Prepare for the Surgical Technologist certification exam with this study guide and practice questions. This covers surgical procedures, sterile technique, and patient safety.
Q: What is an example of the interaction between personal and professional life?
Answer: The nature of the OR results in some isolation from the general public
Q: Patient safety and hospital efficiency and effectiveness are related to?
Answer: consistent communication
Q: What tasks belongs to the medical records department?
Answer: maintains and verifies all patient records, trascription of history and phsyical, requires proper signature, may provide past medical records when needed
Q: Preoperative diagnostic studies are performed by the?
Answer: Radiologist
Q: A professional organization dedicated to the improvement of surgical care by elevating standards of surgical education and practice is the?
Answer: American College of Surgeons
Q: The non-profit organization that develops standards and performance criteria for health care organiations is the?
Answer: The Joint Commission
Q: What is a proper job description?
Answer: Provides a job title, definition, specified requirements, duties and tasks, and designation of ones immediate supervisor
Q: Which OR team member is responsible for opening sterile supplies onto the field DURING a surgical procedure?
Answer: Circulator and ST in circulating role
Q: Surgical technologists are employed most often in which are of the hospital?
Answer: Surgery department
Q: When was the first national certifying exam for the surgical technologist offered?
Answer: Dec 1970
Q: Indirect patient care is provided by which departments?
Answer: administration, maintenance, housekeeping, food services, purchasing/central services, medical records
Q: The certification exam for surgical techs is given by what entity
Answer: National Board of Surgical Technologists and Surgical Assistants
Q: The surgical technologist serving in the traditional role is called the?
Answer: Scrub tech or STSR
Q: Accreditation is a term that applies to?
Answer: Programs
Q: Hospital philosophy and policy are usually determined by the ?
Answer: Board of Trustees
Q: A CRNA is part of what OR group
Answer: non sterile anesthesia dept
Q: A contractual relatinship and mutual benefit that exist when one party or entity agrees to pay another for a specified loss or condition is known as?
Answer: insurance
Q: Medicare is a program administered by the federal government through which agency
Answer: CMS
Q: The __ is a division of the United Nations that promotes health activites worldwide?
Answer: World Health Organization
Q: What entity accredits surgical technology programs?
Answer: Commission Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs
Q: A general description of the abilities needed to perform a job is known as?
Answer: competencies
Q: What term defines the relationship among coworker, surgeon, and other health care providers?
Answer: professional
Q: What term defines the relationship among the surgical technologist, the patient, and the patient’s family?
Answer: therapeutic
Q: According to the text, which factor is a key component in developing relationships?
Answer: communication
Q: According to the text, what is key to teamwork among health care providers?
Answer: communication
Q: Nonverbal communication involves several components. What term defines the following: be open-minded and objective
Answer: receptive
Q: A hospital that is owned by an individual or corporation in order to make a profit is known as which type of hospital?
Answer: Proprietary
Q: What program allows for a surgical technologist to ascend to positions of increased responsibility
Answer: Clinical Ladder
Q: What organization acts both as an insurer and a provider of medical services
Answer: Health Maintenance Organization
Q: What health care organization requires a primary care physician for all referrals?
Answer: HMO
Q: What hospital committee verifies the credentials of the physicians and specialized health care personnel
Answer: Medical Staff Committee
Q: The credential held by a nurse with several years experience in critical nursing and specialty training in anesthesia is ?
Answer: CRNA
Q: What department provides sterotactic services?
Answer: Diagnostic Imaging
Q: What department provides blood replacement services?
Answer: Medical Laboratory
Q: What department identifies patient hazards and develops solutions?
Answer: Risk Management
Q: What department provides informed consent?
Answer: Nursing Care Units
Q: What department provides preventive measures against infection?
Answer: Infection control
Q: What department repairs broken equipment?
Answer: Maintenance/Biomed
Q: What department oversees the sterilization needs of the hospital
Answer: Purchasing/central services
Q: What department maintains and verifies all patient records
Answer: Medical Records
Q: What department provides rehabilitation for the post-op patient?
Answer: Physical or Occupational therapy
Q: Which entity is responsible for verifying that the school attended by the ST meets national standarts?
Answer: ARC-ST
Q: Surgical pathology treating life or limb is defined as which type of surgery?
Answer: Emergent
Q: Surgical pathology requiring treatment within a relatively short period of time is known as?
Answer: Urgent
Q: A scheduled knee arthroscopy is classified as which type of surgery?
Answer: Elective
Q: Given the focused and technical tasks of the OR, the team must struggle against the tendency to?
Answer: Lose sight of the total person as a whole
Q: The needs or activities related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or gorup forms which component of the human being
Answer: Social need
Q: A uterine fibroid is an example of what type of factor causing surgical intervention?
Answer: nonmalignant neoplasm
Q: What is a malignant neoplasm?
Answer: colon cancer, giloblastoma, cancerous growth
Q: According to Maslow’s hierarchy, what are the most basic needs
Answer: Physiological, biological needs, water, o2, food, and temp. regulation
Q: All developmental theories must account for changes in what domain?
Answer: Cognitive, social, and physical
Q: One of the advantages to the life-stage approach is that it?
Answer: is practical and doesnt require advanced levels of education to apply
Q: If a patient asks what you do, you should?
Answer: explain honestly in simple terms
Q: What consideration may be more relevant to the elderly patient than to an adolescent?
Answer: pre-op planning, arthritis, decrease emotion, patient skin condition
Q: When positioning the elderly patient, the team must be especially aware of ?
Answer: fragile skin, restricted movement, joints, arthritis
Q: What are the common physiological factors in the elderly?
Answer: Decreased cardiac and respiratory function
Q: If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for what response?
Answer: Paradoxical (opposite)
Q: Several components make up an individual. Any need or activity related to genetics, physiology, or anatomy is termed a __ need?
Answer: physical
Q: Any need or activity related to the identification and understanding of oneself is termed a __ need?
Answer: Psychological need
Q: Any need or activity related to one’s identification or interaction with another individual or group is termed a __ need?
Answer: social
Q: Any need or activity related to the identification and understanding of one’s place in an organized universe (expressions may involve theology, philisophy, mythology, and intuition) is termed a __ need?
Answer: spiritual need
Q: what is the term given to a genetic malformation known commonly as a cleft lip?
Answer: cheiloschisis
Q: An example of a non malignant neoplasm is?
Answer: uterine fibroid
Q: according to the text, which two broad factors apply to a patient’s reaction to health, illness, and hospitilization?
Answer: adaptation and stress
Q: Roy states that health involves becoming an integrated and __ person?
Answer: Whole
Q: A non-specific response of the body to demand is known as?
Answer: stress
Q: when an injury or illness takes place, certain stressors affect the patient physically and mentally. An adolescent patient is very conscious about their?
Answer: body and privacy
Q: When an illness takes place, certain stressors affect the patient physically and mentally. Adult patients are worried about?
Answer: death, infirmity, family, paying bills, job security
Q: When an injury or illness takes place, certain stressors affect the patient physically and mentally. Pediatric patients fear?
Answer: anesthesia
Q: What religious group doesnt permit blood tranfusions
Answer: Jehovah’s witness
Q: what term describes the following coping mechanism: “The patient does not want to accept the truth of what is occuring”
Answer: denial
Q: Which term describes the following coping mechanism: “The patient returns to an earlier stage of life such as that of a child and exhibits behaviors unique to that stage of life”
Answer: regression
Q: What term describes the following coping mechanism: “A patient tries to give excuses as to why he or she has a particular illness”
Answer: rationalization
Q: What term describes the following coping mechanism: “a patient holds in thoughts and feelings about a disease or illness”
Answer: repression
Q: What types of values can create conflict in moral values?
Answer: Cultural and Religous
Q: In which religion is organ donation controversial
Answer: Buddhism
Q: In which religion is birth control not allowed?
Answer: Catholic
Q: What religion does not permit abortion under any circumstance?
Answer: American indian, jehovahs witness, hinduism, Catholic
Q: What religion uses the Torah as a holy text?
Answer: Judaism
Q: What religion does not drink coffee or tea?
Answer: Morman
Q: Special populations have unique __ needs
Answer: physical and psychological
Q: A patient is considered a pediatric patient if he or she is between the ages of ___?
Answer: birth to age 12
Q: The term neonate applies to the pediatric patient who is between the ages of __?
Answer: birth and 28 days of life outside the uterus
Q: A child less than 6 months of age cannot shiver therefore the child is at risk for?
Answer: hypothermia, bradycardia, and acidosis
Q: In the normal child, the testes descend by the age of?
Answer: one
Q: How caregivers should deal with pediatric patients?
Answer: in a truthful manner
Q: Who should stand nearby to assist the anesthesia provider during induction of a pediatric patient?
Answer: circulator or ST in circulating role
Q: What task should the circulating ST perform to assist the anesthesia provider during induction of a pediatric patient?
Answer: Hold the mask on face, hold patients hand, making sure the room is quiet, temp 70 degrees at least
Q: What are the critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients?
Answer: temp, urine output, cardiac function, and oxygenation
Q: In comparison to adults, pediatric patients have little subcutaneous fat and therefore?
Answer: poor thermal insulation
Q: What is the most effective way to keep an infant’s body temperature at an acceptable level?
Answer: overhead radiant heater, keep extremities covered
Q: Why are neonates and infants not usually catheterized?
Answer: due to high risk of trauma to the urethra
Q: What vein is least used for central venous catheter placement in the pediatric patient?
Answer: Saphenous vein
Q: What is the standard for intraoperative monitoring of oxygenation levels for all age groups of surgical patients?
Answer: measuring the arterial blood gases
Q: What are the two common types of shock seen in all age groups?
Answer: Septic and hypovalemic
Q: Septic shock is caused by?
Answer: gram negative bacteria
Q: Hypovolemic shock in neonates results in?
Answer: decreased venous return
Q: What is the most common cause of hypovalemic shock in infants?
Answer: Dehyrdration
Q: A major concern in the OR for pediatric patients is insensible water loss. Why does this loss occur?
Answer: Overhead radiant heaters and phototherapy
Q: What is the initial sign of a postop infection?
