Prepare for the Praxis 5001 Elementary Education exam with these flashcard questions and answers. This covers reading, language arts, mathematics, social studies, and science.
Q: Marco Polo
Answer: Merchant and Traveler
Q: Latitude
Answer: the angular distance of a place north or south of the earth’s equator, or of a celestial object north or south of the celestial equator, usually expressed in degrees and minutes-lines side to side
Q: Longitude
Answer: the angular distance of a place east or west of the meridian at Greenwich, England, or west of the standard meridian of a celestial object, usually expressed in degrees and minutes.-lines Up and Down
Q: Absolute Location
Answer: exactly where you are on earths surface coordinate system such as longitude and latitude
Q: Relative Location
Answer: location compared to any other location on earth-landmarks
Q: industrialization
Answer: Started in England with construction of the cotton Mill in 1733. Went from rural to urban industrial, over crowed in cities, lack of sanitation,cause health problems due to size
Q: Great Depression (1929-1939)
Answer: The Great Depression began with the crash of the stock market in October of 1929. During this time, many people were out of work, hungry, and homeless.-Agriculture struggles due to prices that rose due to the demand-Consumers have less money to spend because income fall, less money and unequal distribution of money
Q: Women and the Great Depression
Answer: Francis Perkins was the first women in the cabinet US secretary of labor. Also made gains by getting appointed to important federal positions and working outside and home
Q: New Deal
Answer: The New Deal was a series of laws, programs, and government agencies enacted to help the country deal with the Great Depression. These laws placed regulations on the stock market, banks, and businesses. They helped put people to work and tried to help house and feed the poor. Franklin helped with the New Deal.
Q: Problems Women faced
Answer: discrimination is workplace, wages, and hiring practices
Q: assembly line
Answer: parts that are added as it moves from work station to work stationHenry Ford came up with this idea
Q: space age
Answer: The era starting when the exploration of space became possible. Also is a time period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events
Q: Constitution of the United States
Answer: We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.
Q: Gettysburg Address
Answer: Short speech given by Abraham Lincoln during the Civil War dedicating a cemetery for soldiers who died at the Battle of Gettysburg.
Q: supply and demand
Answer: the availability of a particular product and the desire(demand) for the product has on a price
Q: scarcity
Answer: the state of being scarce or in short supply; shortage.
Q: Articles of Confederation
Answer: first constitution of the 13 American states adapted in 1781 and replaced in 1789 by the constitution of the United States
Q: Bill of Rights
Answer: first 10 amendments of the united states and to guarantee the protection of people from strong central government
Q: American Revolution
Answer: also known as the American Revolutionary War and the U.S. War of Independence. The conflict arose from growing tensions between residents of Great Britain’s 13 North American colonies and the colonial government, which represented the British crown
Q: Civil War (1861)
Answer: started because of uncompromising differences between the free and slave states over the power of the national government to prohibit slavery in the territories that had not yet become states.
Q: Cold War (1947)
Answer: A conflict that was between the US and the Soviet Union. The nations never directly confronted each other on the battlefield but deadly threats went on for years.-space race-arms race-weapon development-Berlin destroyed
Q: World War 1 (1914)
Answer: The simplest answer is that the immediate cause was the assassination of Franz Ferdinand, the archduke of Austria-Hungary. His death at the hands of Gavrilo Princip – a Serbian nationalist with ties to the secretive military group known as the Black Hand – propelled the major European military powers towards war.-Nationalism, Imperialism, Alliances, and Militarism-F.F.
Q: World War 2 (1939)
Answer: Nazi Germany Invades Poland, Starting World War II. On Sept. 1, 1939, Nazi Germany launched an invasion of Poland. Two days later, Polish allies Britain and France declared war on Germany, marking the start of World War II.
Q: War of 1812
Answer: War between Britain and the United States, fought between 1812 and 1815. The War of 1812 has also been called the second American war for independence.
Q: Dred Scott Case
Answer: Slaves no legal right to sue for their freedomDred Scott was a slave
Q: Emancipation Proclamation
Answer: presidential proclamation and executive order issued by President Abraham Lincoln on January 1, 1863
Q: 13th, 14th, and 15th Amendments
Answer: 13th-Officially abolished and continues to prohibit slavery to this day14th-Declared that all persons born or naturalized in the United States are American citizens including African Americans15th-Prohibits each government in the United States from denying a citizen the right to vote based on that citizen’s race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
Q: Plessy v. Ferguson
Answer: was the name given to the cultural, social, and artistic explosion that took place in Harlem between the end of World War I and the middle of the 1930s. During this period Harlem was a cultural center, drawing black writers, artists, musicians, photographers, poets, and scholars.
Q: Harlem Renaissance
Answer: was a nationwide constitutional ban on the production, importation, transportation and sale of alcoholic beverages that remained in place from 1920 to 1933.
Q: Prohibition
Answer: God given right/destiny to expand their land further. Expand the territory over whole North America
Q: Manifest Destiny
Answer: quality
Q: Brown v. Board of Education
Answer: Powers are divided among legislative, executive, and judicial
Q: separation of powers
Answer: Makes sure that no one branch gets to much money. All the branches watch over each other
Q: checks and balances
Answer: House of Representatives= 435 electedSenate= 100 senators= 2 for each state
Q: Legislative Branch
Answer: President and has 15 major departments
Q: Executive Branch
Answer: supreme court and will review laws
Q: Judicial Branch
Answer: National-Print money, Declare War, Foreign trade, coin moneyState-issue license, conduct election, public safety
Q: Federalism
Answer: is an original economic system in which traditions, customs, and beliefs help shape the goods and the services the economy produces, as well as the rules and manner of their distribution-Does not like change
Q: traditional economy
Answer: an economy in which production, investment, prices, and incomes are determined centrally by a government.-government is in control
Q: command economy
Answer: In which the prices for goods and services are set freely by consent between vendors and consumers, in which the laws and forces of supply and demand are free from any intervention by a government, price-setting monopoly, or other authority.
Q: free-market economy
Answer: a political theory derived from Karl Marx, advocating class war and leading to a society in which all property is publicly owned and each person works and is paid according to their abilities and needs.-government controls-does not have upper class, middle class, and lower class
Q: communism
Answer: a political and economic theory of social organization that advocates that the means of production, distribution, and exchange should be owned or regulated by the community as a whole.-government owned industry
Q: socialism
Answer: an economic and political system in which a country’s trade and industry are controlled by private owners for profit, rather than by the state.-ownership of industry
Q: capitalism
Answer: a tax or duty to be paid on a particular class of imports or exports.
Q: tariffs
Answer: there are 3 sections-New England, Middle and South colonies. this came to form the USA
Q: Development of 13 colonies
Answer: U.S and the Soviet Union over a build up of missiles in Cuba. Nuclear war was averted
Q: Cuban Missile Crisis (1961)
Answer: marches to draw attention to plight of black citizens
Q: Civil Rights Movement (1964-1968)
Answer: last great battle of American revolutionary war, British army surrendered and British government began to consider peace treaty
Q: Yorktown Battle (1781-1781)
Answer: warned the European countries to end intervention in America-stop colonization-cease colonization for central and sound America or face military intervention by U.S
Q: Monroe Doctrine
Answer: “Father of Communism” – 19th century German PhilosopherMarxism the value of a commodity can be objectively measured by the average number of labor hours required to produce the commodity
Q: Karl Marx
Answer: a system of trade routes established during the Han Dynasty that stretched from China through India to Egypt, and eventually to the Roman Empire. Carried goods and ideas between 2 civilizations of Rome and China-silk went west word- Wool, gold, silver went east
Q: Silk Road
Answer: Purchased land on territory of France, Mississippi river to Rocky Mountain in west.-Thomas Jefferson-$15 million
Q: Louisiana Purchase (1803)
Answer: $12 billion to rebuild western Europe and help defenceMarsh=Rebuild West
Q: Marshal Plan (1948)
Answer: Prevented invaders from entering China
Q: Great Wall of China
Answer: Levy taxesdeclare warcoin moneycan change and grow over time
Q: Elastic Clause
Answer: protect free people from cruelty treatment of othersattempt to keep soviet influence out of Turkey and Greece
Q: Truman Doctrine (1947)
Answer: production of large amounts of standardized products in an assembly line
Q: Mass production
Answer: Enormous wealth and grossly opulent lifestyle enjoyed by a handful of powerful families-Wealth for groups
Q: Gilded Age
Answer: process by which a person or a group’s language and/or culture come to resemble those of another group-trying to be like somebody else
Q: Cultural Assimilation
Answer: spread of ideas, religion, culture from one place to another
Q: Globalization
Answer: declaring the 13 colonies to be independent from Great Britainwritten by Jefferson July 4th, 1776
Q: Declaration of Independence
Answer: movement of people into cities and city buildingsshift from rural to urban areas and ways in which each society adapts change
Q: Urbanization
Answer: peace treaty at the end of WW2need the state of war between germany and allied powers
Q: Treaty of Versailles
Answer: tax on newspapers, legal documents, playing cards, almanacs
Q: Stamp Act
Answer: Tax on sweet goods imported to colonies
Q: Sugar Act
Answer: colonial governments could not issue paper money
Q: Currency Act
Answer: guarantee women the right to vote
Q: 19th Amendment
Answer: Colonists in Boston throws millions of dollars of tea off of British ships in protest of their Tea Tax and Boston Massacre.-Tea in water
Q: The Boston Tea Party
Answer: natural and human made surface features on the earth including rivers, mountains-Top=Mountain
Q: Topographic Maps
Answer: base or topographic map as the foundation for showing data based on a theme, such as population, density, wildlife, hill-slope, and economic trends.-Theme of the map
Q: Thematic Maps
Answer: In Pacific ocean
Q: Ring of Fire
Answer: Atlantic, Pacific, Indian, Arctic
Q: Oceans
Answer: Himalayas in Nepal
Q: Everest
Answer: Himalayas, Ural, Zagroo
Q: Mountain Range in Asia
Answer: Andes
Q: Mountain Range in South America
Answer: Atlas
Q: Mountain Range in Africa
Answer: Rockies, Appalachian
Q: Mountain Range in North America
Answer: Alps
Q: Mountain Range in Europe
Answer: Great Divide Range
Q: Mountain Range in Australia
Answer: the governing body of a nation, state, or community.
