Prepare for the FAA Airframe mechanic written test with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers aircraft structures, hydraulic systems, electrical systems, and inspection procedures.
Q: C- detection.
Answer: 5 (9001) – Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of
Q: B- Cockpit and/or cabin.
Answer: 1 (8997) – In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?
Q: B- A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically
Answer: 2 (8998) – What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?
Q: A- water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and halogenated hydrocarbons
Answer: 3 (8999) – The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are
Q: B- Green.
Answer: 4 (9000) – When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?
Q: B- photoelectrical devices.
Answer: 6 (9002) – Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called
Q: B- installing a new indicating element.
Answer: 7 (9003) – A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by
Q: C- Thermocouple.
Answer: 8 (9004) – Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
Q: A- horn is nonmetallic.
Answer: 9 (9005) – A carbon dioxide (CO(2)) hand-held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the
Q: C- dry powder chemical.
Answer: 10 (9006) – The proper fire-extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is
Q: B- Photoelectric cell.
Answer: 11 (9007) – Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument?
Q: B- senses light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber
Answer: 12 (9008) – Light refraction smoke detectors are activated when the detector
Q: C- A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.
Answer: 13 (9009) – Why does the Fenwal fire-detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits?
Q: B- weighing the container and its contents.
Answer: 14 (9010) – A fire-extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by
Q: A- Brown.
Answer: 15 (9011) – What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines?
Q: C- dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections.
Answer: 16 (9012) – The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous-loop fire-detection systems is
Q: A- it generates a small current when heated.
Answer: 17 (9013) – A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because
Q: C- rate-of-temperature rise.
Answer: 18 (9014) – The thermocouple fire-warning system is activated by a
Q: A- parallel with each other and in series with the light.
Answer: 19 (9015) – When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in
Q: B- halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen
Answer: 20 (9016) – Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with
Q: B- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 21 (9017) – In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems,(1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted.(2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections.Regarding the above statements,
Q: B- A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line.
Answer: 22 (9018) – What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built-in fire-extinguisher system?
Q: B- parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights.
Answer: 23 (9019) – The thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal-switch type fire-detection (single-loop) system are heat-sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in
Q: C- 45 to 73°F.
Answer: 24 (9020) – (Refer to Figure 21.) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire-extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG. (Consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum pressure.)
Q: A- 215 to 302 PSIG.
Answer: 25 (9021) – (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the surrounding area temperature is 33°F. (Rounded to the nearest whole number.)
Q: B- Replace the extinguisher container.
Answer: 26 (9022) – On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed?
Q: C- yellow disk on the side of the fuselage.
Answer: 27 (9023) – In some fire-extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of a
Q: B- used only on the original discharge valve assembly.
Answer: 28 (9024) – If a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve, it should be
Q: C- 1, 2, 3, and 4.
Answer: 29 (9025) – Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system?1. Display ‘No Smoking’ placards2. Provide adequate fire-fighting equipment.3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease.4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.
Q: B- Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).
Answer: 30 (9026) – Which fire-extinguishing agent is considered to be the least toxic
Q: C- replacement of damaged sensing elements.
Answer: 31 (9027) – Maintenance of fire-detection systems includes the
Q: B- device for causing the fire-extinguishing agent to be released.
Answer: 32 (9028) – A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a
Q: A- remove all paint from the area to be covered by the deicer boot.
Answer: 1 (8969) – Prior to installation of a pneumatic surface-bonded type deicer boots, on the leading edge of the wing, you should
Q: C- 1, 2, 3, 5.
Answer: 2 (8970) – Which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield system?1. Autotransformer.2. Heat control relay.3. Heat control toggle switch.4. 24V dc power supply.5. Indicating light.
Q: A- Ammeter reading.
Answer: 3 (8971) – What is one check for proper operation of a pitot/static tube heater after replacement?
Q: C- Distributor valve.
Answer: 4 (8972) – What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system?
Q: A- Vane-type pump.
Answer: 5 (8973) – What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft?
Q: C- Suction relief valve.
Answer: 6 (8974) – Which of the following regulates the vacuum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is off?
Q: C- Soap and water.
Answer: 7 (8975) – What may be used to clean deicer boots?
Q: C- Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur.
Answer: 8 (8976) – Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti-ice system usually operated during flight?
Q: B- Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vacuum gauge.
Answer: 9 (8977) – Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system?
Q: A- Thermo-cycling switches.
Answer: 10 (8978) – What method is usually employed to control the temperature of an anti-icing system using surface combustion heaters?
Q: B- To sequence the deicer boots inflations symmetrically.
Answer: 11 (8979) – What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots?
Q: A- To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration.
Answer: 12 (8980) – What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system?
Q: A- Imbedded in the glass.
Answer: 13 (8981) – Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated windshields?
Q: B- compressor bleed air and aircraft electrical system.
Answer: 14 (8982) – Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing thermal anti-icing system are
Q: B- Thermistors.
Answer: 15 (8983) – What maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated windshield system?
Q: C- conductive coating.
Answer: 16 (8984) – Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the
Q: C- Distributor valve.
Answer: 17 (8985) – Which of the following connects vacuum to the deicer boots when the system is not in operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight?
Q: B- By breaking up ice formations.
Answer: 18 (8986) – How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations?
Q: A- Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to a minimum.
Answer: 19 (8987) – Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated?
Q: A- Alcohol spray and heated induction air.
Answer: 20 (8988) – Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?
Q: B- It will restrict visibility.
Answer: 21 (8989) – Why should a chemical rain repellant not be used on a dry windshield?
Q: B- An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface.
Answer: 22 (8990) – What is the principle characteristic of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system?
Q: A- Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol.
Answer: 23 (8991) – What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft surface?
Q: A- A brush or a squeegee.
Answer: 24 (8992) – Which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an aircraft?