Answer: Fever
Q: What antibiotic should not be administered to children, because it causes staining and hypoplasia of the enamal of developing teeth?
Answer: tetracycline
Q: What is the number one cause of death in children ages 1-15?
Answer: accidents
Q: The first priority in a pediatric patient is to?
Answer: make sure patient has an open airway and that it is maintianed
Q: If a pediatric patient has a pneumothroax, there is an accumulation of air in the?
Answer: pleural cavity
Q: Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent?
Answer: severe hypovalemia
Q: During birth, the most common bone fracture is of the ?
Answer: clavicle
Q: When a patient’s body weight exceeds __ pounds greater than ideal body weight, the patient is considered to be obese.
Answer: 100
Q: Post-op recovery time for the patient who is obese is increased because?
Answer: tissue retains anesthetic agent
Q: Patients who are obese are subject to increased postop
Answer: wound infections
Q: Patients who are obese are at high risk for coronary artery disease because of?
Answer: hypertension and diabetes
Q: What post-op complications are common for gastric bypass or gastroplasty surgery?
Answer: suture rejection
Q: During abdominal procedures on patients who are obese, what procedure might additionally be perfomed due to newly identified pathology
Answer: cholecystectomy
Q: Anesthesia affects the normal __ and physiological process of insulin.
Answer: metabolic
Q: Immediate operative intervention is perfromed on the pregnant patient for what emergency procedure?
Answer: ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, trauma injury, incompetent cervix
Q: In the pregnant patient, what trimester is the ideal time to perform abdominal surgery?
Answer: 2nd trimester
Q: What type of diseases are autoimmune diseases?
Answer: multiple sclerosis, lupus erythmatosus, rheumatoid arthritis
Q: What situation would present difficulties in the intubation of a patient with AIDS
Answer: Kaposi sarcomas (lesions)
Q: The term golden hour refers to?
Answer: concept that medical treatment of a trauma victim within the first hour following injury improves patient outcome
Q: one of the best approaches to understanding individuals is to study?
Answer: human development
Q: The life-stage approach combines?
Answer: physical, psychological, social, and spiritual concerns
Q: Tears are not produced until the age of __ months
Answer: 2-3
Q: For pediatric patients, __ temperature is the primary means of monitoring temp.
Answer: skin
Q: Sulfonamides are associated with an increased incidence of __?
Answer: Kernicterus
Q: Placing the patient who is obese in __ position expands total lung volume and aids in ventilation.
Answer: reverse trendelenburg
Q: In a patient who is post-gasrtic-bypass, respiratory failure usually indicates?
Answer: peritonitis
Q: What is one of the most common post-op complications of patients with diabetes?
Answer: SSI
Q: What can stimulate preterm labor in the pregnant surgical patient?
Answer: vaginal bleeding, ruptured membranes, or uterine irritability, anesthesia, vasosuppresor
Q: When placing the pregnant surgical patient in the supine position, the CST should place a small rolled pad or sheet under the right hip, this will help __?
Answer: take wight off the vena cava
Q: IV placement in the patient with AIDS may be difficult due to?
Answer: lack of suitable vein
Q: The wearing of protective attire is mandated by the __ bloodborne pahtogens rule?
Answer: OSHA
Q: When a patient is to be transported from an isolation room to the surgery department, what are the recommendations?
Answer: wear appropriate barriers, all team members be aware, patient is taught how to assist in preventing transmission, proper dressing on patient
Q: Typical physiological changes in the elderly patient include?
Answer: increased tolerance with pain
Q: Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with?
Answer: higher mortality rates
Q: A Level III trauma center typically?
Answer: is community or rural hospital
Q: What three factors are important when considering the resulting injury that a patient will sustain from a trauma?
Answer: velocity of the injuring force, flexibility of the tissue, shape of the injuring force
Q: The __ is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident?
Answer: spleen
Q: Caps and hoods are types of?
Answer: hair covers
Q: latex gloves should not be worn
Answer: if you or the patient has a latex allergy
Q: the front of a surgical gown from waist to midchest and circumferentially to 2 inches above the elbows on the sleeves is considered?
Answer: sterile
Q: The anesthesia machine should be set up at the __ of the OR bed
Answer: head of the table
Q: Packs containing disposable drapes, supplies, sutures, blades, and items necessary for specific procedures are called __?
Answer: wrapped or peel packed items
Q: The order of technique for opening sterile basin sets is __?
Answer: unfold 1st flap away from you, open 2nd flap in appropriate direction, reposition to open 3rd flap, move to opposite side to open 4th flap
Q: Torn, perforated, or wet disposable supplies should be __?
Answer: discarded
Q: Organism on the surface of the skin easily removed by handwashing are called?
Answer: transient organisms
Q: The method in which hands and arms are scrubbed for a prescribed length of time is called __?
Answer: surgical scrub
Q: After scrub is complete, it is important to __?
Answer: keep hands b/w waist and mid-chest and avoid letting hands or arms touch anything
Q: When self gowning and gloving, the STSR should
Answer: not turn back to sterile field
Q: The closed-glove technique is used __?
Answer: for donning the gloves following a surgical scrub and after gown is donned
Q: The method used to don gloves for patient skin prep or catherization is called __?
Answer: open glove
Q: The gown is removed __?
Answer: prior to glove removal
Q: Grasping the outer cuff of both gloves with thumb and middle finger of the opposite hand, then pulling both hands outward at the same time to remove gloves prevents __?
Answer: the wearer from having to touch contaminated areas of gloves and prevent further contamination
Q: While the STSR is passing instruments, the surgeon is focused on ___?
Answer: anatomy and next step of the procedure
Q: Per-op patient education is intended to __?
Answer: help alleviate anxiety and to provide better post-op outcomes
Q: Patient possesions should be?
Answer: Gathered prior to surgery and given to family member or put into hospital safe
Q: The pulse oximeter cannot function properly if the patient is wearing __?
Answer: nail polish
Q: When changing into OR attire, the __ most be donned first.
Answer: hair cover
Q: Mask-shield combinations without the upper foam band should be worn __?
Answer: with caution
Q: All tables to be set up as part of the sterile field should be placed at least __ inches away from the walls
Answer: 12-18
Q: When creating the sterile field, __ should be opened first.
Answer: back table
Q: The surgical scrub is intended to render the hands and arms __?
Answer: surgically clean
Q: The first scrub of the day is __ minutes and all subsequent scrubs are __ minutes.
Answer: 10, 5
Q: Items are counted in what order for every procedure
Answer: sponges, sharps, instruments
Q: Hypothermia affects up to __% of all surgical patients
Answer: 60
Q: What term means loss of heat from the patient’s body to the environment?
Answer: radiation
Q: What is the major mode of heat loss to the patient, accounting for up to 80% of the total body heat lost intraoperatively?
Answer: radiation, convection
Q: Shivering may cause __?
Answer: increased oxygen consumption
Q: Normal pulse values for an adult are__?
Answer: 60-80bpm
Q: Respiration is controlled by the __ in the brain?
Answer: medulla oblongata
Q: Normal respiration rates for children are __ per minute.
Answer: 18-30
Q: Fast, deep breaths for a period of time followed by 20-60 seconds of apnea describe __?
Answer: Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Q: Safe positioning of the surgical patient is the responsibility of the __?
Answer: entire surgical team
Q: Armboards must not extend beyond a __ degree angle?
Answer: 90
Q: The Trendelenburg position may be used to __?
Answer: displace the abdominopelvic organs for better visualization and it reduces blood flow to the lower body and venous drainage is promoted
Q: __ means microbes and infection are absent.
Answer: Sterile
Q: The number of microbes or organic debris that exist at a given time is referred to as__?
Answer: bioburden
Q: The contamination of a person or object by another person or object is called __?
Answer: cross-contamination
Q: Methods used to prevent contamination of the sterile field are referred to as __?
Answer: aseptic technique
Q: What term is used to describe “the multiplication of organisms in tissue”
Answer: infection
Q: Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the __
Answer: intestines
Q: Bacilli are typically found to be in the shape of ?
Answer: rods
Q: Bacteria that require oxygen to sustain life are called__?
Answer: obligate aerobes
Q: What pathogen leads in the percentage of SSI’s?
Answer: Staph aureus
Q: What dormant structure can some bacteria form to survive in adverse enviornmental conditions?
Answer: spores
Q: A nonliving particle that is completely reliant on the host cell for survival is called a __?
Answer: virus
Q: The primary source of airborne bacteria transmission in the OR is the __?
Answer: surgical team
Q: A bloodborne pathogen that puts health care workers at particular risk is __?
Answer: Hep C
Q: A surgical procedure involving a perforated viscera is classified as __?
Answer: Class IV, dirty wound
Q: Most surgical infections occur because of ?
Answer: contamination during the procedure
Q: Infection contracted within the health care setting is known as
Answer: nosocomial infection
Q: When wearing a sterile gown and gloves, why should you NOT fold your arms with the hands in the axilla?
Answer: Strike through contamination bc of sweat, NON STERILE
Q: Sterile items and individuals may __?
Answer: contact sterile areas
Q: Members of the sterile surgical team should pass each other within the sterile field by facing one another or __?
Answer: back to back rotating 360degrees
Q: Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what conditions?
Answer: none, they should never be
Q: The basis for the practice of strict adherence to sterile technique is called__?
Answer: surgical conscience
Q: The physical removal of blood and bodily fluids or gross debris from an inanimate object is called __?
Answer: mechanical cleaning
Q: The process that ensures that all microorganisms, including spores, are killed is called?
Answer: sterilization
Q: Filtered air form the decontamination room is exhausted to the __?
Answer: outside of the facility
Q: Detergent selection is primarily based on the?
Answer: instrument being used, pH plays a role
Q: Instruments with multiple parts should be __ prior to cleaning.
Answer: disassembled
Q: When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a __ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.
Answer: back and forth
Q: what are the limitations of using water as a presoaking solution?
Answer: ineffective in softening or removing dried debris
Q: Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments?
Answer: May cause pitting and corrosion
Q: A catalyst used to aid in the breakdown of organic material such as blood and tissue is an __?
