✔A self-regulation activity ✔Done during the preliminary survey phase ✔Facilitated by the Internal Auditor ✔Success dependent Involvement of Line Management in control monitoring ✔A technique that allows managers and work teams directly involved in business units, functions or processes to participate in assessing the organization's risk management and control processes

QUESTION 17

Objectives of CSA (Control Self-Assessment)

ANSWER

✔To leverage the Internal Audit Function by shifting some of the control monitoring responsibilities to the functional areas ✔To concentrate on areas of High Risk ✔To provide early identification of risk ✔To enhance audit responsibilities (not replace)

QUESTION 18

Benefits of CSA (Control Self-Assessment)

ANSWER

✔Early Detection of Risk ✔More effective and improved controls ✔Assurance provided to stakeholders and customers.

QUESTION 19

Statistical Sampling

ANSWER

✔It is Objective ✔Non-Judgmental ✔Probability of error can be objectively quantified ✔Each item has an equal chance of selection ✔Minimizes Detection Risk ✔Can be used to draw a conclusion on the entire population

QUESTION 20

Non-Statistical Sampling

ANSWER

✔It is Subjective ✔Also known as Judgmental Sampling ✔Cannot be objectively quantified ✔Sampling depends on the judgment of the auditor

QUESTION 21

Attribute Sampling

ANSWER

✔Used in Compliance Testing ✔Some number of items in the sample comply, some do not ✔Expressed in Percentage ✔Answers "how Many?" (Not "How Much?" like Variable Sampling) ✔"This many failed to get approval

QUESTION 22

Variable Sampling

ANSWER

✔You are Sampling a specific Variable ✔Used in Substantive Testing ✔Allows us to understand "how much" (not how many like Attribute Sampling) ✔Expressed in units like weight, money, or other values ✔"It cost this much on average"

QUESTION 23

Stratified Random Sampling

ANSWER

✔Separation of the target population into different groups, called strata, and the selection of samples from each stratum

QUESTION 24

Stop and Go Sampling

ANSWER

✔Used when very few errors are expected to be found ✔Stopped once an error is found

QUESTION 25

Discovery Sampling

ANSWER

✔Used to find Fraud ✔If Fraud is found, report it to the authorities

QUESTION 26

Confidence Co-Efficient

ANSWER

✔A higher number will result from the use of a larger sample size. ✔The use of a larger sample size will result in a high CCE ✔If controls are strong, the CCE / Sample Size may be lowered by the auditor ✔Meaning, if there are lots of controls you trust, you can use a smaller sample size.

QUESTION 27

Data Analytics

ANSWER

✔To Identify the effectiveness of existing controls ✔To Identify process lapses and areas of improvement ✔To Identify exceptions and deviations ✔To identify areas of fraud ✔To evaluate data quality and identify areas with poor data quality ✔To assess risk and to plan audit activities ✔Can be effective for an IS auditor in both the planning and fieldwork phases of the audit

QUESTION 28

Process of Data Analytics

ANSWER

1. Determine the objectives and scope of analytics 2. Requirement gathering and obtaining the data 3. Determine the sufficiency and reliability of the data 4. Execute the test by running scripts / performing analytical tests. 5. Results/conclusions of the tests to be documented 6. Review of results/conclusion by a qualified person 7. Retain the results such as scripts, files, macro programs and data files.

QUESTION 29

CAAT (Computer-Assisted Audit Techniques)

ANSWER

✔Helps the auditor to capture and analyze the data during an audit ✔Good for complex environments or processes ✔Insures independence of auditors while capturing relevant data ✔Provides reliability of the source of the data and therefore reassurance on audit findings (Very Important) ✔Some are General Audit Software (GAS) ✔ Help in effective and efficient detection of exceptions or irregularities

QUESTION 30

CAATs - What to watch out for

ANSWER

✔Ensure data integrity by safeguarding Confidentiality, Integrity, and Authenticity (Most important) ✔Get approval to install it by the auditee ✔Only use Read-Only rights while accessing data

QUESTION 31

Continuous Auditing

ANSWER

✔Real Time or Near Real Time auditing. ✔Quick results

QUESTION 32

Continuous Monitoring

ANSWER

✔Like AV or IDS ✔In general Continuous Auditing happens before Continuous Monitoring Should be independent of Continuous Auditing ✔Usually handed over to process owners

QUESTION 33

Continuous Assurance

ANSWER

Continuous Auditing + Continuous Monitoring

QUESTION 34

EDI (Electronic Data Interchange)

ANSWER

✔The transmission of transactions (information) between two organizations ✔Promotes more efficient paperless environment ✔Consists of Transmission, Translation, and Storage of transaction. It is initiated or destined for application processing ✔Auditors should trace the transaction from beginning to end

QUESTION 35

Components of EDI (Electronic Data Interchange)

ANSWER

1. Communications Handler - Involves the process for transmitting and receiving electronic documents between trading partners via dedicated channels. 2. Interface - This is the interface between the Application System and the Communication Handler. It has two parts: ✔Translation - translates data into trading partners format ✔Application Interface - It moves electronic transactions to or from the application systems. 3. Application System - It processes data sent to or received from the trading partner.

QUESTION 36

Risk in EDI (Electronic Data Interchange)

ANSWER

✔Transaction Authorizations don't really occur in an automated system ✔No inherent authorization occurs (Greatest Risk) ✔Needs a Trading Partner Agreement to cover specific legal liability (MOST IMPORTANT) ✔Performance issues could affect both parties ✔Unauthorized access, data integrity, confidentiality, loss or duplicate transactions

QUESTION 37

Controls for EDI (Electronic Data Interchange)

ANSWER

✔Ensure the integrity of message format and content to avoid transmission errors. ✔Ensure control at receiving end ✔Logs to be maintained ✔Ensure messages are properly authorized ✔Direct channels are best to prevent wiretapping ✔Use encryption ✔Use batch totals

QUESTION 38

EDI Internet Encryption

ANSWER

Ensures CIA - Confidentiality, Integrity, and Authenticity and Non-Repudiation of transactions

QUESTION 39

EDI and Computerized Checking

ANSWER

To assess transaction reasonableness and validity

QUESTION 40

EDI Sender Should

ANSWER

✔Use control fields withing an EDI message ✔Use VAN sequential control numbers or reports ✔Use acknowledgment transaction to sender ✔Use segmentation of duties for high-risk transactions Log it all

QUESTION 41

EDI Receiver Should

ANSWER

✔Log each transaction on Receipt ✔Build segment count totals into transaction set trailer by the sender ✔Use check digit to detect transposition and transcription error

QUESTION 42

Integrated Audit

ANSWER

Includes: ✔Operational Audit ✔IS Audit ✔Financial Audit

QUESTION 43

Process of Integrated Audit

ANSWER

1. Identify risks 2. Identify key controls 3. Understand the design of the key controls 4. Test to see if key controls are supported by the IT system 5. Test to see if controls are effective 6. Issue combined report on risks, controls, and weaknesses

QUESTION 44

Advantages of Integrated Audits

ANSWER

✔Easy to link controls and audit procedures ✔Helps with allocating and utilization of IT resources ✔Help link good corporate governance and reliable financial statements (MOST IMPORTANT)

QUESTION 45

Closure Meeting Points to Remember

ANSWER

✔Closure meeting ensures that there have been no misunderstandings or misrepresentation of facts. ✔Closing meeting helps to enhance the understanding between the auditor and the the auditee in terms of what was presented, discussed, and agreed upon. ✔For communication of audit results, IS auditor is ultimately responsible to senior management and the audit committee of the board of directors. If access is not granted for such a discussion, then it would limit the independence of the audit function ✔During the assignment, control weaknesses observed which are not in the scope of the audit, should still be reported to management. ✔ISACA's IS Audit and Assurance Standards on reporting requires that the IS auditor has sufficient and appropriate evidence to support the reported results ✔Generally accepted audit practice requires reporting of findings even if corrective action has already occurred ✔In some instances, IS auditor may be requested from audit management to assist in implementing recommendations. IS auditor should explain that is a role conflict and would affect independence. ✔Findings are clearly tracked back to evidence (Most IMPORTANT)

QUESTION 46

Auditee Disagreements

ANSWER

✔Auditor should elaborate on the significance of the finding and the risk of not correcting it. ✔The goal is to enlighten the Auditee

QUESTION 47

Evidence

ANSWER

The auditor should use professional judgement to ensure that a sufficient amount of this will be collected

QUESTION 48

Follow-up Audits

ANSWER

✔It is advisable to conduct confirmatory audit after the timelines agreed by management for remediation action. As a generally accepted practice, auditor should not dictate timelines ✔Primary purpose of conducting follow-up audits is to validate remediation action

QUESTION 49

Outsourcing Types

ANSWER

✔In-sourced/In-house - Activity performed by the organization's staff ✔Outsource - Activity performed by Vendor's staff ✔Hybrid - Activity performed both ____________________________________________________________________________ ✔Onsite - Staff works onsite in IT department ✔Offsite/Nearshore - Staff works in a remote location in the same geographical location ✔Offshore - Staff works in different geographical location

QUESTION 50

Functions should NOT be outsourced if:

ANSWER

✔It is a core function of the organization ✔It is a function that requires specific knowledge, processes, and critical staffs that cannot be replicated externally or on another location ✔In case of contract or regulatory restrictions

QUESTION 51

Functions that CAN be outsourced if:

ANSWER

✔If can be performed with the same or higher quality or the same or lower price ✔Organization has sufficient experience managing 3rd parties.