Q: Government
Answer: 1. tension over competition for colonies2. ethnic groups wanting independent nations3. assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand
Q: Causes of WWI
Answer: led vikings on exploration of North America
Q: Leif Ericson
Answer: 1. forced quartering of British soldiers2. excessive tariffs and taxes3. “Intolerable Acts”
Q: Causes of American Revolution
Answer: punitive laws passed by British government after the Boston Tea Party
Q: Intolerable Acts
Answer: 1. new weaving and ironworking techniques2. expansion and improvement of roads and waterways3. increase in prosperity and political power of middle class
Q: Industrial Revolution
Answer: 1. income disparity between classes2. large debt increase3. decline of agriculture
Q: Causes of Great Depression
Answer: political party official who ensures discipline in a legislature
Q: Whip
Answer: invasion and occupation of England led by Duke William II (William the Conqueror)
Q: Norman Conquest
Answer: peace treaty ending WWI requiring Germany to accept responsibility for loss and damage caused by the war
Q: Treaty of Versailles
Answer: James’ I philosophy of royal absolutism and divine sanction
Q: True Law of Free Monarchies
Answer: controls and exploits more resources
Q: Core Society
Answer: 1. Buddhism2. Confucianism3. Taoism
Q: Chinese Religions
Answer: fought between North and South Korea from 1950-1953; U.S. supported the South and China supported the North; ended with a cease fire
Q: Korean War
Answer: fought between North and South Vietnam from 1955-1975; U.S. supported the South and China and Russia supported the North
Q: Vietnam War
Answer: scientific description of the customs of individual peoples and cultures
Q: Ethnography
Answer: opposition toward a strong federal government and ratification of the constitution; supporters included James Winthrop, Patrick Henry, and George Mason
Q: Anti-Federalism
Answer: support of a strong federal government and ratification of the constitution; supporters included Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Adams
Q: Federalism
Answer: supported supremacy of congress over the president; split over the issue of slavery
Q: Whig Party
Answer: inquiry over the causes of the wall street crash
Q: Pecora Investigation
Answer: Italian explorer funded by the Spanish monarchs who completed four voyages across the Atlantic and discovered America
Q: Christopher Columbus
Answer: first permanent English settlement in the Americas
Q: Jamestown
Answer: fought between British colonies and French colonies from 1754-1763; French depended heavily on Native American allies; resulted in French defeat and loss of territory
Q: French and Indian War
Answer: fought between U.S. and United Kingdom; resulted in no boundary change
Q: War of 1812
Answer: 1. Lexington and Concord2. Bunker Hill3. Saratoga-British army surrendered and France joined conflict5. Yorktown
Q: Major Battles of Revolutionary War
Answer: Massachusetts, Rhode Island, Connecticut, New Hampshire. Settlers arrived from England and Scotland
Q: New England Colonies
Answer: New York, New Jersey, Delaware, Pennsylvania, and Maryland
Q: Middle Atlantic Colonies
Answer: Virginia, North and South Carolina, and Georgia
Q: Southern Colonies
Answer: tax on newspapers, legal documents, licenses, almanacs, and playing cards
Q: The Stamp Act
Answer: taxes on paper, lead, glass, paint, and tea
Q: The Townshend Act
Answer: aimed at preventing the spread of communism, involved the economic aid that was sent to Europe in the aftermath of the second world war
Q: Marshall Plan
Answer: offered military aid to countries in danger of communist upheaval
Q: Truman Docterine
Answer: formed for the purposes of opposing communist aggression
Q: North Atlantic Treaty Organization (1949)
Answer: refers to viewpoints that seek to return to a previous state in a society; term is meant to stand in opposition to “radicalism”.
Q: Reactionary Groups
Answer: communities based on a vision of a perfect society
Q: Utopias
Answer: economic system based on private ownership and investment of money in business ventures in order to make a profit
Q: Capitalism
Answer: cultural group within a larger culture, often having beliefs or interests that differ with those of the larger culture.
Q: Subcultures
Answer: unofficially acknowledged barrier to advancement in a profession, especially affecting women and members of minorities
Q: Glass Ceiling
Answer: occurs when people are confronted with incompatible role expectations in the various social statuses they occupy(e.g. parents who need to work but also take care of children)
Q: Role Conflict
Answer: American Indian people dominant in Mexico before the Spanish conquest of the 16th century; settled in the valley of Mexico; grew corn; engaged in frequent warfare to conquer others of the region; worshiped many gods; believed the sun god needed human blood to continue his journeys across the sky; practiced human sacrifices and those sacrificed were captured warriors from other tribes and those who volunteered for the honor
Q: Aztec
Answer: group of Quechuan peoples of highland Peru who established an empire from northern Ecuador to central Chile before the Spanish conquest
Q: Inca
Answer: Mesoamerican civilization concentrated in Mexico’s Yucatan Peninsula and in Guatemala and Honduras but never unified into a single empire; major contributions were in mathematics, astronomy, and development of the calendar
Q: Maya
Answer: ancient civilization of Mexico; name in Nahuatl means “master builders”; formed a warrior aristocracy that gained ascendancy in the Valley of Mexico after the fall of Teotihuacán.
Q: Toltec
Answer: Small group among Orthodox Jews who follow beliefs that were part of a religious revival in Poland; believe individuals exist to glorify God and to be dressed well, and modestly, is a duty
Q: Hasidic Jews
Answer: Protestant sect originating in Friesland (The Netherlands) in the 16th century, emphasizing adult baptism and rejecting church organization, military service, and public office
Q: Mennonites
Answer: 16th-century movement for the reform of abuses in the Roman Catholic Church ending in the establishment of the Reformed and Protestant Churches; began in 1517, when Martin Luther challenged some of the basic practices and beliefs of the Roman Catholic Church; gave the English people religious motives for colonization in the Americas
Q: The Reformation
Answer: period of European history at the close of the Middle Ages and the rise of the Modern world; represents a cultural rebirth from the 14th through the middle of the 17th centuries
Q: The Renaissance
Answer: European intellectual movement of the late 17th and 18th centuries emphasizing reason and individualism rather than tradition; heavily influenced by 17th-century philosophers such as Descartes, Locke, and Newton, and its prominent exponents include Kant, Goethe, Voltaire, Rousseau, and Adam Smith; many members of the Enlightenment rejected traditional religious beliefs in favor of Deism, which holds that the world is run by natural laws without the direct intervention of God
Q: The Enlightenment
Answer: right of people to make political decisions for themselves.
Q: Popular Sovereighnty
Answer: social expectation that favors should be reciprocated
Q: Norm of Reprocity
Answer: political theory derived from Karl Marx, advocating class war and leading to a society in which all property is publicly owned and each person works and is paid according to their abilities and needs
Q: Communism
Answer: statistical measure representing the number of births within a given population per year; normally calculated as the number of births per thousand members
Q: Crude Birthrate
Answer: number of deaths per thousand in a population in a given year
Q: Crude Deathrate
Answer: set of beliefs that includes a limited role for the national government in helping individuals, support for traditional values and lifestyles, and a cautious response to change
Q: Conservatism
Answer: system in which society, usually in the form of the government, owns and controls the means of production
Q: Socialism
Answer: set of beliefs that includes the advocacy of positive government action to improve the welfare of individuals, support for civil rights, and tolerance for political and social change
Q: Liberalism
Answer: largest number of individuals of a population that a environment can support
Q: Carrying Capacity
Answer: sufficient number of adopters of an innovation in a social system so that the rate of adoption becomes self-sustaining and creates further growth
Q: Resource Critical Mass
Answer: second religious fervor that swept the nation; converted more than the first; had an effect on moral movements such as prison reform, the temperance movement, and moral reasoning against slavery
Q: Second Great Awakening
Answer: belief system which blends Hindu traditions with Islamic monotheistic traditions; based in India and Pakistan
Q: Sikhism
Answer: religion based on the teachings of the Buddha
Q: Buddhism
Answer: system of philosophical and ethical teachings founded by Confucius and developed by Mencius
Q: Confucianism
Answer: completed in 1869 at Promontory, Utah, it linked the eastern railroad system with California’s railroad system, revolutionizing transportation in the west
Q: Transcontinental Railroad
Answer: federally funded road, stretching from Cumberland, Maryland, to Vandalia, Illinois; first national road building project funded by Congress; made travel and transportation of goods much easier because it was one continuous road that was in good condition
Q: National Road
Answer: climate that does not meet the criteria to be classified as a polar climate, and in which precipitation is too low to sustain any vegetation at all, or at most a very scanty scrub
Q: Desert Climate
Answer: cool to cold climates found in mountains and on high plateaus; climate changes as altitude changes.
