Air ForceComprehensive Study Set

3D1X2 Air Force

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QUESTION 1

From what career field skill sets was the Cyber Transport (3D1X2) career field derived?

ANSWER

Visual Imagery and Intrusion Detection Systems (2E1X4); Computer, Network, Switching, and Cryptographic Systems; Voice Network Systems; and Network Integration

QUESTION 2

Which AFSC installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems and plans for responding to service outages and interruptions to network operation?

ANSWER

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2)

QUESTION 3

Which AFSC monitors and analyzes performance of underground, buried, and aerial cable, and antenna networks?

ANSWER

Cable and Antenna Systems (3D1X7)

QUESTION 4

What two documents provide a specialty summary and define the broad duties and responsibilities for the 3D1X2 Cyber Transport Systems career field?

ANSWER

Career Field Education & Training Plan (CFETP) and the Air Forcer Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD)

QUESTION 5

What systems and equipment do Cyber Transport Systems specialists deploy, sustain, troubleshoot, and repair?

ANSWER

Standard voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, IP detection systems and cryptographic equipment

QUESTION 6

Cyber Transport Systems specialists install, upgrade, replace, configure, and maintain systems/circuits/IP-based intrusion detection systems that access what type of networks?

ANSWER

Military, federal, and commercial networks

QUESTION 7

A duty and responsibility of a Cyber Transport Systems specialists is to apply communications security programs that include what four types of security?

ANSWER

Physical, cryptographic, transmission, and emission

QUESTION 8

During what meeting does the Cyber Transport Systems specialists serve as an adviser on information systems?

ANSWER

Facility design, military construction programs, and minor construction planning

QUESTION 9

A duty and responsibility of Cyber Transport Systems is to evaluate contracts, wartime, support, contingency, and exercise plans to determine impact on what?

ANSWER

Manpower, equipment, and systems

QUESTION 10

What is an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field(s) which makes a disproportionate contribution to the success of providing the right skills needed for military operations, anywhere, anytime?

ANSWER

Core competency

QUESTION 11

The Cyber Transport Systems core competencies include what four areas of responsibility?

ANSWER

Network integration; voice network systems; visual imagery and intrusion detection systems; and computer, network, switching, and cryptographic systems

QUESTION 12

Where does the Air Force publish industrial and general safety guidance?

ANSWER

In Air Force Instructions

QUESTION 13

Which Air Force instruction consolidates material in the 91-series of the AFOSH standards as they relate to general Air Force operations?

ANSWER

AFI 91-203

QUESTION 14

What guidance should you use when there is conflicting safety guidance?

ANSWER

The guidance that provides the most protection

QUESTION 15

What should you do if you encounter a hazardous situation not covered by existing directives?

ANSWER

Utilize the Risk Management (RM) process to assess the risk associated with the situation and then determine what adequate safeguards or procedures are necessary to manage risk

QUESTION 16

What is the purpose of Air Force Instructions 91-202?

ANSWER

To minimize the loss of Air Force resources and protect Air Force personnel from death, injuries, or occupational illnesses

QUESTION 17

What is JSTO?

ANSWER

An outline of mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare JSTG

QUESTION 18

What does the JSTG identify?

ANSWER

Applicable safety, fire protection/prevention, and health requirements for the specific work environment

QUESTION 19

What is the most common method of documenting the completion of mandatory employee safety training?

ANSWER

AF Form 55

QUESTION 20

You should report a personal injury; property damage; or any suspected exposure to biological, chemical, or nuclear hazardous materials to your supervisor within how many hours?

ANSWER

24 Hours

QUESTION 21

What are two of the most common causes for accidents and fires?

ANSWER

Carelessness ans sloppiness

QUESTION 22

What should you do if you notice a spill?

ANSWER

Take immediate action and clean it up

QUESTION 23

A situation that poses a level of threat to life, health, property, or environmental is defined as what?

ANSWER

Hazard

QUESTION 24

The primary responsibility for identifying workplace hazards rests with whom?

ANSWER

The individual

QUESTION 25

What program permits all Air Force personnel to alert supervisors and other appropriate officials of hazardous conditions that require prompt corrective action?

ANSWER

The USAF Hazard Reporting Program

QUESTION 26

The USAF Hazard Reporting Program authorizes the use of what form to identify and report hazards?

ANSWER

AF IMT 457

QUESTION 27

What are the four major types of hazards that can put both your health and safety at risk?

ANSWER

Chemical, physical, biological, and stress

QUESTION 28

Can lead to long-term health problems. Early signs include headaches, anxiety and impatience.