Q: A- 2, 3, 5.
Answer: 25 (8993) – What are three methods of anti-icing aircraft windshields?1. Blanket-type heating system.2. An electric heating element in the windshield.3. Heated air circulating system.4. Hot water system.5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing fluid.6. Ribbon-type heating system.
Q: C- Carburetor ice.
Answer: 26 (8994) – What icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present?
Q: C- Hot air.
Answer: 27 (8995) – What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immobile because of ice?
Q: B- Thermistor.
Answer: 28 (8996) – What is used as a temperature-sensing element in an electrically heated windshield?
Q: sense the deceleration rate of every main landing gear wheel and release then reapply pressure at a slightly lower value when a skid is detected.
Answer: An antiskid system is designed to
Q: relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake
Answer: In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid control valve which
Q: an electrohydraulic system.
Answer: An antiskid system is
Q: a switch in the cockpit.
Answer: Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by
Q: Elevators, speed brake, flaps, and stabilizer trim.
Answer: A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition to throttle setting, monitors the position of which of the following?
Q: a thrust lever.
Answer: The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by
Q: only No. 1 is true.
Answer: 1) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and static air pressures surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight. 2) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pitot and cabin air pressures at any Regarding the above statements,moment of flight.
Q: is not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.
Answer: The angle-of-attack detector operates from differential pressure when the airstream
Q: both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 1) When an airplane is slowed below approximately 20 MPH, the antiskid system automatically deactivates to give the pilot full control of the brakes for maneuvering and parking. 2) An antiskid system consists basically of three components; wheel speed sensors, control box, and Regarding the above statements,control valves.
Q: an electrical sensor
Answer: In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by
Q: – Normal skid control.- Fail safe protection- Locked wheel skid control- Touchdown protection
Answer: Which of the following functions does a skid control system perform?
Q: When wheel rotation deceleration indicates an impending skid.
Answer: At what point in the landing operation does normal skid control perform its function?
Q: both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 1) An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid point. 2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system failure.Regarding the above statements,
Q: trim position.
Answer: When an airplane’s primary flight control surfaces are set for a particular phase of flight, such as landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface indicating system will show
Q: negative air pressure.
Answer: The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some light aircraft is activated by
Q: is imminent.
Answer: Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall
Q: extinguished.
Answer: (Refer to Figure 19.) What is the indication of the red landing gear position light under the following conditions?Aircraft on jacks.Landing gear in transit.Warning horn sounding
Q: Replace electrical wire No. 12
Answer: (Refer to Figure 19). Which repair should be made if the gear switch was placed in UP position and the gear does not retract?
Q: Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded.
Answer: Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to sound?
Q: Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches.
Answer: (Refer to Figure 20.) What will illuminate the amber indicator light?
Q: Any gear not down and locked, and one throttle retarded.
Answer: (Refer to Figure 20.) What is the minimum circumstance that will cause the landing gear warning horn to indicate an unsafe condition?
Q: On the main gear shock strut.
Answer: Where is the landing gear safety switch usually located?
Q: Ground safety switch.
Answer: What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut?
Q: Gear downlock microswitch
Answer: Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test?
Q: Red light for unsafe gear; green light for gear down; no light for gear up
Answer: Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications?
Q: sequence valves.
Answer: In most modern hydraulically actuated landing gear systems, the order of gear and fairing door operation is controlled by
Q: A horn or other aural device and a red warning light
Answer: What landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft?
Q: Antiskid system.
Answer: When a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut closes at liftoff, which system is deactivated?
Q: an electromagnet.
Answer: The rotor in an autosyn remote indicating system uses
Q: rotor.
Answer: The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn indicating system is the
Q: a permanent magnet.
Answer: The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating system uses
Q: control electrical units automatically
Answer: Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to
Q: – Indicates position of retractable landing gear.- Indicates cowl flaps or oil cooler door position.- Indicates fuel quantity.- Indicates position of wing flaps.
Answer: Which of the following are some uses for a DC-selsyn system?
Q: both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: (1) A DC-selsyn system is a widely used electrical method of indicating a remote mechanical movement or position.(2) A synchro-type indicating system is an electrical system used for transmitting information from one point to another.Regarding the above statements,
Q: Squat switch is open
Answer: In the air with the anti-skid armed, current cannot flow to the antiskid control box because landing gear?
Q: C-motor can be operated in either direction.
Answer: 8803. Some electric motors have two sets of fluid windings wound in opposite directions so that the
Q: C-a short armature.
Answer: 8804. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of
Q: C-Ring.
Answer: 8805. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type?
Q: A-High starting torque.
Answer: 8806. What is the principal advantage of the series-wound DC motor?
Q: A-depends on the load carried by the generator.
Answer: 8807. If a generator is equipped with a vibrator-type voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points remain open
Q: C-Low spring tension.
Answer: 8808. What is a cause of generator brush arcing?
Q: B-Frequency and voltage must both be equal.
Answer: 8809. What is required when operating two aircraft AC generators in parallel?
Q: C-high starting torque.
Answer: 8810. The starting current of a series-wound DC motor, in passing through both the field and armature windings, produces a
Q: B-Landing light retraction motor.
Answer: 8811. Which motor would be most likely to have an armature brake?
Q: A-interpoles.
Answer: 8812. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of
Q: A-strength of the magnetic field.
Answer: 8813. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
Q: B-field assembly.
Answer: 8814. The pole pieces or shoes used in a DC generator are a part of the
Q: B-Three.
Answer: 8815. How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field type for each revolution of the rotor?
Q: C-opposite the normal direction and through the shunt field in the normal direction.
Answer: 8816. If the reverse current cutout relay contact points fail to open after the generator output has dropped below battery potential, current will flow through the generator armature
Q: C-A friction brake is applied by a spring and released by a magnet.
Answer: 8817. How does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an electric motor armature operate?