QUESTION 52

Advantages of Outsourcing

ANSWER

✔Expert service can be obtained from outside so organization can concentrate on its core business (this is PRIMARY reason) ✔Cost Savings

QUESTION 53

Steps for Outsourcing

ANSWER

1. Define the Function 2. Define the Service Level Requirements 3. Know the in-house cost 4. Conduct due diligence of service providers 5. Confirm contractual or regulatory requirements 6. Get the contract! MOST important

QUESTION 54

Reducing Risk in Outsourcing

ANSWER

✔ SLA needs to contain measurable performance requirements ✔Escrow arrangement for proprietary software ✔Use multiple suppliers to reduce risk of dependency ✔Periodic Performance Reviews (MOST important) ✔Establish cross-functional contract management team ✔Establish necessary controls for foreseen contingencies ✔Get references from other sources ✔Make sure you have Detailed and Correctly Applied Specifications (BEST)

QUESTION 55

What can NOT be Outsourced

ANSWER

Accountability. Final accountability lies with the organization.

QUESTION 56

Provisions in Outsourcing Contracts

ANSWER

✔Service Level Agreement to contain measurable performance requirements (Do this FIRST) ✔Confidentiality agreements protecting both parties ✔"Right to Audit" Clause ✔Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery Provisions ✔Protection of Intellectual Property Rights ✔Requirements for CIA (Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability) and privacy too. ✔Gain-sharing performance bonuses (Help the MOST to improve service and minimize costs)

QUESTION 57

Role of IS Auditor - Monitoring Outsourced Activities

ANSWER

✔Regular reviews of contract and service levels ✔Review of Outsourcer's documented procedures and outcome of their quality programs ✔Regular audits to certify that the process and procedures meet the quality standards ✔If Off-shored, Legal Jurisdiction is the most important issue

QUESTION 58

Strategic Planning

ANSWER

Relates to the long-term direction an enterprise wants to take in leveraging IT for improving its business processes

QUESTION 59

Globalization of IT Functions

ANSWER

✔Requires setting up IT function at remote or offshore location ✔It may or may not involve outsourcing ✔Many organizations globalize their IT function for the same reasons cited for outsourcing ✔The following issues need to be addressed for smooth functioning of IT function from the offsite location: ✔Legal and Regulatory issues ✔Continuity of Operations ✔Telecommunication issues ✔Cross border and cross cultural issues

QUESTION 60

IT Strategy Committee

ANSWER

✔Shows Direction for IT ✔Very High Level ✔Advises Board on IT Strategy and Initiative ✔Members include Board Members and Specialized Officer ✔Responsibilities: 🎈Aligns IT with Business Objectives 🎈Exposure to IT Risks 🎈Direction to management related to IT strategy 🎈Contribution of IT to the Business 🎈Articulates the IT Mission and Vision

QUESTION 61

IS Steering Committee

ANSWER

✔Drives the IT Implementation ✔Ensures IS is in harmony with the organization's mission and objectives ✔Determines the Organization's Risk Appetite ✔Keeps the Board of Directors informed ✔Maintains minutes of its meetings ✔Members include Executives, CIO, and other functions as required ✔Focuses on Implementation and monitoring of IT projects ✔Approves and Monitors funds for IT Strategy ✔Responsibilities Include: 🎈Aligns IT Processes with Business Requirements 🎈Approves Project Plans and Budgets 🎈Setting Projects, Priorities, and Milestones 🎈Acquires and Assigns appropriate Resources 🎈Ensures project meets the Business Requirements and Continuous Monitoring 🎈Ensure efficient use of IT Resources

QUESTION 62

Alignment with Business Objectives

ANSWER

IT should support business and align as per business objectives ✔Close alignment is evident when there is a clear mapping, linking, or cascading of IT strategy to business strategy ✔Business processes and objectives should always be the driver for IT requirements. ✔When formulating IT Strategy, the prime consideration should be Business Strategy ✔The 1st step in reviewing an organization's IT strategy is to review/understand the business plan ✔IS, to be effective, should be in line with enterprise requirements. Hence Enterprise Requirements should form the basis of Security Requirements ✔To govern IT effectively, IT and Business objectives can best be assured by the involvement of top management. ✔When formulating IT Strategy, the Enterprise must consider: 🎈Business Objectives 🎈Risks and benefits they can bring to the business 🎈Cost of current IT and whether this provides sufficient value to IT

QUESTION 63

IT Balanced Scorecard (BSC)

ANSWER

Is used to establish, monitor, and evaluate (optimize) IT performance in terms of: ✔Business Contribution (Is IT adding to Business Success) ✔Future Orientation (Is IT prepared?) ✔Operational Excellence (is IT Efficient?) ✔User Orientation (Are users satisfied with IT?) ✔It is the most effective means to aid the IT strategy committee and management in achieving IT governance through proper IT and business alignment ✔It needs the involvement of senior management in IT Strategy Planning

QUESTION 64

Project Portfolio Database

ANSWER

✔Mandatory for Project Portfolio Management ✔Includes Owner, schedules, objectives, project type, status, and costs. ✔Needs to include reports such as bar chart, profit vs risk matrix, and a progress graph ✔Adds value to strategic IT decision making

QUESTION 65

Information Security Program

ANSWER

✔Needs senior management's support in order to succeed ✔Supports Business Objectives ✔Driven by the CISO ✔Results in the enforcement of the management of security risk ✔Provides assurance that information assets are given a level of protection commensurate with their value or the risk their compromise poses to the organization. ✔Uses the Information Security Policy Statement as a starting point

QUESTION 66

Performance indicators of Business Scorecard

ANSWER

Need to be defined BEFORE BSC implementation ✔Customer Satisfaction ✔Internal Processes ✔Ability to Innovate CIA ✔NOT financial performance ?!

QUESTION 67

Board of Directors

ANSWER

IT Governance (including a Security Policy) is primarily the responsibility of this group

QUESTION 68

Project Steering Committee

ANSWER

✔The group that provides overall direction and ensures appropriate representation of the major stakeholders in the project's outcome ✔Should be comprised of a senior representative from each relevant business area ✔Monitor costs, schedules, and timetables ✔Ensures the success of the project

QUESTION 69

User Management (from a project standpoint)

ANSWER

✔Assumes ownership of the project and the resulting system. ✔Review and Approve deliverables

QUESTION 70

System Development Management

ANSWER

Provides technical support for the hardware and software environments by developing, installing, and operating the requested system

QUESTION 71

Library Control Software

ANSWER

Provides assurance that program changes have been authorized

QUESTION 72

Project Sponsor

ANSWER

✔The manager in charge of the business function ✔Owner of the data and the system under development ✔Responsible fore providing functional specification through functional users.

QUESTION 73

IT Security Baseline

ANSWER

An IS auditor should first evaluate the definition of the minimum baseline level by ensuring the sufficiency of the control baseline to meet security requirements.

QUESTION 74

Software Baseline

ANSWER

✔The cutoff point in the design; also referred to as Design Freeze ✔Prevents Scope Creep

QUESTION 75

Resource Owners

ANSWER

Are accountable for protection of their resources

QUESTION 76

Laws, Regulations, and Industry Standards

ANSWER

✔Organizations NEED to have a list of applicable laws and regulations ✔Compliance with these laws are ESSENTIAL is compliance with these laws

QUESTION 77

Quality Assurance

ANSWER

✔Is a process to provide adequate confidence that an item or product conforms to established norms ✔QA personnel verify that system changes are authorized, tested, and implemented in a controlled manner ✔Pro-active ✔Prevents defects ✔More focused on the process ✔Interacts between Project Management and User Management

QUESTION 78

Quality Control

ANSWER

✔Is the process for conducting tests or reviews to verify a product is defect-free and fulfills the requirements of the user. ✔Done before the product goes into production ✔Reactive ✔Finds Defects ✔More focused on Product ✔In order to ensure sufficient test coverage occurs, requirements can be tested in terms of performance and frequency of use.

