Prepare for the Kansas CNA state exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers patient care, clinical skills, infection control, and Kansas Department of Health requirements.
Q: OBRA
Answer: Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
Q: Minimum Standards for LTC Communities are: _____ and _____
Answer: quality of care and quality of life
Q: How many hours are required for CNA Certification? 2 parts and total
Answer: Part 1- 40 hours, Part 2- 50 hours, Total- 90 hours
Q: After completing Part 1 of the CNA course, a student may work as a what?
Answer: Nutrition assistant
Q: What 2 tests need to be passed to obtain a CNA Certification?
Answer: State written and skills test
Q: What are 3 requirements to be hired as a CNA?
Answer: TB test (2 step), background check, drug tested
Q: The government healthcare funding is called what?
Answer: Medicare
Q: The government financial assistance program is called what?
Answer: Medicaid
Q: An illness that develops slowly and continues for a long period of time is?
Answer: chronic
Q: An illness that develops suddenly and is of sort duration is?
Answer: acute
Q: Shawnee Mission Medical Center and KU Medical Center are what types of hospitals?
Answer: acute hospitals
Q: Children’s Mercy and a Psychiatric Hospital are what type of hospital?
Answer: Specialty hospitals
Q: LTC stands for _____ and in the past were referred to as ______.
Answer: long term care, nursing homes
Q: CCRC is the abbreviation for what?
Answer: continuing care retirement community
Q: The state organization that is responsible for certifying CNAs is called ________ and the acronym is _______.
Answer: Kansas Department of Aging and Disability Services, KDADS
Q: Who do CNAs report to?
Answer: Charge nurse
Q: The Health Care Team is called _________ and the acronym is _______.
Answer: Interdisciplinary team, IDT
Q: What document is prepared by the Health Care Team and provides information about the resident?
Answer: care plan
Q: What are the 5 parts a care plan document?
Answer: problem, goal, action/intervention, implementation, evaluation/review
Q: What are myths about the elderly?
Answer: lonely, poor, memory issues, useless
Q: What are 4 facts about the elderly?
Answer: sense diminished, change in physical activity, change in physical appearance, thinking is slower
Q: What pyramid describes needs?
Answer: Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs (basics, psychological, self needs)
Q: Psychosocial losses that occur with aging are?
Answer: not working anymore, death of spouse/friends, isolation, have to sell home
Q: Physical losses that occur with aging are?
Answer: diminished senses, memory decline, physical activity decline
Q: Holistic Health is _____, ______, and ______ of a person’s being.
Answer: body, mind, and spirit
Q: The last sense to disappear is?
Answer: Hearing
Q: Name 6 resident rights
Answer: refusal of tx, managing finances, privacy, free choice, confidentiality, look at their medical records
Q: CNAs that do resident care, but also do laundry and housekeeping are called what?
Answer: universal workers
Q: ADLs stands for…
Answer: activities of daily living
Q: A ______ is what needs to be done and a _______ is how it is done.
Answer: policy, procedure
Q: HIPPA stands for what?
Answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Q: Tasks that can be legally performed by a CNA is called their____.
Answer: scope of practice
Q: A set of guidelines for good CNA care is called ______. These are based on laws, local standards, facility policies and nursing practice.
Answer: standards of care
Q: Failure to provide care that a reasonable, careful CNA would use in a similar situation is called….
Answer: negligence
Q: Failure to provide care and services that are necessary to ensure safety and well-being of a resident is called….
Answer: neglect
Q: _____ is the negligence committed by a professional; physician, nurse, pharmacist ,etc.
Answer: Malpractice
Q: The act or failure to act that intentionally or recklessly cause harm to a resident is _______.
Answer: abuse
Q: 4 types of abuse are?
Answer: physical, verbal, psychological, sexual
Q: The misappropriation of resident’s property or taking the resident’s physical or financial resources is called ______.
Answer: exploitation
Q: Call lights should be answered within ___ to ___ minutes.
Answer: 3 to 5
Q: CDC stands for what?
Answer: Center for Disease Control
Q: OSHA stands for?
Answer: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Q: OSHA requires that Health care companies offer what vaccination to its employees?
Answer: Hep B vaccine
Q: The study of the elderly is called?
Answer: Gerontology
Q: _________ is the exchange of information.
Answer: communication
Q: List 6 interpersonal skills of CNA:
Answer: patience, listening, empathy, curtsy, tact (tellings someone something thats not particularly good), respectful
Q: There are 2 types of communication:
Answer: verbal and nonverbal
Q: _________ is the capacity to understand or feel what another person is experiencing.
Answer: empathy
Q: Name 4 non-verbal resident behaviors:
Answer: facial expression, physical distance, body position body activity
Q: The considerations when listening to a resident are…
Answer: show interest, avoid interrupting, be patient, give feedback, don’t be judgmental, don’t say “don’t worry”
Q: List barriers that affect effective communication.
Answer: environment, sensory impairments, language, age difference, cognitive impairment, difficulty in expressing, poor communication skills
Q: Techniques used when communicating with visually or hearing-impaired residents are…
Answer: come from side or front, speak slowly and clearly, be at resident’s level, glasses/hearing aids on
Q: Approaches used when communicating with cognitively impaired residents…
Answer: come from side or front, friendly approach, avoid sudden/loud actions, short words/sentences, simples choices(limit 2), don’t argue
Q: List call light etiquette rules
Answer: answer within 3-5 min, turn call light off when you get there, when leaving put call light within reach
Q: When doing paper documentation, remember the following:
Answer: black ink, neat and legible, date and time, chronological order, accurate info, military time, be brief, use approved abbreviations, no white out (one straight line through error, re-write correctly and initial)
Q: List 4 observation data
Answer: sight, hearing, smell, touch
Q: Information reported by the resident is called…
Answer: subjective
Q: _________ are microorganisms that cause diseases.
Answer: pathogens
Q: The most common and dangerous microorganisms in health care are _____ and ____
Answer: strep and staph
Q: The 2 most dangerous viruses are ________ and ________.
Answer: Hepatitis B and HIV
Q: How are pathogens transmitted by droplets?
Answer: coughing, sneezing, talking
Q: Pathogens that are spread with small particles of dust is called what?
Answer: airborne
Q: A disease that is spread from a person to another directly or through and animal or object is called…
Answer: communicable (contagious)
Q: The body has natural defenses. The most important defense is the _____.
Answer: skin
Q: The lining of body passages such as mouth, respiratory and digestive are called…
Answer: mucus membranes
Q: The tiny hairs on the respiratory tract are called _______.
Answer: cilia
Q: Signs of infection
Answer: red, fatigue, N&V, fever, rash, drainage, odor, swelling(edema)
Q: 4 potential sources of infection are …
Answer: blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, mucus membranes
Q: What is medical asepsis?
Answer: infection control
Q: Name ways to use aseptic technique and prevent the spread of pathogens.
Answer: wash hands, good hygiene, cover mouth when sneezing, cover cuts/wounds until dry, empty trash, clean equipment
Q: CDC stands for…
Answer: Center for Disease Control
Q: PPE stands for…
Answer: personal protective equipment
Q: PPE includes 4 items:
Answer: gloves, mask, gown, safety glasses
Q: What is it called when a resident has a weakened immune system and needs protection?
Answer: reverse isolation
Q: How long do you wash your hands for?
Answer: 20 seconds (wash before and after gloves)
Q: Situations or conditions that influence safety in the elderly…
Answer: resident confusion, impaired mobility (dizziness, tremors), sensory impairment, side effects from medication (try not to exceed 9 meds)
Q: What are 4 sensory impairments?