Q: Highland Climate
Answer: found in the areas just north or south of the equator, where weather is usually hot
Q: Tropical Climate
Answer: long winters, above freezing only in summer; most soil is permanently frozen called permafrost
Q: Tundra Climate
Answer: signed the civil rights act of 1964 into law and the voting rights act of 1965; war on poverty included the great society, the economic opportunity act, and other programs that provided food stamps and welfare to needy families; created a department of housing and urban development; most important legislation was probably medicare and medicaid
Q: Lyndon Johnson
Answer: created the Department of Energy and the Department of Education; criticized for his return of the Panama Canal Zone; because of the Soviet war in Afghanistan, he enacted an embargo on grain shipments to USSR and boycotted the 1980 Olympics in Moscow; his last year in office was marked by the takeover of the American embassy in Iran, fuel shortages, and the Soviet Invasion of Afghanistan, which caused him to lose to Ronald Regan in the next election
Q: Jimmy Carter
Answer: “Great Communicator” Republican; conservative economic policies; replaced liberal Democrats in upper house with conservative Democrats or “boll weevils”
Q: Ronald Reagan
Answer: mostly flat and grassy region of western North America
Q: Great Plains
Answer: continental transform fault that extends roughly 810 miles through California in the United States.
Q: San Andreas Fault
Answer: imaginary line that runs north and south along the highest points of the Rocky Mountains; rivers flow west or east from this line.
Q: Continental Divide
Answer: mountain range in the eastern United States extending from Quebec to the Gulf of Mexico; oldest and second longest mountain in U.S.
Q: Appalachian Mountains
Answer: office mandated by the Constitution; chosen in practice by the majority party, has both formal and informal powers, and is second in line to succeed to the presidency should that office become vacant
Q: Speaker of the House
Answer: control over dominant party in the House
Q: House Majority Leader
Answer: according to the Constitution this person is the official head of the Senate
Q: Vice President
Answer: 17th century English philosopher who opposed the Divine Right of Kings and who asserted that people have a natural right to life, liberty, and property
Q: John Locke
Answer: challenged British taxes (the stamp act) in court and won
Q: Pat Henry
Answer: general and progressive increase in prices
Q: Inflation
Answer: period of sideways price action, usually before a trend is reversed; sometimes called basing or accumulation after a decline, and top formation or a distribution after an advance
Q: Stabilization
Answer: little faith in government and does not believe his actions have an impact upon the actions of his political leader
Q: Low Political Efficancy
Answer: industrialist and philanthropist who made his fortune in the oil industry; used both Vertical and Horizontal integration to establish a monopoly on the steel business
Q: John Rockefellar
Answer: ruled Judiciary Act of 1789 unconstitutional and formed the basis for exercise of judicial review
Q: Marbury v. Madison
Answer: 1. congress could request (not require) states to pay taxes2. no regulation of interstate or foreign trade3. no system of federal courts4. no executive branch to enforce articles5. each state received one vote6. unanimous vote required to amend articles7. congress could not draft troops
Q: Major Ideas in Articles of Confederation
Answer: agreement among the 13 founding states that served as its first constitution and gave states more power
Q: Articles of Confederation (1781-1789)
Answer: 1. second U.S. president (served as VP)2. assisted in writing Declaration of Independence3. wrote “Thoughts on Government”
Q: John Adams
Answer: 1. first U.S. president2. commander-in-chief of continental army during the American Revolution3. crossed Delaware river on Dec. 25, 1776 to defeat Hessians (germans who served British)
Q: George Washington
Answer: peace agreement between the US and Great britain ending the American Revolutionary War
Q: Treaty of Paris (1783)
Answer: 1. wrote the Declaration of Independence2. 3rd U.S. president3. organized democratic-republican party (or Jeffersonians) with Madison b/c of opposing views of Alexander Hamilton4. believed the constitution prohibited any action not specifically permitted in the constitution
Q: Thomas Jefferson
Answer: 1. pioneering work in electricity2. known as “The First American” for campaigning for colonial unity3. U.S. ambassador to France
Q: Benjamin Franklin
Answer: 1. published Common Sense: strong defense of American independence from England (1776)2. wrote The Rights of Man in response to criticism of the French Revolution
Q: Thomas Paine
Answer: federal convention at Independence Hall held to revise the Articles of Confederation; delegated ended up drafting a whole new constitution
Q: Constitutional Convention (1787)
Answer: 1. Bill of Rights: first 10 amendments to the constitution2. Great (Connecticut) Compromise: combined Virginia plan and New Jersey plan creating two chambers in Congress: the Senate (based on equal representation) and the House of Representatives (based on population3. 3/5 Compromise: every 5 slaves would be counted as 3 people in terms of voting4. Slave Trade Compromise: agreement to wait until 1808 before Congress would be able to ban the slave trade in the US.5. Commerce Compromise: Congress was forbidden the power to tax the export of goods from any state
Q: Constitutional Compromises
Answer: nation of France sold 828,000 square miles of land west of the Mississippi River to the U.S. more than doubling the size of the U.S.
Q: Louisiana Purchase (1803)
Answer: government-sponsored expedition to explore the vast wilderness of the west soon after the signing of the Louisiana Purchase
Q: Lewis and Clark Expedition (1804-1806)
Answer: forced march under U.S. army escort of thousands of Cherokee Indians to the west of the Miss. river; 1/4 died during this journey
Q: Trail of Tears
Answer: idea that the U.S. was destined to cover the land from the Atlantic to Pacific Ocean
Q: Manifest Destiny
Answer: dispute between U.S. and Mexico over what constituted Texas; President Polk sent troops down by the Rio Grande to provoke Mexico into crossing the border; U.S. considered this an invasion and declared war; U.S. took over Texas; war ended with the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo (1848) which stated that U.S. got half of Mexico’s territory
Q: Mexican War
Answer: stated that further efforts by European nations to colonize land or interfere with states in North or South America would be viewed as acts of aggression, requiring U.S. intervention; U.S. would neither interfere with existing European colonies nor the internal concerns of European countries.
Q: Monroe Doctrine (1823)
Answer: machine invented by Eli Whitney that automated the separation of cottonseed from the short-staple cotton fiber and increased the South’s slave trade and cotton export
Q: Cotton Gin
Answer: machine that harvests grain, making it easier for farmers to own more land and grow more grain
Q: McCormick’s Reaper
Answer: produced the first commercially successful steamboat that resulted in the commercial development of America’s waterways
Q: Fulton’s Steamboat
Answer: railway locomotive that produces its power through a steam engine and resulted in changes in manufacturing and transportation of people and goods as well as jobs available to people in order to run the new machinery
Q: Steam Locomotive
Answer: 1. Ireland: potato famine and the loss of land from the British2. Germany: severe economic depression and religious intolerance
Q: Immigration (1800s)
Answer: law stated that all run away slaves must be returned to their owners in their slave states
Q: Fugitive Slave Act (1850)
Answer: Dred Scott went to court debating his freedom and rights but the court denied all of his pleas, and awarded him no freedom; Judge Taney ruled that all slaves were property not citizens, so Congress had no right to grant them freedom;
Q: Dred scott Case
Answer: attempt to mediate emancipation of all slaves and end racial segregation and discrimination
Q: Abolitionist Movement (1830-1870)
Answer: escaped from slavery and played a major role in abolition movement; founded the black abolitionist paper “The North Star”: reference to the directions given to runaway slaves trying to reach the Northern states and Canada
Q: Fredrick Douglas
Answer: after the Fugitive Slave Law passed she expressed her feelings through a literary representation of slavery, basing her work on the life of Josiah Henson and on her own observations
Q: Harriet Beecher Stowe
Answer: President of the Confederate States of America; failed to raise sufficient money to fight the American Civil War and could not obtain recognition and help from foreign governments; imprisoned for treaty but was never tried and got released on bail
Q: Jefferson Davis
Answer: prominent American abolitionist, journalist and social reformer, editor of radical abolitionist newspaper “The Liberator”, and one of the founders of the American Anti-Slavery Society
Q: William Lloyd Garrison
Answer: allowed citizens of those territories to determine for themselves whether the state would be slave or free; proponents of both factions poured into the Kansas Territory, with each side trying to gain supremacy, often through violence; pro-slavery groups attacked the town of Lawrence in 1856 and John Brown led his followers in retaliation, killing five pro-slavery settlers; the territory became known as “Bleeding Kansas”; after leading an unsuccessful raid at Harper’s Ferry, Virginia he was hung
Q: Kansas Nebraska Act of 1854
Answer: 1. opposed expansion of slavery but said he would not interfere with slavery where it existed2. issued Emancipation Proclamation
Q: Abraham lincoln
Answer: former slave who actively led slaves to freedom through the underground railroad
Q: Harriet Tubman
Answer: declared that all slaves in the Confederate states would be free
Q: emancipation proclamation (1862)
Answer: speech by Abraham Lincoln during the American Civil War at the dedication of a national cemetery on the site of the Battle of Gettysburg
Q: Gettysburg Address (1863)
Answer: officially abolished and continues to prohibit slavery
Q: 13th Amendement
Answer: declared that all persons born or naturalized in the United States are American citizens including African Americans
Q: 14th Amendment
Answer: prohibits each government in the United States from denying a citizen the right to vote based on that citizen’s race, color, or previous condition of servitude
Q: 15th Amendment
Answer: document signed by King John in 1215 that limited the power of the government
Q: Magna Carta
Answer: legalized state ordered segregation so long as the facilities for blacks and whites were equal
Q: Plessy v Ferguson
Answer: ruled that racial segregation in public schools violated the 14th Amendment and that education must be available to all children on equal terms
Q: Brown v Board of Education (1954)
Answer: period in U.S. history immediately following the Civil War in which the federal government set the conditions that would allow the rebellious Southern states back into the Union
Q: Reconstruction (1865-1877)
Answer: industrialist who amassed a fortune in the steel industry then became a major philanthropist and sold his company to banker John P. Morgan for $480 million
Q: Andrew Carnegie
Answer: 1. founder of the Standard Oil Company2. accused of engaging in unethical practices, such as predatory pricing and colluding with railroads to eliminate his competitors, in order to gain a monopoly in the industry; U.S. Supreme Court found Standard Oil in violation of anti-trust laws and ordered it to dissolve
Q: John D Rockefeller
Answer: 1. U.S. government looked to the firm for help with the depression of 18952. company assisted in thwarting the 1907 financial crisis3. helped consolidate railroad industry in the East4. formed the United States Steel Corporation (1901)
Q: JP Morgan
Answer: condition of being arranged in social strata or classes within a group
Q: Social Stratification
Answer: arose because children were thought to be more manageable, cheaper, and less likely to strike
Q: Child Labor
Answer: 1. led by Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Ernestine Rose, Lucretia Mott, and Susan B Anthony2. National Woman Suffrage Association fought for womens’ right to vote
Q: Women’s Movement (1840)
Answer: 1. represents the dominant culture; everyone goes in, and whatever the majority is will surface.2. encourages giving native language and culture in favor of the “American way”PLURALISM- replaced melting pot. understanding and appreciation of the cultural differences that people have. It focuses on society as a whole, and the uniqueness of each part that makes up the diverse population.