ANSWER

Stress

QUESTION 29

Contributing factors include fatigue, inattention, worry, anger, distraction, urgency, and lack of job knowledge

ANSWER

Human

QUESTION 30

Exists when there is a risk of direct skin contact, inhalation, accidental ingestion or absorption of hazardous chemicals.

ANSWER

Chemical

QUESTION 31

Includes any virus, bacteria, fungus, protozoan, insect,or other living organisms that can cause a disease in healthy humans.

ANSWER

Biological

QUESTION 32

Includes insufficient lighting, excessive levels of noise and vibration, pressure, temperature extremes, oxygen deficiency, and non-ionizing radiation

ANSWER

Physical

QUESTION 33

In general, the degree of risk associated with handling a specific chemical depends on what?

ANSWER

The toxicity of the chemical and the magnitude and duration of the exposure

QUESTION 34

What are the most common work center accidents?

ANSWER

1) Walking surface mishaps 2) Manual material handling mishaps 3) Electrical mishaps

QUESTION 35

What are the primary reasons for walking surface mishaps?

ANSWER

1) Poor housekeeping 2) Dangerous surface conditions 3) Inadequate lighting 4) Human factors

QUESTION 36

What are the most common physical acts responsible for manual handling injuries?

ANSWER

Lifting, carrying, dropping, and lowering

QUESTION 37

What factors influence the ability to manually lift an object?

ANSWER

The object's size, shape, weight, and distance of transfer

QUESTION 38

What is the preferred method to minimize the risks associated with manual lifting?

ANSWER

The use of engineering controls and mechanical assists

QUESTION 39

What determines the severity of an electric shock?

ANSWER

The amount of current flowing through the body, the time of exposure to the electricity, and the body's physical condition

QUESTION 40

A voltage that is capable of producing a current flow of how many milliamps can cause a shock that may result in cardiac arrests and be lethal?

ANSWER

50 milliamps or more

QUESTION 41

Most electrical accidents occur as a result of what?

ANSWER

Faulty or defective equipment, unsafe installations, improper grounding, misuse of equipment and poor work practices

QUESTION 42

What AFI directs specific LOTO requirements?

ANSWER

AFI 91-203

QUESTION 43

Why should you not rely on safety devices such as interlocks, high voltage disconnect relays, or automatic circuit grounds?

ANSWER

They are subject to failure

QUESTION 44

What is required when installing or repairing C&I systems, communication cables and antenna systems that may expose you to energized equipment, high voltage circuits (600 volts or above) or low voltage power if it is has a high current flow?

ANSWER

A qualified safety observer

QUESTION 45

If your equipment has a defective interlock, what should you do?

ANSWER

Notify all workers of the hazardous conditions and post a warning sign or tag on the equipment

QUESTION 46

Where are the requirements for Risk Management (RM) outlined?

ANSWER

Air Force Policy Directive 90-8

QUESTION 47

Where and when does the continuous Risk Management (RM) process apply?

ANSWER

Every career field and every individual in the Air Force, both in day-to-day activities and while on- or off- duty

QUESTION 48

What is a decision-making process used to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation?

ANSWER

Risk Management

QUESTION 49

The appropriate use of RM increases an organization's and individual's ability to do what?

ANSWER

Safely and effectively accomplish their mission/activity while preserving lives and precious resources

QUESTION 50

What four principles govern all actions associated with the management of risk?

ANSWER

1) Accept no unnecessary risk 2) Make risk decisions at the appropriate level 3) Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels 4) Apply the process cyclically and continuously

QUESTION 51

What are the five steps in the RM process?

ANSWER

Step 1. Identify the Hazards. Step 2. Assess the hazards. Step 3. Develop controls and make decisions. Step 4. Implement controls. Step 5. Supervise and evaluate.

QUESTION 52

What is the fundamental objective of risk management?

ANSWER

To enhance mission effectiveness at all levels while preserving assets and safeguarding the health and welfare of personnel

QUESTION 53

What does boundary protection provide?

ANSWER

It provides protection of the base network perimeter using a protection device or systems of devices, such as firewalls, network intrusion detection systems, and filtering services.

QUESTION 54

What is an enclave?

ANSWER

A collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single authority and security policy, including personnel and physical security.

QUESTION 55

When an enclave does not have a firewall and IDS, what vulnerability category is it?

ANSWER

Category I

QUESTION 56

What is a Category II vulnerability?

ANSWER

Any vulnerability that provides information that has a high potential of giving access to an intruder or gives an unauthorized person the means to circumvent security controls.

