Prepare for the HOSA Biomedical Laboratory Science competition with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers laboratory techniques, safety procedures, and clinical laboratory science.
Q: Antibodies
Answer: proteins developed by the immune system that recognize specific molecules (antigens)
Q: Applied science
Answer: the practice of utilizing scientific knowledge for practical purposes, including the manufacture of a product
Q: Bioethics
Answer: the study of decision-making as it applies to moral decisions that have to be made because of advances in biology, medicine, and technology
Q: Biotechnology
Answer: the study and manipulation of living things or their component molecules, cells, tissues, or organs
Q: CDC
Answer: abbreviation for Centers for Disease Control and Prevention; national research center for developing and applying disease prevention and control, environmental health, and health promotion and education activities to improve public health
Q: Control
Answer: experimental trial added to an experiment to ensure that the experiment was run properly; see positive control and negative control
Q: Cystic fibrosis (CF)
Answer: genetic disorder that clogs the respiratory and digestive systems with mucus
Q: DNA ligase
Answer: an enzyme that binds together disconnected strands of a DNA molecule
Q: E. coli
Answer: a rod-shaped bacterium native to the intestines of mammals; commonly used in genetics and biotechnology
Q: EPA
Answer: abbreviation for the Environmental Protection Agency; the federal agency that enforces environmental laws including the use and production of microorganisms, herbicides, pesticides, and genetically modified microorganisms
Q: FDA
Answer: abbreviation for the Food and Drug Administration; the federal agency that regulates the use and production of food, feed, food additives, veterinary drugs, human drugs, and medical devices
Q: Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs)
Answer: organisms that contain DNA from another organism and produce new proteins encoded on the acquired DNA
Q: Hypothesis
Answer: an educated guess to answer a scientific question; should be testable
Q: Molecular biology
Answer: the study of molecules that are found in cells
Q: Moral
Answer: a conviction or justifiable position, having to do with whether something is considered right or wrong
Q: Negative control
Answer: a group of data lacking what is being tested so as to give expected negative results
Q: NIH
Answer: abbreviation for National Institutes of Health; the federal agency that funds and conducts biomedical research
Q: Pharmaceutical
Answer: relating to drugs developed for medical use
Q: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Answer: a technique that involves copying short pieces of DNA and then making millions of copies in a short time
Q: Positive control
Answer: a group of data that will give predictable positive results
Q: Proteases
Answer: proteins whose function is to break down other proteins
Q: Pure science
Answer: scientific research whose main purpose is to enrich the scientific knowledge base
Q: Reagent
Answer: chemical used in an experiment
Q: Recombinant DNA (rDNA)
Answer: DNA created by combining DNA from two or more sources
Q: Recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology
Answer: cutting and recombining DNA molecules
Q: Research and development (R&D)
Answer: refers to the early stages in product development that include discovery of the structure and function of a potential product and initial small-scale production
Q: Therapeutic
Answer: an agent that is used to treat diseases or disorders
Q: t-PA
Answer: short for tissue plasminogen activator; one of the first genetically engineered products to be sold; a naturally occurring enzyme that breaks down blood clots and clears blocked blood vessels
Q: USDA
Answer: abbreviation for United States Department of Agriculture; the federal agency that regulates the use and production of plants, plant products, plant pests, veterinary supplies and medications, and genetically modified plants and animals
Q: Variable
Answer: anything that can vary in an experiment; the independent variable is tested in an experiment to see its effect on dependent variables
Q: Antibiotics
Answer: Molecular agents derived from fungi and/or bacteria that impede the growth and survival of some other microorganisms
Q: Biochemistry
Answer: The study of chemical reactions occurring in living things
Q: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Answer: Nation research center to improve public health
Q: Clinical trials
Answer: A strict series of tests that evaluates the effectiveness and safety of a medical treatment
Q: Cloning
Answer: Method of asexual reproduction that produces identical organisms
Q: Concentration
Answer: The amount of a substance as a proportion of another substance