Answer: vision, hearing, touch, smell
Q: The leading cause of death in a LTC are…
Answer: falls
Q: List safety precautions to prevent falls.
Answer: clothing not too long, shoes not slick, clear path, answer call lights promptly, make sure call light is close when you leave room, make everything within reach, no rugs, wipe up liquids, lock brakes
Q: 6 causes for seizures are…
Answer: head injury, stroke, infection, high fever, brain disease/tumor, epilepsy
Q: What are the 2 types of seizures?
Answer: Grand Mal (whole body) and Petit Mal (staring)
Q: Things to do for someone having a seizure
Answer: put something under there head, don’t try and stop the seizure, move things out of the way, turn on their side (so they don’t aspirate), call for help, call 911
Q: Seizures can also be called…
Answer: convulsions
Q: Water temp that is safe for bathing…
Answer: 100-110 degrees
Q: Oxygen is measured by_____
Answer: liters (average 2-3 L)
Q: 2 ways to deliver oxygen…
Answer: mask or nasal cannula
Q: What does RACE stand for?
Answer: rescue (resident), activate (fire alarm), confine (fire), evacuate/extinguish
Q: What does PASS stand for?
Answer: pull (the pin), aim (at base of fire), squeeze (handle), spray
Q: Conditions are favorable for a tornado is called a:
Answer: tornado watch
Q: A tornado has been spotted and sirens are sounding is called a:
Answer: tornado warning
Q: How do you protect the residents during a tornado?
Answer: cover them up with a blanket to protect them from debris – shut blinds
Q: What is a resident elopement?
Answer: when a resident leaves a safe area of LTC
Q: Every LTC has an MSDS book. What is it?
Answer: Materials Safety Data Sheets
Q: Another name for the Heimlich is…
Answer: abdominal thrust
Q: A deterioration in a condition is called a…
Answer: functional decline
Q: To avoid fatigue and an injury/back strain use…
Answer: good body mechanics
Q: Rules of good body mechanics:
Answer: no twisting (pivot), don’t bend to pick up (squat), have solid base (feet on floor, feet shoulder width apart), non-slip shoes, push-pull, use stronger muscles
Q: What is the meaning of weight bearing?
Answer: able to stand on 2 feet and carry weight
Q: What is the meaning of limited assist?
Answer: needing some help
Q: What is the meaning of extensive assist?
Answer: needing help with everything
Q: How many staff do you need to use a mechanical lift?
Answer: 2
Q: How often do you reposition a resident that is unable to themselves?
Answer: at least every 2 hours
Q: The force that causes skin to move in one direction and tissues below to move in the opposite direction is called…
Answer: sheering or friction
Q: _______ causes less friction than _______.
Answer: Lifting, sliding
Q: _________ is the shortening or tightening of muscles and is the most common in hands.
Answer: Contracture
Q: _____________ is a rolled blanket or towel placed along side of resident’s sides to prevent hips and legs from turning out.
Answer: Trochanter roll
Q: A board put under mattresses for extra support is called a …
Answer: bed board
Q: A padded board at the foot of the bed is called ______ and prevents ______.
Answer: footboard, foot drop
Q: This is placed between residents legs to maintain proper position…
Answer: abduction splint
Q: This protects hands and fingers from contractures…
Answer: palmar splint
Q: This is placed in resident’s hands to prevent contractures…
Answer: hand roll
Q: This type of turning is used with residents that have spinal cord injuries, back or hip surgeries:
Answer: log roll
Q: Bed position that resident lying on back with head of bed at a 45-60 degree angle and is used for residents with heart and breathing problems.
Answer: Fowlers position
Q: Bed position with resident lying on back with head of bed at 30 degree angle and prevents sliding down in bed
Answer: Semi-Fowlers position
Q: _________ is when resident is lying on back, faced upwards
Answer: Supine
Q: ______ is when resident is lying on back with knees bent
Answer: semi-supine
Q: ______ is when resident is lying face down, flat on abdomen
Answer: prone
Q: ______ is a side lying position
Answer: Lateral
Q: ______ position is when a resident is lying partly side and partly prone.
Answer: Sims
Q: _________ position is when resident’s head is below level of feet, this promotes ________ and _______. Also prevents shock.
Answer: Trendelenburg, blood flow, drainage
Q: _________ position is when resident’s feet are below level of head.
Answer: Reverse Trendelenburg
Q: An aging condition that contributes to changes in posture…
Answer: osteoporosis, arthritis, bone spurs
Q: When getting a resident out of bed, watch for signs of ________ and _______. Allow them to sit on side of bed and dangle their feet.
Answer: dizziness and fanting
Q: When transferring a resident from bed to stretcher or stretcher to bed, use a _________.
Answer: turning sheet
Q: Always push a resident in which direction in a wheelchair when on a ramp or going into an elevator?
Answer: backwards
Q: When parking a resident’s wheelchair, always_________
Answer: lock the breaks
Q: Reposition resident in a wheelchair every ________.
Answer: 2 hours
Q: Ambulation assistive devices:
Answer: gait belt, crutches, cane, walkers
Q: A fracture that causes a fall is called______.
Answer: pathological fx
Q: 5 Vital signs
Answer: temp, pulse, respiration, BP, O2 levels
Q: The 6th vital sign could be ______.
Answer: pain (1-10)
Q: Vital signs are done on ______ and at minimum ________. The physician may order them to be done ________ and/or __________.
Answer: admission, monthly, weekly, daily (with certain meds- take vitals before)
Q: Height and weight are done on __________. Weight is then done at a minimum ___________ and sometimes _________ or _______.
Answer: admission, monthly, weekly, daily (dialysis- retaining fluids?)
Q: Take vital signs when the resident is _____ or _____.
Answer: sitting, lying down
Q: Temperature is the amount of _____________.
Answer: heat in the body.
Q: Factors that affect the body temperature…
Answer: age (children higher than adults), illness, exercise, time of day, medications, environment, iced water/coffee
Q: Methods of taking temperature
Answer: orally, axillary, rectally, forehead, tympanic (ears)
Q: Normal oral temp
Answer: 98.6 deg
Q: Normal rectal temp
Answer: 99.6 deg
Q: normal axillary temp
Answer: 97.6 deg
Q: Normal tympanic temp
Answer: 98.6 deg
Q: Normal forehead temp
Answer: 98.6
Q: When recording temperatures, use the following abbreviations: Oral ___, Rectal ___, Axillary ___, Tympanic ___, Forehead ___
Answer: O, R, Ax, T, F
Q: Pulse is ________
Answer: rhythmic pressure of blood
Q: Pulse is measured by counting…
Answer: bpm
Q: 8 pulse sites on the body.
Answer: carotid, radial, apical, brachial, femoral, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, posterior tibial
Q: When counting pulse, also assess _____ and ______.
Answer: rhythm and force
Q: Average pulse in adults
Answer: 60-100 bpm
Q: Elderly pulses are often _______.
Answer: irregular
Q: Respiration rate is 1 _____ and 1 ____.
Answer: inhale, exhale
Q: Average respiration rate for adult
Answer: 12-20 breaths per min
Q: Abnormal breathing signs…
Answer: SOB, SOA, dyspnea, noisy (wheezing- pneumonia), gasping, irregular, apnea
Q: Blue color to skin, lips and fingernails is called _______.
Answer: cyanosis
Q: Blood pressure is the ___________.
Answer: force of the blood against artery walls
Q: Highest and greatest pressure (top #) is ______.