QUESTION 79

QA Personnel

ANSWER

✔Should be independent (IMPORTANT) ✔Does Quality Assurance and Quality Control ✔ Should not create a Segregation of Duties issue ✔Should never check his or her own work

QUESTION 80

Generalized Audit Software

ANSWER

✔Data Analytic Tool. ✔Computer programs used by auditors that provide data retrieval, data manipulation, and reporting capabilities specifically oriented to the needs of auditors

QUESTION 81

Integrated Test Facility - ITF

ANSWER

✔Type of Continuous Auditing ✔Dummy entity/account is set up in LIVE environment ✔Dummy or Test Transactions are entered ✔Process results are compared to expected results ✔Dummy / Test transactions are then removed

QUESTION 82

System Control Audit Review File/Embedded Audit Module - SCARF/EAM

ANSWER

✔Type of Continuous Auditing ✔An embedded / inbuilt software module is used to continuously monitor transactions as they are processed ✔This method is used to collect data for special audit purposes. ✔Records only those transactions which are of special audit significance such as above a specified limit or related to a standard deviation. ✔A printout / output is produced regularly to be examined ✔Used when regular processing cannot be interrupted

QUESTION 83

Mapping

ANSWER

Identifies specific program logic that has not been tested, and analyzes programs statements have been executed

QUESTION 84

Snapshot Technique

ANSWER

✔Type of Continuous Auditing ✔Pictures (Snaps) are taken of the transactions as they move through various stages in the application system ✔Transaction snaps are taken pre- and post-processing. ✔Used when Audit Trail is required ✔Three important considerations: 🎈Location where the snaps are taken 🎈Time of snaps 🎈Reporting of snaps

QUESTION 85

Continuous and Intermittent Simulation - CIS

ANSWER

✔A type of Continuous Auditing ✔This is a variation of the SCARF method ✔Can be used with DBMS (databases) ✔The database sends criteria based copies of transactions to the CIS, which replicates the processing the transaction gets in the actual application ✔The results from the application are compared to the results from CIS. ✔Best for pre-defined highly complex criteria

QUESTION 86

Audit Hook

ANSWER

✔Type of Continuous Auditing ✔Audit Software that captures suspicious transactions ✔Criteria for suspicious transactions are designed by the auditors per requirement ✔Useful when Early Detection is needed

QUESTION 87

Testing Classifications

ANSWER

✔Unit - Single Module ✔Integrated or Interface - Two or more Modules ✔System - Usually in non-production ✔Final Acceptance Testing

QUESTION 88

Unit Testing

ANSWER

✔Done by Developer on a particular module ✔White Box testing approach

QUESTION 89

Integrated Testing

ANSWER

✔Testing of two or more modules that pass information to each other

QUESTION 90

System Testing

ANSWER

✔To evaluate the entire system's functionality. ✔Includes these types of testing: 🎈Recovery - ability to recover after hw / sw failure 🎈Security - System includes access controls and no new security holes 🎈Load - performance with lots of data 🎈Volume - uses increasing loads to find max volume 🎈Stress - uses increasing numbers of users to find max users 🎈Performance - compare to other systems using well-defined benchmarks

QUESTION 91

IT Performance Measurement Process

ANSWER

Done to optimize performance

QUESTION 92

Final Acceptance Testing

ANSWER

✔Performed after system staff is satisfied with the system tests ✔QAT - Quality Assurance Testing ✔UAT - User Acceptance Testing

QUESTION 93

Regression Testing

ANSWER

✔Ensures changes in a program have not introduced new errors ✔Data should be the same used for previous tests

QUESTION 94

Sociability Testing

ANSWER

✔Make sure the new or modified system can work in the specified environment without adversely impacting existing system

QUESTION 95

Pilot Testing

ANSWER

✔Testing system in one location before implementing it at other locations

QUESTION 96

Parallel Testing

ANSWER

✔Compares results of processing on the old and the new system ✔Purpose is to ensure implementation of new system meets the user requirements ✔Abilty to roll back is easy

QUESTION 97

White Box

ANSWER

✔Program Logic is Tested ✔Applicable for Unit Testing ✔Detailed knowledge of the program is needed

QUESTION 98

Black Box

ANSWER

✔Functionality is tested, not program logic ✔Applicable for UAT (User Acceptance Testing) ✔Does not need detailed knowledge of the program

QUESTION 99

Alpha Testing vs Beta Testing

ANSWER

Alpha: ✔Done by internal user ✔Done before Beta testing ✔May not involve full functionality testing Beta: ✔Done by External user ✔Done after Alpha testing ✔Generally involves full functionality testing

QUESTION 100

Bottom-Up Approach Vs Top-Down Approach

ANSWER

Bottom-Up Approach: ✔Begin testing of individual units/programs/modules and work upward until a complete system is tested ✔Advantages: 🎈Tests can be started before all programs are complete 🎈Errors in critical modules can be found early Top-Down Approach: ✔Tests start from a broader level and work down towards individual until/programs/modules ✔More appropriate for Prototype development 🎈Interface errors can be detected earlier 🎈Confidence in the system can be achieved earlier

QUESTION 101

Unit Testing vs Interface/Integrated Testing

ANSWER

Unit Testing - Tests individual program or module Interface/Integrated Testing - Tests connections between two or more components that pass information

QUESTION 102

Regression vs Sociability vs Integration Testing

ANSWER

Regression Testing - changes have not introduced new errors Sociability Testing - changes still work in the existing system Interface Testing Integration Testing - to ensure data flows between modules

QUESTION 103

Interface vs Integration Testing

ANSWER

Seems to be the same thing to me

QUESTION 104

Check Digit

ANSWER

✔A mathematically calculated value that is added to data to ensure the original data has not been altered ✔Used to ensure accuracy ✔Identifies Transcription and Transposition errors Think - Transpose Digits when Transcribing

QUESTION 105

Parity Bits

ANSWER

✔An extra bit is added to the data. The bit simply says whether the number of 1 bits is even or odd. ✔It has a 50% of detecting an error ✔Used for transmission errors, integrity, and completeness (Parity, Checksum, and CRC)

QUESTION 106

Checksum

ANSWER

✔Same as Parity but much more complex ✔Used for transmission errors, integrity, and completeness (Parity, Checksum, and CRC)

QUESTION 107

CRC - Cyclic Redundancy Checksum / Redundancy Checksum

ANSWER

✔More advanced Checksum ✔Used for transmission errors, integrity, and completeness (Parity, Checksum, and CRC)

QUESTION 108

Parity, Checksum, CRC

ANSWER

✔Check Digit - Transcription or Transposition ✔Transmission Errors, Completeness, or Integrity, the following are true: 🎈Parity - Weak 🎈Checksum - Medium 🎈CRC - Strong

QUESTION 109

Forward Error Control

ANSWER

CRC with the ability to correct the error

QUESTION 110

Atomicity

ANSWER

✔A database feature where the entire transaction is committed or not at all. ✔Part of Concurrency Control

QUESTION 111

Referential Integrity

ANSWER

✔A set of rules that the database uses to ensure that the data between related tables is valid. ✔Uses Foreign Keys in linked tables

QUESTION 112

Code Signing

ANSWER

To sign an individual executable/interpreted code digitally so that users have confidence the code they run is the actual code from the developer.

QUESTION 113

Edit Checks

ANSWER

Identify erroneous, unusual or invalid transactions (preventative)

QUESTION 114

Normalization

ANSWER

✔Converts the data into a readable/understandable format ✔In a database, data will have a primary key, and one value for each attribute ✔If the database is not Normalized, justification needs to be obtained ✔Is a design or optimization process for a relational database that increases redundancy

QUESTION 115

Structured Query Language (SQL)

ANSWER

Industry standard that facilitates portability

QUESTION 116

Integrity Constraints

ANSWER

Rules in a Database that help ensure the quality of information

QUESTION 117

Tuples

ANSWER

Records or Rows in a Relational Database

QUESTION 118

Trained Development and OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project)

ANSWER

The best way to secure a web server

QUESTION 119

Critical Path Methodology (CPM)

ANSWER

✔Technique for estimating project duration ✔A sequence of activities where duration is the longest ✔CPM is the shortest time to complete the job ✔Activities on CPM have Zero Slack Time ✔You can also say activities with Zero Slack Time are always on the CPM

QUESTION 120

Slack Time

ANSWER

The time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the entire project.