Q: Cystic Fibrosis
Answer: Genetic disorder that clogs the respiratory and digestive system with mucus
Q: Data
Answer: Information gathered by documentation
Q: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Answer: A double stranded helical molecule that stores genetic information for the production of proteins
Q: Diabetes
Answer: A disorder affecting the uptake of sugar by cells due to inadequate insulin production or ineffective use of insulin
Q: E.coli
Answer: A rod-shaped bacterium native to the intestines of mammals; commonly used in genetics researched and by biotechnology companies for the development of products
Q: Efficacy
Answer: The ability to yield a desired result or demonstrate that a product does what it claims to do
Q: Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
Answer: The federal agency that enforces environmental laws
Q: Ethics
Answer: The study of moral standards and how they affect conduct
Q: Fermentation
Answer: A process by which, in an oxygen deprived environment, a cell converts sugar into lactic acid or ethanol
Q: Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Answer: The federal agency that regulates the use and production of food, feed, food additives, veterinary drugs, human drugs, and medical devices
Q: Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO)
Answer: An organism produced by genetic engineering that contains DNA from another organism and produces new proteins encoded on the acquire DNA
Q: Genetics
Answer: The study of genes and how they are inherited and expressed
Q: Genome
Answer: One entire set if an organism’s genetic material
Q: Microbial agents
Answer: Synonym for microorganisms; living things too small to be seen without he aid of a microscope, includes bacteria, most algae, and many fungi
Q: Human Genome Project
Answer: A collaborative international effort to sequence and map all the DNA on the 23 human chromosomes; completed in 2000
Q: Insulin
Answer: A protein that facilitates the uptake of sugar into cells from blood
Q: Journals
Answer: Scientific periodicals or magazines in which scientists publish their experimental work, findings, or conclusions
Q: Large-scale production
Answer: the manufacturing of large volumes of a product
Q: Fluorometer
Answer: An instrument that measures the amount or type of light emitted.
Q: Organism
Answer: A living thing.
Q: Multicellular
Answer: Composed of more than one cell.
Q: Cytology
Answer: Cell biology.
Q: Anatomy
Answer: The structure and organization of living things.
Q: Physiology
Answer: The processes and functions of living things.
Q: Respiration
Answer: The breaking down of food molecules with the result of generating energy for the cell.
Q: Unicellular
Answer: Composed of one cell.
Q: Tissue
Answer: A group of cells that function together.
Q: Organ
Answer: Tissues that act together to form a specific function in an organism.
Q: Proteins
Answer: One of the four classes of macromolecules; folded, functional polypeptides that conduct various functions within and around a cell.
Q: Eukaryote
Answer: A cell that contains membrane-bound organelles.
Q: Protist
Answer: An organism belonging to the Kingdom Protista, which includes protozoans, slime molds, and certain algae.
Q: Organelles
Answer: Specialized microscopic factories, each with specific jobs in the cell.
Q: Mitochondria
Answer: The membrane-bound organelles that are responsible for generating cellular energy.
Q: Sugar
Answer: A simple carbohydrate molecule composed of hydrogen, carbon, and oxygen.
Q: Starch
Answer: A polysaccharide that is composed of many glucose molecules.
Q: Nucleic acids
Answer: A class of macromolecules that directs the synthesis of all other cellular molecules; often referred to as “information-carrying molecules.”
Q: Lipids
Answer: One of the four macromolecules; includes fats, waxes, steroids, and oils.
Q: Pancreas
Answer: An organ that secretes digestive fluids, as well as insulin.
Q: Hormone
Answer: A molecule that acts to regulate cellular functions.
Q: Chlorophyll
Answer: The green-pigmented molecules found in plant cells; used for photosynthesis.
Q: Photosynthesis
Answer: A process by which plants or algae use light energy to make chemical energy.
Q: Chloroplast
Answer: The specialized organelles in plants responsible for photosynthesis.
Q: Cytoplasm
Answer: A gel-like fluid of thousands of molecules suspended in water, outside the nucleus.
Q: Lysosome
Answer: A membrane-bound organelle that is responsible for the breakdown of cellular waste.
Q: Ribosome
Answer: The organelle in a cell where proteins are made.
Q: Cell wall
Answer: A specialized organelle surrounding the cells of plants, bacteria, and some fungi; gives support around the outer boundary of the cell.
Q: Cellulose
Answer: A structural polysaccharide that is found in plant cell walls.