QUESTION 57

Where are the two INOSCs located?

ANSWER

(1) Peterson AFB, Colorado. (2) Joint Base Langley-Eustis, Virginia.

QUESTION 58

What is a firewall?

ANSWER

An access control method that acts as a barrier between two of more segments of a network or infrastructure.

QUESTION 59

What term describes the technology for transmitting voice communication over a data network using open-standards-based IP?

ANSWER

IP telephony

QUESTION 60

What are the three reasons to consider using IP telephony in a network versus not using IP telephony?

ANSWER

1) Greater efficiency of bandwidth and equipment 2) Lower costs for telephony network transmission 3) Better consolidation of voice and data network expenses

QUESTION 61

What does the VoIP telephone system provide?

ANSWER

Telephone calls where at least part of the call travels over an IP network.

QUESTION 62

Which publications will assist you in implementing IP telephony firewall security?

ANSWER

TOs (Technical Orders) and TCNOs (Time Compliance)

QUESTION 63

What are the four categories of IP firewalls?

ANSWER

1) Personal/SOHO 2) Corporate/enterprise 3) Network level 4) Application level.

QUESTION 64

What is the major benefit of a personal/SOHO firewall?

ANSWER

They take little to no system administration experience

QUESTION 65

Name the two categories of network firewalls?

ANSWER

Packet filters and circuit layer gateways.

QUESTION 66

In which layer does a packet filter gateway work?

ANSWER

Layer 3

QUESTION 67

When are network-level firewalls normally used?

ANSWER

When speed is essential.

QUESTION 68

What does an ACL (Access Control List) verify?

ANSWER

If the source and destination data are valid

QUESTION 69

How must INOSC-managed firewalls be configured?

ANSWER

To implicitly deny traffic unless explicitly permitted via ACL entries or an IP filter supporting an approved AIS/mission requirement

QUESTION 70

What is an adverse event that threatens some element of computer security, such as loss of data?

ANSWER

A computer security incident

QUESTION 71

What results from a denial of service security incident?

ANSWER

Either a system is disabled or a worm has saturated network bandwidth

QUESTION 72

What is the primary intrusion detection tool deployed across the AFEN?

ANSWER

ASIM

QUESTION 73

What is an IDS?

ANSWER

A system that scans, audits, and monitors the security infrastructure for signs of attacks in progress.

QUESTION 74

What does an IDS monitor?

ANSWER

Network traffic and changes to computer settings to detect patterns that can indicate known intrusion attempts.

QUESTION 75

Which type of IDS monitors traffic and alerts administrators about suspicious traffic?

ANSWER

Passive IDS

QUESTION 76

What does a network-based IDS examine?

ANSWER

Network traffic for suspicious patterns.

QUESTION 77

What are three of the key points to remember when using an IDS?

ANSWER

1) Consider using both network-based IDS and host-based IDS 2) Frequently update IDS signatures 3) Understand the nature of intrusions that IDS can detect 4) Distinguish between real intrusions and false positives 5) Deploy IDS on each network segment 6) Use a centralized management console to manage IDS

QUESTION 78

What are the three types of intrusion detection methods?

ANSWER

1) Host-bases 2) Network-based 3) Application-based

QUESTION 79

What is a HIDS?

ANSWER

A system that primarily uses software installed on a specific host

QUESTION 80

What is the advantage of HIDS?

ANSWER

It can analyze any encrypted data, as long as decryption occurs before reaching the target host

QUESTION 81

What is a major drawback of NIDS?

ANSWER

It cannot analyze encrypted packets, because it has no method for decrypting the data

QUESTION 82

HIDS relies on the host for this, but NIDS relies on the network

ANSWER

Resource Utilization

QUESTION 83

Findings would be hard to use in court for NIDS

ANSWER

Legal issues

QUESTION 84

HIDS monitors files for policy violations; NIDS monitors packets for anomalies and viruses

ANSWER

Monitoring agent

QUESTION 85

May be present due to service agreements and policy restrictions of HIDS; not so for NIDS

ANSWER

Management issues

QUESTION 86

The ability of HIDS to secure a specific resource

ANSWER

Best use

QUESTION 87

HIDS has a narrow and very specific scope while NIDS has a very broad and general scope

ANSWER

Capabilities

QUESTION 88

HIDS primarily uses software sensors, but NIDS primarily uses hardware sensors

ANSWER

Components

QUESTION 89

HIDS can be both, but NIDS can only be one

ANSWER

Passive or active

QUESTION 90

Both HIDS and NIDS tell administrators of trouble conditions via management console or email mesages