QUESTION 121

PERT (Program Evaluation Review Technique)

ANSWER

✔A type of CPM technique to estimate project duration ✔Better than CPM in that it considers three scenarios instead on one (CPM); 🎈Optimistic / Best 🎈Normal / Most Likely 🎈Pessimistic / Worst

QUESTION 122

Post-Implementation Project Review

ANSWER

✔To assess and measure the value of newly implemented systems ✔Do a Return on Investment Analysis ✔Ensures that the application operates as designed ✔Carried out weeks or months after the project ✔Go over lessons learned

QUESTION 123

Gantt Chart

ANSWER

✔Progress for the entire project can be read to determine whether the project is behind, ahead, or on schedule when compared to the base project plan ✔Can be used to track the achievement of a milestone

QUESTION 124

FPA (Function Point Analysis)

ANSWER

✔Estimates software size (and how long it will take to code) ✔Function Points are a unit of measure for software size, like miles for distance, or pounds for weight. ✔Function Points are derived from the number of inputs, outputs, files, interfaces, and queries. ✔This is more reliable than SLOC

QUESTION 125

SLOC (Software Lines of Code)

ANSWER

✔A software size estimator. ✔More lines of code take longer

QUESTION 126

EVA (Earned Value Analysis)

ANSWER

✔What have you completed so far? ✔Determines if spending and resource allocation is in line with the project plan ✔Compares the following metrics at regular intervals 🎈Budget to date 🎈Spending to date 🎈Estimate work hours to complete 🎈Estimate work hours at completion ✔Compares the planned amount of work with what has actually been completed to see if everything is on plan

QUESTION 127

Information Systems Development Project Cost Estimation

ANSWER

✔Analogous Estimating - By using estimates of prior projects ✔Parametric Estimating - Take Analogous and and add statistical data like estimated employee hours materials costs, etc. ✔Bottom-Up Estimating - Estimated the cost of each activity in greatest detail - Most Accurate, Most Time Consuming ✔Actual Costs ✔Software Size Estimating - By complexity and lines of code

QUESTION 128

Time-box Management

ANSWER

✔Advantage is that it prevents project cost overruns and delays from the scheduled delivery ✔Is used for prototyping or rapid application development where the project needs to be completed within a timeline ✔It integrates system and user acceptance testing but does not eliminate the need for quality process

QUESTION 129

Types of Project Tracking

ANSWER

✔Pert / CPM -- Project Duration or Timeline (PERT is Better) ✔Gantt -- Monitors progress and milestones ✔EVA -- What is done so far, What is left? ✔FPA & SLOC --Estimate software size and complexity (FPA is Better)

QUESTION 130

DSS Decision Support System

ANSWER

✔Is an interactive system that supports semi-structured decision making. ✔It collects data from varied sources and provides useful information to managers ✔Uses prototyping in design and development

QUESTION 131

DSS Provides:

ANSWER

✔Comparative sales figures, week to week ✔Projected revenue figures based on various assumptions ✔Evaluation of various alternative on the basis of past experience

QUESTION 132

Characteristics of DSS:

ANSWER

✔Supports semi-structured or less-structured decisions ✔Uses techniques with traditional data access and retrieval function ✔Is flexible and adoptable in the changing environment ✔Uses a Decision Tree to lead users through a series of choices until solution is found

QUESTION 133

DSS Efficiency vs Effectiveness

ANSWER

✔DSS says to concentrate on Effectiveness over Efficiency ✔DSS Right Task is better than Quick Tasks (reducing costs)

QUESTION 134

DSS Risk Factors

ANSWER

1. Non-existent or unwilling users 2. Multiple users or implementers 3. Disappearing users, implementers, and maintainers 4. Inability to predict and cushion impact on all parties 5. Lack or loss of support 6. Lack of experience with similar systems 7. Technical problems and cost-effectiveness 8. Inability to specify purpose or usage patterns in advance

QUESTION 135

Audit Planning Steps

ANSWER

✔Understand Business ✔Do a Risk Assessment ✔Set Audit Scope and Audit Project ✔Set Audit Approach ✔Assign Resources ✔Address logistics

QUESTION 136

Agile Development

ANSWER

✔Allows the programmer to just start writing a program without spending much time on pre-planning documentation ✔Less focus on paper deliverables ✔The major risk is the lack of documentation ✔More focus on delivering functional code in short iterations ✔At the end of each iteration, the team reviews and documents what worked well and what needs to be improved in future iterations. ✔Programmers like it because they skip tedious planning exercises.

QUESTION 137

Waterfall

ANSWER

✔Traditional SDLC development with formal sign off after each level ✔Does well when requirements are well defined ✔Does not do well with rapidly changing user requirements

QUESTION 138

SDLC Phases

ANSWER

1. Planning - Specific deliverables are defined for each phase 2. Analysis 3. Design 4. Development 5. Testing 6. Implementation 7. Maintenance

QUESTION 139

SDLC Phase 1 - Planning and Feasibility Study

ANSWER

✔An activity that determines the expected benefits of a program or project. ✔Includes the estimated costs and benefits. ✔Used to build the Business Case ✔Seeks to uncover every reasonable issue and risk of the program or project. ✔Addresses the Organizational Impact of the project

QUESTION 140

SDLC Phase 2 - Analysis. Requirements Definition.

ANSWER

These don't cover HOW the requirements are to be achieved. ✔They should be measurable as possible ✔Business Functional Requirements ✔Technical requirements ✔Security and Regulatory Requirements. ✔Disaster Recovery / Business Continuity Requirements ✔Privacy Requirements.

QUESTION 141

SDLC Phase 3 - Design or Software Selection and Acquisition

ANSWER

✔Top-down, High level to detailed level. ✔Business owners/customers should review the designs and approve ✔Create Test Plans at this stage ✔Auditors confirm that the future application's integrity can be confirmed through audits ✔Includes Requests for Proposals for software purchases (not in-house development) ✔Ends with a Design Freeze

QUESTION 142

SDLC Phase 4 - Development or Configuration

ANSWER

✔Coding the Application ✔Create program and system level documents that include program logic, data flow, and interfaces ✔Write user procedures ✔Work with users to confirm the application will meet their needs ✔Debugging / Unit testing Commercial Off The Shelf (COTS) software may require coded customizations, reports, Authentication, and integration with other systems.

QUESTION 143

SDLC Phase 5 - Testing

ANSWER

Plans are made then ✔Unit Testing, System Testing, Functional Testing, User Acceptance Testing OR Quality Assurance Testing for COTS

QUESTION 144

SDLC Phase 6 - Implementation

ANSWER

✔Implementation Planning ✔Training ✔Data Migration ✔Cutover

QUESTION 145

SDLC Phase 7

ANSWER

✔Post Implementation Review ✔All parts go into a Maintenance mode/process

QUESTION 146

Prototyping

ANSWER

✔Creating systems through controlled trial and error ✔A prototype is an early sample or model to test a concept or process. ✔The rapid pace may affect change control ✔A prototype is a small scale working system used to test Assumptions ✔Assumptions may be about user requirements, program design, or internal logic ✔Top-Down Testing is MOST effective during the initial phases of Prototyping ✔Prototyping can provide the organization with significant time and cost savings ✔By focusing on what the user wants and sees, developers may miss some of the controls that come from traditional methodologies. ✔The potential risk is fewer controls, extra functions, and complicated change control

QUESTION 147

RAD includes use of:

ANSWER

✔Small and well-trained development teams ✔Prototypes ✔Tools to support modeling, prototyping, and component reuse-ability ✔Central repository ✔Rigid limits on development time frames

QUESTION 148

RAD (Rapid Application Development)

ANSWER

✔Enables the organization to develop systems quickly while reducing development cost and maintaining quality. ✔Shortens Development Time Frame ✔Relies on the usage of a prototype that can be updated continually to meet changing user or business requirements

QUESTION 149

Object Oriented System Development (OOSD)

ANSWER

✔Is a programming technique, not a software development methodology ✔Objects refer to a small piece of program that can be used individually or in combination with other objects ✔Objects are made from a template called a CLASS ✔In Object-oriented language, the application is made up of smaller components (objects) ✔One of the major benefits of object-oriented design and development is the ability to re-use objects. ✔OO uses a technique known as 'encapsulation' where one object interacts with another object. ✔Encapsulation allows an enhanced degree of security over data. ✔Polymorphism allows same message to be interpreted differently by two or more objects ✔Inheritance - classes inherit features from other classes ✔Any particular object can call another object to perform its work.

QUESTION 150

Component Based Development (CBD)

ANSWER

✔A general approach to systems development that focuses on building small self-contained blocks of code (components) that can be reused across a variety of applications within an organization. ✔Can be regarded as an outgrowth of OO (Object Oriented) development ✔A major advantage is the support of multiple development environments.

