Prepare for the NASM CPT final exam with these practice questions and answers. This comprehensive guide covers all personal training domains and exam objectives.
Q: Proprioception
Answer: The body’s ability to to sense the relative position of adjacent parts of the bodyEx: when walking our feet give us proprioception about the type of surface we are on.
Q: Mechanoreceptors
Answer: specialized structures that recognize pressure in tissue and transmit signals to sensory nerves.
Q: Muscle Spindles
Answer: sensory receptors in the muscles that are parallel to the muscle fibers and are sensitive to change in muscle length. Spindles stretch with muscle and sends information to CNS.helps to prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast
Q: Golgi Tendon Organs
Answer: sensory receptors that are located at the point where the skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendon. Sensitive to change in tension at the rate of changecauses the muscle to relax
Q: Epimysium
Answer: connective tissue UNDER fascia that acts as an outer layer of the whole muscle
Q: Perimysium
Answer: connective tissue acts as an outer layer of fascicles
Q: Endomysium
Answer: between the individual muscle fibers
Q: Type 1 Muscle Fiber
Answer: “slow-twitch”, smaller in size, lessforce produced, long-term contractions (stabilization)
Q: Type 2 Muscle Fiber
Answer: fast twitch, larger, quick to fatigue, force and power exercises
Q: Agonist
Answer: PRIME MOVER, main musclesex: chest press-> pectoralis major
Q: Synergist
Answer: ASSIST PRIME MOVER,ex: chest press -> ant deltoid, triceps
Q: Stabilizer
Answer: stabilizes while prime mover and assist work.chest press -> rotator cuff
Q: Antagonist
Answer: Oppose Prime mover,chest press -> posterior delt
Q: Right Atrium
Answer: gather DEOXGENATED blood returning to the heart from ENTIRE BODY
Q: Left Atrium
Answer: gathers OXYGENATED blood coming from the LUNGS
Q: Right Ventricle
Answer: thin walls pumps under low pressure. Pumps to lungs
Q: Left Ventricle
Answer: thick walls, pumps under high pressure to rest of body
Q: Metabolism
Answer: all of the chemical reactions that happen in our body to maintain itself. Nutrients are acquired, transported and used by the body.
Q: Exercise Metabolism
Answer: bioenergetics as it relates to the unique physiologic changes and demands on body during exercise
Q: Substrates
Answer: where enzymes act
Q: Carbohydrates
Answer: Sugars, starches, and fiber. Provide the body with a source of fuel and energy required for all daily activities
Q: Glucose
Answer: a simple sugar that comes from the digestion of carbs that is transported through the blood and is used or stored as energy
Q: Glycogen
Answer: the stored form of carbs, when needed it converts to glucose and used
Q: Fat
Answer: a secondary source of energy
Q: Trigylcerides
Answer: come from fats, when calories are consumed but not used they are converted and stored in fat cells
Q: Protein
Answer: Amino acids that build and repair body tissues and structures. A third energy source, usually not until starvation.Recommended 0.8 g per day Adults, 1.2-1.7 per day strength athletes, 1.2-1.4 endurance athletes1 g = 4 calories
Q: Gluconeogenesis
Answer: glucose form from non carb sources like amino acids
Q: Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)
Answer: Energy storage and transfer unit in the cells. When chemical bonds that hold it together are broken, energy is released
Q: Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP)
Answer: molecule produced by ATP
Q: ATP-PC system
Answer: simpliest and fastest, occurs without oxygen (anaerobic), provides energy for high intensity, short-durationex: power and strentgh
Q: Glycosis System
Answer: produces lots of energy for 30-50 sec. Typical bc it falls in the time frame of 8-12 reps
Q: Oxidative System
Answer: most complex
Q: B- oxidation
Answer: breakdowns triclgycerides into free fatyy acids to produce more ATP
Q: Myth of Fat Burning Zone
Answer: higher intensity workouts require greater contribution from fat despite the increase in need of fuel source from carbs
Q: Biomechanics
Answer: internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effect produced
Q: Superior
Answer: above a reference point
Q: inferior
Answer: below a reference point
Q: Proximal
Answer: reference closest to the center of the body or reference
Q: Distal
Answer: refernence furthest away
Q: Anterior
Answer: Reference in front of the body
Q: Posterior
Answer: Reference in the back of the body
Q: Medial
Answer: Refernence to the midline of the body
Q: Lateral
Answer: Reference to the outside of the body
Q: Contralateral
Answer: refers to a position on the opposite side of the body
Q: Ipsilateral
Answer: positioned on the same side of the body
Q: Sagittal Plane
Answer: movements of flexion or extensionex: front lunge, bicep curls, squat
Q: Frontal Plane
Answer: movements lateralex: side lunge, side lat raises
Q: Transverse Plane
Answer: divides body in upper and lower halves
Q: Adduction
Answer: movement TOWARD the midline of the body
Q: Abduction
Answer: movement AWAY from the midline of the body
Q: Isotonic
Answer: Constant muscle tensionex: eccentric, concentric
Q: Isometric
Answer: constant muscle length
Q: isokinetic
Answer: The speed of movement is fixed. Usually seen in Rehab facilities
Q: Force
Answer: characterized by how much and direction, influenced applied by one object to another.