Q: A-The brush pigtail.
Answer: 8818. In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes within the holder?
Q: C-more current at low RPM than at high RPM.
Answer: 8819. A series-wound DC electric motor will normally require
Q: A-to prevent circuit failure due to terminal disconnection.
Answer: 8820. The type of electric wire terminals used for most aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current carrying capabilities, are designed primarily
Q: C-individual strands will break easily after being nicked.
Answer: 8821. Aluminum wire must be stripped very carefully because
Q: B-changes alternating current produced in the armature into direct current as it is taken from the armature.
Answer: 8822. The commutator of generator
Q: C-rate of current used to charge the battery.
Answer: 8823. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the
Q: A-Reduce field strength.(Increase it)
Answer: 8824. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?
Q: A-place armature in a growler and connect a 110V test light on adjacent segments; light should light.
Answer: 8825. To test generator or motor armature windings for opens,
Q: B-Left side – red, right side – green, rear aft – white.
Answer: 8826. What is the color and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes?
Q: C-Equal to the width of the mica.
Answer: 8827. To what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a DC generator undercut?
Q: C-varying current flow to generator field coil.
Answer: 8828. A voltage regulator controls generator output by
Q: B-Series wound.
Answer: 8829. Which type of DC generator is not used as an airplane generator?
Q: A-Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit.
Answer: 8830. What is the most accurate type of frequency-measuring instrument?
Q: B-an integral fan.
Answer: 8831. During ground operation, aircraft generator cooling is usually accomplished by
Q: B-Changes alternating current into direct current.
Answer: 8832. What does a rectifier do?
Q: A-Megohmmeter.
Answer: 8833. What type of instrument is used for measuring very high values of resistance?
Q: C-disconnected from the circuit.
Answer: 8834. When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short circuit, it should be
Q: C-is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.
Answer: 8835. When handing a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it
Q: B-Excessive current draw from the battery.
Answer: 8836.Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery?
Q: C-The transformer will get hot in normal operation.
Answer: 8837. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?
Q: A-1, 2, 3, 7.
Answer: 8838. Which of the following are the major parts of a DC motor?1. Armature assembly.2. Field assembly.3. Brush assembly.4. Commutator.5. Pole piece.6. Rheostat.7. End frame.
Q: C-both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 8839.(1) There are three basic types of DC motors; series, shunt, and compound.(2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of relatively few turns of heavy wire, are connected in series with the armature winding.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A-crimping.
Answer: 8840. For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by
Q: A-2, 5, 6, 7.
Answer: 8841. Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire size to use for an aircraft installation?1. Mechanical strength.2. Allowable power loss.3. Ease of installation.4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure.5. Permissible voltage drop.6. Current carrying capability of the conductor.7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
Q: A-1, 3, 5.
Answer: 8842. When selecting hardware for attaching bonding connections to an aircraft structure, which of the following should be considered?1. Mechanical strength.2. Allowable power loss.3. Ease of installation.4. Permissible voltage drop.5. Amount of current to be carried.6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
Q: A-Staggered along the length of the bundle.
Answer: 8843. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle?
Q: A-Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle.
Answer: 8844. What is the minimum bend radius for an electrical wire bundle?
Q: A-1.
Answer: 8845. When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is
Q: B-military specifications.
Answer: 8846. AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically designed to meet
Q: A-crimping.
Answer: 8847. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by
Q: B-the ground side of a circuit.
Answer: 8848. The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on
Q: B-voltage output of the DC exciter.
Answer: 8849. The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by controlling the
Q: B-dusting the cable with powdered soapstone.
Answer: 8850. If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage to the cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by
Q: C-prevent development of radio frequency potentials.
Answer: 8851. Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object to the primary structure. One purpose of grounding is to
Q: B-Copper jumpers.
Answer: 8852. What is normally used to bond noncontinuous stainless steel aircraft components?
Q: C-ampares.
Answer: 8853. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in
Q: B-series with the light.
Answer: 8854. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected in
Q: A-guarded switch.
Answer: 8855. Circuits that must be operated only in an emergency of whose inadvertent activation could endanger a system frequency employ
Q: C-parallel to each other and in series with the switch.
Answer: 8856. If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the lights are most likely connected
Q: B-a shorting hazard.
Answer: 8857. Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or steel electrical junction bowes is considered to be
Q: A-be limited as to the number of cables to minimize damage from a single electrical fault.
Answer: 8858. Electric wiring installed in aircraft without special enclosing means (open wiring) offers the advantages of ease of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight. When bonding open wiring, the bundles should
Q: B-the terminal studs are anchored against rotation.
Answer: 8859. During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that
Q: B-Mechanical.
Answer: 8860. What protection to wires and cables does conduit provide when used in aircraft installations?
Q: C-Located the bundle above flammable field lines and securely clamp to structure.
Answer: 8861. Which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring?
Q: C-backwards.
Answer: 8862. If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) terminal of the source voltage and the (-) terminal of the mete is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, the voltmeter will read
Q: A-input voltage must be maintained at a constant valve.
Answer: 8863. When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit resistance, the
Q: C-current rating with the contacts closed.
Answer: 8864. The nominal rating of electrical switches refers to continuous
Q: C-stainless steel.
Answer: 8865. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone are usually constructed of
Q: A-parallel.
Answer: 8866. To help minimize radio interference a capacitor will largely eliminate and provide a steady direct current if the capacitor is connected to the generator in
Q: A-current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.
Answer: 8867. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are
Q: C-single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two-position switch.
Answer: 8868. The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single circuit controlled by a single switch which has an ON position and an OFF position, with no additional positions possible. This switch is referred to as a
Q: C-fuses.
Answer: 8869. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of
Q: C-Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible.
Answer: 8870. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wiring?
Q: B-No. 6.
Answer: 8871. Which of the following copper electrical cable sizes should be selected to replace a No. 6 aluminum electrical cable?