ANSWER

Alerts

QUESTION 91

May happen with HIDS, but probably not with NIDS

ANSWER

Management issues

QUESTION 92

The ability of NIDS to secure a large area with non-critical data

ANSWER

Best use

QUESTION 93

HIDS monitors traffic on the installed host, while NIDS monitors traffic on specific network segment only

ANSWER

Monitoring method

QUESTION 94

Findings may be admissible as court evidence for HIDS

ANSWER

Legal issues

QUESTION 95

HIDS can analyze the encrypted data if decryption occurs before reaching the target host, but NIDS cannot analyze encrypted data

ANSWER

Encrypted data

QUESTION 96

When will wired systems detect a wireless threat?

ANSWER

When the threat transforms from a wireless to a wired threat

QUESTION 97

Who is responsible for incorporating intrusion detection methodologies into wireless systems?

ANSWER

DAAs

QUESTION 98

What are the two possible security postures that you can adopt as part of your general policy on internal control, and what is the difference between these two postures?

ANSWER

A "default deny" posture to deny everything not specifically authorized and and "open" posture to allow everything not specifically denied

QUESTION 99

There are many ways to classify network security threats, such as internal or external or as intentional or unintentional. What are three other ways in which to classify network threats?

ANSWER

Environmental, technological, and human

QUESTION 100

What form do technological threats come in?

ANSWER

The form of unauthorized access into the network, viruses, worms, Trojan horses, and DoS attacks

QUESTION 101

What do the letters CCR stand for?

ANSWER

Contain, clean, and report

QUESTION 102

What is one of the most important tools used to maintain internal control?

ANSWER

Compliance enforcement

QUESTION 103

What is the purpose of access control systems and practices?

ANSWER

To protect information from the threats of unauthorized disclosure, modifications, or destruction.

QUESTION 104

What are the two categories into which information security-related access controls fall? What are some examples of each?

ANSWER

Technical Controls (i.e passwords and encryption that are part of normal network security) Administrative controls (such as segregation of duties and security screening of users)

QUESTION 105

How do you control access to desktop systems connected to critical networks?

ANSWER

By a power-on logon ID and password combination or locked office

QUESTION 106

What is the first line of defense to protect a laptop computer?

ANSWER

Require a logon ID and password combination to gain access to the PC's operating system

QUESTION 107

Define war-dialing?

ANSWER

Dialing each number on a telephone exchange either sequentially or randomly to detect the existence of modems

QUESTION 108

Having information ready when needed

ANSWER

Availability

QUESTION 109

Assurance that no one has changed or destroyed information

ANSWER

Integrity

QUESTION 110

Inability to deny who performed network actions

ANSWER

Non-repudiation

QUESTION 111

Protection of the network from those not authorized access

ANSWER

Confidentiality

QUESTION 112

Use of remote access for changing passwords must be severely restricted unless what capability is in place?

ANSWER

A strongly encrypted VPN protects the entire session

QUESTION 113

What organization approves the high-robust encryption for all classified traffic transmitted across unsecured channels?

ANSWER

NSA

QUESTION 114

What are certificates?

ANSWER

Special files that contain information about you, who issued the certificate, what time frame it is good for and when it expires. It also contains your keys.

QUESTION 115

What are the two primary forms of encryption?

ANSWER

Asymmetric and symmetric

QUESTION 116

Air Force Information Assurance Program applies to what?

ANSWER

All ISs owned, operated, or supported by the Air Force

QUESTION 117

What three core disciplines does IA cover?

ANSWER

COMSEC, COMPUSEC, and EMSEC

QUESTION 118

What AFSSI series cover EMSEC?

ANSWER

AFSSI 7000 series

QUESTION 119

What is TEMPEST?

ANSWER

Three-dimensional space surrounding systems that process classified or sensitive information within which TEMPEST exploitation is not considered practical or where legal authority to identify or remove a potential TEMPEST exploitation exists

QUESTION 120

What is the definition of inspectable space?

ANSWER

Identify requirements from the standpoint of IA risk management principles and to provide the appropriate protection at the least possible cost; preferably at no cost at all

QUESTION 121

What is the primary objective of EMSEC?

ANSWER

The WIAO is the focal point at a given installation for EMSEC matters. The purpose of the WIAO is to access the need for EMSEC and determine the required countermeasures. The WIAO also advises the commander of the existing vulnerabilities, threats, and risks and recommends a course of action to the wing commander

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