Prepare for the ISSA Certified Personal Trainer exam with these test questions and answers. This covers fitness assessment, program design, nutrition, and client management.
Q: Muscular, cardiopulmonary, and metabolic adaptations to exercise are known as the training effect. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The body’s automatic tendency to maintain a constant internal body environment through various processes is called:
Answer: Homeostasis
Q: BMR stands for
Answer: basal metabolic rate
Q: Anabolism and catabolism occur at the same time throughout the body. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: A calorie is a unit of heat. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The preferred unit in metabolic studies and nutrition labels is the kilocalorie (kcal). (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The primary (not the ‘initial’) fuel during endurance exercise is:
Answer: Fatty acids
Q: The molecule used for storing and transferring energy in the body is called:
Answer: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Q: The ATP/CP pathway is the primary pathway used for activities lasting two minutes or greater. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: About 98% of the human body is composed of only six elements: oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorous. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The respiratory system is responsible for:
Answer: – Supplying oxygen to the body- Eliminating carbon dioxide in the body- Helps regulate the body’s pH balance
Q: The circulatory system consists of:
Answer: Heart, arteries, and veins
Q: The nervous system is made up of the:
Answer: peripheral nervous system and central nervous system
Q: Excretion is one function of the digestive system. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: Hormones are classified as:
Answer: Steroids, Amino-Acid derivatives, Peptides
Q: Hemoglobin is an oxygen-transporting protein in red blood cells. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The main purpose(s) of hormones is/are to:
Answer: – Alter the rate of synthesis of your cellular protein- Change the rate of enzyme activity- Change the rate of transport of nutrients through the cell wall
Q: Tendons connect bone to bone. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: The average human adult skeleton has:
Answer: 206 bones
Q: Tendons:
Answer: Are extensions of muscle fibers and connect muscle to bone
Q: The anatomical terms for front and back are:
Answer: anterior and posterior
Q: Type I muscle fibers are predominantly aerobic. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: Cardiovascular/aerobic exercise results in:
Answer: Mitochondrial adaptations
Q: Type II muscle fibers are entirely aerobic. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: Muscular hypertrophy is a(n):
Answer: increase in muscle fiber size
Q: In a concentric contraction, the muscle lengthens to produce movements. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: Kinesiology is:
Answer: The science or study of human movement, and the active and passive structures involved
Q: An isometric contraction is when:
Answer: A muscle does not lengthen or shorten as it contracts
Q: True synergy occurs when a muscle contracts to stop the secondary action of another muscle. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: An example of an antagonist muscle is:
Answer: Triceps during a biceps curl
Q: Adduction is a movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: An example of flexion is the:
Answer: Concentric action of a bicep curl
Q: Flexion mainly occurs in which plane?
Answer: sagittal plane
Q: Newton’s second law of motion deals with force and its relationship to mass and acceleration. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: Biomechanics is the study of:
Answer: movement
Q: Muscular force is broken down into the components of:
Answer: Magnitude, Direction, Point of application, Line of action
Q: Inertia can be categorized as:
Answer: Resting inertia and moving inertia
Q: A first-class lever is similar to a seesaw. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The ability to perceive your position and movement of the body or limbs in space is known as:
Answer: Kinesthesis
Q: A second-class lever is similar to a wheelbarrow. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The faster the work is done during a movement, the lesser the amount of power. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: Posture is solely viewed in static positions, such as sitting, standing, or lying down. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: “Flatback” can be identified by a:
Answer: Posterior pelvic tilt
Q: Excessive lateral curvature of the spinal column is known as:
Answer: Scoliosis
Q: Kyphosis is an exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: When the superior iliac crest of the pelvis moves forward and downward from the normal anatomical position, it is known as:
Answer: Lordosis
Q: Intradiscal pressure is up to 11 times greater when seated versus lying down. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: Exaggerated anterior-posterior curvature of the spinal column is known as:
Answer: Kyphosis
Q: Even though sitting can be unavoidable for many people, it is best to limit time spent sitting as much as possible, and design your workplace according to correct ergonomics. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The major movements that are possible at the knee joint are adduction and abduction. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: The knee is stabilized on the anterior side by which muscle?
Answer: Quadriceps
Q: The semimembranosus and semitendinosus attach on what side of the knee?
Answer: Medial
Q: The ankle joint is made up of which bone(s)?