Q: Melting Pot
Answer: idea developed by Theodore Roosevilt of negotiating peaceably with other nations while simultaneously displaying military might
Q: Big Stick Diplomacy
Answer: ship canal 40 miles long across the Isthmus of Panama built by the U.S.
Q: Panama Canal (1904-1914)
Answer: National Association for the Advancement of Colored People; founded in 1909 to abolish segregation and discrimination, to oppose racism and to gain civil rights for African Americans; got Supreme Court to declare grandfather clause unconstitutional (used by many southern states to prevent blacks from voting)
Q: NAACP
Answer: passed by FDR; industries involved in interstate commerce were to set up minimum wage and maximum hour standards; child labor under the age of 16 was forbidden
Q: Fair Labor Standard Act (1938)
Answer: Cuban revolt against Spain; threatened american business interests in cuba; we fought for Cuba’s independence
Q: Spanish American War (1895)
Answer: period in the 1920s when African-American achievements in art, music, and literature flourished
Q: Harlem Renaissance
Answer: black writer who wanted to save African American folklore; she traveled all across the South collecting folk tales, songs, and prayers of black southerners; book was called Mules and Men.
Q: Zora Neale Hurston
Answer: known for his poetry in harlem renaissance where it was mostly dominated by whites
Q: Langston Hughes
Answer: U.S. originally pursued a policy of isolationism and diplomacy but entered when a German submarine sank the Lusitania killing over 100 Americans; President Woodrow Wilson demanded an end to attacks on passenger ships and Germany complied until 1917; seven U.S. vessels were sunk after their resumption of unrestricted submarine warfare; President Wilson asked Congress to declare war
Q: America Enters WWI
Answer: peace plan presented in 14 points; first five points called for open rather then secret peace traits, freedom of the seas, free trade, arms reduction, and fair adjustment; next 8 points addressed national aspirations of Europeans and boundary adjustments
Q: Wilson’s Fourteen Points
Answer: ban of sale, production, and transportation of alcohol in U.S.
Q: Prohibition (1920-193)
Answer: prohibits any U.S. citizen from being denied the right to vote on the basis of sex
Q: 19th Amendment
Answer: FDR’s series of experimental projects and programs to help stop the depression
Q: New Deal
Answer: first 3 months of FDR’s presidency; put many new programs into action to try and help Americans
Q: The Hundred Days
Answer: 1. stock prices increased2. many workers lost their jobs3. new construction and auto sales sagged4. banks did not have enough money
Q: Cause of the Great Depression
Answer: established a retirement plan for persons over 65 to be funded by tax on wages and paid equally by employees and employers
Q: Social Security Act (1935)
Answer: Harry Hopkins generated public jobs for the unemployed. employed people from the relief rolls for 30 hours of work a week at pay double that of the relief payment but less than a private employment
Q: Works Progress Administration Board (WPA)
Answer: administrative board that gave laborers the rights of self-organization and collective bargaining
Q: National Labor Relations Board
Answer: goal was the self-regulation of business and development of fair prices, wages, hours, and working conditions
Q: National Industrial Recovery Act (Wagner Act)
Answer: on December 7, 1941, Japan launched a surprise attack on the American naval fleet at Pearl Harbor; the following day, America and Great Britain declared war on Japan; On December 10, Germany and Italy declared war on the U.S.
Q: America Enters WWII
Answer: FDR signed into law Executive Order 9066, which resulted in the removal from their communities and the subsequent imprisonment of all Americans of Japanese descent who resided on the West Coast
Q: Interment Camps
Answer: code name for the secret U.S. project set up to develop atomic bombs for use in WWII
Q: Manhattan Project (1942)
Answer: 1. Japanese rejected the unconditional surrender to the U.S.2. August 6-plane called the ENOLA GAY dropped an atomic bomb on HIROSHIMA.3. August 9-second atomic bomb was dropped on NAGASAKI4. Aug 14-Japan surrendered (formal surrender Sep. 2)
Q: Japanese Surrender
Answer: republican senator who stated he had a list of known communists who were working in the state Department; expanded his attacks against the army; discredited in 1954 by the U.S. Senate
Q: McCarthy
Answer: fought between U.S. and Soviet Union; neither side ever fought the other but they did ‘fight’ for their beliefs using client states who fought for their beliefs on their behalf (e.g. Korean war)
Q: Cold War (1945-1980)
Answer: white applicant to the University of Calif. was denied admission because of the 16% minority quota that the school needed to uphold; upheld affirmative action but admission process was ruled unconstitutional
Q: California v. Bakke
Answer: outlawed racial discrimination by employers and unions
Q: Civil Rights Act (1964)
Answer: democracy, republic, monarchy, aristocracy, dictatorship, democratic republic
Q: Forms of Government
Answer: weak central government that has limited authority and the states have ultimate power (e.g. U.S. before the constitution)
Q: Confederation
Answer: powerful state governments that give up some of their power to a single central government
Q: Federalism
Answer: 1. centralized govt. holds most/all power and authority2. separate states do not exist3. local and national govt. exists but nothing in between4. govt. can abolish all other forms of gov within the country(e.g. Japan and France)
Q: Unitary
Answer: 1. central power is in a single or collective executive2. legislative and judicial bodies have little input(e.g. Nazi Germany, Soviet Union, and China)
Q: Authoritarian
Answer: legislative and executive branches are combined with a prime minister and cabinet selected from within the legislative body (e.g. Great Britain)
Q: Parliamentary
Answer: 1. executive branch clearly seperated from legislative and judicial branches2. all 3 must cooperate for policy to be consistent(e.g. U.S.)
Q: Presidential
Answer: literally means “rule by the people”
Q: Democracy
Answer: literal democracy is impossible in a political system containing a large population so the people elect representatives to make and enforce laws
Q: Republic
Answer: state ruled over by a single person as a king or queen
Q: Monarchy
Answer: rule by the wealthy, educated people
Q: Aristocracy
Answer: ruler is an absolute dictator (not restricted by a constitution or laws or opposition etc.)
Q: Dictatorship
Answer: ultimate authority and power is derived from the citizens; in practice countries that describe themselves as democratic republics do not always hold free or fair elections
Q: Democratic Republic
Answer: written agreement of the settlers arriving at New Plymouth; drawn up with fair and equal laws, for the general good of the settlement and with the will of the majority; first written laws for the new land
Q: Mayflower Compact (1620)
Answer: 1. Magna Carta2. Petition of Rights3. Bill of Rights
Q: Promoted Limited Government
Answer: list of things that were illegal for king and queen to do
Q: Petition of Rights
Answer: 1. makes laws2. can remove president or judge3. approves executives decision on judge(e.g. U.S. congress)
Q: Legislative Branch
Answer: 1. enforces the laws (they can veto them too)2. appoints judges(e.g. U.S. president)
Q: Executive Branch
Answer: 1. administration of justice (interpreting laws)(e.g. U.S. Supreme Court)
Q: judicial branch
Answer: imaginary line of longitude generally 180° (degrees) east or west of the Prime Meridian where each new day begins.
Q: International Dateline
Answer: line of the global grid running from the North Pole to the South Pole through Greenwich, England; starting point for measuring degrees of east and west longitude
Q: Prime Meridian
Answer: verticle lines that run parallel to the prime meridian and measure the distance in degrees east and west of the meridian
Q: Longitude
Answer: horizontal lines that run parallel to the equator and measure the distance in degrees north and south from the equator
Q: Latitude
Answer: shows geographic features of the land (e.g. altitudes and land forms)
Q: Topographical Map
Answer: shows units such as countries, states, provinces, districts, etc.