Answer: enzyme
Q: An enzyme is usually used as a __?
Answer: pre-soaker
Q: The type of chemical cleaner that is least corrosive to surgical instruments is ?
Answer: one with a neutral pH
Q: The ultrasonic washer is an example of a __
Answer: mechanical decontamination machine
Q: The __ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.
Answer: ultrasonic cleaner
Q: To avoid damage, stainless steel instruments should NOT be placed next to __ in the washer sterilzer.
Answer: Instruments made of other metals
Q: At the end of the washer sterilization cycle, instruments are NOT considered
Answer: appropriate for use on patient
Q: An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for __?
Answer: semi-critical, countertops, OR furniture, floors, and other surfaces
Q: Low-level disinfection may be appropriate for?
Answer: non critical, blood pressure cuff, OR furniture, OR table
Q: Physical factors that affect the efficiency of disinfection are?
Answer: temp, water hardness and pH level, exposure time
Q: To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins, what must be done?
Answer: seperate basins with a towel
Q: Microbes that live on the skin and inside the human body are referred to as __?
Answer: indigenous microflora
Q: The term used to describe when on organism benefits but the second organism neither is harmed nor recieves a benefit is know as?
Answer: commensalism
Q: The term used to describe when both organisms benefit from and depend on one another to a certain extent is known as?
Answer: mutualism
Q: When on organism benefits and the host is harmed?
Answer: parasitism
Q: E. coli in the intestines produces?
Answer: vitamins b and k
Q: Bacteria divide by a process called?
Answer: binary fission
Q: Bacteria that reside naturally within the human body and cause no disease unless the opportunity arises are known as?
Answer: opportunistic pathogens
Q: Bacteria are identifed by the shape and form they assume. Which of the following is the shape and from of streptococci
Answer: chain of round bacteria
Q: Staphylococci can be identified by
Answer: cluster of round bacteria
Q: Bacteria is also classified by its need for oxygen and CO2. Which type of bacteria grow best in high levels of CO2?
Answer: capnophiles
Q: What classification is given to bacteria that can survive in an enviornment with or without oxygen
Answer: facilatative anaerobes
Q: What is best suited for reprocessing surgical instruments exposed to clostridium?
Answer: prevacuum
Q: What are the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the OR?
Answer: Staph aureus
Q: What type of bacteria can be found as common flora of the skin, hair, and nose?
Answer: Staph aureus
Q: What microorganism is capable of causing endocarditis?
Answer: Staph epi.
Q: What microorganism is capable of causing osetomyelitis?
Answer: Staph aureus
Q: What microorganism is capable of causing a UTI
Answer: Staph. epi
Q: What microbe is responsible for causing otitis media?
Answer: Strep. pneom
Q: What microbe is responsible for causing necrotizing fasciitis?
Answer: Strep pyogones
Q: What microbe is responsible for causing pelvic inflammatory disease?
Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q: What microbe is responsible for causing tonsilitis
Answer: Strep pyogones
Q: Deep tissue nosocomial infections such as infections to puncture wounds and open bone fractures are caused by which microbe?
Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q: Helicobacter pylori, known as H. pylori, are responsible for what condition?
Answer: peptic ulcers, stomach ulcers, chronic gastritis
Q: Gas gangrene and cellulitis are cause by which microbe?
Answer: Clostridium perfringens
Q: What are the basic floor plan designs of the surgical services department?
Answer: Race track, hotel plan, specialty grouping, circular
Q: What name is given to the room in the surgery department that contains sinks for gross decontamination of instruments?
Answer: utility and decontamination room
Q: Why should you cabinets and doors within the OR be recessed into the wall?
Answer: accumulation on top surfaces
Q: The area where patients wait within the department before entering the OR is called?
Answer: Pre-op holding area
Q: The term PACU refers to ?
Answer: post-anasthesia care unit
Q: Permanent surgical specimens are usually sent to the pathologist in?
Answer: formalin solutions, and frozen sections dry, fresh normal saline
Q: List the types of physical hazards?
Answer: noise, ionizing radiation, electricity injury to the body, fire and explosion
Q: What organizations mission is to reduce the frequency of fires through the establishment of fire prevention standards?
Answer: National Fire Protection Agency
Q: Back injury or back pain is usually the result of a number of factors?
Answer: lifting with back bowed out, bending/reaching with back bowed, jerking or twisting of hips, obesity, loss of strength and flexibility, poor nutrition
Q: The danger of fire in the OR has been reduced with the introduction of which kind of anesthetic agents?
Answer: Halogenic
Q: What type of fire extinguisher should be available for use when laser surgery is involved?
Answer: Halon fire extinguisher
Q: The humidity of the OR should be no higher than?
Answer: 60%
Q: What percentage must humidity remain higher than to avoid the transmission of sparks in the OR?
Answer: higher than 50%
Q: What class of fire extinguishers is used for flammable fires involving liquids and gases?
Answer: Class B
Q: When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as a?
Answer: electrical current
Q: What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patient back to the ESU?
Answer: grounding pad
Q: What are the factors to remember concerning the safety of the surgical technologist and ionizing radiation?
Answer: time, shielding, and distance
Q: What organization established universal precautions and body substance isolation rules?
Answer: CDC
Q: Hypodermic needles should be recapped how to avoid needle stick injury?
Answer: 1 handed method
Q: Latex is made from what substance harvested from trees found in warm tropical climates?
Answer: a natural rubber
Q: What type of latex allergy is lease serious?
Answer: Type IV
Q: What immediate steps should be taken when a sterile needle penetrates a sterile team members glove?
Answer: Gloves should be removed
Q: OR walls should have what characteristic?
Answer: non-porous, easy to clean with antimicrobial solution, fire proof, water proof, non-glare, non reflective, pleasant in color
Q: What type of filters is used in the OR to reduce the microbial count?
Answer: HEPA high efficiency particulate air filters
Q: To help prevent hypothermia in the surgical patient, the room temperature should be maintained between __ degrees F?
Answer: 65-75
Q: The Joint Commision recommends a relative humidity level in the OR to be maintained at ?
Answer: 50-55%
Q: To reduce bacteria level in the OR, the Joint Commission recommends a humidity level below
Answer: 60%
Q: The room where patients are “recovered” immediately following surgery is known as the
Answer: PACU
Q: Why would a patient be extubated in the recovery room instead of the OR suite?
Answer: because they still needed assistance with breathing
Q: What three components referred to as the fire triangle can result in a fire or explosion?
Answer: fuel, oxygen, ignition
Q: A patient is undergoing laser surgery for a cancerous lesion. Before using the laser, the ST should check the laser with what method?
Answer: Tongue depressor
Q: Lasers can cause damage to the eyes, and it is important for the ST to wear appropriate eye protection while the laser is in use. What type of laser can cause corneal burns?
Answer: CO2 Laser
Q: The optical density of each laser varies. What is the reason for this?
Answer: each density absorbs wavelengths differently
Q: The lens color on protective eyewear for lasers indicates?
Answer: and indication of optical density
Q: With the frequent use of radiation during the surgical procedure, the pregnant sterile team member may need what to track fetal exposure?
Answer: film badge
Q: A common benign reaction associated with latex allergy is?
Answer: contact dermitis and irritant dermititis
Q: As bone cement hardens it expands within the medullary canal, causing intramedullary hypertension that can lead to?
Answer: microembolism of fat, bone marrow, PMMA cement, and air into the femoral venous vessels
Q: A method used to reduce complication and avoid patient death is?
Answer: using uncemented prostheses, surgically venting the distal femur, increase the inspired oxygen concentration prior to injecting PMMA cement
Q: What are the characteristics of PMMA syndrome?
Answer: hypoxia, hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary hypertension, decreased cardiac output
Q: A consequence of hypertension from PMMA use is what?
Answer: air into the femoral venous vessels
Q: Approximately what percentage of direct patient care personnel are sensitive to latex?
Answer: 6-7%
Q: To keep the amount of airborne contamination in the OR room to a minimum, the CDC recommends how many air exchanges per hour?
Answer: 20
Q: The are that contains a sink, has a steam sterilizer, and acts as a workroom for an OR or a group of adjacent ORs is known as?
Answer: Substerile area
Q: What machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?
Answer: Ultrasonic washer
Q: What is the main reason tile floor in the OR are undesirable?
Answer: grout harbors bacteria and is difficult to clean
Q: Injury due to improper positioning can result in ALL member being sued for?
Answer: negligence
Q: Accountability is defined as
Answer: the obligation to disclose details for evaluation….to be held responsible for
Q: Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as?
Answer: an omission or commission of an act that a reasonable and prudent person would NOT do under the same circumstance
Q: Whose responsibility is it to identify the surgical patient?
Answer: transport personel, pre-op holding nurse, circulator, anesthesiologist, surgeon, ALL MEMBER OF SURGICAL TEAM
Q: Who is responsible for checking diagnostic tests such as X-rays and CT scans to confirm the proper area or side before an incision is made?
Answer: Surgeon and Surgical assistant
Q: When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave, the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling instruments with ?
Answer: cool sterile water
Q: What must be done to electrical devices in the OR to prevent the risk of burns to the patient?
Answer: grounded and tested frequently
Q: What should take place immediately after the patient is moved from the stretcher to the OR table?
Answer: safety strap should be applied
Q: Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and could result in?
Answer: preventing a diagnosis, and require another surgical procedure
Q: The only method used to ensure the sterility of an item is?
Answer: biological indicators
Q: Whose responsibility is it to remove a patients personal items in the OR
Answer: Circulator
Q: __ is truly the best medicine when taking care of the surgical patient?
Answer: Prevention
Q: __ is the term that refers to permission being given for an action?
Answer: Consent
Q: A properly written, informed consent should contain the __?
Answer: patients legal name, surgeons name, procedure performed, risks of anesthesia, patients legal signature, signature of witnesses, date and time of signatures
Q: Informed consent may be given under specific circumstances, by any of the following EXCEPT?
Answer: a competent adult
Q: Implied consent may apply when?
Answer: conditions found during surgery
Q: In the health care field, the term __ is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patients medical record?