Q: C-100.
Answer: 8872. In installations where the ammeter is in the generator or alternator lead, and the regulator system does not limit the maximum current that the generator or alternator can deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at what percent of the generator or alternator rating?
Q: B-When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable, it should be determined that the strength of the cable-to-terminal joint is at least equal o the tensile strength of the cable itself.
Answer: 8873. Which statement relating to electric wiring is true?
Q: A-resistance value.
Answer: 8874. Bonding connections should be tested for
Q: A-Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two-position normally open (NO).
Answer: 8875. What kind of switch should you install in a single wire circuit that required the switch to be manually held in the ON position?
Q: A-circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible.
Answer: 8876. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the
Q: B-In parallel with the load.
Answer: 8877. How should a voltmeter be connected?
Q: B-heavy power circuits.
Answer: 8878. A circuit protection device called a current limiter is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is designed to be used in
Q: B-use a special moisture-proof type.
Answer: 8879. If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should
Q: B-circuit breakers, fuses, and current limiters.
Answer: 8880. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are
Q: C-Pass through conduit.
Answer: 8881. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what protection should be given the wire?
Q: C-cross-sectional area.
Answer: 8882. In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related to its
Q: C-4V.
Answer: 8883. What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation?Use the formula VD = RLAVD = Voltage dropR = Resistance per ft = .00644L = Length of wireA = Amperes
Q: C-To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life.
Answer: 8884. What is the purpose of the selection of derated switches for known continuous load current applications?
Q: C-Resettable and reusable.
Answer: 8885. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when compared to a fuse?
Q: C-It will take overload for a short period.
Answer: 8886. What is the advantage of a circuit limiter?
Q: B-using a suitable grommet.
Answer: 8887. Where electric cables must pass through holes in bulkheads, formers ribs, firewalls, etc., the wires should be protected from chafing by
Q: A-should not be used as circuit protective devices.
Answer: 8888. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers
Q: A-circuits each pole can complete through the switch.
Answer: 8889. A certain switch is described as a single-pole, double-throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the number of
Q: B-current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.
Answer: 8890. When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which the selection of electric cable size should be based are
Q: C-Capacity matches the needs of the circuit.
Answer: 8891. What is an important factor in selecting aircraft fuses?
Q: B-wiring from too much current.
Answer: 8892. The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system protects the
Q: B-greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down.
Answer: 8893. One advantage of using AC electrical power in aircraft is
Q: C-To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
Answer: 8894. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?
Q: C-rectifiers which use the aircraft’s AC generators as a source of power.
Answer: 8895. Certain transport aircraft use AC electrical power for all normal operation and battery furnished DC electrical power for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that operate no DC generators, the batteries are kept charged by
Q: A-greater and the amperage less than in the primary.
Answer: 8896. The voltage in an AC transformer secondary that contains twice as many loos as the primary will be
Q: B-residual voltage.
Answer: 8897. If the positive field lead between a generator and a generator control panel breaks and is shorted while the engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator out-put would indicate
Q: A-Flash the fields.
Answer: 8898. What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism?
Q: C-by means of a transformer.
Answer: 8899. The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and voltage can easily be increased or decreased
Q: A-Install a switch independent of the position light switch.
Answer: 8900. Which of the following must be accomplished when installing an anti collision light?
Q: C-DC stator field current.
Answer: 8901. The inductor-type inverter output voltage is controlled by the
Q: C-show very low resistance if it is a series field coil.
Answer: 8902. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should
Q: B-The number of turns of wire in the coil and the amount of current (amperes) passing through the coil.
Answer: 8903. The strength of the core of an electromagnet depends upon the material from it is constructed and which of the following?
Q: C-resistance of the generator field circuit.
Answer: 8904. A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by changing the
Q: A-opening the shunt field circuit.
Answer: 8905. The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when excessive voltage is present by
Q: C-increasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high generator until they are equal.
Answer: 8906. When DC generators are operated in parallel to supply power for a single load, their controls include an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. The equalizer circuit operates by
Q: B-Two minute.
Answer: 8907. What is the maximum amount of time a circuit can be in operation and still be an intermittent duty circuit?
Q: A-current flowing through the shunt field coils.
Answer: 8908. The most common method of regulating the voltage output of a compound DC generator is to vary the
Q: C-3.
Answer: 8909. (Refer to Figure 18.) Which of the batteries are connected together incorrectly?
Q: C-Short in the up limit switch.
Answer: 8910. (Refer to Figure 19.) Upon completion of the landing gear extension cycle, the green light illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is the probable cause?
Q: A-an out-of-adjustment voltage regulator.
Answer: 8911. If any one generator in a 24-volt DC system shows low voltage, the most likely cause is
Q: B-Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
Answer: 8912. How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed?
Q: A-use of an oscillator.
Answer: 8912-2. Static inverters are electronic devices that change DC to AC with the
Q: A-a stepdown transformer and a rectifier.
Answer: 8913. Aircraft which operate only AC generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery charging through the use of
Q: C-the anti collision light can be operated independently of the position lights.
Answer: 8914. During inspection of an anti collision light installation for condition and proper operation, it should be determined that
Q: A-the equipment manufacturer.
Answer: 8915. Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, contractors, and inverters are best accomplished outside the airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by
Q: B-an inverter.
Answer: 8916. A battery-generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring alternating current from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to have
Q: A-an electrically operated switch.
Answer: 8917. An aircraft electrical circuit control relay is
Q: C-alternating current to direct current.
Answer: 8918. The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to change
Q: A-Primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary.
Answer: 8919. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a transformer designed to triple its input voltage?
Q: C-Real power equals apparent power.
Answer: 8920. In an AC circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true?
Q: B-Amperes at rated voltage.
Answer: 8921. How are generators rated?
Q: B-Both fields are shunted across the armature.