QUESTION 151

Business Process Reengineering (BPR)

ANSWER

✔Usually automating system processes ✔You review an area, redesign and streamline it, and the implement and monitor it with a continuous improvement process

QUESTION 152

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security)

ANSWER

Secures communications between hosts, subnets, or both. Two modes: ✔Tunnel Mode that encrypts the entire packet, including the header ✔Transport Mode that encrypts only the data portion of the packet 🎈Adding the Encapsulating Security Payload protocol will add Confidentiality

QUESTION 153

File Header Records

ANSWER

Can provide proper assurance that proper data files are being used and it allows for automatic checking

QUESTION 154

Software Re-Engineering

ANSWER

✔Is the process of updating an existing system by extracting and re-using design and program components ✔This process is used to support major changes in the way an organization operates

QUESTION 155

Reverse Engineering

ANSWER

✔Is the process of studying and analyzing an application and the information is used to develop a similar system

QUESTION 156

CASE Computer Aided Software Engineering

ANSWER

✔The use of automated tools to aid in the software development process ✔Three types of CASE Products 🎈Upper - Used to describe and document requirements. Includes data object definitions and relationships 🎈Middle - Used for detailed designs. Screen and report layouts 🎈Lower - Generate program code and database definitions

QUESTION 157

Business Process Re-Engineering

ANSWER

✔Redesigning of business processes to improve performance, quality, and productivity. ✔Risk of controls being re-engineered out of a system

QUESTION 158

Steps in Business Process Re-engineering

ANSWER

1. Define areas to be reviewed 2. Develop a project plan 3. Gain an understanding of the process under review 4. Redesign and streamline the process 5. Implement and monitor the new process 6. Establish a continuous improvements process

QUESTION 159

Types of Insurance

ANSWER

✔IT Equipment & Facilities ✔Media (software) reconstruction ✔Extra Expense (for backup facilities) ✔Business Interruption ✔Valuable papers and records ✔Errors and Omissions (legal liability) ✔ Fidelity Coverage (usually in the form of blanket bonds, covers an employees fraud or forgeries) ✔Media Transportation - covers media in transit

QUESTION 160

Indemnity Clause

ANSWER

Security or protection against loss or other financial burden (not insurance)

QUESTION 161

RTO Recovery Time Objective

ANSWER

✔Acceptable amount of Downtime ✔Low RTO addressed with Hot Site ✔Critical Systems have Low RTO

QUESTION 162

RPO Recovery Point Objective

ANSWER

✔Acceptable amount of data loss ✔Low RPO is addressed with Mirror imaging or replication ✔Critical Data has Low RPO

QUESTION 163

Interruption Window

ANSWER

✔The maximum period of time the organization can wait from the point of failure to the critical services/applications restoration. After this time, the progressive losses caused by the interruption are unaffordable. ✔Is part of the Service delivery objective (SDO)

QUESTION 164

Service delivery objective (SDO)

ANSWER

✔Level of services to be reached during the alternate process mode until the normal situation is restored. This is directly related to the business needs. ✔The minimum acceptable operational capability

QUESTION 165

Maximum tolerable outages (MTOs)

ANSWER

Maximum time the organization can support processing in alternate mode. After this point, different problems may arise, especially if the alternate SDO is lower than the usual SDO, and the information pending to be updated can become unmanageable.

QUESTION 166

Mirrored Site

ANSWER

✔A fully redundant site with real-time data replication from the production site ✔Already has hardware, software, back-ups ✔Needs nothing to restore service ✔Even databases work ✔Most Expensive

QUESTION 167

Hot Site

ANSWER

✔Has Hardware and Software ✔Needs updated Database (IMPORTANT) ✔Needs an updated restore to restore service

QUESTION 168

Warm Site

ANSWER

✔Has some Hardware and some Software ✔Needs Some Applications ✔Needs timely availability of hardware (IMPORTANT) ✔Needs data restore

QUESTION 169

Cold Site

ANSWER

✔Has space and basic infrastructure (power) ✔Needs All Hardware and All Applications ✔Needs data restore ✔For Non-critical applications

QUESTION 170

Mobile Site

ANSWER

✔Processing facilities in a transportable vehicle ✔Used with Cold or Ward Sites

QUESTION 171

Reciprocal Agreement

ANSWER

✔When two organizations with similar processing agree to help each other in case of emergency ✔These are the least expensive ✔These are the least reliable - both companies may experience the same incident ✔Hardware and Software incompatibilities may exist

QUESTION 172

Twisted Pair

ANSWER

✔Copper circuits ✔Can be shielded or unshielded

QUESTION 173

Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

ANSWER

✔Pairs are twisted to minimize interference from other pairs ✔Less Attenuation (loss of signal strength) ✔Current flows through pairs in opposite directions ✔Shield reduces cross-talk and electromagnetic sensitivity

QUESTION 174

Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)

ANSWER

✔Pairs are twisted to minimize interference from other pairs ✔Not immune to electromagnetic interference ✔Keep them away from fluorescent lights ✔Parallel runs should be avoided due to cross-talk

QUESTION 175

Fiber-Optic

ANSWER

✔Glass fibers carry binary signals as flashes of light ✔Low transmission loss ✔Not affected by EMI (Electromagnetic Interference) ✔More secure than other media ✔Preferred media for voice and long distances

QUESTION 176

Coaxial Cables

ANSWER

✔Easy installation and readily available ✔Expensive ✔Distance limited ✔Difficult to modify ✔Low Attenuation ✔Does not support many LANs

QUESTION 177

Attenuation

ANSWER

✔Weakening of signal during transmission ✔Occurs with wired and wireless ✔Length of wire affects Attenuation

QUESTION 178

Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)

ANSWER

✔Disturbance generated by an external source that affects electrical circuits ✔The disturbance can degrade the circuit ✔Can be caused by electrical storms, motors, fluorescent lights, radios, etc

QUESTION 179

Crosstalk

ANSWER

Is EMI (Electromagnetic Interference) from one un-shielded pair to another, normally running in parallel

QUESTION 180

Last Mile Circuit Protection

ANSWER

✔Provides redundancy for local communication loop

QUESTION 181

Long haul Network Diversity

ANSWER

✔Provides redundancy for long distance availability

QUESTION 182

Alternate Routing

ANSWER

✔Is the method of routing information via an alternative medium such as copper cable or fiber optics ✔The process of allocating substitute routes for a given traffic stream in case of failures. ✔Two different cables from the exchange to your site

QUESTION 183

Diverse Routing

ANSWER

✔The method of routing traffic through split cable or duplicate cable facilities. ✔This can be accomplished with different and/or duplicate cable sheaths. ✔Two Cables from Two Exchanges

QUESTION 184

Difference between Alternate Routing and Diverse Routing

ANSWER

✔Alternate Routing - Alternative medium such as copper or fiber optics ✔Diverse Routing - uses split cables or duplicate cables

QUESTION 185

OSI Model

ANSWER

7. Applications - Application Layer Firewall 6. Presentation 5. Session - Circuit Layer firewall 4. Transport - TCP 3. Network - IP - Routers, Packet & Stateful Firewall, VLANs 2. Datalink - MAC - Switch 1. Physical - Wire - Hub / Repeater

QUESTION 186

Repeater

ANSWER

✔Receives and re-transmits for longer distance ✔Layer 1 / Physical

QUESTION 187

Hub

ANSWER

✔Connect many devices for the exchange of data ✔Broadcasts to all connected devices ✔Lots of collisions ✔Does not learn MAC addresses ✔Layer 1 /Physical Layer

QUESTION 188

Switch

ANSWER

✔Smarter than hub ✔Broadcasts to required devices ✔No collisions in full duplex mode ✔Stores MAC addresses ✔Layer 2 / Data Link Layer

QUESTION 189

Bridge

ANSWER

✔Works like a Layer 2 switch (Data Link Layer) ✔Looks at MAC address and forwards to destination ✔Can store frames and act as a storage and forward device ✔Only has a few ports

QUESTION 190

Router

ANSWER

✔More intelligent than a Layer 2 switch ✔Layer 3 / Network Layer (IP) ✔Router examines IP address and makes intelligent decisions to forward packet to proper destination ✔Network segments connected via Router remain logically separate and can function as independent network ✔Routers Can: 🎈Block broadcast information 🎈Block traffic to unknown addresses 🎈Filter traffic based on network or host information

QUESTION 191

Backups

ANSWER

✔Full - Backup Everything - Slowest and lots of tapes ✔Differential - Everything that changed since last Full Backup ✔Incremental - Everything that changed since last backup (either Full or Incremental) - Fastest and fewest tapes

QUESTION 192

Restoration

ANSWER

✔Full - Fastest ✔Differential - Middle ✔Incremental - Slowest

QUESTION 193

Metadata

ANSWER

Data that describes data - this is the most important factor for designing Data Warehouses.