Q: Torque
Answer: a force that produces rotation
Q: Training Zone 1
Answer: walking or jogging; Builds aerobic base and aids in recoveryMaximal HR x .65 (.75)
Q: Training Zone 2
Answer: Group Exercise classes, spinning; Increases Aerobic and Anerobic EnduranceMaximal HR x .76 (.85)
Q: Training Zone 3
Answer: Sprinting; Builds high end work capacityMaximal HR x .86 (.96)
Q: Estimated Maximal Heart Rate
Answer: 220- age
Q: Body Mass Index
Answer: weight proportional to heightBMI= [weight (lbs)/height (inchxinch)] x 703
Q: YMCA 3 minute Step Test
Answer: 96 steps per minute for 3 minutes. Record HR for 60 sec and locate recovery pulse on chart and determine which training zone
Q: Rockport Walk Test
Answer: clients walks a mile on treadmill and HR and time are recorded after. Use formula
Q: Pronation Distortion Syndrome (ASHA)
Answer: Short muscles: gastrocnemius, soleus, adductors, hip flexor complex, biceps femorisLong muscles: anterior and posterior tibilias, vastus medium, gluteus medius-maximus, hip external rotatorsincreased knee adduction, knee internal rot, foot pronationInjuries: plantar faciitis, shin splits, patellar tendonitis, low back pain
Q: Lower Crossed Syndrome (high butt)
Answer: Short muscles: gastr, soleus, hip flexor, adductors, lattismus dorsi, erector spinaeLong muscles: ant/pos tibilias, glutes max/med, tranversus ab, internal obliqueanterior knee pain, low back injuries
Q: Upper Crossed Syndrome (hunch back)
Answer: short muscles: upper traps, sternocleidomastoid, lattismus dorsi, teres major, pec major/minorlong muscles: rhomboids, mid traps, lower traps, teres minor,scapular elevation and dec shoulder extension and rotation
Q: Overhead Squat Assessment
Answer: sit the height of a chair, arms and elbows fully extended above head. The tibia and torso should be in lineComps: low back arch, inward knees, flat feet, forward lean, arms fall forward ( 5 reps)
Q: Single Leg Squat Assessment
Answer: does knee adduct and internally rotate (5 each leg)
Q: Pushing Assessment
Answer: does low back arch, shoulders elevate, head move forward? (20 reps)
Q: Pulling assessment
Answer: same as pushing assessment (20 reps)
Q: Push up Test
Answer: muscular endurance of the upper body (60 sec)
Q: Davies Test
Answer: measure upper extremity agility and stabilization. Alteranate touching the opposite hand (15 seconds)
Q: Shark Skill Test
Answer: measures lower extremity agility and coordination. clients hops in each box single legged, and will have time added if hands come off hips, other leg touches ground, wrong square, does not go back to center.
Q: Upper Extremity test: Bench
Answer: warm up light 8-10 repsadd weight perform 3-5 reps, rest, and increase weight
Q: Lower Extremity test: Squat
Answer: …
Q: Flexibility
Answer: the ability to move a joint through its complete range of motion
Q: Extensibility
Answer: Soft tissues ability to be elongated or stretched
Q: Dynamic ROM
Answer: combination of flexibility and the nervous system’s ability to control the rom effficiently
Q: Neuromuscular Efficiency
Answer: the ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles (agonist, antagonist, synergist, and stabilizers) to produce force (concentric), reduce force (eccentric), and dynamically stabilize (isometric) the body in all 3 planes of motion.
Q: Postural Distortion Patterns
Answer: Predictable patterns of muscle imbalances
Q: Relative Flexibility
Answer: the body’s tendency to seek the path of least resistance
Q: Muscle Imbalance
Answer: Alteration of muscle length surrounding a jointCause: postural stress, repetitive movement, lack of core strentgh
Q: Reciprocal Inhibition
Answer: simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its ANTAGONISTEX: Bicep curls- biceps brachii contract while triceps brachii relaxes
Q: Altered Reciprocal Inhibition
Answer: a tight AGONIST causes a decrease in the function of it ANTAGONISTEX: tight hip flexor (psoas) would decrease neural drive of the hip extensor (gluteus maximus)
Q: Synergistic Dominance
Answer: when the synergist take over for a weak prime mover. May cause faulty movement patternsEX: tight hip flexor -> decrease glute -> increase force from synergist (hamstring complex, adductor magnus).
Q: Arthrokinematics
Answer: motion of the joints
Q: Arthrokinetic Dysfunction
Answer: biomechanical and neuromuscular dysfuction leading to altered joint motion
Q: Autogentic Inhibition
Answer: occurs when the neural impulses sensing tension are greater than the impulses causing muscle contraction
Q: Pattern Overload
Answer: constantly repeating the same pattern of motion, which could place abnormal stress on the body
Q: Davis’s Law
Answer: states that soft tissue models along the lines of stress
Q: Static Stretching
Answer: traditional; the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds.
Q: Active- Isolated Stretch
Answer: suggested for pre-activity warm up; process of using agonist and synergist to dynamically move the joint into range of motion. 5- 10 reps/ 1-2 seconds
Q: Dynamic Stretching
Answer: uses the force production and the momentum of the body to take a joint through the full ROMex: prisoner squates, multiplanar lunges
Q: Myofascial Release (FOAM ROLL)
Answer: by applying gentle force to a knot the muscle fibers are altered from a bundled bunch to a straighter line.
Q: Cardiorespiratory Fitness
Answer: The ability of the respiratory system to supply oxygen-rich blood to skeletal muscles during physical activity
Q: Integrated cardiorespiratory training
Answer: planned training programs that improve physiological, physical, and performance adaptations
Q: Intensity
Answer: The level of demand that a given activity places on the body
Q: Maximal Oxygen Consumption
Answer: the highest rate of oxygen transport and utilization achieved at maximal physical exertion
Q: FITTE
Answer: Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment
Q: Overtraining
Answer: excessive volume and a lack of proper rest and recovery
Q: Drawing-in-maneuver
Answer: used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel in toward the spine