Answer: 8922. How is a shunt-wound DC generator connected?
Q: C-reduce eddy current losses.
Answer: 8923. The poles of generator are laminated to
Q: B-RPM.
Answer: 8924. What is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon?
Q: B-generator.
Answer: 8925. The generator rating is usually found stamped on the
Q: B-field shoes.
Answer: 8926. Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the
Q: C-the component has continuity and is not open.
Answer: 8927. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit component and some value of resistance is read,
Q: A-oil spray.
Answer: 8928. CSD driven generators are usually cooled by
Q: C-a variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor.
Answer: 8929. A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of
Q: C-a brushless system to produce current.
Answer: 8930. Integrated drive generators (IDG) employ a type of high output AC generator that utilizes
Q: B-remove and replace the IDG.
Answer: 8931. If the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) scavenge oil filter is contaminated with metal, you should
Q: A-a switch in the cockpit.
Answer: 8932. When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is usually accomplished by
Q: C-only on the ground by maintenance personnel.
Answer: 8933. A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a malfunction such as overtemperature, may be reconnected
Q: A- through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.
Answer: 1 (8698) – Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished
Q: A- lower landing weight.
Answer: 2 (8699) – The primary purpose of an aircraft’s fuel jettison system is to quickly achieve a
Q: A- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 3 (8700) – (1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow flight personnel to close the valve during any part of the jettisoning (2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must discharge clear of any part of the airplane.operation.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A- Two separate independent systems.
Answer: 4 (8701) – Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral stability when jettisoning fuel?
Q: B- Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25 and CAM 4b.
Answer: 5 (8702) – A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the requirements of fuel jettisoning?
Q: A- boost pumps.
Answer: 6 (8703) – Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems by
Q: B- dump limit valves or a low-level circuit.
Answer: 7 (8704) – Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by
Q: C- Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.
Answer: 8 (8705) – Which procedure must be followed when defueling aircraft with sweptback wings?
Q: B- Allow operation of engines from one tank.
Answer: 9 (8706) – (Refer to Figure 17.) What is the purpose of the pump crossfeed valve?
Q: C- provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load condition.
Answer: 10 (8707.1) – Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine aircraft
Q: A- To allow the feeding of any engine from any tank.
Answer: 11 (8708) – What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
Q: A- drain off static charges.
Answer: 12 (8709.1) – Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in order to
Q: C- 1, 2, 3, and 4.
Answer: 13 (8710.1) – A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold system allows how many of the following?1. All tanks can be serviced through a single connection.2. Any engine can be fed from any tank.3. All engines can be fed from all tanks simultaneously.4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of the fuel system.
Q: C- microbial contaminants.
Answer: 14 (8711) – The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in some problems not normally associated with aviation gasolines. One of these problems is
Q: C- Boost pumps.
Answer: 15 (8712) – What is used in many aircraft to prevent bubbles in the fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure is lower than fuel vapor pressure?
Q: B- Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.
Answer: 16 (8713) – Which of the following precautions is most important during refueling operations?
Q: A- The truck pump pressure must be correct for that refueling system.
Answer: 17 (8714) – Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling method, what important precaution should be observed?
Q: B- Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.
Answer: 18 (8715) – What flight safety-related advantage does a pressure fueling system provide?
Q: A- fuel control panel access door.
Answer: 19 (8716) – Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional procedures are normally placarded on the
Q: B- at least one single point connection.
Answer: 20 (8717) – Pressure fueling of aircraft is usually accomplished through
Q: C- Riveting and resealing.
Answer: 21 (8718) – Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks?
Q: C- By the pump’s design and internal clearances.
Answer: 22 (8719) – How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a submerged, single-speed, centrifugal-type fuel pump?
Q: A- To maintain atmospheric pressure.
Answer: 23 (8720) – What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent?
Q: A- pressurize the tank with air and brush with soapy water.
Answer: 24 (8721) – When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks, what procedure should be followed?
Q: C- Conduct the defueling and tank purging operation in an air-conditioned building.
Answer: 25 (8722) – If it is necessary to enter an aircraft’s fuel tank, which procedure should be avoided?
Q: C- Steam clean the tank interior.
Answer: 26 (8723) – What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel tank before welding?
Q: B- a part of the aircraft structure.
Answer: 27 (8724) – An aircraft’s integral fuel tank is
Q: B- Carbon dioxide.
Answer: 28 (8725) – Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?
Q: A- It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system.
Answer: 29 (8726) – Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system?
Q: C- compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
Answer: 30 (8727) – The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel pump is to
Q: A- slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
Answer: 31 (8728) – When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine RPM should
Q: C- Anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater.
Answer: 32 (8729) – Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a hazard because of its susceptibility to freezing as it passes through the filters. What are common methods of preventing this hazard?
Q: C- Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps, (in addition to running leaks) are considered flight hazards when located in unvented areas of the aircraft.
Answer: 33 (8730) – As a general rule, which statement is true regarding fuel leaks?
Q: C- clogged fuel nozzle.
Answer: 34 (8731) – The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate
Q: A- CO(2).
Answer: 35 (8732) – What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank before attempting repairs?
Q: B- 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
Answer: 36 (8733) – What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum tank after welded repairs?
Q: A- Place the valve in the OFF position, drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl.
Answer: 37 (8734) – What method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the aircraft?
Q: A- Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.
Answer: 38 (8735) – Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water contamination than aviation gasoline?
Q: C- 16 inches.
Answer: 39 (8736) – When installing a rigid fuel line, 1/2 inch in diameter, at what intervals should the line be supported?
Q: C- capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.
Answer: 40 (8737) – The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is essentially a
Q: A- It has no moving parts in the tank.
Answer: 41 (8738) – Which statement concerning an electronic capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system is true?
Q: B- Electronic.
Answer: 42 (8739) – What type of remote-reading fuel quantity indicating system has several probes installed in each fuel tank?