Answer: documentation
Q: The medical record of a surgical patient will typically include all of the following EXCEPT?
Answer: family members names
Q: What is used to report an unusual event that has occurred and may have legal ramifications for the staff or the patient?
Answer: incident report
Q: Ethics is an attempt to define right and wrong based upon?
Answer: beliefs
Q: The Patients Bill of Rights establishes the patient as ?
Answer: a consumer of goods
Q: Knowledge and skills required for the profession to provide effective and reliable services is called?
Answer: scope of practice
Q: To a very large extent, surgical technology and surgical assistant scope of practice is determined by the delagatory decisions made by ?
Answer: supervising surgeon
Q: Most surgical technology programs are accredited through?
Answer: CAAHEP
Q: Who is responsible for ensuring accredited ST programs are engaged in an ongoing quest for quality?
Answer: ARC-ST
Q: __ is an integrated system developed by hospitals for the prevention and control of areas of potential liability?
Answer: Risk management
Q: Malpractice and negligence fall under what kind of law?
Answer: unintentional tort law
Q: A “time out” period should take place immediately before starting the procedure in order to verify:
Answer: correct patient, procedure, surgical site and side, when applicable when implant placement is completed, everyone must agree
Q: __ is the term used if a member of the surgical team leaves a patient who is dependent on his or her presence as a caregiver?
Answer: Abandonment
Q: Consent may be given in either two formats?
Answer: express or implied
Q: __ dictates the methods of securing a consent under emergency circumstances?
Answer: state law
Q: The written instructions dealing with the right of an incapacitated patient to self-determination is called?
Answer: advance directive
Q: Benevolence, trustworthiness, and honesty are examples of?
Answer: morals
Q: __ is a process of external quality review used by higher education to scrutinize colleges, universities, and educational programs for quality assurance and quality improvement?
Answer: accredidation
Q: __ has become the best weapon for the reduction of medical errors?
Answer: technology
Q: The __ is the first ever federal standards that establishes privacy standards to protect patient’s medical records and other health related information?
Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act HIPAA
Q: Hospital employees who commit negligent acts are typically covered by?
Answer: insurance polices through facility
Q: __ recognizes patient safety as being an item of the highest priority and strongly urges individual hospitals and health care organizations to take all reasonable measures to prevent the retention of foreign bodies in the surgical wound.
Answer: American College of Surgeons
Q: The neutral zone should be established for the placement of?
Answer: sharps
Q: A key characteristic that the surgical technologist should exhibit and constantly improve on is?
Answer: communication, technique, problem solving skills, education
Q: If there is a settlement against a specific health care provider and there is no malpractice insurance to cover the settlement, the judge may?
Answer: attach a lien on property of defendant or money obtained from future earnings
Q: To establish negligence, which of the following must be proven?
Answer: that the defendant had a duty to the patient, and they breached that duty failing to conform to the required standard of conduct, defendants negligence caused harm to patient and plaintiff was in fact harmed
Q: The goal of the surgical consent is to ?
Answer: guarantee that patient is aware of their condition, proposed intervention, risks, and alternatives that may occur–> protect the patient
Q: What type of instrument finish is useful for procedures involving a laser?
Answer: ebonized finish
Q: Knives, scalpels, and scissors are classified as __ instruments?
Answer: cutting/dissecting
Q: The term knife is used interchangbley with the term __?
Answer: scalpel
Q: Curvid Iris and and Potts-smtih scissors are frequently used to dissect __ tissues?
Answer: delicate
Q: Strabismus and corneal scissors are most often used for __ procedures?
Answer: eye
Q: The most frequently used scissors for cutting sutures are the __?
Answer: Straight Mayo
Q: Lane, Kern, Lowman, and Lewin are examples of ?
Answer: bone holding forceps
Q: Clamping instruments are designed to __?
Answer: occlude or constrict tissue
Q: Instruments designed for the exposure of the operative site are called?
Answer: retractors/viewing
Q: Instruments used to hold a curved suture needle for suturing are called?
Answer: needle holders
Q: Yankauer and Poole suction tips are commonly used for?
Answer: aspiration of abdominal fluids
Q: The suction tip typically used for ear procedures is the ?
Answer: Rosen suction tip
Q: An instrument that penetrates a body cavity for drainage of fluid is called a?
Answer: Trocar
Q: General abdominal procedures typically require a __ instrument set?
Answer: major or minor laparotomy set
Q: Scopes typically used for cystoscopy, laparoscopy, and thoracoscopy are called?
Answer: Rigid scopes
Q: The scope used for exploration of the biliary system is called?
Answer: choledochoscope
Q: The scope used for visualization of the heart and major vessels is called an?
Answer: angioscope
Q: The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a?
Answer: fetoscope
Q: The tool used for inserting sharp pins to reduce a bone fracture or guide a driven nail is called?
Answer: drills
Q: What machine uses electric impulses to generate heat and is cooled by air or fluid that flows through the power cord?
Answer: Piezoelectric Machine
Q: What machine infuses CO2 gas into the abdominal cavity?
Answer: insufflator
Q: Drapes that have an adhesive backing that can be impregnated with an antimicrobial iodine agent are called?
Answer: incise drapes
Q: Drapes that have openings for exposure of the area to be incised are called?
Answer: fenestrated
Q: Sponges used for procedures requiring smaller incisions are called?
Answer: raytecs
Q: The type of surgical dressing that eliminates dead space and prevents edema or post-op bleeding is called?
Answer: pressure dressing
Q: What is used for wounds that require frequent dressing changes?
Answer: Montgomery Straps
Q: Cylindrical tubes that allow for the removal of air or fluids from the body are called?
Answer: drains
Q: What is used to irrigate wounds, aspirate fluids, or inject medications?
Answer: syringes
Q: Give an example of a type of suprapubic catheter?
Answer: Foley, Pezzer, Malcot, Coude
Q: The chest tube collection unit must be maintained?
Answer: below the level of the throacic cavity
Q: Give examples of passive drains?
Answer: Penrose, Cigarette, T-tube, Gastrostomy, Cystostomy, Nephrostomy
Q: A tru-cut needle is used __?
Answer: for multiple biopsies
Q: Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called __ drapes?
Answer: aperature
Q: Neurosurgical sponges are referred to as?
Answer: Patties (cottonoids)
Q: Tonsil sponges are assembled in packages of ?
Answer: 5
Q: Collodian is an example of what type of dressing?
Answer: One-layer dressing
Q: What is a Minerva jacket?
Answer: Type of cast extending from the head to the hips to immobilize the cervical and thoracic vertebrae
Q: What type of gas is infused into the abdominal cavity for laparoscopic procedures?
Answer: CO2
Q: The nerve stimulator is especially useful for identification of the __ cranial nerve?
Answer: 7th (Facial)
Q: Placement of the tourniquet cuff is determined by the __?
Answer: Physician
Q: Newer dermatomes are high-speed dermabraders for skin grafts are powered by __?
Answer: compressed nitrogen
Q: The compound operating microscopes uses __ for variable magnification of tissue?
Answer: Bent light waves
Q: Video cameras and light cords should be sterilized using __?
Answer: manufacturers recommendations
Q: Gas is infused into the abdominal cavity through __?
Answer: Varess insufflation needle or Hasson blunt trocar
Q: A __ bronchoscopy is preferred for retrieval of foreign body from a bronchus?
Answer: rigid
Q: __ for power instruments is suppled from a tank or piped in from outside to the surgery department?
Answer: Nitrogen
Q: Most modern surgical instruments are made of__?
Answer: stainless steel
Q: Blades #11 and # 12 fit into a #__ knife handle
Answer: 3, 7, 9 knife handle
Q: The most commonly used scissors during a hysteroscopy is__?
Answer: Jorgenson
Q: Straight hemostats are frequently used for __?
Answer: Tagging
Q: Brain spoons are examples of __ instruments?
Answer: malleable retractor
Q: Curved needle holders are generally used during __ procedures?
Answer: Gyno
Q: What is the key feature of the fourth stage of the clotting process?
Answer: Platelet aggregate forms, initial thrombus is formed and may be enough to stop blood flow
Q: An example of an acquired hemostatic disorder is?
Answer: liver disease, anticoagulant therapy, aplastic anemia, alcoholic liver failure, drug-therapy induced
Q: Clamps, ligatures, and clips are examples of what type of hemostasis?
Answer: mechanical hemostasis
Q: What is the most commonly used hemostatic device?
Answer: Bovie
Q: The __ provides a ray an concentrated beam of light that is able to cut and coagulate tissues?
Answer: Laser
Q: An example of a pressure device that may be used to prevent deep vein thrombosis?
Answer: sequential stockings
Q: When using a tourniquet, the surgeon should be notified when the tourniquet has been inflated for?
Answer: 1 hour, reminded every 15 mins after
Q: A vasoconstrictor that is often mixed with local anesthetics is __?
Answer: epinephrine
Q: During the clotting process, thrombin reacts with fibrinogen and forms?
Answer: fibrin
Q: What is the most common preexisting hemostatic defect?
Answer: hemophilia
Q: What is the key to proper hemostasis?
Answer: proper visualization
Q: Hemolytic anemia may develop as a result of?
Answer: Rh incompatibility
Q: If blood products are not going to be used immediately, they should be stored in a refrigerator at a temperature between __ degrees Celsius
Answer: 1-6
Q: List three blood replacement products?
Answer: Whole blood, plasma, packed RBC’s or Platelets
Q: Another name for Surgicel is?
Answer: oxidized cellulose
Q: Avitene is a form of?
Answer: collagen
Q: The thin rubber tube that facilitates drainage by capillary action is called?
Answer: Penrose
Q: When the material used to tie off a bleeding blood vessel is of a monofilament type, the tails of the suture should be left approximately __ inches long form the knot?
Answer: 1/4
Q: What are Pledgets?
Answer: small squares of Teflon, sewn over holes in vessels and exerts outside pressure to prevent bleeding and promote clotting
Q: __ is major biomedical advance introduced into the OR?
Answer: Robotics
Q: The modem of a computer is a communication device that enables information to be sent over?
Answer: Telephone line
Q: What symbols are always employed within in e-mail address?