Q: Political Map
Answer: illustrate the physical features of an area (e.g. mountains, rivers, and lakes)
Q: Physical Maps
Answer: any resource, such as wood, wind, water or solar energy, that can or will be replenished
Q: Renewable Resource
Answer: any resource in the environment that is used by people
Q: Natural Resource
Answer: a resource that cannot be reused or replaced easily (e.g. gems, iron, copper, fossil fuels)
Q: Non-Renewable Resource
Answer: 1870 steam powered larger and faster ships with lower fares allowing for Europeans to come to the United States
Q: Flood of Immagrants
Answer: steady decline (about 4% per decade) in the total volume of ozone in Earth’s stratosphere (the ozone layer), and a much larger springtime decrease in stratospheric ozone over Earth’s polar regions
Q: Ozone Layer Depletion
Answer: gradual increase in the overall temperature of the earth’s atmosphere generally attributed to the greenhouse effect caused by increased levels of carbon dioxide, CFCs, and other pollutants
Q: Global Warming
Answer: cutting, skidding, on-site processing, and loading of trees or logs onto trucks or skeleton cars
Q: Logging
Answer: degradation of land, especially in semiarid areas, primarily because of human actions like excessive crop planting, animal grazing, and tree cutting
Q: Desertification
Answer: removal of a forest or stand of trees where the land is thereafter converted to a non-forest use
Q: Deforestation
Answer: burying, recycling, and burning
Q: Waste Disposal
Answer: movement up or down the social class ladder
Q: Social Mobility
Answer: belief in the superiority of one’s own ethnic group
Q: Ethnocentrism
Answer: idea that behavior must be judged relative to the values of the culture in which it occurs
Q: Cultural Relativity
Answer: view that politics and decision making are located mostly in the framework of government, but that many non-governmental groups use their resources to exert influence
Q: Pluralism
Answer: unfair treatment of a person or group on the basis of prejudice
Q: Discrimination
Answer: stone with writing on it in three languages: hieroglyphic, demotic and Greek that presents essentially the same text in all three scripts and provided the key to the modern understanding of Egyptian hieroglyphs.
Q: Rosetta Stone
Answer: ancient Egyptian writing system in which pictures were used to represent ideas and sounds
Q: Hieroglyphics
Answer: site of the tombs of ancient Egyptian pharaohs from the New Kingdom dynasties from the 16th-11th centuries B.C; lies on the west bank of the Nile across from ancient Thebes (modern Luxor)
Q: The Valley of the Kings
Answer: HAMILITON: wanted U.S. to be deeply involved in other countries; wanted to side with BritainJEFFERSON: agrarianism (wanted mostly farming); no international trade; no manufactures; no strong central govt; sided with France.
Q: Origin of Political Parties
Answer: series of holy wars undertaken by European Christians to free the Holy Land from Muslim rule
Q: Crusades (1096-1270)
Answer: understanding and appreciation of the cultural differences that people have; focuses on society as a whole, and the uniqueness of each part that makes up the diverse population
Q: Cultural Pluralism
Answer: 78% Nitrogen, 20% Oxygen, 0.93% Argon, 0.03% Carbon Dioxide
Q: Atmosphere
Answer: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere
Q: Layers of the Atmosphere
Answer: folding-folding of rock layersfaults
Q: Formation of Mountains
Answer: occurs when the movement of the plates is vertical and opposite
Q: dip-slip fault
Answer: created when rock above the fault plan moves up relative to the rock below
Q: reverse fault
Answer: one that is currently erupting or building to an eruption
Q: Active Volcano
Answer: one that is between eruptions, shows signs of internal activity
Q: Dormant Volcano
Answer: no longer able to erupt
Q: Extinct Volcano
Answer: any igneous rock formed below earth’s surface
Q: intrusive rocks
Answer: any igneous rock formed at the surface
Q: extrusive rock
Answer: old lava tubes formed when magma entered
Q: dikes
Answer: created by lithification, fluid sediments are transformed into solid rocks,
Q: Sedimentary Rocks
Answer: classified by texture, composition and the way they were formed. Made from molten rock
Q: Igneous Rocks
Answer: formed by high temps and great pressures, undergo a change called prism
Q: Metamorphic Rocks
Answer: remains of/trace of an ancient organism
Q: Fossil
Answer: transportation of surface materials by another moveable material ex. water, wind, or ice
Q: Erosion
Answer: use of radioactivity to make accurate determinations of earths age
Q: Absolute Dating
Answer: core (in portion), photosphere (sun’s surface), sunspots (cool, dark areas on sun’s surface), chromosphere (hydrogen gas shoot outwards), Corona (transparent area of the Sun visible only during a total eclipse
Q: Sun
Answer: variable radio source emits signals very short, regular bursts
Q: Pulsar
Answer: object that photographs like a star but has a large redshif and a variable energy output
Q: Quasar
Answer: consists only of bacteria and blue green algae
Q: Prokaryotic cells
Answer: found in protists, fungi, plants and animals, does not contain ribsomes
Q: Eukaryotic cells
Answer: site of protein synthesis, free floating in cytoplasm
Q: Ribosomes
Answer: found in animal cells, contain digestive enzymes that break down food, viruses, damaged cell components
Q: Lysosomes
Answer: Large organelles that make ATP to supply energy to the cell
Q: Mitochondria
Answer: found in photosynthetic organisms onlyChloroplasts-green in color
Q: Plastids
Answer: hold stored food and pigments
Q: Vacuoles
Answer: mitosis-division of somatic cels, meiosis-division of sex cells (eggs and sperm)
Q: Cell Reproduction
Answer: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
Q: Five Kingdoms of Living Organisms
Answer: posing a question, forming a hypothesis, doing the test, observing and recording, drawing a conclusion
Q: Scientific Method
Answer: can be observed without changing the identity of a substance
Q: Physical property
Answer: ability of a substance to be changed into new substances
Q: Chemical property
Answer: substance that cannot be broken down into other substances
Q: Element
Answer: smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element
Q: Atom
Answer: smallest particle of a substance
Q: Molecule
Answer: two or more elements elements that have been chemically combined
Q: Compound
Answer: states an object at rest will remain at rest, object at motion will remain at motion
Q: Newtons first law of motion
Answer: heat travels through the heated solid ex. iron flame on handle will eventually be hot
Q: Conduction
Answer: Heat transported by the movement of a heated substance ex convection ovens circulate air
Q: Convection
Answer: Heat transfer as the result of electromagnetic waves ex. sun warms the earth with waves
Q: Radiation
Answer: states that the universe originated from a magnificent explosion spreading mass
Q: Big Bang Theory
Answer: Tropical Rainforest, Savanna, Desert, Temperate, Taiga, Tundra (north/south poles)
Q: Biomes
Answer: oldest rocks in a rock unit are found on the bottom of the rock column
Q: Law of superposition
Answer: Nebulae, Pulsars, Neutron stars (quasars are not)
Q: Part of the galaxy
Answer: is the point in the orbit of a planet, asteroid or comet where it is nearest to the sun. It is the opposite of aphelion, which is when the orbit of the object is farthest from the sun
Q: Perihelion
Answer: The tidal influence on a close object is greater because the inverse square law drop in gravitational force gives a greater ratio of the force on the near side of the object to that on the far side
Q: Cause of tides
Answer: processess and package macromolecules
Q: Golgi apparatus
Answer: synthesize proteins
Q: endoplasmic
Answer: stars with single cell and ends with four haploid cells
Q: meiosis
Answer: interphase, prophase, metaphase,anaphase, telophase
Q: stages of mitosis
Answer: beginning when chromatin condenses into double rod-shaped structures called chromosomes in which the chromatin becomes visible
Q: prophase
Answer: 44
Q: autosomes in somatic cells of humans
Answer: chromosomes line up in the cell
Q: metaphase
Answer: period before mitosis begins
Q: interphase
Answer: chromosomes are pulled apart
Q: anaphase
Answer: formation of eggs
Q: oogenesis
Answer: phylum, class, order, family
Q: correct order high to low of species
Answer: Plants, animals, fungi, protista, archaea, and bacteria(virus’s are not)
Q: Kingdom of living organisms
Answer: stands alone, unchanged by others
Q: independent variable
Answer: depends on other variables for change
Q: dependent variable
Answer: is replaced on a timescale that is very long relative to human life
Q: non-renewable resource
Answer: is the value that is manipulated during the experiment
Q: variable
Answer: organelle, cell, tissue, organ,system, organism
Q: sequence of living things low to high
Answer: e.g.:top of swinging arc
Q: maximum potential energy
Answer: inertial mass and gravitational mass are identical
Q: balance scale
Answer: energy is neither credited nor destroyed
Q: first law of thermodynamics
Answer: how much the temp of an object will increase when a quantity of heat is added to the object
Q: heat capacity
Answer: theory that explains not only the movement of the continents but also the changes in the Earth’s crust caused by internal forces
Q: Plate tectonics
Answer: organisms create descendants through combination of genetic material.-need to have more than one for this to work
Q: Sexual Reproduction
Answer: creates a genetically similar copy of itself without the combination of itself and without the combination of genetic material
Q: Asexual Reproduction
Answer: the series of changes in the life of an organism, including reproduction
Q: Life cycles
Answer: change or alteration in form or qualities and change in structure
Q: mutations
Answer: a change or the process of change by which an organism or species becomes better suited to its environment.