Q: A- Electronic.
Answer: 43 (8740) – Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system incorporates a signal amplifier?
Q: A- the amount of fuel in the tank.
Answer: 44 (8741) – A drip gauge may be used to measure
Q: A- an amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit.
Answer: 45 (8742) – The electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system consists of a bridge circuit,
Q: B- Capacitor.
Answer: 46 (8743) – A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating system?
Q: C- It measures by weight instead of volume.
Answer: 47 (8744) – Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system more accurate in measuring fuel level than a mechanical type?
Q: C- several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator.
Answer: 48 (8745) – One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that
Q: C- amount of fuel in all tanks.
Answer: 49 (8746.1) – A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the
Q: C- Fuel and air in the tank.
Answer: 50 (8747) – What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system?
Q: A- pounds.
Answer: 51 (8748) – A capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system measures fuel in
Q: A- 1, 2, 3, 4.
Answer: 52 (8749) – What are the four general types of fuel quantity gauges?1. Sight glass.2. Mechanical.3. Electrical.4. Electronic.5. Bourdon tube.6. Vane-type transmitter.7. Litmus indicator.8. Direct-reading static pressure type.
Q: A- Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.
Answer: 53 (8750) – How does temperature affect fuel weight?
Q: A- can be located any distance from the tank(s).
Answer: 54 (8751) – One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that the indicator
Q: A- varies with temperature change.
Answer: 55 (8752) – When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of gallons, the measurement will be more accurate because fuel volume
Q: A- float-operated transmitter installed in the tank.
Answer: 56 (8753) – An electrical-type fuel quantity indicating system consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a
Q: A- It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity indicator.
Answer: 57 (8754) – What is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter installed in a fuel tank?
Q: A- capacitor.
Answer: 58 (8755) – In an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system, the tank sensing unit is a
Q: C- Zero.
Answer: 59 (8756) – What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to read during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?
Q: B- Pressure-sensitive mechanism
Answer: 60 (8757) – What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel pressure warning limits?
Q: C- Engine bleed air to a heat exchanger.
Answer: 61 (8758) – Select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on turbine-powered aircraft.
Q: B- To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps.
Answer: 62 (8759) – What is the purpose of flapper-type check valves in integral fuel tanks?
Q: B- Pressure-sensitive mechanism.
Answer: 63 (8760) – What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure warning system?
Q: C- Fuel temperature indicator.
Answer: 64 (8761) – What method is used on turbine-powered aircraft to determine when the condition of the fuel is approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?
Q: A- Fuel pressure warning.
Answer: 65 (8762) – Which of the following would give the first positive indication that a change-over from one fuel tank to another is needed?
Q: C- the fuel pressure drops below specified limits.
Answer: 66 (8763) – A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close and warning light is turned on when
Q: B- Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal.
Answer: 67 (8764) – A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system serves what function?
Q: B- Fuel pressure line of the carburetor.
Answer: 68 (8765) – Where is fuel pressure taken for the pressure warning signal on most aircraft engines?
Q: A- The manufacturer’s maintenance manuals.
Answer: 69 (8766) – Which of the following is necessary to effectively troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system?
Q: C- A fuel system schematic.
Answer: 70 (8767) – Which of the following would be most useful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel system?
Q: A- a fuel pressure warning signal system.
Answer: 71 (8768) – In some aircraft with several fuel tanks, the possible danger of allowing the fuel supply in one tank to become exhausted before the selector valve is switched to another tank is prevented by the installation of
Q: A- only No. 1 is true.
Answer: 72 (8769) – (1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the engine fuel system from ice formation.(2) An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in the fuel screen.Regarding the above statements,
Q: C- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 73 (8770) – (1) Gas-turbine-engine fuel systems are very susceptible to the formation of ice in the fuel filters.(2) A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to warm the fuel.Regarding the above statements,
Q: B- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 74 (8771) – (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source of heat.Regarding the above statements,
Q: B- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 75 (8772) – (1) A fuel pressure gauge is a differential pressure indicator.(2) A fuel pressure gauge indicates the pressure of the fuel entering the carburetor.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A- only No. 1 is true.
Answer: 76 (8773) – (1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft positive-displacement fuel pump.(2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump.Regarding the above statements,
Q: B- place where water and dirt accumulations in the tank can collect and be drained.
Answer: 77 (8774) – The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a
Q: C- To reduce weight.
Answer: 78 (8775) – Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large aircraft?
Q: B- are still necessary due to the possibility of contamination from other sources.
Answer: 79 (8776) – If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank which is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or water, periodic checks of the aircraft’s fuel tank sumps and system strainers
Q: C- in the open air for good ventilation.
Answer: 80 (8777) – Aircraft defueling should be accomplished
Q: C- formed by the aircraft structure.
Answer: 81 (8778) – Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are
Q: A- The tank airspaces must be interconnected.
Answer: 82 (8779) – What precautions must be observed if a gravity-feed fuel system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine from more than one tank at a time?
Q: B- resist fuel surging within the fuel tank.
Answer: 83 (8780) – The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to
Q: C- The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
Answer: 84 (8781) – What minimum required markings must be placed on or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility category aircraft?
Q: B- Deteriorates rubber parts.
Answer: 85 (8782) – What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation fuels?
Q: A- to provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.
Answer: 86 (8783) – Fuel-boost pumps are operated
Q: C- act as check valves.
Answer: 87 (8784) – Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to
Q: B- To supply fuel under pressure to engine-driven pumps.
Answer: 88 (8785) – Why are centrifugal-type boost pumps used in fuel systems of aircraft operating at high altitude?
Q: C- To limit pressure differential between the tank and atmosphere.
Answer: 89 (8786) – Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks?
Q: A- The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
Answer: 90 (8787) – According to Part 23, what minimum required markings must be placed at or near each appropriate fuel filler cover for reciprocating engine-powered airplanes?