QUESTION 194

Penetration Testing

ANSWER

✔External - Attack on network perimeter ✔Internal - attack on target from within the perimeter ✔Blind - Attacker has Limited or No Knowledge of target's systems ✔Double Blind - Blind, plus the admin and security team don't know about the attack ✔Targeted - Attacker and security team are all aware. ✔Make sure Management knows about the test

QUESTION 195

Audit Scope

ANSWER

✔Include exact IP addresses to be included ✔Details of Hosts Not to be included ✔Details of testing techniques ✔NDA - Non-Disclosure Agreement ✔Responsibility of penetration tester to provide appropriate warning of tests to avoid false alarms to law enforcement

QUESTION 196

Threat Intelligence

ANSWER

✔The process of investigating and collecting information about emerging threats and threat sources. ✔Help organizations understand external threats

QUESTION 197

Types of Wireless Networks

ANSWER

✔WWANs - Wide Area (radio, satellite) ✔WLANs - Regular ol' WiFi ✔WPANs - Personal Area - Bluetooth ✔Wireless Ad Hoc networks - Dynamic, like cell phones

QUESTION 198

WiFi Security Good Practices

ANSWER

✔Enable MAC Filtering ✔Enable Encryption (adds confidentiality) 🎈Dynamic keys are better that static keys ✔Disable SSID broadcast ✔Disable DHCP

QUESTION 199

SSL/TLS - Secure Sockets layer / Transport Layer Security

ANSWER

✔Uses A Symmetric key (private key) exchanged via Asymmetric encryption. ✔Protects web and email ✔Provides the Best overall control for an internet business looking for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Reliability

QUESTION 200

War Driving, War Walking

ANSWER

✔Driving and Walking around trying to join / hack visible WiFI networks ✔Hackers use War Driving to hack networks

QUESTION 201

War Chalking

ANSWER

Drawing symbols on public places to show others an open Wifi Network

QUESTION 202

WPA2

ANSWER

✔The most secure standard for WiFi ✔WEP was first, then WPA, now WPA2

QUESTION 203

Packet Filtering Router

ANSWER

✔Simplest and earliest firewall ✔Allow or Deny per IP and Port number of source and destination packets ✔Works at Network Layer 3

QUESTION 204

Stateful Inspection Firewall

ANSWER

✔Keeps track of the destination of each packet that leaves the internal network ✔It ensures that incoming message is in response to the request that went out of the organization, and refuses all other messages. ✔Network Layer 3

QUESTION 205

Bastion Hosting

ANSWER

✔The firewall handles all the incoming requests from the Internet to the corporate Network. ✔Circuit Level and Application Firewalls use this ✔Requires authentication for users to gain access to proxy services ✔It is configured to access specific hosts

QUESTION 206

Circuit Level Firewall

ANSWER

✔Works on the concept of Bastion Host and Proxy Server ✔One Proxy for all Services ✔Do not allow a direct exchange of packets between the Internet and the internal server ✔System is hardened ✔Works on Session Layer 5

QUESTION 207

Application Level Firewall

ANSWER

✔Works on the concept of Bastion Host and Proxy Server ✔Do not allow a direct exchange of packets between the Internet and the internal server ✔System is hardened ✔Separate Proxy servers for each application (FTP, Telnet, HTTP) ✔System is hardened ✔These are the most secure firewalls ✔Runs on Application Layer 7

QUESTION 208

Firewall Implementation

ANSWER

✔Dual Homed - 2 NICs, 1 router ✔Screened Host - 1 NIC, 1 router ✔Screened Host (Subnet/Demilitarized Zone) - 2 routers (Safest)

QUESTION 209

Types of Access Control

ANSWER

✔Mandatory (MAC) ✔Discretionary (DAC) ✔Role-Based (great for user access, and often used for computer to computer application access) ✔Rule-Based

QUESTION 210

Steps to Implement Logical Access Controls

ANSWER

1. Inventory of IS resources 2. Classification of IS resources First step of classification is to find data/application owner 3. Grouping / Labeling of IS resources 4. Make the List

QUESTION 211

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

ANSWER

✔Set by InfoSec ✔Better that DAC

QUESTION 212

Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

ANSWER

✔Set by data owners or normal users

QUESTION 213

Role-Based Access Control

ANSWER

✔Access is based on roles individuals have within the organization ✔Users are assigned roles which have been assigned various privileges needed to perform that role ✔There is no way to limit Role-Based Access

QUESTION 214

Classification of Assets

ANSWER

✔Reduces the Risk of Under-Protecting data ✔Reduces the Cost of Over-Protecting data ✔Must consider: 🎈Legal / Regulatory / Contractual 🎈Confidentiality, Integrity, Availablity

QUESTION 215

Steps in Data Classification

ANSWER

1. Inventory Information Assets 2. Establish ownership for each asset 3. Classification of Assets (public, private, sensitive) 4. Labeling of Information Assets 5. Creation of Access Control List

QUESTION 216

Hardware Maintenance Program

ANSWER

✔Needs to be validated against vendor specifications. ✔Need to ensure a formal plan has been developed and approved by management. ✔Reports include Availability, Utilization, Asset Management, etc

QUESTION 217

Data Systems Owner

ANSWER

✔Classifies the Data ✔Accountable for maintenance of proper security controls

QUESTION 218

Digital Signature vs Digital Certificate

ANSWER

✔ A certificate binds a digital signature to an entity, whereas a digital signature is to ensure that a data/information remain secure from the point it was issued. ✔Digital certificates are used to verify the trustworthiness of a person (sender), while digital signatures are used to verify the trustworthiness of the data being sent. ✔Digital Signatures do not ensure confidentiality

QUESTION 219

Digital Certificate

ANSWER

✔Provides sender authenticity, message integrity, and non-repudiation

QUESTION 220

Web Site Certificate

ANSWER

Provides Authentication of the Web Site to be surfed

QUESTION 221

Digital Signature

ANSWER

✔A process where digital code is attached to an electronically transmitted document to verify it content and sender's identity ✔Ensures Integrity, Authentication, and Non-repudiation ✔Does NOT ensure Confidentiality

QUESTION 222

Steps for Digital Signature

ANSWER

1. Create Hash Value of the Message 2. Encrypt the Hash of the Message with the Private Key of the sender /signer 3. Receiver creates a Hash of the Message 4. Receiver decrypts the Hash with Senders public key 5. Receiver compares the two Hashes

QUESTION 223

Hash

ANSWER

A mathematical algorithm which gives unique fixed string for any given message

QUESTION 224

Symmetric Encryption

ANSWER

✔A Single Key is used to encrypt and decrypt ✔Faster computation and processing ✔Less expensive that Asymmetric ✔The challenge is safely sharing the key with the other party

QUESTION 225

Asymmetric Encryption

ANSWER

✔Users Two Keys; Public and Private ✔Message encrypted with one key and be decrypted with the other ✔Slower computation and processing ✔More expensive than Symmetric

QUESTION 226

Keys

ANSWER

✔Public keys are public ✔Private keys are private ✔Keys achieve Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

QUESTION 227

Confidentiality and the use of Keys

ANSWER

Ensured by encrypting the message with the receiver's Public Key

QUESTION 228

Authentication / Non-repudiation and the use of Keys

ANSWER

✔Make a Hash of the message ✔Encrypt Hash with Sender's Private Key

QUESTION 229

Integrity and the use of Keys

ANSWER

✔Make a Hash of the message ✔Encrypt the Hash with the Sender's Private Key

QUESTION 230

Confidentiality & Authentication and the use of Keys

ANSWER

✔Sender encrypts message with Receiver's Public Key ✔Sender Hashes the message and encrypts the hash with Sender's Private Key.

QUESTION 231

Confidentiality & Authentication & Integrity

ANSWER

✔Sender encrypts message with Receiver's Public Key ✔Sender Hashes the message and encrypts the hash with Sender's Private Key.

QUESTION 232

Asymmetric use with Symmetric

ANSWER

✔Sender encrypts the Symmetric key with the receiver's Public Key. ✔Sender encrypts message with Sender's private key.

QUESTION 233

Elliptical Curve Cryptography (ECC)

ANSWER

✔An asymmetric encryption algorithm commonly used with smaller wireless devices. ✔It uses smaller key sizes and requires less processing power than many other encryption methods ✔Smaller keys are more suitable to mobile devices.

QUESTION 234

PKI Public Key Encryption

ANSWER

✔A Framework to issue, maintain, and revoke Public Key Certificates by a trusted 3rd party known as a CA (Certifying Authority) ✔Does not provide encryption, only Authentication and Integrity

QUESTION 235

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) Process

ANSWER

1. Applicant applies for Digital Certificate from Certification Authority (CA) 2. Certification Authority (CA) delegates the verification process to the Registration Authority (RA) 3. Registration Authority (RA) validate information and tells Certification Authority (CA) to issue the certificate 4. Certification Authority (CA) issues the Certificate and manages the Certificate 5. Certification Authority (CA) maintains a list of certificates that have been revoked/terminated before its expiration date. This list is know as the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) 6. The Certification Authority (CA) will also have Certification Practice Statement (CPS) in which standard operation procedures (SOPs) for issuance of certificates and other relevant details are documented.

QUESTION 236

Certificate Revocation List (CRL)

ANSWER

A list, maintained by the Certification Authority (CA), of certificates that have been compromised or revoked by the owner.