Q: Plasma membrane
Answer: A specialized organelle of the cell that regulates the movement of materials into and out of the cell.
Q: Glucose
Answer: A 6-carbon sugar that is produced during photosynthetic reactions; usual form of carbohydrate used by animals, including humans.
Q: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Answer: A nucleotide that serves as an energy storing molecule.
Q: Chromosomes
Answer: The long strands of DNA intertwined with protein molecules.
Q: Enzyme
Answer: A protein that functions to speed up chemical reactions.
Q: Pigments
Answer: The molecules that are colored due to the reflection of light of specific wavelengths.
Q: Messenger RNA (mRNA)
Answer: A class of RNA molecules responsible for transferring genetic information from the chromosomes to ribosomes where proteins are made.
Q: Amino acids
Answer: The subunits of proteins; each contains a central carbon atom attached to an amino group, a carboxyl group, and a distinctive “R” group.
Q: Polypeptide
Answer: A strand of amino acids connected to each other through peptide bonds.
Q: Chinese hamster ovary (CHO) cells
Answer: An animal cell line commonly used in biotechnology studies.
Q: Vero cells
Answer: African green monkey kidney epithelial cells.
Q: HeLa cells
Answer: Human epithelial cells.
Q: Prokaryote
Answer: A cell that lacks membrane-bound organelles.
Q: Aerobic respiration
Answer: Utilizing oxygen to release the energy from sugar molecules.
Q: Anaerobic respiration
Answer: Releasing the energy from sugar molecules in the absence of oxygen.
Q: Macromolecule
Answer: A large molecule usually composed of smaller repeating units chained together.
Q: Organic
Answer: Molecules that contain carbon and are only produced in living things.
Q: Carbohydrates
Answer: One of the four classes of macromolecules; organic compounds consisting of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, generally in a 1:2:1 ratio.
Q: Cytoskeleton
Answer: A protein network in the cytoplasm that gives the cell structural support.
Q: Monomers
Answer: The repeating units that make up polymers.
Q: Polymer
Answer: A large molecule made up of many repeating subunits.
Q: Monosaccharide
Answer: The monomer unit that cells use to build polysaccharides; also known as a “single sugar” or “simple sugar.”
Q: Disaccharide
Answer: A polymer that consists of two sugar molecules.
Q: Polysaccharide
Answer: A long polymer composed of many simple sugar monomers (usually glucose or a variation of glucose).
Q: Fructose
Answer: A 6-carbon sugar found in high concentration in fruits; also called fruit sugar.
Q: Sucrose
Answer: A disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose; also called table sugar.
Q: Lactose
Answer: A disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose; also called milk sugar.
Q: Amylose
Answer: A plant starch with unbranched glucose chains.
Q: Amylopectin
Answer: A plant starch with branched glucose chains.
Q: Glyocogen
Answer: An animal starch with branched glucose chains.
Q: cellular respiration
Answer: The process by which cells break down glucose to create other energy molecules.
Q: hydrophobic
Answer: Repelled by water.
Q: triglycerides
Answer: A group of lipids that includes animal fats and plant oils.
Q: phospholipids
Answer: A class of lipids that are primarily found in membranes of the cell.
Q: hydrophilic
Answer: Having an attraction for water.
Q: steroids
Answer: A group of lipids whose functions include acting as hormones, venoms, and pigments.
Q: R group
Answer: The chemical side-group of an amino acid; in nature, there are 20 different R groups that are found on amino acids.
Q: ribonucleic acid
Answer: The macromolecule that functions in the conversion of genetic instructions (DNA) into proteins.
Q: nucleotides
Answer: The monomer subunits of nucleic acids.