Answer: systolic
Q: Pressure on arteries decreases (bottom #) is _______.
Answer: diastolic
Q: BP is recorded as a _____.
Answer: fraction (s/d)
Q: Average BP for adult
Answer: 120/80
Q: High BP is called ______.
Answer: hypertension (Htn)
Q: Low BP is called _____.
Answer: hypotension
Q: When a person gets up too quickly from a lying position, they might experience _______ and so a ______________ is taken.
Answer: dizziness, orthostatic temperature
Q: 3 types of scales
Answer: regular standing scale, wheelchair scale (subtract wheelchair weight), mechanical lift scale
Q: Daily hygiene includes…
Answer: oral care, bathing, comb/brush, shaving, nail care (only if you ask nurse, never clip diabetics nails, never cut toenails, file when you can), toiletting
Q: ADL’s are ___________
Answer: activities of daily living
Q: Age related changes that need to be considered when assisting with ADL’s .
Answer: dry skin (moisturize), dentures (clean if resident is unable to), thin skin (skin tares), incontinent, illnesses
Q: Residents should brush their teeth at least _____.
Answer: 2x a day
Q: What are the goals of oral hygiene?
Answer: prevent bad breath, prevents bacteria and tooth decay, maintain moisture, increases appetite, toothette or swab for someone who is unconscious or at then end of life every hour
Q: Conditions of the mouth that need to be reported to the charge nurse:
Answer: extreme bad breath, mouth bleed, lose/broken tooth, sores in mouth, tongue coated, pain in mouth
Q: When cleaning dentures, line the sink with a paper towel, wash cloth or hand towel to prevent ______.
Answer: breaking
Q: At bedtime, what is the procedure for dentures?
Answer: clean with toothbrush and soak in denture cleaners
Q: What are the benefits of bathing?
Answer: clean skin, eliminate odor, stimulates circulation, relaxing, provides small amount of exercise, time to observe skin for bruises or wounds
Q: How many cc’s in one ounce?
Answer: 30
Q: Most residents bathe _____a week
Answer: 2x (only wash women’s hair if it says to in care plan)
Q: A safe water temperature is _______
Answer: 100-110 deg
Q: A bath or shower room must have a _____ door or _____ cabinets.
Answer: locked, locked
Q: When bathing, start with the ______ and work down.
Answer: eyes/face
Q: Never leave a resident ______ in the shower room.
Answer: alone
Q: _______ shower and whirlpool after bathing residents.
Answer: Disinfect
Q: A back rub with lotion ___________ in tissues.
Answer: stimulates circulation
Q: Types of bathing:
Answer: bath/whirlpool, shower, bed bath, partial bath(face and hands)
Q: Peri-Care is the _______
Answer: genital area
Q: Always wash from ____ to ____.
Answer: front, back (prevents UTI)
Q: Some males have not been circumcised, so you need to clean the ______.
Answer: foreskin
Q: When dressing residents with one-sided weaknesses (from stroke) or paralysis, begin dressing the _____ and undress the _____ first.
Answer: weak, strong
Q: Combing and brushing hair _____ in the scalp.
Answer: stimulates blood circulation
Q: Shave males _______.
Answer: daily (am)
Q: Always check with the charge nurse before doing _____ care.
Answer: nail
Q: CNA’s don’t cut _____ or ____.
Answer: diabetic nails, toenails
Q: A replacement of a body part is a _____.
Answer: prosthetic
Q: A device used to maintain function or prevent deformity is an ___________
Answer: orthotic device (splint, sling, leg brace)
Q: There are 4 reasons for good nutrition:
Answer: promote physical/mental health, resist illness, provide energy, aids healing
Q: What 4 leading causes of death in the U.S. have to do nutrition?
Answer: heart disease, obesity, cancer, stroke, diabetes (type 1- genetic/get as a child, type 2- lifestyle)
Q: What are the 5 nutrients found in food?
Answer: carbohydrates (turn into sugar), protein (aid healing), fats, vitamins, minerals
Q: What does water do for your body?
Answer: carries away waste, transports nutrients, aids digestion, regulates body temp, cushions vital organs, lubricates joints, makes up blood plasma
Q: What are changes that occur in the digestive system as people age?
Answer: gag reflex decline, decrease in saliva (always offer water), decrease in taste buds, decline thirst, decrease in stomach mobility, decrease in digestive enzymes, change in teeth, decrease peristalsis (intestines)
Q: We do not call clothing protectors _______.
Answer: bibs
Q: Factors that affect nutrition in the elderly:
Answer: less activity, less strength, change in vision, medications (makes food taste different), depressed, dementia, food preferences
Q: There are 3 types of feeding assistance:
Answer: non-verbal queuing, verbal queuing, assist feeding (underhand, overhand, full assist)
Q: When doing assistive feeding remember to:
Answer: sit at their level, rotate food and drink, tell to chew food, don’t stir food together, don’t overload utensil, tell them what you are feeding them, wipe mouth off, use plate as clock if resident has vision problems
Q: Difficulty swallowing is called_____.
Answer: dysphagia
Q: How many glasses of water should a resident have per day?
Answer: 6-8
Q: 3 types of fluids orders:
Answer: force fluids, restricted fluids (dialysis, CHF), NPO
Q: Swelling of tissues is called _____.
Answer: edema
Q: Insufficient fluid intake and/or prolonged N&V is called
Answer: dehydration (pull skin up on hand to see if skin stays up)
Q: There are 6 signs of poor nutrition:
Answer: weight changes, irregular elimination, poor skin color, hair/eyes dull, osteoporosis, anemia (red blood count down)
Q: Name 5 therapeutic diets:
Answer: regular diet, mechanical soft diet (meat in small pieces), pureed diet (everything blended), liquid diet (after surgery), low-concentrated sweets (diabetics)
Q: What are the 2 alternatives feeding methods?
Answer: nasogastric tube (short period of time, through nose to stomach) or gastrostomy tube (longer time, can no longer chew or swallow, opening in intestines or stomach)
Q: stoma
Answer: surgical opening
Q: The 2 elimination waste products from the body are _____ and _____.
Answer: urine and feces
Q: A ________ is the discharge of feces. Also called a BM.
Answer: bowel movement (after 3 days w/out BM- give stool softener)
Q: Ways to maintain normal elimination:
Answer: adequate liquid intake, eating fiber, increase activity, take to bathroom every 2 hours
Q: Normal urine is:
Answer: pale yellow (possible UTI if dark or cloudy)
Q: Normal BM is
Answer: soft (not liquidy, not dry or hard)
Q: The passage of hard and dry feces is called _____
Answer: constipation
Q: Liquid feces is called
Answer: diarrhea
Q: The loss of control of bowel and/or urination is called _____
Answer: incontinence
Q: Cleaning the elimination areas after incontinence is called _______
Answer: peri-care (front to back)
Q: Used by males for elimination of urine is called a _____
Answer: urinal
Q: Recording intake and elimination (output) is called_____.
Answer: I&O
Q: 1 ml =
Answer: 1 cc
Q: 1 oz=
Answer: 30 ml
Q: 60 ml=
Answer: 2 oz
Q: I&O is recorded and totaled when?
Answer: at end of shift (nurse totals after 24 hrs)
Q: 3 types of catheters
Answer: Foley (stays in for a long time), Straight (short amount of time- surgery), suprapubic (comes out of bladder)
Q: Where do you hang a catheters?
Answer: below the bladder
Q: Why do we not use side rails on beds anymore?