Q: C- observing the pressure gauge and operating the selector valves.
Answer: 91 (8788) – The location of leaks and defects within the internal portions of the fuel system can usually be determined by
Q: B- Sliding vane.
Answer: 92 (8789) – What type of fuel-booster pump requires a pressure relief valve?
Q: C- booster pumps.
Answer: 93 (8790) – To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude, some aircraft are equipped with
Q: B- in danger of forming ice crystals.
Answer: 94 (8791) – A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel tanks on some turbine-powered airplanes to tell when the fuel may be
Q: C- operating.
Answer: 95 (8792) – When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all valves located downstream of boost pumps with the pumps
Q: B- centrifugal-type pump.
Answer: 96 (8793) – The type of fuel-boost pump that separates air and vapor from the fuel before it enters the line to the carburetor is the
Q: A- only No. 1 is true.
Answer: 97 (8794) – (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks of an aircraft.(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more advantages to a pressure fueling system in light aircraft.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A- have at least one bend between such fittings.
Answer: 98 (8795) – When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted fittings the line should
Q: A- only No. 2 is true
Answer: 99 (8796) – (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel flow.(2) A measure of a gasoline’s tendency to vapor lock is obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A- 1, 2, 4.
Answer: 100 (8797) – Microbial growth is produced by various forms of microorganisms that live and multiply in the water interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could result if microbial growth exists in a jet fuel tank and is not corrected?1. Interference with fuel flow.2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators.3. Engine seizure.4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank.5. Lower grade rating of the fuel.6. Electrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank.
Q: A- lower than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline.
Answer: 101 (8798) – The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is
Q: A- Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
Answer: 102 (8799) – What can be done to eliminate or minimize the microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
Q: A- 7 PSI.
Answer: 103 (8800) – What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an aircraft fuel?
Q: A- engine oil.
Answer: 104 (8801) – If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an extended period of time, the inside of the tank should be coated with a film of
Q: A- By adding a knock inhibitor.
Answer: 105 (8802) – How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be improved?
Q: A- weight, aboard at takeoff.
Answer: 106 (8746.2) – A digital fuel totalizer automatically indicates the amount of fuel used, fuel remaining, current rate of consumption, and fuel
Q: A- Two.
Answer: 107 (8707.2) – How many vents, arranged so that they are not likely to become plugged at the same time, must be used in multiengine fuel systems?
Q: B- One fuel pump for each engine.
Answer: 108 (8709.2) – How many engine driven fuel pumps per engine are required for engines requiring fuel pumps?
Q: C- lightning.
Answer: 109 (8710.2) – A fuel system must be designed to prevent fuel-vapor ignition caused by
Q: A- One-half inch.
Answer: 110 (8710.3) – What is the minimum distance allowed between a fuel tank and the fire wall separating the engine?
Q: B- surging
Answer: 111 (8710.4) – Fuel baffles are installed in tanks to prevent ______________________ caused by changes in the altitude of the aircraft.
Q: A- flapper
Answer: 112 (8710.5) – Many fuel tanks incorporate _________________ valves to prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pump or tank outlet when the aircraft is in a high ‘G’ maneuver.
Q: B- ice crystals
Answer: 113 (8710.6) – Fuel heaters are used with fuel systems for turbine engines to prevent ____________ in the fuel from clogging system filters.
Q: C- Converts fluid pressure directly through a transmitter to the indicator.
Answer: 114 (8710.7) – A transducer in a fuel pressure system serves what function?
Q: To relieve the pilot of control of the aircraft during long periods of flight.
Answer: What is the primary purpose of an autopilot?
Q: Flight controller.
Answer: Which of the following provides manual maneuverability of the aircraft while the autopilot is engaged?
Q: Follow up signal.
Answer: In an autopilot, which signal nullifies the input signal to the ailerons?
Q: Sensing.
Answer: In which control element of an autopilot system is an attitude indicator?
Q: The relative motion between a gyro and its supporting system.
Answer: What is the operating principle of the sensing device used in an autopilot system?
Q: Normal operation.
Answer: What will occur if an aircraft attitude is changed by its autopilot system in order to correct for an error and the involved control surfaces are returned to streamline by the time the aircraft has reached its correct position?
Q: Servo.
Answer: What component of an autopilot system applies torque to the control surfaces of an aircraft?
Q: Move the control surface as commanded.
Answer: What is the main purpose of a servo in an autopilot system?
Q: Elevator.
Answer: Which channel of an autopilot detects changes in pitch attitude of an aircraft?
Q: Lateral.
Answer: The elevator channel of an autopilot controls the aircraft about which axis of rotation?
Q: Gyro.
Answer: What component is the sensing device in an electromechanical autopilot system?
Q: Three.
Answer: A fully integrated autopilot controls the aircraft around how many axes?
Q: Yaw damper system.
Answer: Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling oscillation that affects many sweptwing aircraft, is counteracted with
Q: only after the gyros come up to speed and the amplifier warms up.
Answer: When operationally checking an autopilot system on the ground after the aircraft’s main power has been switched on, the autopilot should be engaged?
Q: shock mounts.
Answer: Installed radio equipment is protected from damage due to jolts and vibration by?
Q: only No. 2 is true.
Answer: 1) Use solder to attach bonding jumpers on radio equipment.(2) Radio equipment is bonded to the aircraft in order to provide a low-impedance ground and to minimize radio interference from static electrical charges.Regarding the above statements
Q: When the aircraft is operated outside the U.S.
Answer: When must the radio station license be displayed in an aircraft equipped with a two-way radio?
Q: When flying or communicating within the United States.
Answer: When would a U.S. resident NOT be required to hold a Federal Communications Commission (FCC) Restricted Radio Telephone Operator Permit to operate two-way aircraft VHF radio equipment?