Answer: @
Q: __ is a device that delivers electrical current to the surgical site?
Answer: bovie pencil
Q: Electrons revolve around the nucleus in paths called?
Answer: shells
Q: Outer electrons are referred to as __ electrons?
Answer: free
Q: Materials that inhibit the flow of electrons are called?
Answer: insulators
Q: How does high humidity affect the OR environment?
Answer: formation of sparks
Q: Current is measured in __?
Answer: amperes
Q: The scientific law that pertains to electricity is called?
Answer: Ohm’s Law
Q: The rate at which work is done, expressed as the amount of work per unit time, is called?
Answer: power
Q: A surgical lamp is an example of resistive energy?
Answer: loads
Q: Electrosurgery is the application of __ current to coagulate or cut tissue?
Answer: electrical current
Q: Ultrasound imaging is a noninvasive diagnostic tool that transforms __ wave into images.
Answer: sound
Q: Positron emission tomography (PET) is a medical imaging technique that reveals dynamic activities within the body?
Answer: blood flow and glucose uptake in tissues
Q: Mechanics is the study of __?
Answer: objects in motion
Q: How fast something is moving without consideration of the objects direction describes?
Answer: speed
Q: Whereas speed is not dependent upon direction, velocity involves direction and __?
Answer: speed
Q: Acceleration is defined as the change in __ over time?
Answer: velocity
Q: Projectile motion refers to the motion of an object launched into the air at a specific __?
Answer: angle
Q: Classical mechanics are based on __ laws of motion?
Answer: Newtons
Q: __ reflects Newton’s third law that states for each action there is an equal and opposite reaction?
Answer: Canon’s recoil or momentum
Q: Newton’s third law is also known as the law of __?
Answer: Conservation of momentum
Q: In physics, work is defined as force acting upon an object causing?
Answer: displacement
Q: The most common form of energy is __ energy?
Answer: Mechanical
Q: Objects that have mass and take up space are referred to as?
Answer: Matter
Q: All matter is made up of fundamental elements that cannot be broken down by?
Answer: chemical mass
Q: __ is contained within the nucleus of an atom?
Answer: protons and neutrons
Q: Molecules are groups of atoms joined by __ bonds?
Answer: chemical
Q: The basic forms of matter–solids, liguids, and gases are called?
Answer: states of matter
Q: Waves that are shorter than ultraviolet and about one-thousandth the wavelength of visible light are called?
Answer: X-rays
Q: A sound wave is produced by __ objects that set surrounding air molecules into motion?
Answer: Vibrating objects
Q: Many surgical robot arms have __ geometry and versatility measured in degrees of freedom.
Answer: articulated
Q: The ability of humans and surgical robots to determine the direction from which sound is coming is called?
Answer: binaural hearing
Q: The extent that a robot joint or a set of joints can move clockwise or counterclockwise about an axis is called degrees of?
Answer: rotation
Q: The technical term for robotic arms are?
Answer: manipulators
Q: Telechir is the name given to __?
Answer: remotely controlled robots
Q: A rotating movement by the robotic manipulator is called_?
Answer: roll
Q: An up and down movement by the surgical robotic arm is called?
Answer: pitch
Q: The goal of deformable modeling is?
Answer: aid surgeons in predicting potential complications through computerized manipulation during rehearsal
Q: The __ coordinates operations of the computer?
Answer: CPU
Q: A __ is the same as 1000 kilobytes
Answer: megabyte
Q: In the 1920s the physicist __ developed the first spark-gap tube generator, which culminated in the electrosurgical generator?
Answer: W.T. Bovie
Q: What diagnostic study uses electromagnetic radiation to view internal structures?
Answer: x-ray
Q: Materials that allow the flow of free electrons are called?
Answer: conductor
Q: Electrical potential is measured in __?
Answer: volts
Q: One kilowatt equals?
Answer: 1000 watts
Q: Define: power, load and switch
Answer: Power=rate @ which work is done and is measured in watts, Load: device that uses the electricity to perform a function, Switch: device used to open or close a circuit and controls flow of electricity
Q: A “hot wire” is usually identified by having__?
Answer: black, blue, or red insulation
Q: The neutral wire carries electrical current in a circuit away from a device, and typically is identified by a __ colored insulation
Answer: red
Q: Name all the components of a DC circuit?
Answer: source of electricity, conductor, control device, load
Q: The generator of the ESU is activated by ?
Answer: the surgeon
Q: The active electrode is also called the?
Answer: electrosurgical pencil
Q: In what modes are grounding pads applied?
Answer: Monopolar mode
Q: The bipolar cautery is used for?
Answer: coagulating
Q: Describe dielectric breakdown?
Answer: Hole in glove causes burn
Q: The study of objects in motion with much concern for the forces that produced the motion is __?
Answer: dynamics
Q: Which of Newtons laws state that in an isolated system the total momentum before any event is equal to the total momentum after the event?
Answer: 3rd
Q: Molecules carry thermal energy in the form of?
Answer: Motion
Q: Sound travels through __ states of matter?
Answer: all
Q: Laser light is collimated, which means that?
Answer: its waves are parallel to each other and do no spread out as they travel away from their source
Q: The __ laser is the most frequently used laser system in the OR?
Answer: CO2
Q: What type of laser produces a green wavelength with an affirmity for red or darker tissues, such as hemoglobin or melanin?
Answer: argon laser
Q: The laser of choice for gastrointestinal endoscopy is?
Answer: Nd:YAG laser system
Q: An intentional cut through intact tissue for the purpose of exposing or excising underlying structures is called?
Answer: incision
Q: Which class of surgical wounds has the highest rate of infection?
Answer: Class IV: Dirty/Infected
Q: The final wound classification is assigned when?
Answer: the procedure ends
Q: A wound expected to heal by first intention is an?
Answer: incision opened under ideal conditions, CLEAN WOUND
Q: What involves irrigation to wash out contaminants and removal of devatilized tissue?
Answer: Debridement
Q: Pain, heat, redness, swelling, and loss of function are classic local signs of?
Answer: inflammation
Q: Healing where the wound is left open and allowed to heal from the inner layer to the outside surface is?
Answer: second intention (granulation)
Q: Which phase of would healing begins within minutes of an injury?
Answer: Lag phase of Inflammatory response phase, 1
Q: In which phase of healing does a wound undergo a slow, sustained increase in tissue tensile strength?
Answer: maturation or differentiation phase, 3
Q: In the proliferation phase, what forms into fibers that give the wound approximately 25-30% of its original tensile strength?
Answer: fibroblast secrete collagen
Q: Raised, thickened scar due to excessive collagen formation is called?
Answer: keloid
Q: A physical factor influencing wound healing is?
Answer: age, nutritional status, disease, smoking, radiation exposure, immunocompromised or suppressed
Q: The partial or total separation of a layer or layers of tissue after closure is called?
Answer: dehiscence
Q: An abnormal attachment of two surfaces or structures that are normally separate is called?
Answer: adhesion
Q: A tract between two epithelium lined surfaces that is open at both ends is called?
Answer: fistula
Q: Occlusive adherent polyurethane, liquid collodion, and aerosol adhesive sprays are examples of?
Answer: one layer dressing
Q: What dressing layer is considered the absorbent layer?
Answer: inner contact layer
Q: Elastic bandages, Montgomery straps, and tape are examples of?
Answer: outer layers
Q: The suture diameter is referred to as the?
Answer: gauge
Q: Plain gut, chromic gut, PDS II, Monocryl, and Maxon are examples of?
Answer: monofilament absorbable sutures
Q: Surgical silk is?
Answer: multifilament nonabsorbable
Q: What suture is commonly used for tendon repair and bone repair?
Answer: Stainless Steel
Q: Give four examples of absorbable suture?
Answer: plain gut, polygyconate, polyglactin 910, polyglycdic acid
Q: One of the most important pieces of information the STSR should learn to look for on a box of sutures is the ?
Answer: suture size and material, type/size of needle
Q: Precut ties that are removed as single strands from the package and placed into the open hand of the surgeon for use as ligatures are?
Answer: free ties
Q: A fast-healing, thin membrane lining the abdominal cavity is called?
Answer: peritoneum
Q: The are of touch connective tissue just beneath the skin and just above the subcutaneous layer is called?
Answer: subcuticular layer
Q: A primary suture line consisting of a single strand of suture placed as a series of stitches is called?
Answer: Continuous of Running
Q: Large-gauged, interrupted, non absorbable sutures placed lateral to a primary suture line for wound reinforcement are called?
Answer: retention sutures
Q: Sutures placed into an anatomical structure to retract to the side are called __ sutures?
Answer: traction suture
Q: Pieces of plastic or rubber tubing threaded over the retention suture ends prior to tying are called?
Answer: bolsters
Q: For the most part, which of the following have replaced umbilical tape as isolation and retraction devices for vessels?
Answer: vessel loops
Q: A stapler used to insert two straight, evenly spaced, side by side rows of staples into tissue as __ stapler?
Answer: linear staple
Q: A stapler commonly used during resection and reanastomosis of the distal colon or rectume is a _ stapler?
Answer: intraluminal staples
Q: An absorbable mesh that provides temporary support during healing is __?
Answer: Polyglactin 910
Q: What mesh application may result in discomfort for the patient?
Answer: stainless steel
Q: Eye, point, body, and shape are characteristics of?
Answer: needles
Q: The suture is attached to the needle at the __?
Answer: eye
Q: Needles manufactured with suture strands inserted into one end are __ needles?
Answer: swaged
Q: The needle used for tough tissue that is difficult to penetrate is called?
Answer: cutting
Q: Needles used to penetrate tissue for the delivery of endoscopes into body cavities or joint spaces are __ needles?
Answer: trocar point
Q: A needle that can penetrate tissue without cutting is a __ needle?
Answer: tapered point needle
Q: What determines the shape of the needle body?
Answer: point of needle
Q: Chromic gut is used primarily in which of the following body structures?
Answer: peritoneum, fascia, urinary, and biliary tracts
Q: Maxon suture thread is?
Answer: monofilament absorbable
Q: Pronova suture thread is__?