Q: Airborne
Answer: Transported by air
Q: Asepsis
Answer: A condition free of pathogenic organisms
Q: Autoclave
Answer: An apparatus for sterilizing that uses superheated steam under pressure
Q: Bacteria
Answer: Unicellular organisms; disease causing agents
Q: Biohazardous
Answer: Any material that has been in contact with body fluids & is capable of transmitting disease
Q: Bloodborne
Answer: Capable of being transported in blood
Q: CLIA
Answer: Clinical laboratory improvement amendments
Q: Communicable
Answer: Able to be transmitted by contact
Q: Disinfection
Answer: The destruction of pathogenic microorganisms by direct exposure to chemicals or heat
Q: Droplet infection
Answer: An infection acquired by inhaling droplets of saliva or sputum containing viruses
Q: Fecal
Answer: Relation to feces(intestinal ways)
Q: Flora
Answer: Plant life adapted for living in a specific environment
Q: Fungi
Answer: Cellular organisms that subsist on organic matter
Q: Hygiene
Answer: The study of health and observance of health rules
Q: Incubation
Answer: The interval between exposure to infection and the appearance of the first symptom
Q: Invasive
Answer: Diagnostic and treatment procedures involving entry into living tissue
Q: Malaise
Answer: A feeling of discomfort or uneasiness
Q: Microorganism
Answer: A microscopic organism
Q: Nits
Answer: The eggs of a louse or other parasitic infection
Q: OSHA
Answer: Occupational Safety and Health Administrations
Q: Parasites
Answer: An organism that lives on another organism without rendering it any service in return
Q: Pathogens
Answer: Viruses and microorganisms that are capable or causing disease
Q: PPE
Answer: Personal protective equipment
Q: Pruritic
Answer: Itching
Q: Pustular
Answer: A small collection of pus on top layer of skin or beneath
Q: Rickettsiae
Answer: Any shaped bacteria intracellular parasites or arthropods
Q: Resuscitation
Answer: Revival from potential or apparent death
Q: Sanitization
Answer: Washing and scrubbing to remove contaminations
Q: Seizures
Answer: Sudden attacks of pain and disease
Q: Shelf Life
Answer: The length of time that a wrapped instrument will remain sterile after processing
Q: Standard Precaution
Answer: Guidelines for the prevention of infectious diseases
Q: Sterilization
Answer: The destruction of all microorganisms within a confined area
Q: Susceptible
Answer: Having little resistance to a disease or foreign protein
Q: Virulence
Answer: Disease-evoking power of a pathogen
Q: Virus
Answer: Microorganism capable of replicating within living cells
Q: Vulnerable
Answer: Liable to injury or hurt
Q: DNA
Answer: the molecule that carries genetic info in all cells
Q: double helix
Answer: the twisted-ladder shape of DNA
Q: antiparallel
Answer: (adj.) two lines that run parallel, but in opposite directions
Q: nucleic acid
Answer: any organic macromolecule which is made of nucleotides
Q: hydrogen bond
Answer: a type of bond which is very weak, but strong when there are many; holds together the two strands of DNA
Q: base
Answer: A, T, C, G are examples of these molecules which form the ‘rungs’ of the DNA ladder
Q: adenine
Answer: the base that always pairs with T
Q: thymine
Answer: the base that always pairs with adenine
Q: cytosine
Answer: the base that always pairs with guanine
Q: guanine
Answer: the base that always pairs with cytosine
Q: complementary
Answer: (adj) matching; pairing with
Q: uracil
Answer: the base which pairs with adenine in RNA
Q: polymerase
Answer: the enzyme which puts together nucleotides to make a nucleic acid polymer
Q: protein
Answer: An organic compound composed of one or chains of polypeptides which in turn are formed from amino acids
Q: amino acid
Answer: Building blocks of protein
Q: peptide bond
Answer: bond between amino acids
Q: substrate
Answer: The reactant on which an enzyme works.
Q: activation energy
Answer: Energy needed to get a reaction started
Q: catalyst
Answer: A substance that speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction.
Q: amino group
Answer: NH2
Q: carboxyl group
Answer: COOH
Q: functional group
Answer: an atom or group of atoms that is responsible for the specific properties of an organic compound (R)
Q: chemical reaction
Answer: (chemistry) a process in which one or more substances are changed into others
Q: active site
Answer: The location in the enzyme that substrate fits within.
Q: denatured
Answer: Change the shape of an enzyme so that it can no longer speed up a reaction.