Q: adaptation
Answer: natural process resulting in evolution of organisms best adapted to environment.-Survival of the fittest
Q: natural selection
Answer: solids, liquids, or gas
Q: changes of states
Answer: basic building block for all matter in universe
Q: atoms
Answer: strength or energy as an attribute of physical action or movement
Q: force
Answer: a state in which opposing forces or influences are balanced.
Q: equilibrium
Answer: the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth
Q: Nutrition
Answer: Examples of communicable, or infectious, diseases include hepatitis, polio, influenza, HIV/AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis. These diseases caused by viruses, bacteria, fungi and parasites are capable of spreading among people through the air, blood and other bodily fluids
Q: Communicable diseases
Answer: overindulgence in or dependence on an addictive substance, especially alcohol or drugs
Q: Substance abuse
Answer: potential and kinetic
Q: Forms of energy
Answer: The electromagnetic (EM) spectrum is the range of all types of EM radiation. Radiation is energy that travels and spreads out as it goes – the visible light that comes from a lamp in your house and the radio waves that come from a radio station are two types of electromagnetic radiation.
Q: Electromagnetic spectrum
Answer: Law one- An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced force. An object in motion continues in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force-This law is often called: “the law of inertia”.Law two-Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a mass. The greater the mass (of the object being accelerated) the greater the amount of force needed (to accelerate the object).-Need ForceLaw three-For every action there is an equal and opposite re-action.-Friction
Q: Newton’s laws of motion
Answer: a. speed, distance, and time relationshipsb. accelerationc. circular motiond. relative motion
Q: Types of motion
Answer: system found by the interaction if a community of organisms with their physical enviorment
Q: Ecosystemsa. food chainb. food web
Answer: is an imaginary line of longitude on the Earth’s surface located at about 180 degrees east (or west) of the Greenwich Meridian.
Q: Equator
Answer: commercial value to humans, such as minerals, energy, timber, fish, wildlife and landscape-Nature
Q: International Dateline
Answer: those that can be replenished such as wind, solar, tides and water-use over and over again
Q: Natural resources
Answer: those that cannot be replenished. Fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, metal ores cannot be replaced or reused once burned.
Q: Renewable Resources
Answer: natural resource that have to be extracted and purified rather than created.-can be bought and sold
Q: Nonrenewable Resources
Answer: Igneous- cooled and solidifiedSedimentary- surface of earth and covers majority if earthMetamorphic-buried within earths crust
Q: Commodities
Answer: process of change-chemical or physical
Q: three major types of rocks
Answer: weathering in which soil, rocks are worn away through glaciers, water, wind and heat
Q: weathering
Answer: a mountain or hill, typically conical, having a crater or vent through which lava, rock fragments, hot vapor, and gas are being or have been erupted from the earth’s crust-formed when 2 plates slide away from each other
Q: erosion
Answer: a sudden and violent shaking of the ground, sometimes causing great destruction, as a result of movements within the earth’s crust or volcanic action-Plates slide past each other
Q: volcanoes
Answer: motion or form by wind
Q: earthquakes
Answer: rise and fall of the sea level water under the gravitational pull of the mood-2 high tides and 2 low tides
Q: waves
Answer: a body of water or air moving in a definite direction, especially through a surrounding body of water or air in which there is less movement.
Q: tides
Answer: Evaporation-liquid state to gas or vaporCondensation- water vapor in air change to liquid waterPrecipitation- water released from clouds in formd of rain, snow and hail
Q: current
Answer: consist of the sun, moon, 8 planets and their moon, meteors, asteroids, and comets
Q: the water cycle
Answer: Sun-Mecury-Venus-Earth-Mars-Jupitor-Saturn-Uranus-Neptune-Tricks to rememberSo My Very Excellent Mother Just Served Us Nachos
Q: The solar system
Answer: process by which plants, some bacteria, and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce sugar, which cellular respiration converts into ATP, the “fuel” used by all living things.
Q: planets
Answer: the action of breathing.
Q: photosynthesis
Answer: when a plant absorbs water in its roots.
Q: respiration
Answer: can be observed and tested. They include properties such as color, length, volume, odor, and density.
Q: transpiration
Answer: Speed of light is faster than the speed of sound-nearly 900,000 times faster than sound
Q: Physical properties of matter
Answer: The nucleus, the mitochondrion, the chloroplast, the Golgi apparatus, the lysosome, and the endoplasmic reticulum are all examples of organelles.
Q: Sound and light
Answer: Energy of motion
Q: Cells organelles
Answer: Energy that is stored and held in readiness
Q: Kinetic Energy
Answer: Earth blocks sunlight from reaching the moon
Q: Potential energy
Answer: The Moon passes directly between the Sun and Earth and casts a shadow over part of Earth
Q: Lunar Eclipse
Answer: is the process by which radiation from a planet’s atmosphere warms the planet’s surface to a temperature above what it would be without its atmosphere
Q: Solar Eclipse
Answer: A major volcanic belt formed by the many volcanoes that rim the Pacific Ocean
Q: Greenhouse effect
Answer: A supercontinent that assembled at the end of the Paleozoic Era. (Tectonic Plates)
Q: Ring of Fire
Answer: negatively charged
Q: PANGAEA
Answer: positively charged
Q: Electron
Answer: neutral charged
Q: Proton
Answer: cause day and night
Q: Neutron
Answer: is the shape of the illuminated (sunlit) portion of the Moon as seen by an observer on Earth
Q: Earths Rotation on its axis
Answer: meat eaters
Q: Phases of the moon
Answer: plant eaters
Q: Carnivores
Answer: eat plants and meat
Q: herbivore
Answer: movement of a atom or molecules in a solution or gas
Q: Omnivores
Answer: property used to characterize material in reaction that change-ph level-heat combustion- flammability
Q: Diffusion
Answer: process of growth, change, and development
Q: Chemical Properties
Answer: lives by preying on other animals
Q: Evolution
Answer: hunted or caught for food
Q: Predator
Answer: biological instructions that make each species unique-Nucleus
Q: Prey
Answer: Crust- solidMantle-Solid-most of earth’s massOuter core-liquidInner core- solid
Q: DNA
Answer: motion or operation rate of motion. speed, and action
Q: Earths Layers
Answer: rate of change increase of speed and velocity
Q: Velocity
Answer: number of species interacting within a given area
Q: Acceleration
Answer: role of a species within a community-how to rememberfind you own niche or each person has a unique role
Q: Community
Answer: number of species within a community and their population
Q: Niche
Answer: area in which a species are associated because of climate such as desert, tropical rain, forest, grassland, tundra-Ways to remember wordBi-home=biome
Q: Species diversity
Answer: Galaxies- million of stars, Milky WayStars- hot gaseous massNebulae- cloud of gasSolar systemBig Bang
Q: Biome
Answer: ability or tendency to maintain internal stability in an organism to compensate for environmental change
Q: Features of Universe
Answer: called taxonomyscientist put organisms into groups when they have things in common-animal-plant-Fungi-Protist
Q: Homeostasis
Answer: Kingdom-Phylum- class-order- family-genus- species
Q: Classification
Answer: Mass divided by volume-grams/mililiter
Q: Taxonomy
Answer: amount of substance that will dissolve in a given solvent
Q: Density
Answer: transmission of heat or electricity or sound-how much it passes through when touched
Q: Solubility
Answer: compound0-7neutral=7
Q: conductivity
Answer: break apart negative7-10
Q: Acid
Answer: refers to the mass of one or all of the species in an ecosystem or area-How to remember this wordMass=whole ecosystem
Q: Base
Answer: how much matter in a object
Q: Biomass
Answer: everything that has mass and volume
Q: Mass
Answer: force of gravity on the object-w=mass times gravity
Q: Matter
Answer: force of attraction by which terrestrial bodies tend to fall towards earth
Q: Weight
Answer: attacks organisms and substances that invade body systems and cause disease
Q: gravity
Answer: pure substance that is made for a single type of atom
Q: Function of immune system
Answer: combination of 2 or more different chemical elements
Q: elements
Answer: any atom connected by chemical bonds
Q: compounds
Answer: 2 or more substances are combined
Q: molecules
Answer: Roots- absorb water and dissolve nutrients and anchor plants in groundStem- support plant body and transport materials throughout plantLeaves- main organ of photosynthesis
Q: mixture
Answer: Ionosphere-Aurora BorealisExosphereThermosphereMesosphereStratosphere-OzoneTroposphere- planes fly at this level-Trick to know the order:I ET Must Stand Tall
Q: Function of Roots, Stem, and Leaves
Answer: explanation or model that covers a substantial group of occurrences in nature and has been confirmed by a substantial number of the experiments and observations
Q: Earths Atmosphere
Answer: sharing of electrons between atoms-non-metal and non-metal
Q: Theory
Answer: valence electrons between atoms-metal and non-metal
Q: Covalent Bond
Answer: fossil of a footprint, trail, burrow, or other trace of an animal rather than of the animal itself
Q: Ionic Bond
Answer: Genetics founder-Gregor Mendel
Q: Trace fossils
Answer: increase in the frequency of a wave as observed and source move towards or away from each other
Q: Pea Plant
Answer: that were produced biologically by a “life process” or “vital force”
Q: Doppler effect
Answer: those of a mineral nature that were not created by biological processes-lack a carbon-Not natural
Q: Organic
Answer: naturally occurring inorganic solid with a definite chemical composition and ordered arrangement
Q: Inorganic
Answer: living factors, organisms that affect a community or population
Q: Minerals
Answer: nonliving factors, of the environment-Absent= Nonliving
Q: Biotic
Answer: transfer of heat through a fluid caused by motion-space that you don’t touch
Q: Abiotic
Answer: behavior of a male animal that defines and defends it’s territory
Q: Convection
Answer: transfer of heat or electric current from one substance to another by direct conduct-how to remember it: Con- Duct-ionto touch the duck
Q: Territoriality
Answer: relation between 2 different kinds of organisms in which one receives benefits from the other by causing damage to it-Par=2
Q: Conduction
Answer: lung, nose, trachea, bronchi, diaphragm
Q: Parasitism
Answer: heart, blood, vessels
Q: Respiratory System
Answer: command center of body
Q: Circulatory ststem
Answer: emission of energy as either waves or particles
Q: Nervous system
Answer: property used to characterizes physical objects-color-smell-area-hardness-length
Q: Radiation
Answer: study of plants, animals, their environment and how they interact
Q: Physical properties
Answer: The product is the same regardless of the order of factors.Example: 2×5=5×2
Q: Ecology
Answer: The product is the same regardless of grouping.Example: (2×5)x3=2x(5×3)
Q: communicative property
Answer: Multiplying a sum by a number is the same as multiplying each addend by the number and then adding the products.Example: 2x(3+4)=(2×3)+(2×4)=14
Q: associative property
Answer: The sum of a number and 0 is that number. In multiplication, the product of a number and 0 is 0.Example: 3+0=3 and 3×0=0
Q: distributive property
Answer: The set of positive and negative numbers, including zero.Integers do not include fractions (1/3), decimals (0.56), or mixed numbers (7 3/4).