Answer: monofilament nonabsorbable
Q: Pronova suture is commonly used in which type of surgery?
Answer: cardiovascular, neurological, and opthalmic surgery
Q: Ethibond is commonly used on which type of tissue?
Answer: tendon repair
Q: Another name given to “rapid release” needles is?
Answer: controlled-release
Q: Ties loaded onto a curved clamp to facilitate placement of the tie around a vessel deep in the surical wound is referred to as a __?
Answer: tie on passer
Q: For routine surgeries, suture packages should remain unopened on the sterile field. Needle packages with multiple needles should be opened and counted for which purpose?
Answer: in order to avoid having to count the needles intraoperatively
Q: Endoscopic sutures are tied using which of the following?
Answer: endoscopic needle holder and knot pusher
Q: Vessel loops are used to __?
Answer: isolate or retract vessels, nerves, or ducts
Q: Which type of suture should be used to close an infected wound?
Answer: monofilament
Q: An AP radiographic film is taken??
Answer: front to back
Q: A myleogram is used to __.
Answer: To evaluate the spine for patients with neck, back, and leg pain.
Q: What is used to enhance visualization of structures during a diagnostic imaging procedure?
Answer: contrast medium
Q: What diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic structures during the surgical procedure?
Answer: fluoroscopy
Q: Angiography is used __?
Answer: assess the cause and severity of peripheral vascular disease
Q: What procedure is used to evaluate heart function?
Answer: cardiac catherization
Q: Cholangiography is a radiographic study of the __?
Answer: common bile duct or gallbladder
Q: What is most useful for viewing soft tissue?
Answer: MRI
Q: Ultrasound involves the use of __?
Answer: sound waves
Q: Nuclear medicine studies are also referred to as __?
Answer: isotope scanning
Q: The MIBG scan is a specific type of isotope scan used to identify a problem with the __?
Answer: adrenal glands
Q: Urine collected over a 24hour period is tested to determine_?
Answer: level of nitrogenous wastes
Q: The term staging refers to the __?
Answer: the degree of tumor metastasis
Q: The normal percentage of oxygen saturation in arterial blood is __ of capacity?
Answer: 96-100
Q: The __ is the physician who will provide a biopsy report?
Answer: pathologist
Q: The Gram stain is a technique used to identify a __?
Answer: microorganism
Q: A culture provides information about the type of __ present?
Answer: bacteria
Q: Thoracentesis is the removal of __?
Answer: fluid accumulation from within the pleural cavity
Q: Electroencephalography is a recording of __?
Answer: the electrical activity of the brain
Q: The display and recording of the electrical activity of the skeletal muscle is called?
Answer: electromyography
Q: Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of __?
Answer: pulse oximetry, passing a light through the tissues to determine the optical density of the blood
Q: An estimation of the arterial levels of CO2 is determined with the use of__?
Answer: capnography
Q: Information about the patient’s lung capacity, resistance, and ventilatory pressure is obtained and displayed with the use of __?
Answer: Spirometry
Q: Deep-vein thrombosis can be diagnosed with the use of __?
Answer: Phleborheography
Q: What is the first priority of the STSR when an intraoperative X-ray is being taken?
Answer: protect the sterile filed form contaminatioon
Q: Roentgenography is synonymous with the term?
Answer: radiography
Q: Auscultation involves the use of a __?
Answer: stethoscope
Q: An otoscope is used for viewing the?
Answer: ears
Q: Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be verified by?
Answer: x-ray
Q: Mammography uses x-rays to locate tumors of the?
Answer: breast
Q: What is used to create an easy entrance into most vessels of the body?
Answer: Seldinger Technique
Q: Contrast media can be introduced __?
Answer: into arteries and veins
Q: For what portion of the body is Renografin most often used?
Answer: kidney or urinary system
Q: What vein is frequently used for insertion of an angiographic catheter?
Answer: Saphenous
Q: The Doppler probe can be used within the sterile field as long as?
Answer: it is covered with a sterile drape
Q: The normal blood value of platelets is __?
Answer: 130-140 x 10^3/mm#
Q: An anesthesiologist may order plain radiographic films of the chest for which purpose?
Answer: identification of lung abnormalities
Q: The escape of fluid from the pleural space is known as ?
Answer: pleural effusion
Q: To prevent contamination of the surgical patient during an x-ray, the ST will?
Answer: use a sterile drape cover, x-ray tube itself may be covered with a sterile drape and wound may be protected with sterile towel
Q: What is the term used to describe an item as being able to allow x-rays to pass through, such as an OR table?
Answer: radiolucency
Q: What may be used in a nonselective angiography to quickly inject large amounts of contrast solution?
Answer: pressure injector
Q: What substance determines the radiodensity of contrast media?
Answer: hypaque
Q: What patient condition should not have an angiogram?
Answer: patients allergic to shellfish
Q: What term describes making an incision and dissecting through tissue layers to expose the vessel and make an incision into the vessel for the induction of a catheter?
Answer: cut-down
Q: What type of scan is a diagnostic tool used to identify how different areas of the brain function by highlighting chemical or metabolic activity?
Answer: PET scan
Q: When using contrast media is indication, which type of scan would be used for a patient with an allergy to iodine?
Answer: MRI
Q: What diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?
Answer: ultrasound
Q: Ultrasonography is ideal for the examination of a fetus because_
Answer: it doesnt use ionizing radiation
Q: What invasive procedure involves the introduction of a transducer attached to the end of a gastroscope into the esophagus to allow for closer approximation with the heart?
Answer: TEE
Q: The device used in the OR to determine patency of an arterial anastomosis is ?
Answer: doppler ultrasound
Q: The range 4.3 to 5.9 is the normal hematology value for?
Answer: RBC in male
Q: The range 11.5 to 15.5 is normal for what hematology value?
Answer: hemoglobin in female
Q: The normal range for the hematocrit of a female is __?
Answer: 35-46%
Q: 3.5-5% is the normal hematology value for what?
Answer: RBC in women
Q: The excision of tissue or aspiration of fluid to determine the nature of the diseases for treatment is known as _?
Answer: aspiration biopsy
Q: For what purpose does a surgeon use a suture on a specimen?
Answer: mark the edges or margins
Q: Foreign bodies that may have legal value are often turned over to the police as evidence. It is recommended that the person who turns the foreign body over to a law enforcement officer receive a __?
Answer: Written receipt or record
Q: Handing off a small specimen to the circulator can be a challenging task. The surgical technologist may use what device to make this task easier?
Answer: telfa pad
Q: What type of biopsy involves the removal of a portion of the tissue mass or lesion for pathology study?
Answer: incisional biopsy
Q: What specimen can be altered if placed in formalin?
Answer: gallstones
Q: What color do gram positive bacteria turn in a Gram stain?
Answer: blue
Q: What color do gram-negative bacteria turn in a Gram stain?
Answer: pink
Q: Tissue or fluid that is suspected of being infected may be cultured for a pathogen to be identified. This is called?
Answer: culture and sensitivity
Q: An ECG is useful for graded exercise testing. This is also referred to as_?
Answer: stress test
Q: What is the largest and most complex synovial joint?
Answer: knee
Q: What ligament originates from the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia and extends to the lateral condyle of the Femur?
Answer: Anterior cruciate
Q: Turning the hand so that the palm is facing upward is referred to as?
Answer: plantar flexion
Q: An example of a cartilaginous joint is the__?
Answer: intervertebral disk and pubic symphysis
Q: A softening of adult bone due to a disorder in calcium and phosphorus metabolism is called?
Answer: osteomalcia
Q: A fracture at the distal end of the radius in which the smaller fragment is displaced posteriorly is called?
Answer: Colles’ fracture
Q: What bone articulates with the distal tibia and fibula?
Answer: Talus
Q: At its distal end, the tibia expands to form a prominence on the inner ankle called the__?
Answer: medial malleolus
Q: Posteriorly, the ilium joins the sacrum at the_?
Answer: sacroiliac joint
Q: The end of which bone articulates with the manubrium?
Answer: clavicle
Q: What medical term is used to refer to the first seven rib pairs?
Answer: True ribs
Q: What bones are attached to each of the thoracic vertebrae?
Answer: Ribs
Q: The initial step in the body’s repair of a fracture involves?
Answer: Blood clot
Q: What type of fracture is complete and results in several bony fragments?
Answer: comminuted
Q: What type of cells break down and assimilate bone?
Answer: osteoclasts
Q: Osteocytes are located in minute bone chambers called?
Answer: lacuna
Q: Which bone is posterior to the mandible and anterior to the trachea?
Answer: Hyoid
Q: What is the name of the second cervical vertebra?
Answer: Axis
Q: During a total hip replacement surgery, what instrument is used to replace the femoral head?
Answer: intramedullary reamer
Q: Bone grafts are usually take from the __?
Answer: iliac crest
Q: Manipulating bone fracture fragments into alignment without incising the skin is called?
Answer: closed reduction
Q: The use of screw and plate geometry to apply forces at a fracture site is called?
Answer: dynamic compression
Q: What is the correct sequence of surgical instruments for the insertion of a bone screw?
Answer: drill, depth, tap, screw
Q: What type of casting material is inexpensive, lightweight, and strong?
Answer: fiberglass
Q: What style of cast is applied to the trunk, around the affected leg, and around half of the unaffected leg?
Answer: Hip spica
Q: What suture can be used to attach a tendon to bone?
Answer: Polyester, Nylon, Prolene
Q: What muscles are part of the rotator cuff?
Answer: infraspinatus, subscapularis, surpraspinatus, and teres minor
Q: What is the primary reason fro performing a total joint arthroplasty?
Answer: Degenerative joint disease
Q: What instrument is used to prepare the acetabulum?
Answer: acetabular reamer
Q: On which bone is the chamfer cut perfromed during a total knee arthroplasty?
Answer: femur
Q: How many components are implanted during a total knee arthroplasty?
Answer: four
Q: A patient is scheduled for an anterior cruciate ligament repair. The surgeon plans to use the patient’s patellar tendon. Sample of which type of graft?
Answer: autograft
Q: What is the correct patient surgical position for a total hip arthroplasty?