Answer: restraint
Q: How often do you change the bed?
Answer: weekly or as needed (hospitals= usually every day)
Q: Unoccupied bed
Answer: no one is in it
Q: occupied bed
Answer: resident is in bed (use 2 CNAs)
Q: Closed bed
Answer: making bed like you would at home (covers and comforter up all the way)
Q: Opened bed
Answer: folded down to bottom
Q: Surgical bed (hospital)
Answer: sheets folded to the side of bed
Q: A CNA has 3 specific responsibilities in communicating information about residents:
Answer: awareness, accuracy, confidential
Q: A CNA uses their senses in observation of the resident. The senses that are used are…
Answer: sight, touch, hear, smell
Q: What observations are seen?
Answer: skin rash, skin color, facial expression, color of urine
Q: What observations are felt?
Answer: body temp, change in pulse, bumps on body
Q: What observations are heard?
Answer: breathing, cough, what residents tell us
Q: What observations can be made by smell?
Answer: odor from urine, body odor, odor from wounds
Q: CNA observations and documentation are used for the ______ and developing the ______.
Answer: MDS, care plan
Q: The resident’s medical record is a ________.
Answer: legal document
Q: Documentation guidelines:
Answer: document as you go, chronological order, use black ink, use medical terminology, if mistake- cross out with one line and put initials
Q: The 5 stages of dying are:
Answer: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Q: A terminal illness is:
Answer: illness or injury that a resident is unlikely to survive (expected to die)
Q: Signs of approaching death are:
Answer: body systems shutting down, decrease appetite, loud/noisy breathing, apnea, irregular pulse, BP goes down, temp goes up, skin cyanotic, confusion, hallucinations, dark urine and odor (less output), restless, mottling (skin purple and blotching, caused by circulation- actively dying)
Q: _____ is the last sense to be lost.
Answer: Hearing
Q: DNR means ______.
Answer: do not resuscitate
Q: What is an Advanced Directive?
Answer: legal document that fulfills medical wishes (resuscitate/CPR) – “don’t keep me alive on a machine”
Q: 2 types of advanced directives are:
Answer: living will (tells how you want to be take care of) or DPOA (durable power of attorney)
Q: _________ is a special way of dealing with terminally ill residents.
Answer: Hospice
Q: Members of the Hospice Care Team are:
Answer: physician, nurse, psychologist, social worker, chaplain, CNA
Q: Body changes after death:
Answer: pupils permanently fixed, lose body heat, purple/white skin, releases all urine and excretions, rigor mortis (6-8 hours- put rolled up towel under their chin to keep head up), embalm (preserving)
Q: Post Mortem care:
Answer: clean and get ready for family to see, place body in supine position, close eyes, put dentures in, put briefs on them, nurse will remove tubing, make sure presentable, offer privacy to family (if roommate- take them out of room)
Q: Warning signs of vision problems:
Answer: trouble with coordination, squinting, odd color combination, hesitant to walk
Q: Visual changes in the elderly:
Answer: less tear production, takes longer for pupils to focus, loose peripheral or central vision, loose depth perception, tolerance of glare
Q: When the lens in the eye becomes cloudy/opaque________
Answer: cataracts (can be removed- put new lens in)
Q: The loss of central vision is called ___________.
Answer: macular degeneration
Q: Elevated pressure in the eye and loss of peripheral vision is called:
Answer: glaucoma (eye drops to relieve pressure)
Q: A _________ may remove part of the vision field:
Answer: stroke (CVA)
Q: The effects of loss of vision:
Answer: risk for falls, interferes with communication, activities (eating, clothes)
Q: Warning signs of hearing changes:
Answer: volume up loud, asks to repeat, asks to speak louder, when response doesn’t match question, paranoid (thinks people are talking about them)
Q: Assistance for hearing impaired:
Answer: face the resident when talking, lower tone of voice, if they have hearing aids- make sure they are in
Q: Causes of sensory changes:
Answer: paralysis, edema, diabetes
Q: To prevent injury, avoid:
Answer: high heat, sharp objects, check skin frequently
Q: Excessive secretion of mucus in bronchi is __________.
Answer: Chronic bronchitis
Q: Loss of lung elasticity is ________.
Answer: emphysema
Q: Difficulty breathing is called ______.
Answer: dyspnea
Q: Infection of lung tissue is ______.
Answer: pneumonia
Q: Changes in elderly due to respiratory conditions are:
Answer: tire easily, SOB, SOA, dyspnea, elevated RR, anxious, blueish/gray skin
Q: Change due to endocrine (thyroid) malfunction:
Answer: produce less levels of hormones
Q: When a pancreas(endocrine system) produces inadequate insulin is called:
Answer: diabetes (give insulin)
Q: Increased thyroid secretion is called…
Answer: hyperthyroidism (lose weight, heart palpitations)
Q: Decreased thyroid secretion is called…
Answer: hypothyroidism (gain weight, always tired)
Q: Changes due to diabetes:
Answer: behavior change, peripheral nerve damage, slow tissue healing, decrease sense of temperature, pain in lower legs or hands, loss of vision, decrease kidney function
Q: Genitourinary system changes in the elderly:
Answer: bladder less elastic, decrease in kidney function (bathroom more often), vaginal walls thinner, prostate enlarged
Q: Diseases of the genitourinary system:
Answer: UTI, STD, prolapsed uterus/bladder, prostatic hypertrophy
Q: Changes in the musculoskeletal system in the elderly:
Answer: bones thinner/brittle, joints less flexible, muscles weaker
Q: Paralysis affecting one side of the body
Answer: hemiplegia
Q: Speech impairment caused by a CVA is called…
Answer: aphasia
Q: A mini stroke is called a _______.
Answer: TIA (transient ischemic attack)
Q: Spinal cord injury caused by paralysis of lower body is called …
Answer: paraplegia
Q: Paralysis of the torso and all 4 extremities is _______.
Answer: quadriplegic
Q: Progressive loss of brain function involving memory, learning, judgement and communication is called _________
Answer: dementia
Q: A type of dementia that has stages is called _____.
Answer: Alzheimer’s
Q: The reversible loss of brain function due to an infection, medication or dehydration is called ______.
Answer: delirium
Q: The system that includes nails, skin, and hair is the __________.
Answer: integumentary system
Q: The uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells and produces tumors is called _______.
Answer: cancer (Ca)
Q: A tumor where the cells don’t spread is a _______ tumor.
Answer: benign (not bad)
Q: A tumor where the cells spread to other body tissue is called ______ tumor.
Answer: malignant (bad)
Q: The spreading of the cells is called _________.
Answer: metastasize
Q: Mineral loss from bone is called _______ which causes bones to fx easily and decreases height.
Answer: osteoporosis
Q: Broken bones are called ______
Answer: fractures (fx)
Q: Most common fractures in the elderly are…
Answer: wrists, hip, pelvis, compression of spine
Q: Damage to joints is called ______.
Answer: osteoarthritis
Q: Surgical removal of an extremity is called _______.