Q: fertilization
Answer: process in sexual reproduction in which male and female reproductive cells (gametes) join to form a new cell
Q: trait
Answer: specific characteristics of an individual
Q: hybrid
Answer: offspring of crosses between parents with different traits
Q: gene
Answer: a factor that is passed from parent to offspring; sequence of DNA that codes for a protein and thus determines a trait
Q: allele
Answer: one of a number of different forms of a gene
Q: principle of dominance
Answer: Mendel’s second conclusion, which states that some alleles are dominant and others are recessive
Q: segregation
Answer: separation of alleles during formation of the gametes (sex cells)
Q: gamete
Answer: sex cell (i.e. sperm and egg)
Q: probability
Answer: likelihood that a particular event will occur
Q: homozygous
Answer: having two identical alleles for a particular gene
Q: heterozygous
Answer: having two different alleles for a particular gene
Q: phenotype
Answer: physical characteristics of an organism
Q: genotype
Answer: genetic makeup of an organism
Q: Punnett square
Answer: diagram that can be used to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of a genetic cross
Q: independent assortment
Answer: one of Mendel’s principles that states that genes for different traits can segregate independently during the formation of gametes
Q: incomplete dominance
Answer: situation in which one allele is not completely dominant over another allele; Ex. when Mirabilis flowers inherit a red and white gene and this is expressed as pink flowers.
Q: codominance
Answer: situation in which the phenotypes produced by both alleles are completely expressed; Ex. When a chicken has both black and white feathers expressed.
Q: multiple allele
Answer: a gene that has more than 2 alleles; Ex. the fur color of rabbits which has one gene with 4 alleles – wild type, Chinchilla, Himalayan, albino
Q: polygenic trait
Answer: trait controlled by two or more genes; Ex. eye color in humans
Q: homologous
Answer: term used to refer to chromosomes in which one set comes from the male parent and one set comes from the female parent
Q: diploid
Answer: term used to refer to a cell that contains two sets of homologous chromosomes
Q: haploid
Answer: term used to refer to a cell that contains only a single set of chromosomes or genes
Q: meiosis
Answer: process in which the number of chromosomes per cell is cut in half through the separation of homologous chromosomes in a diploid cell
Q: tetrad
Answer: structure containing four chromatids that forms during meiosis
Q: crossing-over
Answer: process in which homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their chromatids during meiosis
Q: zygote
Answer: fertilized egg, occurs when gametes (sperm and egg) combine
Q: base pairing
Answer: principle that bonds in DNA can form only between adenine (A) and thymine (T) and between guanine (G) and cytosine (C)
Q: replication
Answer: process of copying DNA prior to cell division
Q: DNA polymerase
Answer: the main enzyme involved in DNA replication (copying)
Q: RNA (ribonucleic acid)
Answer: single-stranded nucleic acid that contains the sugar ribose; involved in protein synthesis
Q: messenger RNA
Answer: type of RNA that carries copies of instructions for the creation of amino acids into proteins from DNA to the rest of the cell
Q: RNA polymerase
Answer: enzyme that links together the growing chain of RNA nucleotides during transcription using a DNA strand as a template
Q: genetic code
Answer: a collection of codons of mRNA in an organism, each of which directs the incorporation of a particular amino acid into a protein during protein synthesis
Q: codon
Answer: group of 3 nucleotide bases in mRNA that specify a particular amino acid to be built into a protein
Q: gene expression
Answer: process by which a gene produces its product and the product carries out its function
Q: mutation
Answer: change in the genetic material of a cell
Q: mutagen
Answer: chemical or physical agents in the environment that interact with DNA and may cause a mutation
Q: polyploidy
Answer: condition in which an organism has extra sets of chromosomes
Q: genome
Answer: entire set of genetic information that an organism carries in its DNA
Q: karyotype
Answer: micrograph (small picture) of the complete diploid set of chromosomes grouped together in pairs, arranged in order of decreasing size
Q: sex chromosome
Answer: one of two chromosomes that determines an individual’s sex (usually X or Y)
Q: autosome
Answer: chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
Q: sex-linked gene
Answer: gene located on a sex chromosome (X or Y)
Q: pedigree
Answer: chart that shows the presence or absence of a trait according to the relationships within a family across several generations
Q: nondisjunction
Answer: error in meiosis in which the homologous chromosomes fail to separate properly; cause cause fewer or more chromosomes than normal, causing genetic disorders or death
Q: restriction enzyme
Answer: enzyme that cuts DNA into pieces at a sequence of nucleotides
Q: gel electrophoresis
Answer: procedure used to separate and analyze DNA fragments by placing a mixture of DNA fragments at one end of a porous gel and applying an electrical voltage to the gel
Q: selective breeding
Answer: method of breeding that allows only those organisms with desired characteristics to produce the next generation; ex.) creating various breeds of dogs, wild mustard plant into broccoli, cauliflower, etc.