Answer: lateral
Q: What procedure is performed to correct impingement syndrome?
Answer: Acromioplasty
Q: The teres minor is one of the four muscles of what body structure?
Answer: rotator cuff
Q: What muscle contributes to the stability of the shoulder joint?
Answer: subscapularis
Q: During a rotator cuff repair, the suture anchor is placed into the bone and then it is passed through the _?
Answer: torn tendon and tied
Q: Femoral shaft fractures are immediately treated by?
Answer: surgical intervention
Q: An ACL reconstruction is performed to repair the __ stability of the knee?
Answer: anterior
Q: The primary purpose of meniscus surgery is to __?
Answer: save as much of the torn meniscus as possible
Q: The broach is used to_?
Answer: remove cancellous bone
Q: The pectoral girdle contains of ?
Answer: acromioclavicular, sternoclavicular, glenohumeral joints
Q: The rectus femoris and vastus lateralis are part of what muscle group?
Answer: quadriceps
Q: The concave indentation that serves as the socket for the head of the femur is called?
Answer: acetabulum
Q: An example of an irregular bone is the__?
Answer: vertebrae
Q: The acromion is part of which bone?
Answer: scaphoid
Q: The pneumatic tourniquet is routinely inflated__?
Answer: after exsanguination
Q: This chemical is also referred to as bone cement?
Answer: methyl methacrylate
Q: During an ACL reconstruction, which instrument might a surgeon use to remove excess bone from the femoral tunnel?
Answer: pituitary rongeur
Q: ACL graft material that is take from a cadaver is known as?
Answer: allograft
Q: In an ACL reconstruction, which device is used immediately following the insertion of the tibial guide?
Answer: guide pin
Q: What two bones are involved in a patella harvest for an ACL reconstruction?
Answer: Tibia and patella
Q: The goal of the ulnar nerve transposition is to free the ulnar nerve from the ?
Answer: epicondyle groove and move it anteriorly
Q: Names given to types of bunion repairs?
Answer: chevron repair, and austin moore
Q: What medical condition is characterized by a lateral curvature of the spinal column and may require a posterior Spinal fusion with the use of a Harrington rod?
Answer: Scoliosis
Q: Bartholin’s glands are located within__?
Answer: the vestibule
Q: The pH of vaginal fluid is?
Answer: 3.8-4.5 acidic
Q: The uterine lining is called the __?
Answer: endometrium
Q: The ligament that supports the bulk of the ovary is called the __ ligament?
Answer: suspensory ligament
Q: The uterine tubes are contained within the __ ligament?
Answer: broad
Q: The uterine appendages __?
Answer: fallopian tubes and ovaries
Q: What is the synonym for the fallopian tube?
Answer: uterine tubes
Q: What causes descent of the fetus through the pelvic canal?
Answer: contractions
Q: The term gravida indicates?
Answer: the # of pregnancies
Q: In what position is the patient generally placed into for a D and C?
Answer: lithotomy
Q: What accessories are needed for the OR table in order to place the patient into the lithotomy poistion?
Answer: Stirrups and foot holders
Q: The term used to describe abnormal labor or childbirth is __?
Answer: dystocia
Q: The Pfannenstiel incision is what type of incision?
Answer: lower transverse abdominal
Q: The internal cervical os is the __?
Answer: junction between the corpus uteri and the cervix
Q: The three layers of the uterine wall are?
Answer: visceral peritoneum, endometrium, and myometrium
Q: The two hormones from the anterior pituitary that stimulate the ovarian cycle__?
Answer: luteninizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone
Q: Where is the most common site for ectopic pregnancy?
Answer: Fallopian tube
Q: The absence or abnormal stoppage of the menses is called?
Answer: amenorrhea
Q: The most significant cause of morbidity during a cesarean section is?
Answer: anesthetic problems
Q: A DeLee suction device is used ?
Answer: to clear the neonates airway
Q: The posterior colporrhaphy is performed to_?
Answer: repair rectectocele
Q: A fole catheter is used routinely during pelvic procedures to __?
Answer: decompress the bladder
Q: Total abdominal hysterectomy involves the removal of what structures?
Answer: uterus
Q: Cerlage is performed to_?
Answer: close the incompetent cervic
Q: The ovaries function?
Answer: is the production and expulsion of oocytes and the release of the hormones estrogen and progesterone
Q: Tuboplasty is?
Answer: restore tubal patency
Q: The external female genitalia are collectively referred to as the _?
Answer: vulva
Q: The fundis is the _?
Answer: dome like portion of the uterus
Q: The fornix?
Answer: annular recess created by the cervical-vaginal junction
Q: A pap smear is performed to rule out__?
Answer: cervical dysplasia
Q: Endometriosis is _?
Answer: When the cells from the uterus grow outside of the uterine cavity
Q: In what position is the patient placed for a total abdominal hysterectomy?
Answer: supine
Q: Marsupialization indicates?
Answer: pouch is created
Q: A fibroid is a benign tumor found?
Answer: myometrium
Q: Indigo carmine is used following tuboplasty to demonstrate?
Answer: tubal patency
Q: The term D and C represents?
Answer: dialation and curretage
Q: Cystocele is prolapse of the __?
Answer: bladder
Q: Vaginal hysterectomy is used to describe the removal of?
Answer: uterus through vaginal incision
Q: During which stage of labor is the placenta delivered?
Answer: stage 3
Q: Arterial blood supply to the uterus is provided by the_?
Answer: uterine branch of the paired internal iliac arteries
Q: A curette is a surgical instrument used to ?
Answer: scape off a tissue specimen
Q: What is the most common reason for the performance of a cesarean section?
Answer: failure to progress
Q: Salpingectomy is the removal of the __?
Answer: fallopian tubes
Q: The name given to the external female genetalia is the?
Answer: vulva
Q: The external female genitalia is vascularized by the branches of the __?
Answer: pudendal artery
Q: The name of the female erectile tissue located directly above the urtethral orifice is known as the __?
Answer: clitoris
Q: What female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance?
Answer: Bartholins gland
Q: The perineum in the female is the area between which two structures?
Answer: Inferior vaginal opening and the anus
Q: The name given to the cervical-vaginal junction is the__?
Answer: Fornix
Q: What name is given to the ligament that suspends the uterus anteriorly?
Answer: cardinal ligament
Q: What name is given the the ligament that suspends the uterus laterally?
Answer: broad
Q: Arterial blood supply to the uterus is derived from the uterine branch of what artery?
Answer: internal iliac
Q: Another name given to the fallopian tubes is the ?
Answer: oviducts
Q: The fallopian tubes are divided into four regions?
Answer: fibria, ampulla, isthmus, and intramural region
Q: The name given to where the fallopian tubes enter into the uterus is called the __?
Answer: corano
Q: Arterial blood supply to the fallopian tubes is derived from what arteries?
Answer: Ovarian and uterine arteries
Q: What two hormones do the ovaries release?
Answer: estrogen and progesterone
Q: What hormone does the corpus luteum secrete?
Answer: progesterone
Q: What hormone is responsible for maintaining the growth of the uterine lining in preperation for the fertilzied egg?
Answer: estrogen and progesterone
Q: A common drug given to induce labor is?
Answer: oxytocin
Q: What is the best suture choice for closing an episiotomy?
Answer: chromic
Q: What instruments is typically placed onto the fascia during a cesarean section?
Answer: kocher
Q: How many counts are performed during a cesarean section?
Answer: 4
Q: What is the term used to describe conversion of a closed cavity into an open pouch?
Answer: marsupialization
Q: What is another name given to an anterior and posterior repair?
Answer: Colporraphy
Q: What is the name given to a fistula that forms between the bladder and vagina?
Answer: vesico vaginal fistula
Q: The xiphoid proces is the __ portion of the sternum?
Answer: distal
Q: The gallbladder is found in the __ abdominal quadrant.
Answer: right upper
Q: Another name for the iliac region of the abdomen is??
Answer: Inguinal
Q: The linea alba is found __?
Answer: runs down the midline
Q: The lon vertical, strip like muscle of the abdominal wallis the __?
Answer: rectus abdominis
Q: Another name for the alimentary canal is the __ tract?
Answer: Digestive
Q: The inner layer of the digestive tract wall is called the ??
Answer: mucosa
Q: Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is provided by the __ nerve?
Answer: Vagus
Q: The three portions of the small intestine are the ?
Answer: duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Q: The appendix is attached to the ?
Answer: cecum
Q: What is the function of the omenta?
Answer: limits peritoneal infection
Q: What gland has both exocrine and endocrine functions?
Answer: pancreas
Q: What is the largest parenchymal organ in the abdominal cavity?
Answer: liver
Q: The outer layer of the digestive tract wall is called the __?
Answer: serosa
Q: What is the following is a function of the colon?
Answer: production of vitamin K
Q: The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of ?
Answer: insulin
Q: What organ is the single largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body?
Answer: spleen
Q: Bile is produced by the__?
Answer: liver
Q: What is the function of the liver?
Answer: produce bile
Q: The biliary tract terminates at the __?
Answer: Sphincter of Oddi
Q: A kocher-type of incision is__?
Answer: transverse
Q: In what position is the patient placed when a McBurney’s incision will be used?
Answer: supine
Q: A diaphragmatic hernia is located within Hesselbach’s trinagle?
Answer: direct
Q: Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct ?
Answer: hiatal hernia
Q: Gastrostomy is the __?
Answer: surgical creation of an opening from gastric mucosa to the skin
Q: Gastroscopy is accomplished by inserting the gastroscope through the __?
Answer: Mouth
Q: The use of a Penrose drain is often employed during inguinal herniorrhaphy?
Answer: trap spermatic cord
Q: The term dysphagia means difficulty?
Answer: swallowing
Q: Maloney dialators are used to dilate the __?
Answer: esophagus
Q: A purse-string suture is used_?
Answer: tighten or close an opening
Q: What incisional approach is most common for appendectomy?
Answer: McBurneys
Q: An end ileostomy is created from the __?
Answer: terminal portion of the ileum
Q: The term chyme refers to __?