Answer: amputation
Q: Changes in the nervous system in the elderly are…
Answer: nerve cells lost, slower nerve impulses, slow reflexes
Q: The disease that causes destruction of the brain area that controls muscle movements…
Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Q: Symptoms of Parkinson’s disease are:
Answer: rigid muscles, loss of balance, shuffled gait, tremors (shaking), stooped over, fatigue
Q: The disease that has progressive destruction of the insulating covering of the nerves…
Answer: multiple sclerosis (MS)
Q: Symptoms of MS
Answer: loose muscle function, weak/paralysis (LE), muscle spasms, vision loss, decreased coordination
Q: Another name for ALS is
Answer: Luke Gehrigs
Q: A disease that causes seizures…
Answer: epilepsy
Q: Loss of blood supply to part of the brain is called…
Answer: stroke (CVA)
Q: Cardiovascular changes in the elderly:
Answer: heart less tolerant of activity, BP less stable, artery walls are flexible, decreased blood flow to organs, liver/kidney decrease
Q: The hardening of the arteries is …
Answer: arteriosclerosis
Q: Fatty deposits in arteries that decreases blood flow…
Answer: atherosclerosis
Q: Arteriosclerosis of the extremities is …
Answer: peripheral vascular disease (PVD)
Q: Heart unable to pump enough blood to the body, so inadequate oxygen supply to tissue and retains fluid in the lungs…
Answer: congestive heart failure (CHF)
Q: Battery powered device that keeps heart beat regular…
Answer: pacemaker
Q: Another name for a heart attack
Answer: myocardial infarction (MI)
Q: Chest pain is also called
Answer: angina
Q: 2 treatments for cardiac issues
Answer: cardiac bypass and angioplasty
Q: Symptoms due to cardiac conditions:
Answer: tire easily, SOB, dizziness, edema, bruise easily, healing is slow
Q: Changes in the respiratory system associated with aging:
Answer: lung tissue less elastic, chest is less able to expand
Q: The air passages in the lungs become obstructed is called:
Answer: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Q: Spasmodic contraction of bronchi is called______
Answer: asthma
Q: 2 treatments of cancer are ____ and ____.
Answer: chemo and radiation
Q: Giving comfort measures for terminal illnesses is called _____.
Answer: palliative care
Q: Warning signs for cancer are:
Answer: change in bowel/bladder (color), sores don’t heal, unusual bleeding (discharge), thickening of breasts, prolonged indigestion, change in wart/mole, cough that won’t go away, constant pain for no specific reason
Q: Other terms for dementia:
Answer: Alzheimer’s, impaired mental function, cognitive impairment
Q: ________ is a progressive neurological disease.
Answer: Alzheimer’s
Q: Goals for residents with dementia:
Answer: maintain highest quality of life and maintain highest level of functioning
Q: Dementia residents lose ability to:
Answer: understand environment and danger, loss of ability to understand and follow directions, impaired memory (especially short term), loose impulse control, bad behaviors
Q: Behaviors associated with dementia:
Answer: sensory changes, confusion, hoarding, wandering, sundowning (more agitated after 5pm), repetitive actions, aggressive, delusions(hallucinations)
Q: Communicating with dementia residents:
Answer: pick your battles, reality orientation, validating them, reminiscing
Q: The resident care plan helps staff:
Answer: provide consistent care for the resident
Q: A care plan meeting is held at least _____ with _____,_____,and____.
Answer: quarterly (3x a year), resident, health care team, family
Q: The _______ is a legal document.
Answer: care plan
Q: MDS stands for
Answer: minimum data set
Q: The MDS is an ________tool.
Answer: assessment
Q: The CNA provides information about the resident’s _________.
Answer: ability to do ADL’s
Q: The care plan is developed by the __________.
Answer: interdisciplinary team (IDT)
Q: Goals are also called _______.
Answer: outcomes (must be measurable)
Q: Goals may be ____ or _____.
Answer: short term or long term
Q: The interventions on the care plan are also called ______.
Answer: approaches
Q: __________ is putting the care plan into action
Answer: Implementation
Q: If the resident is achieving their goals is called the _________.
Answer: evaluation
Q: The care plan is reviewed and revised at least ______.
Answer: quarterly
Q: The CNA assists in maintaining medical asepsis by…a) washing hands between resident contactb) disinfecting the tub and shower chair between usec) using gloves to pass ice waterd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: The most important practice in infection control is…a) covering mouth when coughingb) washing hands with soap and waterc) using kleenex instead of hankiesd) using an isolation gown
Answer: b) washing hands with soap and water
Q: A comfortable, well made bed is important to the resident because:a) they have less tissue padding and wrinkles can cause pain and restrict circulationb) they turn themselves frequentlyc) few activities of daily living happen in bedd) they spend most of their time in the lobby
Answer: a) they have less tissue padding and wrinkles can cause pain and restrict circulation
Q: Reasons a CNA must increase safety may include:a) mental confusionb) diminished senses (sight, hearing, touch, taste, smell)c) decrease mobilityd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: Indirect contact when referring to infection control issues include:a) touching an infected residentb) touching an infected woundc) touching contaminated objectsd) none of the above
Answer: c) touching contaminated objects
Q: Posting of signs, no smoking, grounding of electrical equipment, and use of a stable holder are safety precautions in the use of…a) bug sprayb) oxygenc) medicined) disinfectants
Answer: b) oxygen
Q: Principles of safe wheelchair use include all of the following EXCEPT:a) putting on the brakes when a resident is getting in or out of wheelchairb) speeding down the hallway of around cornersc) making sure to not injure resident’s elbows or toesd) putting the foot rests in an up position when transferring from the bed to the wheelchair
Answer: b) speeding down the hallway of around corners
Q: Safety issues include:a) assuring there are no slip, trip or fall hazardsb) using wet floor sign when appropriatec) bed should always be in the high positiond) a and b
Answer: d) a and b
Q: Hand washing is the #1 technique used to control infection in an institutional setting. The procedure to be followed should be…a) wash from cleanest to dirtiestb) sterilizing your handsc) using bar of soapd) turning off the water faucet using a paper towel as a germ protector
Answer: d) turning off the water faucet using a paper towel as a germ protector
Q: The goal of oral hygiene is to…a) prevent tooth damage and gum diseaseb) refresh the resident’s mouthc) keep mouth, teeth, gums, tongue healthyd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: Remember when caring for dentures…a) use hot water to cleanseb) never rinse off the cleanser as it is a disinfectantc) line the sink with a paper towel to protect the dentures if you drop themd) none of the above
Answer: c) line the sink with a paper towel to protect the dentures if you drop them
Q: Doing this promotes comfort during a bed bath…a) opening the window so it will be coolb) not changing the water when it becomes coolc) using water which is 150 degrees Fd) using a bath blanket for warmth and privacy and washing one part at a time
Answer: d) using a bath blanket for warmth and privacy and washing one part at a time
Q: Safety measures when using a Hoyer lift includes all of the following EXCEPT:a) spreader legs are locked before lifting the residentb) A CNA can use a lift alonec) wheelchair/bed brakes are locked before lifting residentd) safety straps are fastened, and 2 CNA’s raise and lower resident
Answer: b) A CNA can use a lift alone
Q: When a resident is affected by a stroke and cannot move their right arm, you…a) dress their right side firstb) undress right side firstc) pull the cloths over their head without telling them firstd) dress left side first
Answer: a) dress their right side first
Q: Hydration pertains to :a) a type of flower used to decorateb) fluid intakec) a card used by dietary to denote dietd) a mechanical lift used to transfer resident
Answer: b) fluid intake
Q: Weights may be regularly measured to…a) check adequate food intakeb) estimate fluid retentionc) Monitor effect of diuretic medicationd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: Flatus is …a) an intestinal parasiteb) gas from the colonc) fecesd) all of the above
Answer: b) gas from the colon
Q: A resident with urinary incontinence should be checked …a) once every 4 hoursb) once every 2 hoursc) when they tell you they are wetd) b and c
Answer: d) b and c