QUESTION 237

Certification Practice Statement (CPS)

ANSWER

✔Describes how the Certificate Authority issues certificates and details about the certificate. ✔Provides value and trustworthiness of certificates

QUESTION 238

Certification Authority (CA)

ANSWER

✔A trusted third party that issues digital certificates ✔Issues and manages certificates ✔Is solely responsible for issuance of digital certificates ✔Is responsible for managing the certificate throughout its life-cycle ✔Delegates to the Registration Authority (RA) some of the administrative functions like verification of information needed to issue certificates ✔Validates and authenticates the holder of the certificate after issuance of the certificate ✔Organizations owning their own CA may be considered weaker

QUESTION 239

Registration Authority (RA)

ANSWER

✔An Optional Entity ✔Verifies the information provided by the applicant and tells the Certificate Authority (CA) to issue the certificate ✔Validates and authenticates information of the applicant before issuance of the certificate ✔Verifies the applicant is in possession of the private key - Proof of Possession (POP) ✔Distributes physical tokens containing private keys ✔Establishes a link between the requestor and its public key ✔Does NOT sign certificates

QUESTION 240

Pharming

ANSWER

Can be conducted either by changing the host’s file on a victim’s computer or by exploiting a vulnerability in DNS server software

QUESTION 241

Dual Control

ANSWER

Two people carry out an operation

QUESTION 242

Biometrics

ANSWER

✔Metric related to human characteristics ✔Any means by which a person can be uniquely identified by evaluating one or more biological features

QUESTION 243

False Acceptance Rate (FAR)

ANSWER

✔A measurement of invalid users that will be falsely accepted by the system. ✔Rate of false acceptances as a percentage of total access attempts ✔Rate of biometric acceptance of unauthorized persons. ✔This is a Type II error ✔This is the MOST important error rate ✔Retina Scan has the lowest / best rate

QUESTION 244

Biometric Life Cycle

ANSWER

1. Enrollment 2. Transmission and Storage 3. Verification 4. Identification 5. Termination Process

QUESTION 245

False Rejection Rate (FRR)

ANSWER

✔A measurement of valid users that will be falsely rejected by the system. ✔This is called a Type I error.

QUESTION 246

Cross Error Rate (CER) or Equal Error Rate (EER)

ANSWER

✔The rate where FAR and FRR are equal ✔Lower rates are better / more effective / fewer errors ✔This is the best overall performance indicator

QUESTION 247

Biometric Attacks

ANSWER

✔Replay - Residual fingerprint ✔Brute Force - Uses numerous different samples ✔Cryptographic - targets the algorithm or encrypted data ✔Mimic - imitating a voice - fake the biometric tool

QUESTION 248

Intrusion Detection (IDS)

ANSWER

✔Monitors a network or host for intrusive activities ✔Not a substitute for a firewall

QUESTION 249

Network Based IDS

ANSWER

✔High False Positive Rate ✔Better for detecting attacks from outside ✔Check for attacks or irregular behaviors by inspecting contents and header information of all the packets moving across the network

QUESTION 250

Host Based IDS

ANSWER

✔Low False Positive rate ✔Better for detecting attacks from insider ✔Detect activity on the host computer such as deletion of files and modification of programs

QUESTION 251

IDS Components

ANSWER

✔Sensors - Collect Data ✔Analyzers - Analyze data and determine intrusive activity ✔Administrative Console - To manage rules ✔User Interface - Enable user to view results and take necessary action

QUESTION 252

Types of Intrusion Detection Systems

ANSWER

✔Signature Based - Based on known pattern types of attacks. ✔Statistical Based - Determine Normal behavior, and trigger outside of that (Most number of False Positives) ✔Neural Network - Like Statistical, but adds self-learning. It monitors the network and everything goes into the database.

QUESTION 253

Limitations of IDS

ANSWER

✔Does not detect Application Level vulnerabilities ✔Back doors to application ✔Does not detect encrypted traffic

QUESTION 254

EUC (End User Computing)

ANSWER

End user created programs. ✔Fast ✔May lack testing and general controls

QUESTION 255

CGI Scripts (Common Gateway Interface)

ANSWER

✔Scripts that run on web servers ✔May allow a user to get unauthorized access to the servers

QUESTION 256

Java Servlet

ANSWER

✔Similar to CGI Scripts ✔Once started, these stay in memory which speeds up the processes

QUESTION 257

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

ANSWER

✔An exercise that determines the impact of losing the support of any resource to an organization, establishes the escalation of that loss over time, identifies the minimum resources needed to recover, and prioritizes the recovery of processes and supporting systems. ✔Helps define recovery strategies

QUESTION 258

BCP - Business Continuity Plan

ANSWER

✔The Disaster Recovery Plan is a sub-part of this ✔Manage risk while recovering from an event that adversely affected operations ✔Main goal is to protect human life ✔The activation of the plan is based on the duration of the outage ✔Employee Training is essential

QUESTION 259

BCP Testing

ANSWER

✔Pretest - set up equipment ✔Test - the actual operational activities are executed ✔Post-test - cleanup Other tests: ✔Paper Test / Desk Based Evaluation - walk-through ✔Preparedness Test- actual resources do a simulation. Usually preceded by a Paper Test ✔Tabletop Test -involves participation of relevant members of the crisis management/response team to practice proper coordination ✔Functional test of a scenario with limited IT involvement ✔Full operational test - one step below actual service disruption

QUESTION 260

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

ANSWER

✔Like an IDS, but adds prevention ✔Improperly set thresholds / limits can block legit traffic ✔Can be used by attackers - lots of bad traffic may clog the IPS and cause it to be disfunctional

QUESTION 261

Single Sign On (SSO)

ANSWER

User authentication service that permits a user to use one set of credentials to access multiple applicaitons

QUESTION 262

Advantages of Single Sign On (SSO)

ANSWER

✔Multiple passwords not required ✔Improves administrator's ability to manage user's accounts ✔Reduces administrative overhead cost in resetting passwords ✔Reduces time taken by users to log into multiple applications

QUESTION 263

Single Sign On (SSO) vs Reduced Sign On (RSO)

ANSWER

✔SSO - User signs in once (Kerberos) ✔RSO - User signs into multiple systems with the same user name and password

QUESTION 264

Disadvantages of Single Sign ON (SSO)

ANSWER

✔Acts as a single authentication point for multiple applications which constitutes a risk of a single point of failure ✔Acts as a single point authentication point for multiple applications. (Most Important) ✔Support of all major operating systems environments is difficult ✔Complex passwords are the BEST CONTROL

QUESTION 265

Fire Suppression Systems

ANSWER

✔Wet-Pipe Water-Based Systems (Danger to Equipment) ✔Dry Pipe Systems (Water) ✔Halon Systems ✔FM-200 ✔Argonite ✔Carbon Dioxide-CO2

QUESTION 266

Halon

ANSWER

✔Removes Oxygen from room ✔Not Safe for Humans ✔Should have an alarm, then a delay, then it should discharge ✔Banned since it destroys the ozone layer ✔Replaced with FM-200 NS Argonite

QUESTION 267

FM-200

ANSWER

✔Replaces Halon Gas ✔Colorless and odorless ✔Is safe near humans ✔Environmentally Friendly ✔Commonly used as a gas fire suppression agent ✔Often the preferred method of fire suppression

QUESTION 268

Argonite Gas

ANSWER

✔Mixture of 50% Argonite and 50%Nitrogen ✔Also used as a gaseous fire suppression agent ✔Environmentally friendly and non-toxic ✔People have suffocated in Argonite

QUESTION 269

CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

ANSWER

✔Pressurized CO2 replaces the Oxygen ✔ Not safe for Humans ✔In many countries, it is illegal to automatically resease if an human may be in the area ✔Is permitted where no humans are regularly present (such as a data center

QUESTION 270

What gas is safe for Human Life

ANSWER

✔Safe - Argonite, FM-200 SAFE ✔Not Safe - Halon, CO2 ✔Keep in mind people have suffocated in Argonite

QUESTION 271

Cloud Computing

ANSWER

✔Uses remote servers hosted on the Internet to store, manage, an process data ✔No worries about system maintenance ✔Automates computing capabilities like network, storage, server, etc, with no human intervention ✔Can be accessed anywhere by anything ✔Rapid and Scaleable ✔Relies on sharing of resources to achieve coherence and economies of scale, similar to a public utility ✔Ability to monitor, control, and report usage of the resource

QUESTION 272

Service Models of Cloud Computing

ANSWER

✔Iaas - Infrastructure as a Service ✔Saas - Software as a Service ✔Paas - Platform as a Service

QUESTION 273

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)

ANSWER

✔Cloud-hosted provider of virtualized servers and networks. ✔End users or IT Architects will use virtual machines as per their requirements ✔Physical servers are not maintained by the users ✔Amazon Web Services, Google Compute Engine, OpenStack, Etc

QUESTION 274

Software as a Service (SaaS)