Answer: semifluid mass of partially digested food
Q: Removal of the gallbladder is called?
Answer: cholecystectomy
Q: The condition of gallstones is called?
Answer: cholelithias
Q: What is the function of a T-tube?
Answer: tube used to drain, bile
Q: What portion is used to displace the abdominal contents to enhance the surgeon’s view of the lower abdominal region?
Answer: Trendelelenburg
Q: Whipple pancreaticoduodenectomy involves the removal of the __?
Answer: head of the pancreas, distal 1/3rd of the stomach, all of the duodenum, proximal 10 cm of the jejunum, the gallbladder, they cystic and common bile ducts, and lymph nodes
Q: Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of ___?
Answer: the breast, pectoralis muscles are preserved
Q: Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of ?
Answer: the breast, pectoralis muscles are preserved
Q: Removal of all parathyroid glands leads to __?
Answer: tetany and death
Q: What position will the patient be placed in to facilitate thyroidectomy?
Answer: supine with neck extension
Q: Tracheotomy is the __?
Answer: creation of a tracheal stoma
Q: Insufflation of the abdomen is achieved with the use of ?
Answer: CO2
Q: Hemorrhoids are removed with the patient in the __ position?
Answer: Kraske
Q: The flow of food and liquids from the stomach to the small intestine is controlled by the?
Answer: pyloric sphincter
Q: The surgical connection of two hollow or tubular structures is called?
Answer: reanastomosis
Q: The incidence of pancreated cancer is highest in the __?
Answer: highest in the pancreatic head and ampulla vater
Q: The primary indication for a splenectomy is __?
Answer: laceration secondary to trauma
Q: Segmental resection of the breast refers to the removal of ?
Answer: only the tumor and a reasonable margin of healthy tissue
Q: Mastectomy is the removal of the __?
Answer: entire mammary gland breast
Q: What hormone increases the calcium levels in the blood?
Answer: calcitonin
Q: Complications of thyrotoxicosis include?
Answer: thyroid storm
Q: List the symptoms of hypothyroidism?
Answer: nervousness, restlessness, emotional lability, fast speech, tachycardia, palpitations, arrhythmias, dyspnea, hear intolerance, sweating, fatigue, weakness, tremor, hair loss, nail separating from nail bed
Q: During a thyroidectomy, it is important to preserve the __?
Answer: recurrent laryngeal nerve
Q: Once the peritoneum is entered, lap sponges should be?
Answer: Moistened with warm saline
Q: What suture technique is applied when closing the indirect hernia sac?
Answer: purestring
Q: A Bilroth I or II refers to an __?
Answer: subtotal gastrostomy
Q: Roux-en-Y technique is most commonly used to repair?
Answer: total gastrectomy
Q: What procedure is used to treat cancer of the rectum?
Answer: abdominoperineal resection
Q: What renal filtration structure restricts the movement of blood, cells, and large molecules?
Answer: glomerular capillary endothelium
Q: What portion of the renal tubule system is responsible for increasing the surface area for enhanced absorption and secretion?
Answer: proximal convoluted tubule
Q: The medial border of the kidneys that receives the renal blood vessels is called the?
Answer: Hilium
Q: What outer portion of the kidney contains glomeruli?
Answer: cortex
Q: What structure unite to form the renal pelvis?
Answer: Major caylces
Q: What artery provides the blood supply to the kidney?
Answer: renal artery
Q: What muscle is responsible for emptying the bladder and closing the bladder orifice?
Answer: Detrusor muscle
Q: What important clinical landmark is marked by ureteral and urethral orifices?
Answer: trigone
Q: What artery provides blood supply to the bladder?
Answer: vesical arteries
Q: The portion of the skin covering the distal base of the penis that forms a free fold is the?
Answer: prepuce or foreskin
Q: The proximal portion of the male urethra is the __?
Answer: prostatic section
Q: What portion of the male reproductive system can be found passing through the spermatic cord and eventually conducting semen into the prostatic urethra?
Answer: ductus deferens
Q: What rare condition is indicated by an overproduction of cortisol by the cortex of the adrenal gland?
Answer: Cushing’s disease
Q: What congenital condition is marked by the absence of the anterior wall of the urethra?
Answer: epispadias
Q: What blood test can indicate the possibility of prostatic cancer?
Answer: PSA–prostate specific antigen
Q: What diagnostic tool involves the use of intravenous dye and radiological films to view the urological system?
Answer: IVU
Q: What extraperitoneal incisional option can be used to access the lower portion of the ureter?
Answer: Gibson incision
Q: What surgical procedure involves diverting urine flow through an isolated loop of bowel?
Answer: Ileal conduit
Q: What suture would be appropriate for closure of a ureterotomy?
Answer: 6-0 absorbable
Q: Mild stress incontinence in women can be reduced by an?
Answer: anterior colporrhapy
Q: The procedure involving the removal of only the testis and the epidymis?
Answer: simple orchiectomy
Q: What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate, TURP?
Answer: Ellik evacuator or Toomey syringe
Q: Which prostatectomy procedure involves an incision into the bladder to remove the prostate en bloc?
Answer: Suprapubic prostatectomy
Q: The right kidney is located slightly lower than the left, due to the?
Answer: liver
Q: What is the acceptable fluid when doing a TURP?
Answer: glycine and sorbitol
Q: The term working element refers to the?
Answer: resectoscope
Q: What is the medical term for kidney stones?
Answer: nephrolithiasis
Q: What do the medulla of the adrenal glands secrete?
Answer: epinephrine and norepinephrine
Q: The kidneys are bound by the __ muscles on the medial side?
Answer: psoas
Q: The vascular supply for the ureters in the pelvic section come form the?
Answer: vesicle arteries
Q: The male urethra is approximately __ in length?
Answer: 20 cm
Q: The tunica albuginea__?
Answer: covers the testes
Q: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor affecting the__?
Answer: medulla of adrenal gland
Q: Addison’s disease affects the ?
Answer: adrenal glands
Q: In which type of dialysis is the dialysate drained by gravity?
Answer: peritoneal dialysis, CAPD, CCPD
Q: Phimosis is a condition affecting the __?
Answer: prepuce or foreskin, prevents it from retracting
Q: The condition of undescended testes is?
Answer: cryptochidism
Q: The aggressive type of testicular cancer malignancy usually strikes males between the ages of?
Answer: 20-40
Q: A white blood cell count over __ usually indicates infection?
Answer: >10,000mm^3
Q: Metaiodobenzylguanidine MIBG is a nuclear medicine study that is specifically designed to?
Answer: detect and locate pheochormocytoma
Q: The O’connor shield is ?
Answer: disposable item that allows visualization of prostatic urethra through rectum without contamination
Q: A __ incision is usually used for an adrenalectomy, a renal biopsy, or the removal of a small low-lying kidney?
Answer: traditional–flank or lumbar
Q: What tumor is the most common pediatric tumor of the abdomen?
Answer: Wilm’s tumor, nephroblastoma
Q: If the pleural cavity is entered, what should the STSR anticipate?
Answer: chest tube insertion
Q: If seeding of malignant cells is a concern, the bladder may be filled with __ prior to the urethral transection?
Answer: formalin solution
Q: The Marshall-Marchettie-Krantz procedure may be performed in conjunction with a __?
Answer: abdominal hysterectomy
Q: Varicocelectomy is a procedure to repair?
Answer: abnormal dilation of the spermatic veins in the spermatic cord
Q: What is a cholesteatoma?
Answer: benign cyst or tumor that fills the mastoid cavity
Q: Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures?
Answer: Reduces edema
Q: What does the term apnea mean?
Answer: stop breathing
Q: What does the term congenital mean?
Answer: present at birth
Q: What is the superior opening into the larynx called?
Answer: glottis
Q: Hemorrhage from the nose is described as?
Answer: epistaxis
Q: The olfactory sense is the sense of?
Answer: smell
Q: What is the name of the lowest tracheal cartilage that forms a ridge between the right and left main stem bronchi?
Answer: carina
Q: Enlargement of a structure due to an increase in the size of its cells is called?
Answer: hypertrophy
Q: Otosclerosis is the term used to describe?
Answer: bony overgrowth of the stapes
Q: The pinna is also know as the?
Answer: ear or auricle
Q: Name the three sections of the pharynx?
Answer: nasopharynx, otopharynx, laryngopharynx
Q: What tonsils are removed during the procedure called tonsillectomy?
Answer: palatine of faucial
Q: What tonsils are removed during the procedure called adenoidectomy?
Answer: pharyngeal tonsils
Q: What are the conchae?
Answer: scroll-shaped bony elements, forming the upper chambers of the naval cavity
Q: What term describes the concavity on the tympanic membrane where the malleus is attached?
Answer: Umbo
Q: A reduction of hearing is referred to as?
Answer: active noise reduction-ANR
Q: What is the usual cause of a vocal cord nodule?
Answer: Vocal abuse
Q: In what position will the adult patient be placed to undergo tonsillectiomy under local anesthesia?
Answer: sitting position
Q: What is the most common autologous site for securing a graft for tympanoplasty?
Answer: temporalis fascia
Q: Panendoscopy may involve viewing of the?
Answer: lining of the esophagus, stomach and upper duodenum
Q: What structures are removed during UPPP?
Answer: tonsils, adenoids, uvula, and a portion of soft palate
Q: Name the structure that separates the outer and middle ear?
Answer: tympanic membrane
Q: Name the ossicles of the middle ear from lateral to medial?
Answer: malleus, incus, and stapes
Q: The footplate of the stapes rests upon the?
Answer: oval window
Q: What fluid fills the spaces of the bony labyrinth?
Answer: perilymph
Q: What is the function of the cristae located in the inner ear?
Answer: maintain dynamic equilibrium
Q: The seventh cranial nerve is also called?
Answer: facial
Q: An otoscope is used to view the?
Answer: ear
Q: Why is nitrous oxide NOT used during reconstructive ear surgery?
Answer: causes expansion of the middle ear and can cause dislocation of a tympanic membrane graft
Q: Tympanotomy is ?
Answer: incision into the tympanic membrane
Q: The apex is the __ of the ?
Answer: nose