Q: hybridization
Answer: breeding technique that involves crossing dissimilar individuals to bring together the best traits of both organisms; ex.) donkey mating with horse
Q: inbreeding
Answer: continued breeding of individuals with similar characteristics to maintain the same characteristics of a kind of organism
Q: recombinant DNA
Answer: DNA produced by combining DNA from different sources
Q: plasmid
Answer: small, circular piece of DNA located in the cytoplasm of many bacteria
Q: genetic marker
Answer: alleles/genes that produce detectable phenotypic differences useful in genetic analysis; used to tell which bacteria or other organism carries recombinant DNA
Q: clone
Answer: a genetically identical copy of another organism created from the DNA of a donor organism; member of a population of genetically identical cells produced from a single cell
Q: gene therapy
Answer: process of changing a gene to treat a medical disease or disorder. An absent or faulty gene is replaced by a normal working gene.
Q: DNA fingerprinting
Answer: tool used by biologists that analyzes an individual’s unique collection of DNA restriction fragments; used to determine whether two samples of genetic material are from the same person
Q: electrocardiogram
Answer: printout of the electrical activity of a patients heart
Q: echochardiogram
Answer: image of the heart made by using sound waves.
Q: CT scan
Answer: shows cross sections of the body
Q: Chromosome
Answer: a chain of DNA that is found in the nucleus of cells
Q: A-T and C-G
Answer: base pairs in DNA
Q: bioinformatics
Answer: the science of managing and analyzing biological data using advanced computers. Especially important in analyzing genomic research data
Q: cell
Answer: the basic unit of any living organism that carries on the biochemical processes of life
Q: forensics
Answer: The use of DNA for indentification
Q: genetic map
Answer: a map of the relative positions of genes on a chromosome
Q: nucleus
Answer: the cellular organelle that contains most of the genetic material
Q: nucleotide
Answer: in a nucleic-acid chain, a subunit that consists of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base
Q: deoxyribose
Answer: a five-carbon sugar that is a component of DNA nucleotides
Q: nitrogenous base
Answer: an organic base that contains nitrogen, such as a purine or pyrimidine; a subunit of a nucleotide in DNA and RNA
Q: purine
Answer: a nitrogenous base that has a double-ring structure; one of the two general categories of nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA; either adenine or guanine
Q: pyrimidine
Answer: a nitrogenous base that has a single-ring structure; one of the two general categories of nitrogenous bases found in DNA and RNA; thymine, cytosine, or uracil
Q: base pairing rules
Answer: the rules stating that in DNA cytosine pairs with guanine and adenine pairs with thymine and that in RNA cytosine pairs with guanine and adenine pairs with uracil
Q: complementary base pair
Answer: the nucleotide bases in one strand of DNA or RNA that are paired with those of another strand; adenine pairs with thymine or uracil, and guanine pairs with cytosine
Q: base sequence
Answer: the order of nitrogenous bases on a DNA chain
Q: DNA replication
Answer: the process of making a copy of DNA
Q: helicase
Answer: an enzyme that separates DNA strands
Q: replication fork
Answer: a Y-shaped point that results when the two strands of a DNA double helix separate so that the DNA molecule can be replicated
Q: semi-conservative replication
Answer: in each new DNA double helix, one strand is from the original molecule, and one strand is new
Q: RNA
Answer: a natural polymer that is present in all living cells and that plays a role in protein synthesis; ribonucleic acid
Q: transcription
Answer: the process of forming a nucleic acid by using another molecule as a template; particularly the process of synthesizing RNA by using one strand of a DNA molecule as a template
Q: translation
Answer: the portion of protein synthesis that takes place at ribosomes and that uses the codons in mRNA molecules to specify the sequence of amino acids in polypeptide chains
Q: protein synthesis
Answer: the formation of proteins by using information contained in DNA and carried by RNA
Q: ribose
Answer: a five-carbon sugar present in RNA
Q: mRNA
Answer: a single-stranded RNA molecule that encodes the information to make a protein
Q: rRNA
Answer: an organelle that contains most of the RNA in the cell and that is responsible for ribosome function; ribosomal RNA
Q: tRNA
Answer: transfers amino acids to the ribosome to make protein.