ANSWER

✔Provides ability to the end users to access an application over the Internet ✔Application is hosted and managed by the service provider ✔Users are not required to maintain or control application development platform and related infrastructure ✔Google Docs, Office 365, Salesforce.com

QUESTION 275

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

ANSWER

✔Provides platform to the users to develop and deploy an application on the development platform provided by the service provider ✔In traditional application development, the application will be developed locally and will be hosted in a central location ✔This changes the application development from local machine to online ✔Google AppEngine, Windows Azure

QUESTION 276

Cloud Computing Deployment Models

ANSWER

Private Cloud Public Cloud Hybrid Cloud Community Cloud

QUESTION 277

Private Cloud

ANSWER

The cloud is used exclusively for the benefit of a particular organization. It resides within the boundaries of the organization ✔More secure environment and less chance of data leakage ✔Centralized control of cloud by organization itself ✔SLA does not exist or is very weak

QUESTION 278

Public Cloud

ANSWER

Open for use to the general public. Offered on the basis of pay per use basis ✔Highly Available ✔Highly Scalable ✔Affordable Cost ✔Less secure than other models ✔Strict SLAs

QUESTION 279

Hybrid Cloud

ANSWER

Combination of public and private. Initially, the private cloud is used, then additional resources in the public cloud are used. ✔More complex since more than 1 model is used ✔Less secure than private cloud ✔Highly Scaleable ✔Better SLA than private cloud

QUESTION 280

Community Cloud

ANSWER

Cloud is used by specific community of consumers that have shared interests ✔Collaborative maintenance is required. ✔No single company has control over the cloud ✔Less secure than private cloud / more secure than public cloud ✔Cost effective

QUESTION 281

Cloud Compliance with Legal Requirements

ANSWER

✔Verify whether regulations of the locations of infrastructure is aligned with enterprise requirement's ✔Contract to include terms to restrict the movement of assets within approved locations (MOST Important) ✔To prevent disclosure, encrypt the asset prior to migration to the Cloud Service Provider (CSP) ✔An Indemnity Clause included in the contract with the service provider

QUESTION 282

Cloud Physical Security

ANSWER

✔Verify the Cloud Service Provider's (CSP'S) physical security policy and ensure that it aligns with the enterprise's security policy ✔Obtain copy of independent security reviews or audit reports (BEST) ✔Bind the CSP through a contract to align with the enterprise's security policy and to implement necessary controls to ensure it ✔Verify CSP's disaster recovery plans and ensure that they contain the necessary arrangement to protect assets.

QUESTION 283

Cloud Data Disposal

ANSWER

✔Verify CSP's technical specifications and controls that ensure that data are properly wiped off as per requirement ✔Contract should specify that upon contract expiration a mandatory data wipe carried out in the presence of a representative of the company

QUESTION 284

Cloud Application Disposal

ANSWER

✔Contract should specify requirement for proper disposal of applications including objects, source and backups. ✔Contract should also include the non-compete clause

QUESTION 285

Cloud Identity and Access Management

ANSWER

✔Contract should include "right to audit" ✔Contract should specify implementation of necessary controls to ensure access to only authorized users ✔Obtain copy of independent security reviews or audit reports of CSP

QUESTION 286

Cloud Collateral Damage

ANSWER

✔Control should specify requirement of notification to enterprise in case of any event. ✔Contract should specify availability of contracted capacity and same should not be directed to other tenants (Instance) without approval ✔To use a private cloud deployment (no Multi Tenancy)

QUESTION 287

Security objectives for Cloud Computing

ANSWER

✔To ensure availability of information systems and data on continuous basis ✔To ensure the integrity and confidentiality information and sensitive data while stored and in transit ✔To ensure compliance to relevant laws, regulations and standards

QUESTION 288

Cloud Computing Auditing

ANSWER

✔Clarity with respect to data ownership, data custody, and security administration related to the cloud environment ✔To consider legal requirements, laws, regulations and unique risk in the cloud environment (Legal is MOST important) ✔Limitation to "right to audit" clause as it may not be possible to audit physical perimeters of cloud environment

QUESTION 289

Right to Audit

ANSWER

✔Always have vendors include this in the contracts ✔At minimum, you need to have access to 3rd party versions

QUESTION 290

Virtualization

ANSWER

✔Allows users to run multiple operating systems simultaneously on a single server ✔Main goal is to manage workloads by transforming traditional computing to make it more scaleable ✔Uses a physical machine's full capacity by distributing its capabilities among many users or environments ✔Provides an enterprise with a significant opportunity to increase efficiency and decrease costs ✔Creates a layer between the hardware and the guest OSs to manage shared memory and shared processing resources on the host

QUESTION 291

Elements of Vitualization

ANSWER

✔Server / Hardware ✔Hypervisor - Know as the HOST - software firmware or hardware that creates and runs the virtual machine environment ✔Guest machines: Virtual elements - servers, firewalls, or anything that was made

QUESTION 292

Virtualization Deployment Methods

ANSWER

✔Bare Metal / Native Virtualization - Hypervisor runs directly on hardware without a host ✔Hosted Virtualization - Hypervisor runs on top of the Host's OS ✔Containerization - Containers run as an isolated process in userspace on the Host OS

QUESTION 293

Disadvantages of Virtualization

ANSWER

✔Poor configuration of the host may create vulnerabilities for host as well as guest ✔Any attack against the host could affect all the guests ✔Inadequate security of management console can have risk of unapproved administrative access to the host's guests ✔Performance issues of the host's own OS could impact each of the host's guests ✔Risk of data leakage between guests if there is poor control for memory release and allocation

QUESTION 294

Virtualization Key Risk Areas

ANSWER

✔Installation of toolkits as a hypervisor below the Operating System and thus risk of interception of the Guest's OS. ✔Risk of improper configuration of the hypervisor partitioning resources (CPU, Memory, Drive Space, etc) can allow unauthorized access to resources ✔On hosted virtualization, mechanisms called guest tools can allow an attacker to gain access to particular resources ✔On hosted virtualization, products rarely have hypervisor access controls. Anyone who can launch as application on the host OS can run the hypervisor

QUESTION 295

Controls for Virtualizations

ANSWER

✔Secure configurations and harden the hypervisors and guest images ✔Encrypt hypervisor management communications ✔Ensure regular patch updates for the hypervisor ✔Synchronize to time server ✔Disconnect all unused hardware ✔Disable Hypervisor services such as Clipboard and Filesharing between Guest OS and Host OS ✔Log and monitor security events of each OS ✔File integrity monitoring of the hypervisor

QUESTION 296

Controls

ANSWER

Policies, Procedures, mechanisms, systems, and other measures designed to reduce risk.

QUESTION 297

Types of Controls

ANSWER

✔Physical - video surveillance (BEST Physical), fences ✔Technical/Logical - Encryption, computer access controls, logs ✔Administrative/Managerial - policies and procedures

QUESTION 298

Classes of Controls

ANSWER

✔Preventative - Login screen, Encryption ✔Detective - The VIEWING of Video and logs ✔Deterrent - Dogs, guards, visible video ✔Corrective - the act of improving a process found to be defective ✔Compensating - implemented when a direct control cannot be used ✔Recovery - Virus removal tool

QUESTION 299

Control Effectiveness Testing

ANSWER

Checked by the auditor conducting the process again (re-performance)

QUESTION 300

Process Effectiveness Testing

ANSWER

Checked by conducting a walk-through

QUESTION 301

SCADA (Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition)

ANSWER

Centralized systems that monitor and control entire sites.

QUESTION 302

CSIRT (Computer Security Incident Response Team)

ANSWER

✔Disseminate security alerts, guidelines, and updates to users and assist them in understanding the risks

QUESTION 303

Honeypot

ANSWER

✔Vulnerable computer that is set up to entice an intruder to break into it ✔Provides the MOST relevant information for proactively strengthening security settings

QUESTION 304

Utilization Data

ANSWER

Severs shouldn't be over or under utilized.

QUESTION 305

Tips

ANSWER

✔With Best / Most Concerning / Worst questions, read them as though all the answers have all occurred, and you have to choose at this point. ✔Seems whenever they ask about Fraud, Integrity is the Answer ✔Auditor should audit high-risk things first, then work down. Work it from the Risk Assessment ✔When it comes to BCP, testing is usually the most important thing to do ✔DRP - always make sure you have enough resources in the other location. ✔Patching needs change management. (for testing and risk review) ✔Unencrypted passwords and data is a bigger issue than most other security issues ✔Preventative Controls are better than Detective Controls ✔From a Risk standpoint, loss of data is much worse than loss of function ✔"Gap" is tied to "Existing" ✔"Accountability" is tied to "Log/Audit Trail"

Looking for a different version?

CBTs get updated every year. Search for the exact version you're taking (e.g. "cyber awareness 2025").

Search all study materials