Answer: tibia and talus
Q: The hamstring muscles are a two-joint muscle that acts at the knee and hip. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: What muscle is located directly beneath the gastrocnemius and has similar functions to the gastrocnemius?
Answer: Soleus
Q: The wrist joint consists of the ends of the radius and ulna bones of the forearm with the carpal bones of the hand. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The shoulder girdle is made up of the clavicle and what other bone?
Answer: Scapula
Q: A pronated grip would be palms up. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: ________ are a major factor that affects strength?
Answer: Structural, Physiological, Psychoneural, Environmental
Q: The angle of Q represents:
Answer: Starting strength
Q: What is a basic grip used in weight training?
Answer: Supinated, Pronated, Neutral
Q: A supinated grip would be palms down. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: Dumbbells are an example of what type of training equipment?
Answer: Constant resistance device
Q: A neutral grip would be thumbs up. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: New trainees should ____ through the sticking point and _____ during the less strenuous portion of the lifts.
Answer: Exhale, inhale
Q: Aerobic means in the presence of oxygen. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: Maximum oxygen consumption is also known as:
Answer: VO2 max
Q: Maximal heart rate is estimated by subtracting your age from:
Answer: 220
Q: For aerobic training, ISSA recommends that individuals train at what percentage of the maximum heart rate?
Answer: 55% to 85%
Q: A watt is a measure of power involving a known force, distance, and time frame.
Answer: True
Q: A unit of measurement that refers to the relative energy demands of an activity in comparison to your energy demands in a resting state is known as a:
Answer: MET
Q: Anaerobic means “in the presence of oxygen.”
Answer: False
Q: Using several modes of training to develop a specific component of fitness is known as:
Answer: Cross-training
Q: Flexibility is the ability to flex, extend, or circumduct the joints through their full intended range of motion. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The Golgi tendon organ, the muscle spindle, and the Pacinian corpuscle make up the three primary:
Answer: Inhibitory proprioceptors
Q: Myofibrils are constructed of overlapping strands of protein polymers called:
Answer: Actin and myosin
Q: Joint range of motion can be assessed with:
Answer: – Goniometer- Sit and reach test- Shoulder flexibility test- Trunk extension test
Q: The muscle spindle detects excessive stretch within the muscle. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: If your goal is to improve range of motion, stretch to the point:
Answer: Of mild or moderate discomfort
Q: ________ are a benefit of a proper warm up and dynamic stretch prior to exercise?
Answer: – Improved metabolic adjustment to heavy work- Greater strength/power output- Increased muscle temperature- Increased velocity of nerve conduction
Q: This type of stretching facilitates an increase in muscle length through a maximum isometric contraction of the antagonist:
Answer: Contract antagonist-relax (CA) method
Q: Endomorphs are slim body types. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: Ectomorphs are classified as:
Answer: Slim or linear body types
Q: Body mass index (BMI) is used to assess:
Answer: relative weight to height ratio and as a predictor of future disease risk
Q: Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA) is one method to determine body composition. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The body is composed of lean body mass (LBM) and body fat. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: The following are methods to assess body composition:
Answer: – DEXA- Skinfold thickness- Hydrostatic weighing- Bioelectrical impedance (BIA)
Q: When taking skinfold measurement readings, only one attempt per site is recommended for an accurate reading. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: The somatotype system classifies the human body into how many categories?
Answer: 3
Q: The ISSA drawing-in phase is a process which:
Answer: – Insures a high level of client motivation- Distinguishes you as a professional- Has five stages
Q: Stage One of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
Answer: Establish yourself as a professional
Q: Stage two of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
Answer: Data collection
Q: Stage three of the ISSA drawing-in phase is:
Answer: Guided discovery tour
Q: A trainer should facilitate learning by using which sensory channel(s)?
Answer: – Visual- Auditory- Kinesthetic
Q: Blood pressure is the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. (T/F)
Answer: True
Q: GXT is an acronym for:
Answer: Graded Exercise Test
Q: According to the ISSA and the ACSM, exercise intensity should be at what percentage of your VO2 max in order to maintain an adequate level of cardiorespiratory fitness?
Answer: 55% to 85%
Q: Using the Karvonen method and an exercise intensity of 55% will determine the heart rate corresponding to what percentage of VO2 max?
Answer: 55%
Q: The ISSA recommends that the intensity level of exercise be 85% to 95% of VO2 max. (T/F)
Answer: False
Q: Muscular endurance can be assessed by which of the following method(s)?
Answer: Push-up test & Sit-up test