Q: zero property
Answer: A whole number great than 1 that has only two factors, itself and 1; a number that can be divided evenly only by 1 and itself.Example: 3,7,11
Q: integers
Answer: A whole number greater than 1 that has more than two different factors. In other words, any number that is not a prime number.Example: Composite number 8 has the factors of 1,2,4,8
Q: prime number
Answer: any number that can be divided by 2 without leaving a remainder.Example: 2,4,6,8,10
Q: composite numbers
Answer: any number that cannot be divided evenly by 2.Example: 3,5,7,9,etc.
Q: even numbers
Answer: the set of whole numbers, integers, decimals, and fractions.Example: 45.6 can be written as 456/10
Q: odd numbers
Answer: numbers that are not rationalExample: Pi=3.141592653
Q: rational numbers
Answer: the set of all rational and irrational numbersExample: 1,2,3,4,5 etc.
Q: irrational number
Answer: numbers that are multiplied together to obtain a productExample: 2*3=62 and 3 are factors
Q: real numbers
Answer: a number that divides exactly into two or more other numbersExample:Factors of 12 are 1,2,3,4,6, and 12Factors of 15 are 1,3,5,15-Common factors of 12 & 15 are 1 & 3
Q: factors
Answer: also a prime number-The prime factors of 12 are 1,2,and 3-The prime factors of 15 are 1,3,and 5
Q: common factor
Answer: a way to compare equal parts with a wholeExample: 5/8 shows that there are 5 equal parts out of 8 equal parts
Q: prime factor
Answer: top number of a fraction
Q: fraction
Answer: bottom number of a fraction
Q: numerator
Answer: a number that uses a decimal point to show tenths, hundredths, thousandths, and so onExample: 1.234
Q: denominator
Answer: Please (Parenthesis) Excuse (Exponents) My (Multiplication) Dear (Division) Aunt (Addition) Sally (Subtraction)
Q: decimal
Answer: numbers we use for countingExample: 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
Q: PEMDAS order of operations
Answer: used to show positionExample: 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, etc.
Q: cardinal numbers
Answer: the lowest multiple of one or more denominators of a fraction
Q: ordinal numbers
Answer: the largest number that is a factor of two or more numbersExample:GCF- 15: 1,3,5,1535: 1,5,7, and 35GCF=5
Q: least common denominator
Answer: the smallest number that is a multiple of two or more numbersExample:LCM- 3:(1)3, (2)6, (3)9, (4)12, (5)155: (1)5, (2)10, (3)15, (4)20LCM=15
Q: greatest common factor
Answer: two fractions that have the same value but are expressed differentlyExample: 1/5=20/100=2/10=4/20 (2×2=4) (10×2=20)
Q: least common multiple
Answer: the numerator and denominator of a fraction are reduced to the smallest possible integersExample: 4/8 simplified (4/4=1) (8/4=2) = 1/2
Q: equivalent fractions
Answer: 1.) use manipulatives or act out the problem2.) draw a picture3.) look for a pattern4.) guess and check5.) use logical reasoning6.) make an organized list7.) make a table8.) solve a simpler problem9.) work backward
Q: simplifying a fraction
Answer: that are based on a whole of 100 instead of a whole of 1Example: one whole is equal to 100%(“percent” means “for every hundred”)
Q: problem solving strategies
Answer: use formula %=100* (numerator/denominator)Example: 3/5 expressed as a percent would calculate as %=100*3/5=300/5=603/5=60%
Q: decimals are fractions…
Answer: divide the percent number by 100 and reduce to lowest termsExample: 96%=96/100=24/25
Q: A fraction expressed as a percent
Answer: remember that percent means hundredthsExample: 0.23=23%5.34=534%0.007=0.7%700%=7.086%=0.86
Q: express a percents as a common fraction
Answer: percent must first be changed to a decimal number. 30% becomes 0.3 is multiplied by the number in questionExample: find 30% of(multiply) 33Step 1: 0.3×33=9.9so 9.9 is 30% of 33
Q: convert decimals to fractions
Answer: a single value used to represent a collection of data
Q: find the percent of a number
Answer: formula=sum of values/number of values
Q: average
Answer: the middle value of a distribution that is arranged in size ordermedian=1/2 (n+1)n=# of valuesIf there is an even # of values then add the who middle numbers & divide by 2
Q: mean
Answer: the value(s) that occur the most often in a distributionExample: 21,23,25,27,27,27,28,30mode=27
Q: median
Answer: a numbers distance from zeroExample: -3 & +3 have an absolute value of 3 (both are 3 spaces away from 0)
Q: mode
Answer: subtract the absolute value and give the sum the sign of the larger addendExample: +7-(+3)=7-3=4or -5-(+9)
Q: absolute value
Answer: the superscript number placed next to another number at the top right to indicate how many times the number is multiplied by itselfExample: 3^3=3x3x3=27
Q: subtracting a positive
Answer: interior angle greater than 180 deg, polygon with one or more diagonals that have points outside the polygon
Q: exponent
Answer: 2 sides are parallel
Q: Concave quadrilaterals
Answer: V=πr²h (height x pi x radius squared
Q: Trapezoid
Answer: A=πr²
Q: Volume of a cylinder
Answer: 2πrh+2πr²
Q: Area of a circle
Answer: 1/3πr²h
Q: Surface area of a cylinder
Answer: A=½bh
Q: Volume of a cone
Answer: Find area of each face + base and add together.
Q: Quadrants in a coordinate plane
Answer: Given two points (X1,Y1) and (x2,y2) on a line, the slope m is: m = rise/run= y2-y1/x2-x1
Q: Area of triangle
Answer: y=mx+b
Q: Surface area of pyramid
Answer: 2πr
Q: slope
Answer: d=2r
Q: straight line equation
Answer: can be defined by a set of points or vertices and lines connecting the points in a closed chain, as well as the resulting interior points
Q: circumference of a circle
Answer: group of numbers, symbols, and variables that express an operationex)6+b or 6n+6
Q: diameter of circle
Answer: polygon with interior angles measuring less than 180 degrees
Q: Geometric shapes
Answer: forms a right angle
Q: Algebraic expression
Answer: 8 oz= 1 cup1 pint= 2 cups1 qt=4 cups1 gal=4 qt16 oz=1 pound1/2 cup=8 tablespoons
Q: convex
Answer: Emergent – use letters or letter-like symbols but are not yet familiar with conventions of print or spellingEarlyTransitional -Formal sense of print conventions, letters, words, and sentences.Conventional – able to select types of writing to suit their purpose and have more control of structure, punctuation, and spellingProficient – developed their own personal style and have a large vocabulary, cohesive and coherent.