Q: In doing Peri-Care…a) wash from back to frontb) do only during bathsc) wash from front to backd) do in the AM and PM
Answer: c) wash from front to back
Q: Assisting a resident with ambulation would include which safety measure?a) walk behind a visually impaired residentb) walk at a normal to fast pacec) resident should wear non-skid socks or shoesd) all of the above
Answer: c) resident should wear non-skid socks or shoes
Q: Sterilization is the process of sterilizing reusable items which include…a) use only disposable toolsb) use soap and water to clean instrumentsc) wipe instruments with alcohold) use an autoclave to kill all microorganisms
Answer: d) use an autoclave to kill all microorganisms
Q: Food, moisture, oxygen, temperature, and light are factors that affect…a) tasteb) bacterial growthc) smelld) sensation
Answer: b) bacterial growth
Q: The following is unacceptable as a CNA…a) answering a call light as soon as possibleb) turning off a call light when you enter the roomc) replacing the call light where it can be easily reached by the residentd) yelling “what do you want?” from the nursing station
Answer: d) yelling “what do you want?” from the nursing station
Q: Reality orientation is a process designed to help residents remember…a) who they areb) time, date, placec) their routined) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: The charge nurse is the only one to give out information regarding…a) daily menub) resident’s medical condition and diagnosisc) activity scheduled) meal times
Answer: b) resident’s medical condition and diagnosis
Q: Good body mechanics does not…a) make best use of strengthb) prevent back injuriesc) decrease chance of injury to residentd) advise twisting torso during transfer of resident
Answer: d) advise twisting torso during transfer of resident
Q: When a person is in correct body alignment, the…a) head is erectb) back is straight in linec) legs slightly bentd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: The Administrator or Executive Director is responsible for…a) making sure medications are ordered promptlyb) making assignments for the nursing staffc) the overall operation of the communityd) none of the above
Answer: c) the overall operation of the community
Q: Hair care includes:a) the resident should be encouraged to comb their own hair, as it encourages independence and provides ROMb) the resident feels better when their hair is clean and combedc) is shampooed at bath time, unless the resident goes to the beauty salond) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: Decubitus Ulcers may form…a) on bony prominencesb) where skin touches skin – fat folds on obese pt’sc) on the back of the head and earsd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: Prevention of a Decubitus Ulcer is…a) easier than healing oneb) the responsibility of everyone that cares for the residentc) they can’t be prevented in the elderlyd) a and b
Answer: d) a and b
Q: Prevention of a Decubitus Ulcers may be done by…a) turning the resident every 4 hoursb) sliding the resident up in bedc) keeping the resident and linens clean and dryd) keeping the resident in bed except for meals
Answer: c) keeping the resident and linens clean and dry
Q: Important to make resident mealtimes pleasant:a) resident’s comfortb) food looks pleasant on the platec) bad odors are removes before mealtimed) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: To encourage a resident with fluid intake…a) offer small amounts freqb) make the resident drink all fluids during mealtimec) let the resident have the fluids they liked) a and c
Answer: d) a and c
Q: A choking victim…a) can speakb) may clutch their throatc) needs to drink waterd) will cough up the food
Answer: b) may clutch their throat
Q: Which pt’s would you find in a Sub-acute hospital?a) pt’s straight from surgeryb) residents living independently in apartmentsc) residents with IV’s, ventilators, N/G tubesd) dementia residents
Answer: c) residents with IV’s, ventilators, N/G tubes
Q: The clock system used for visually impaired residents is…a) an alarm in their room goes off for activity timesb) use the time on clock approach to locate food on platec) is used for scheduled toiletingd) is used for medication administration
Answer: b) use the time on clock approach to locate food on plate
Q: Which of the following foods should not be on a NCS diet…a) cherry pieb) fresh fruitc) broccolid) milk
Answer: a) cherry pie
Q: When feeding a resident, the CNA should…a) mix the food together so they don’t get coldb) alt. solid foods and liquidsc) stand beside the residentd) don’t talk to them so they can concentrate on eating
Answer: b) alt. solid foods and liquids
Q: Goon skin turgor refers to..a) elasticity of the skinb) color of the skinc) adequate hydrationd) a and c
Answer: d) a and c
Q: 30 cc/ml is = to …a) 1/2 ozb) 1 ozc) 1 cupd) 1 Tbsp
Answer: b) 1 oz
Q: When a resident is NPO, they can be fed by…a) G-tube/ Peg-tubeb) Colostomyc) Ileostomyd) N/G tubee) a and d
Answer: e) a and d
Q: Residents in a LTC community should wear…a) street clothesb) hospital gownc) PJs and robed) none of the above
Answer: a) street clothes
Q: HIPAA refers to…a) hip replacementb) promoting privacy/ confidentiality of residents recordsc) a health insurance for the elderlyd) care of a resident with a hip cast
Answer: b) promoting privacy/ confidentiality of residents records
Q: Devices used for resident body alignment include:a) foam wedgeb) trochanter rollc) palmar splitd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: Back rubs are not given to…a) refresh and relax the residentb) stimulate circulation throughout bodyc) awaken the resident
Answer: c) awaken the resident
Q: I & O refers to…a) the fluids the resident takes in and releases from the bodyb) the % of food eatenc) checking in and out of the communityd) activities the resident attends
Answer: a) the fluids the resident takes in and releases from the body
Q: When not in use, dentures should be cleaned and stores…a) wrapped in a paper towel in resident night standb) in a denture cup with waterc) in a denture cup w/out waterd) in a paper cup by the bedside
Answer: b) in a denture cup with water
Q: When a residents pockets food, they usually put the food…a) in a napkin and take it back to their roomb) put the food in their pocketsc) puts the food along the side of their mouth/cheeksd) gives it to another resident at the table
Answer: c) puts the food along the side of their mouth/cheeks
Q: When pushing a resident in a wheelchair, always push forward except:a) when going into an elevatorb) going down a rampc) pushing the resident into their roomd) taking the resident to the bathroome) a and b
Answer: e) a and b
Q: Dirty linens should be…a) put on the floor of the resident’s room until CNA is finishedb) put in garbage or linen bag and taken to utility roomc) rolled up and carried to utility roomd) CNA’s don’t handle dirty laundry
Answer: b) put in garbage or linen bag and taken to utility room
Q: A standard rule in body mechanics is to have a good base of at least …a) 6-9 inb) 12 in to shoulder widthc) 24 in or mored) 36 in
Answer: b) 12 in to shoulder width
Q: The financial status the elderly most commonly have is..a) financial status increase due to retirementb) financial status increase due to social securityc) a lower financial statusd) excess money to give to their children
Answer: c) a lower financial status
Q: A CNA may discuss confidential resident info with…a) other residentsb) resident’s family membersc) charge nursed) their own family
Answer: c) charge nurse
Q: A responsibility of a CNA is not…a) changing wound dressingsb) care of the resident’s roomc) feeding the residentd) documentation of the resident
Answer: a) changing wound dressings
Q: A CNA can slow down or stop communication by…a) listening and allowing response timeb) looking at the person talkingc) showing body and facial expressionsd) being attentive to what the person is saying
Answer: c) showing body and facial expressions
Q: Signs and symptoms of Decubitus Ulcers includes all EXCEPT…a) warm, red areas with tendernessb) resident complains of area burning or tinglingc) pink and blanchable skind) an open wound
Answer: c) pink and blanchable skin
Q: All of the following are symptoms of Dementia EXCEPT …a) not knowing self or othersb) waking up when a CNA enters the roomc) wandering the hallwaysd) delusions and hallucinations
Answer: b) waking up when a CNA enters the room
Q: Preventing falls may be done by…a) avoid use of side railsb) allow resident independence when taking showersc) checking for slip, trip, fall hazards (spills)d) allow residents to walk in stocking feet
Answer: c) checking for slip, trip, fall hazards (spills)
Q: T or F: A gait belt is useless in transferring a resident.