Q: promoter
Answer: a nucleotide sequence on a DNA molecule to which an RNA polymerase molecule binds, which initiates the transcription of a specific gene
Q: termination signal
Answer: a specific sequence of nucleotides that marks the end of a gene
Q: anticodon
Answer: a region of a tRNA molecule that consists of a sequence of three bases that is complementary to an mRNA codon
Q: Virulent
Answer: strain of bacteria
Q: transformation
Answer: transfer of genetic material from one cell to another cell or from one organism to another organism
Q: bacteriophage
Answer: viruses that infect bacteria
Q: 3 major renal functions
Answer: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion
Q: Glomerular filtration
Answer: pressure, negative charge and size of molecule
Q: Tubular reabsorption
Answer: active and passive transport, renal threshold
Q: Tubular secretion
Answer: elimination of waste, regulation of acid/ base balance
Q: Urea
Answer: 45% of plasma, primary test for renal function
Q: Uric Acid
Answer: 10% of plasma, secondary for assessing renal function
Q: Creatinine
Answer: 5% of plasma, primary test for renal function
Q: Creatine
Answer: 1-2% of plasma, not used to assess renal function
Q: Lesch nyhan disorder
Answer: Purine metabolism defect (orange sand)
Q: plasma
Answer: fluid portion of blood (No RBC, WBC, & platelets)
Q: serum
Answer: fluid portion of blood after clotting (No clotting factors)
Q: buffy coat
Answer: contains WBC & platelets
Q: HGB
Answer: hemoglobin
Q: MCV
Answer: mean corpuscular volume(measures size of RBC)
Q: MCH
Answer: mean corpuscular hemoglobin(measures weight of hemoglobin in average RBC)
Q: MCHC
Answer: mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration(measures amount of hemoglobin per average RBC)
Q: reticulocytes
Answer: immature RBC
Q: anisocytosis
Answer: variation in size of RBCnormal for cattle
Q: microcytic
Answer: cells smaller than normal
Q: macrocytic
Answer: cells larger than normal
Q: poikilocytosis
Answer: changes in RBC shape
Q: acanthocyte
Answer: multiple, irregular, club-shaped projections from cell surface
Q: crenated cells
Answer: numerous, rounded, evenly distributed projections from cell surface
Q: polychromasia
Answer: variation in color of RBCssuggests bone marrow response to anemia
Q: hypochromatic
Answer: increased area of central palloriron deficiency
Q: hyperchromatic
Answer: does not occur in RBCs
Q: rouleaux
Answer: groupings of RBCs that resemble stacked coins
Q: agglutination
Answer: clumping of RBCslife threatening
Q: eosinophils
Answer: -stain reddish-orange- control allergic or anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions
Q: basophils
Answer: -stain bluish-purple- nucleus is similar to monocytes
Q: neutrophils
Answer: have clear granules
Q: -phils
Answer: have segmented nuclei
Q: -cytes
Answer: have round or oval nuclei
Q: left shift
Answer: indicative of dz process, mature neutrophils are still present
Q: monocytes
Answer: -phagocytize cellular debris & large particles that neutrophils cannot handle- larger than lymphocyte or neutrophil
Q: lymphocytes
Answer: -nucleus dominates the cell so only a thin rim of light blue cytoplasm is visible surrounding the nucleus-present during periods of antigenic stimulation in all species
Q: bone marrow eval
Answer: performed when unexplainable results are present in CBC
Q: mechanical phase
Answer: trauma to vessel occurs
Q: chemical phase
Answer: platelets release chemicals that trigger the clotting cascade until clot is formed
Q: Eugenics:
Answer: Choosing the traits of unborn children
Q: Where do most biotechnologist work?
Answer: Private biotechnology companies