Q: perpendicular
Answer: 1) Pre-Alphabetic Phase – incidental visual cues2) Early Alphabetic Phase – letter knowledge, partial phoneme awareness3) Later Alphabetic Phase – Early sight word reading, phoneme/grapheme correspondence, complete phoneme awareness4) Consolidated Alphabetic Phase – Reading fluently by sound, whole word, families and analogies, syllable morpheme
Q: measuring
Answer: 1) Entering – does not understand/speak english2) Beginning/Production – if all of the following criteria are met:-understand and speaks conversational and academic English with hesitancy-the pupil is at a pre-emergent or emergent level of reading and writing below grade level3) Developing/Intermediate – if all of the following criteria are met:-decreased hesitancy than level 2 with understand and speaking conversational and academic English-Post-emergent, and developing reading comprehension and writing skills-can demonstrate academic knowledge with assistance4) Expanding/Advanced Intermediateif all of these following criteria are met-understand and speaks conversational English without difficulty but understands and speaks academic English with some hesitancy-continues to acquire reading and writing skills in content areas needed to achieve grade level expectations with assistance5) Bridging/Advancedif all the following criteria are met:-understands and speaks conversational and academic English well-pupil is near proficient in reading, writing and content area skills to meet grade level expectations-requires occasional support6) English Proficient/Formerly limitedif all the following criteria are met:-pupil was formerly limited English proficient and is now fully English proficient-pupil reads, writes, speaks and comprehends English within academic classroom settings7) English Proficient/Never LimitedFully-English proficient:-student was never classified as limited English proficient
Q: Stages of Writing Development
Answer: Each individual sound. smallest unit of sound. Sun = 3. Table = 3. Ball = 3. /b/ /a/ /ll/
Q: Phases of Word/Reading Development
Answer: One vowel sound per syllable
Q: WIDA Levels
Answer: C (onset) at (rime)M – atT – all
Q: Phoneme (also phoneme segmentation)
Answer: Vowel is at the end of a syllable, resulting in long vowel sound. /pa/ /per/. /e/ /ven/. /o/ /pen/, ti-ger
Q: Syllable
Answer: Syllable that ends in a consonant fan, am,
Q: Onset/rime
Answer: Common spelling of the long a. Gate
Q: Open Syllable
Answer: consonant, vowel, consonant – cat
Q: Closed Syllable
Answer: hunt, fast, cart
Q: VCe Syllable Pattern
Answer: Expressive reading
Q: CVC word
Answer: Emergent – sense of beg/mid/end story, listening/retellingEarly – understands difference between narrative/non narrative, connect written words, recognize sight wordsTransitional – settings, characters, strategiesFluent – chapter books with good comprehension
Q: CVCC word
Answer: the sounds that letters make and the letters that are used to represent sounds
Q: Prosody
Answer: entering(words/phrases)beginning(short sentences)developing (content areas), expanding(some technical language), bridgingreaching
Q: Stages of Reading
Answer: The idea that, in English, words are made up of letters that approximate the sounds heard when we speak these words
Q: phonics
Answer: a method of representing the sounds of a language by written or printed symbols
Q: language proficiency levels
Answer: Levels of meaning, structure, language convention and clarity and knowledge demands. Can only be evaluated by a human reader.
Q: alphabetic principal
Answer: Readability measures such as word frequency and sentence length.
Q: orthography
Answer: Reader variables (such as motivation, knowledge, and experiences) and task variables (such as purpose and the complexity generated by the task assigned and the questions posed)
Q: qualitative text complexity
Answer: Copies words and uses pattern sentences. Can write on line. Writes initial consonants, correlates some letter/sounds.
Q: quantitative text complexity
Answer: uses invented spelling and simple sentences, correctly uses upper- and lowercase letters.
Q: reader and task complexity
Answer: Student uses correct spelling for most words, uses resources and decoding for spelling is part of which stage of writing?
Q: Emergent Reader
Answer: A sentence with two or more coordinate independent clauses, often joined by one or more conjunctions. (She did not cheat on the test, for it was not the right thing to do.)
Q: Developing Writer
Answer: A sentence with one independent clause and at least one dependent clause (When the cost goes up, customers buy less clothing.)
Q: beginning writer
Answer: A combination of a compound and a complex sentence. Because the swamp is near you back door, you might expect the Creature from the Black Lagoon to put in an appearance and tear apart Uncle Al’s fishin’ shack if it is in his way.
Q: compound sentence
Answer: two vowels side-by-side. The first vowel says its name. The second vowel is silent
Q: complex sentence
Answer: When a vowel is followed by the letter r, the sound of the two letters changes. -Park(bossy R)
Q: compound complex sentence
Answer: provide opportunities for the nonfluent student to read self-selected easy books to a younger student
Q: vowel team
Answer: an alphabetical list of names, subjects, etc., with references to the places where they occur, typically found at the end of a book.
Q: r-controlled
Answer: a list of terms in a special subject, field, or area of usage, with accompanying definitions. such a list at the back of a book, explaining or defining difficult or unusual words and expressions used in the text.
Q: increase fluency
Answer: levels of meaning, structure, language conventionality and clarity, and knowledge demands (attributes that can be measured only by human readers)
Q: index
Answer: readability and other scores of text complexity (word length or frequency, sentence length, text cohesion)
Q: glossary
Answer: contains a subject and a predicate: The boys went to the park
Q: qualitative measures
Answer: after, before, because, although, when, since, if, whenever, unless, while, so, that, even though, wherever
Q: quantitative measures
Answer: presenting facts to a specific audience, a technical speech and a research report both require that information be collected and synthesized
Q: simple sentence
Answer: Children not yet writing/reading. Just drawing/pretending to read. During this stage of literacy, children are exposed to the structure or syntax of language & encouraged to predict what text is about.
Q: subordinating conjunctions
Answer: “understand print contains meaning, directionality, concept of a word, letter knowlege, phoenomic awareness, literacy language (author, title, etc)”
Q: exposition
Answer: Rate (speed), accuracy, prosody (expression)
Q: emergent literacy
Answer: Both have 2 or more soundsBlend makes 2 + sounds (ex. “bl” or “cl”)Diagraph makes 1 sound (ex. “th,” “ch,” etc.)
Q: concept of print
Answer: “oi” and “ow”
Q: Fluency
Answer: Sounds connected to written language. The acknowledgement of sounds and words, example: child realize that some words rhyme
Q: Blend vs. Diagraph
Answer: Ability of the reader to recognize the sounds of spoken language
Q: Dipthong
Answer: reading and recognizing familiar and common words
Q: phonemic awareness
Answer: Reading by decoding the phonetic structure of letter strings; reading by “sounding out”
Q: Phonological Awareness
Answer: “Reading With”Kids join in reading the story; choral reading. Everyone can see the words.Big books are ideal. Projector/document camera also works.
Q: logographic foundation
Answer: “Reading By”Teacher teaches reading strategies and skills in a small homogeneous group.Students take the reigns in reading, but get help.Read on instructional level.
Q: phonetic reading
Answer: Teacher and students compose the text together.Teacher acts as scribe
Q: Shared Reading
Answer: stanzas made up of either seven or eight or ten lines, and ends with a short four or five line stanza. Each stanza ends with the same line, which is called ‘a refrain’.
Q: Guided Reading
Answer: This kind of poem has four lines in a stanza, of which the second and fourth lines rhyme with each other and have a similar syllable structure.
Q: Shared Writing
Answer: Made up of 5 lines. The first line is just one word. The second line has two words which describe the first line. The third line has three words, and is mostly the action part of the poem. The fourth line is four words describing the feelings. And the fifth line, again, has just one word which is the title of the poem.
Q: ballad
Answer: This is a very complicated style of writing poetry, but was often used by classical poets. This style uses the syllable stresses to create the musical sound. There is one short sounding syllable followed by one long sounding syllable, at the end of each of the five stanzas in a row.
Q: quatrain
Answer: This type of poem contains fourteen lines and follows conventional structures of rhyme.
Q: cinquain
Answer: Witty and often vulgar kind of a poem, which is quite short. This poem has five lines in a stanza. The first, second and fifth line have the same metrical structure and they rhyme with each other. They contain seven to ten syllables each. The second and fourth lines have the same metrical structure and rhyme with each other. These contain five to seven syllables.
Q: iambic pentameter
Answer: with, without, by, for, to, from, since
Q: sonnet
Answer: Commonly functions as an adjective.Ex. [Invented by an Indiana housewife in 1889], the first dishwasher was driven by a steam engine
Q: limerick
Answer: by tomorrow
Q: Preposition
Answer: An appositive is a noun or pronoun that renames or identifies another noun or pronoun in some wayEx. Author William Shakespeare wrote over 30 plays during the course of his career.(William Shakespeare is the appositive. It identifies author.)
Q: Participial Phrase
Answer: I have eaten.
Q: Prepositional Phrase
Answer: I had eaten.
Q: Appositive Phrase
Answer: I will have eaten. (?)
Q: Present Perfect Verb Tense
Answer: Participle: a word formed from a verb (e.g., going, gone, being, been ) and used as an adjective (e.g., working woman, burned toast ) or a noun (e.g., good breeding )Infinitive: the basic form of a verb, without an inflection binding it to a particular subject or tense (e.g., see in we came to see, let him see ).
Q: Past Perfect Verb Tense
Answer: Declarative states a factImperative makes a request or command
Q: Future Perfect Verb Tense
Answer: Context (semantic and syntactic)Phonological/Visual (sight words, patterns, syllables, letters in sequence, affixes, roots)
Q: Infinitives and Participles
Answer: Pre-writeDraftEditPublish
Q: Declarative vs. Imperative Sentence
Answer: a type of oral or written discourse that is used to explain, describe, give information or inform. technical speech, research report
Q: Types of cues students use for reading
Answer: Manipulate audience perception of an issue by emphasizing one side and repressing another.
Q: Writing Process
Answer: Emotionally appealing phrase so closely associated with highly valued concepts and beliefs that it carries conviction without supporting information or reason
Q: expository writing
Answer: Attempt to simplify a complex situation by presenting one specific group or person as the enemy.
Q: Card-Stacking
Answer: Good feelings, looks, or ideas transferred to the person for whom the product is intended.
Q: Glittering Generalities
Answer: Objects and material from everyday life, especially when used as teaching aids
Q: Pinpointing the Enemy
Answer: Syntax refers to the sentence patterns and structures, or the grammar of language. Many ELL writers have trouble with English syntax.