Answer: F
Q: T or F: If possible, push, pull or roll a heavy object
Answer: T
Q: T or F: CNA’s should always cut the resident’s toenails.
Answer: F
Q: T or F: By using strong back muscles in lifting, you will avoid injury.
Answer: F
Q: T or F: Residents usually don’t care about their appearance b/c they are elderly and rarely have visitors
Answer: F
Q: T or F: If you notice a resident’s hair is getting long, it is ok to cut it when you give them a shower.
Answer: F
Q: T or F: If possible, let the resident do as much for themselves as they are able.
Answer: T
Q: T or F: A beard should be shampooed in the shower and wiped off after meals
Answer: T
Q: T or F: The carotid pulse is felt in the wrist
Answer: F
Q: T or F: Normally residents are weighed monthly
Answer: T
Q: T or F: MDS stands for minimum data sheets
Answer: T
Q: T or F: 30 cc = 3 oz
Answer: F
Q: T or F: HIPAA refers to resident health insurance
Answer: F
Q: Functional decline:a) a resident no long wants to visitb) deterioration in a conditionc) a resident retiresd) a resident moves into a LTC
Answer: b) deterioration in a condition
Q: Body mechanics is:a) a resident’s body has agedb) a resident can no longer ambulatec) using the body correctly to move residents or objectsd) the body is fatigued
Answer: c) using the body correctly to move residents or objects
Q: Using good mechanics:a) use the arm muscles onlyb) bend at the waist while liftingc) use the largest, strongest musclesd) lift from a reaching position
Answer: c) use the largest, strongest muscles
Q: A resident is weight bearing:a) the resident is allowed to lift hand weightsb) the resident can put weight on both legsc) the resident uses a mechanical liftd) the resident needs total assistance
Answer: b) the resident can put weight on both legs
Q: When using a mechanical lift:a) always use 2 staffb) the resident should not assistc) support the lightest parts of the bodyd) use on all residents
Answer: a) always use 2 staff
Q: Positioning a resident in bed:a) reposition resident twice a shiftb) slide the resident in the bedc) always roll them on their sided) change resident position every 2 hours
Answer: d) change resident position every 2 hours
Q: Positioning devices are all except:a) pillowsb) rolled towels/blanketsc) lift sheetsd) walker
Answer: d) walker
Q: Abduction splint is placed:a) on resident’s armb) behind resident’s backc) between legsd) on resident’s chest
Answer: c) between legs
Q: Palmar and hand rolls prevent:a) hand dropb) fracturesc) contractionsd) friction/shearing
Answer: c) contractions
Q: Log-rolling a resident is used when:a) a resident has a fractured armb) a resident has had back surgeryc) a resident has a fractured ankled) when the resident is sleeping
Answer: b) a resident has had back surgery
Q: Lying on back with head of bed at 45 deg angle:a) supineb) Fowlersc) Simsd) lateral
Answer: b) Fowlers
Q: Lying partly on side and partly prone:a) Fowlersb) Simsc) Trendelenburgd) prone
Answer: b) Sims
Q: Posture changes with age due to all except:a) osteoporosisb) arthritisc) pneumoniad) bone spurs
Answer: c) pneumonia
Q: T or F: When a resident gets up too quickly, their BP can rise.
Answer: F
Q: When transferring a resident to a chair, do all except:a) let resident assist if able tob) resident should be bare footc) use gait beltd) put something on seat for comfort
Answer: b) resident should be bare foot
Q: T or F: It is okay to leave a resident alone on a stretcher/gurney if the safety belt is in place.
Answer: F
Q: Mechanical lifts:a) moving a resident down the hallb) need 2 staff to usec) all work the samed) residents should not assist
Answer: b) need 2 staff to use
Q: When resident uses a wheelchair:a) feet should be flat on floorb) residents should assist in pushing the wheelsc) can be pushed forward or backwardd) reposition resident every 2 hours
Answer: d) reposition resident every 2 hours
Q: All are ambulation equipment except:a) caneb) walkerc) wheelchaird) gait belt
Answer: c) wheelchair
Q: A fx caused by a disease or weakened bone:a) compound fxb) displaced fxc) pathological fxd) joint fx
Answer: c) pathological fx
Q: Falls occur due to all except:a) dizzinessb) throw rugsc) using a call lightd) improper footwear
Answer: c) using a call light
Q: If a fall occurs:a) don’t move until nurse assessesb) get them off the floor because it is hardc) put their legs straightd) turn them over
Answer: a) don’t move until nurse assesses
Q: Disease producing microorganisms is called…a) bacteriab) emesisc) pathogensd) blood
Answer: c) pathogens
Q: Most common microorganisms in health care are ________ and ________.
Answer: strep and staph
Q: Common microorganisms that can be beneficial…
Answer: bacteria
Q: Common microorganisms that are found on toenails and fingernails…
Answer: fungi
Q: Smallest microorganisms…
Answer: virus
Q: Microorganisms found in water…
Answer: protozoa
Q: Infection in wounds…
Answer: staph
Q: Microorganisms that cause sore throats and pneumonia…
Answer: strep
Q: 2 dangerous viruses:
Answer: HIV and hepatitis B
Q: Conditions that affect growth of organisms…
Answer: heat(temp), food, moisture, light, oxygen
Q: Pathogens are transmitted by all except:a) direct contactb) indirect contactc) sterile instrumentsd) droplete) airborne
Answer: c) sterile instruments
Q: Communicable disease:a) spreads from a plant to a personb) spreads from a person to another personc) a disease that can’t be curedd) heart disease
Answer: b) spreads from a person to another person
Q: Body’s most important natural defense…
Answer: skin
Q: Body’s natural defense for lining of body passages…
Answer: mucus membrane
Q: Body’s natural defenses that are tiny hairs in the respiratory tract…
Answer: cilia
Q: Body’s natural defense that expels pathogens…
Answer: coughing or sneezing
Q: Body’s natural defense that washes away pathogens…
Answer: tears
Q: Body’s natural defense that is a part of the GI system…
Answer: stomach acid
Q: Body’s natural defense that causes high temperature in the body…
Answer: fever
Q: Body’s natural defense that brings blood and disease fighting substance to source of infection…
Answer: Inflammation
Q: What are the signs of infection?
Answer: swelling, pain, tenderness, fever, fatigue, rash, drainage/pus from wound in ears, nose, and eyes, smell of drainage, N&V, loss of appetite, reddening/area warm to touch, inflammation
Q: All are sources of infection except:a) bloodb) open skin areac) ear lobed) body fluidse) mucous membranes
Answer: c) ear lobe
Q: Another word for infection control is…
Answer: asepsis
Q: All are aseptic techniques except:a) hand washingb) clean socksc) cover cuts and breaks in skind) proper linen disposal
Answer: b) clean socks
Q: Most important infection control and prevention is:
Answer: hand washing
Q: Wash hand for:
Answer: 20-30 secs
Q: All are infection control terms except:a) sterileb) freezingc) cleand) contaminatede) disinfection
Answer: b) freezing
Q: The following are all types of bed-making except:a) open bedb) occupied bedc) fowler bedd) closed bede) surgical bed
Answer: c) fowler bed
Q: When making a bed the corners should be:a) straightb) left openc) miteredd) tucked in
Answer: c) mitered
Q: Residents can have vision loss from all except:a) macular degenerationb) glaucomac) cataractsd) UTI
Answer: d) UTI
Q: A resident is at a risk for burns because:a) the lose their sense of smellb) they have diminished sense of touchc) they are forgetfuld) they have decreased hearing
Answer: b) they have diminished sense of touch
Q: The following are fall risks except:a) inadequate lightingb) throw rugsc) clear walking path in roomd) resident with stocking feet
Answer: c) clear walking path in room
Q: Another name for a seizure is…
Answer: convulsion
Q: The following can all cause seizures except:a) pressure ulcerb) epilepsyc) high feverd) stroke
Answer: a) pressure ulcer
Q: 2 types of seizures:
Answer: Grand mal and petit mal
Q: MSDS stands for:
Answer: Material Safety Data Sheet
Q: If you have an unlabeled bottle:a) make a labelb) put it back in the cupboardc) don’t use and report to nursed) use it, so it isn’t wasted
Answer: c) don’t use and report to nurse
Q: All of oxygen equipment except:a) cannulab) inhaling tubec) oxygen concentratord) mask
Answer: c) oxygen concentrator
Q: Fire Emergency Response Plan:R=A=C=E=
Answer: rescue, alert, confine/contain, extinguish/evacuate
Q: Fire extinguisher:P=A=S=S=
Answer: pull pin, aim at base, squeeze, sweep back and forth
Q: T or F… Tornado watch is when the conditions are favorable for a tornado.
Answer: T
Q: A resident elopement is when:a) gets marriedb) leaves their room for therapyc) leaves the safe area of the communityd) is in another resident’s room
Answer: c) leaves the safe area of the community
Q: Restorative care is:
Answer: preventing a disability caused by an injury, disease, surgery, or long periods of inactivity
Q: The health care team works together on restorative care to:
Answer: prevent skin breakdown, increase mobility, help resident regain/maintain independence
Q: Rehabilitation is to help the resident:
Answer: regain highest possible state of functioning
Q: Rehab involves:
Answer: PT, OT, ST
Q: Intravenous Infusion (IV) are:
Answer: fluids, nutrients, meds administered through the vein
Q: Always take the BP on the _____ arm of the IV.
Answer: opposite
Q: When the IV comes out of the vein and fluids go into the tissues, it is called _______.
Answer: infiltration
Q: There are 3 types of tube-feeding…
Answer: gastrostomy (G-tube), PEG tube, N/G tube
Q: The placement of a feeding tube into the lower stomach is called a _______.
Answer: gastrostomy
Q: The placement of a feeding tube in the upper stomach and for long term use is called _________.
Answer: PEG tube
Q: A tube placed through the resident’s nostril to the stomach is a ________ and is for short term use.
Answer: nasogastric tube
Q: Following tube feeding the head of bed (HOB) should be ____________ during the feeding and for 30-60 mins following the feeding.
Answer: semi-fowlers or fowlers position
Q: These are 3 types of urinary catheters:
Answer: Foley, straight, supra-pubic
Q: ___________ is inserted through the urethra into the bladder and held in place by a small inflated balloon.
Answer: Foley
Q: The ______ is used to collect urinary specimens or for urinary retention.
Answer: straight cath
Q: The _______ is inserted into the bladder through a surgical opening in the abdomen.
Answer: Supra-pubic
Q: There are 2 types of catheter bags:
Answer: bed/wheelchair bag and leg bag
Q: The urinary bags always need to be lower than the______.
Answer: bladder
Q: An external catheter is called a ________ or a _________.
Answer: Texas cath or condom cath
Q: Absence of BM that is hard and dry is called _______.
Answer: constipation
Q: A _____________ is a serious form of constipation that blocks the normal passage of feces.
Answer: fecal impaction
Q: A ____________ is a bullet shaped, wax-type medication inserted into the rectum to assist in having a BM.
Answer: suppository
Q: An ______ is liquid inserted into the rectum to assist in having a BM.
Answer: enema
Q: Semi-solid liquid or watery feces is called ________.
Answer: diarrhea
Q: The muscle movement in the GI tract that propels food is called________.
Answer: peristalsis
Q: An _______ is a surgical opening into the body.
Answer: astomy
Q: An opening made into the colon (large intestine) to divert bowel contents is called a ___________.
Answer: colostomy
Q: A procedure done to examine the colon for polyps or cancer is called ________.
Answer: colonoscopy
Q: An _______ is an opening made into the small intestine to divert bowel contents.
Answer: illeostomy
Q: There are 2 types of ROM:
Answer: AROM and PROM
Q: Risk factors for pressure ulcers/injuries are:
Answer: inability to change position, bed bound, friction/sheering, incontinence, poor hydration, poor fluid intake, poor circulation
Q: Pressure ulcers occur most often on ______.
Answer: bony prominences
Q: Increased tightness in muscle that causes resistance to stretching is called __________.
Answer: spasticity
Q: Moving an extremity away from the midline is called_______.
Answer: abduction
Q: Moving an extremity towards to midline is called _______.
Answer: adduction
Q: Bending a joint is called ______.
Answer: flexion
Q: Straightening a body part is called _____.
Answer: extension
Q: A joint moved in a circular motion is called….
Answer: rotation
Q: Turning the palm upwards is called ____.
Answer: supination
Q: Turing the palm downwards is called _____.
Answer: pronation
Q: Bending foot back towards legs is called ______.
Answer: dorsal flexion
Q: Bending foot toward the sole is called ______.
Answer: plantar flexion
Q: Wrist bent towards the thumb is called _________.
Answer: radial deviation
Q: Wrist bent away from thumb is called_____
Answer: ulnar deviation
Q: What does full code mean:a) the same as DNRb) the resident has diabetesc) begin CPRd) send to the hospital
Answer: c) begin CPR
Q: What is the meaning of PHI?a) personal health indicatorsb) physical health issuesc) political health issued) protected health information
Answer: d) protected health information
Q: If a resident is diagnosed with CHF, what symptoms do they have?a) the breath has a fruity or sweet smellb) the abdomen is distendedc) Swelling of hands and feet, SOBd) the left side has weakness
Answer: c) Swelling of hands and feet, SOB
Q: The resident receives their meds PC. What does this mean?
Answer: the meds are given after the meal
Q: The resident is terminally ill and on Hospice care. This mean:
Answer: resident will probably live less than 6 months, but the care continues as usual
Q: When doing HS (bed time) care, what is the proper oral care for a resident with dentures?
Answer: have resident remove them, clean and soak them in a container
Q: When getting the resident out of bed, they complained of dizziness as they sat on the side of the bed. This probably means:
Answer: the resident is experiencing orthostatic hypotension
Q: Care plan conferences are held:
Answer: quarterly, at least every 90 days
Q: Residents that are having weight loss:a) may have meal intake monitoredb) may be weighed weeklyc) be encouraged to eat at meal timesd) all of the above
Answer: d) all of the above
Q: If a resident is having difficulty breathing….
Answer: elevate the head of the bed
Q: A normal age-related change is:a) dementiab) contracturesc) bladder holds less urined) wheezing when breathing
Answer: c) bladder holds less urine
Q: When assisting residents during meals:a) stand beside them to assist with feedingb) mix food togetherc) sit to the side and assist as neededd) residents need to feed themselves
Answer: c) sit to the side and assist as needed