Q: sense and loop antennas.
Answer: Part of the ADF system used on aircraft includes?
Q: at 2-foot intervals.
Answer: When installing coaxial cable it should be secured firmly along its entire length?
Q: When the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour.
Answer: When must the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery be replaced (other than reading the replacement date)?
Q: 48 Hours.
Answer: An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery must be capable of furnishing power for signal transmission for at least
Q: as far aft as possible but forward of the empennage.
Answer: The preferred location of an ELT is?
Q: parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Answer: An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) is normally activated by an inertial switch or equivalent mechanism if subjected to a force of a prescribed intensity and duration. It must activate when the force is applied?
Q: By observing the battery replacement date marked on the outside of the transmitter.
Answer: How may the battery replacement date be verified for an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)?
Q: By tuning a communications receiver to the civil emergency frequency and activating the ELT momentarily within five minutes after the hour.
Answer: How may the operation of an installed emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be verified during aircraft inspection?
Q: low current levels.
Answer: Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the atmosphere at?
Q: airframe.
Answer: Aircraft antennae must be grounded to the
Q: both VOR navigation and ATC communications.
Answer: VHF radio signals are commonly used in?
Q: Flight management computer.
Answer: On modern large aircraft what electronic device typically monitors flight parameters and performs autopilot functions?
Q: landing gear and flap positions.
Answer: In the landing configuration GPWS typically monitors the radio (radar) altimeter; air data computer; instrument landing system; and?
Q: receive an interrogation signal from a ground station and automatically send a reply back.
Answer: In general the purpose of an aircraft transponder is to?
Q: so that loads imposed are transmitted to the aircraft structure.
Answer: When an antenna is installed it should be fastened?
Q: The loop must be calibrated.
Answer: After an automatic direction finding antenna has been installed.
Q: reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin.
Answer: Doublers are used when antennas are installed to?
Q: two ranges are close together.
Answer: One antenna can be used for the radio range and standard broadcast bands in light aircraft because the?
Q: Flutter and vibration.
Answer: What characteristics of the installation of a rigid antenna on a vertical stabilizer should be evaluated?
Q: to prevent the entry of moisture.
Answer: A gasket or sealant is used between the antenna mast and fuselage skin?
Q: top of the cabin with the apex of the V pointing forward.
Answer: The preferred location of a VOR antenna on light aircraft is on?
Q: align the airplane with the center of the runway.
Answer: The purpose of a localizer is to?
Q: 2.069 pounds.
Answer: (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of .125 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 225 MPH?
Q: 3.387 pounds.
Answer: (Refer to Figure 15.) What is the approximate drag load on an antenna with a frontal area of .137 square feet installed on an aircraft with a speed of 275 MPH?
Q: not be blanked out by the wing when the aircraft is banked.
Answer: A DME antenna should be installed on the aircraft in a position that will
Q: 10 times the diameter of the cable.
Answer: When bending coaxial cable the bend radius should be at least?
Q: centerline on the airplane.
Answer: When installing a DME antenna it should be aligned with the?
Q: 1
Answer: (8693)-(Refer to Figure 16.) Which of the antennas shown is a typical DME antenna?
Q: 2
Answer: (8694)(Refer to Figure 16.) Which of the antennas shown is a typical glideslope antenna?
Q: This is a loop and sense antenna.
Answer: (8694.1)-(Refer to Figure 22.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: A marker beacon receiver antenna.
Answer: (8694.10)-(Refer to Figure 31.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: A radar beacon transponder antenna.
Answer: (8694.11)-(Refer to Figure 32.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: A VOR/glide slope antenna
Answer: (8694.12)-Refer to Figure 33.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: A VOR/glide slope antenna.
Answer: (8694.13)-(Refer to Figure 34.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: This is an altitude encoder used with transponders.
Answer: (8694.2)-(Refer to Figure 23.) What is this antenna used for?
Q: A dipole antenna.
Answer: (8694.3)-(Refer to Figure 24.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: A canted antenna
Answer: (8694.4)-(Refer to Figure 25.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: Above the antenna.
Answer: (8694.5)-(Refer to Figure 26.) Where is the strongest signal for this antenna?
Q: A radar beacon transponder antenna.
Answer: (8694.6)-(Refer to Figure 27.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: An ELT antenna.
Answer: (8694.7)-(Refer to Figure 28.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: A VOR and localizer antenna.
Answer: (8694.8)-(Refer to Figure 29.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: A lightning detector system antenna.
Answer: (8694.9)-(Refer to Figure 30.) What kind of antenna is this?
Q: empty weight and useful load.
Answer: The addition of avionics and associated antenna systems forward of the CG limit will affect?
Q: 1 inch with the seat occupied and subjected to maximum downward seat spring deflection.
Answer: How much clearance from the seat bottom is required when installing radio equipment under a seat?
Q: assist the pilot in making a correct angle of descent to the runway.
Answer: The purpose of a glideslope system is to?
Q: low frequency, high-amplitude shocks
Answer: Instrument panel shock mounts absorb
Q: equipment is added that could effect compass deviation
Answer: An aircraft magnetic compass is swung to up-date the compass correction card when
Q: chromel/alumel thermocouples.
Answer: Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured by using
Q: Part 43, appendix E.
Answer: The requirements for testing and inspection of instrument static systems required by Section 91.411 are contained in
Q: dampen the oscillation of the float.
Answer: Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to
Q: Deviation
Answer: Which of the following causes of aircraft magnetic compass inaccuracies may be compensated for by mechanics?
Q: White
Answer: What marking color is used to indicate if a cover glass has slipped?
Q: – Vertical speed indicator- Altimeter
Answer: Which instruments are connected to an aircraft’s static pressure system only?
Q: Bourdon tube.
Answer: Which of the following operating mechanisms would be found in a hydraulic pressure gauge?
Q: digital signals.
Answer: Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are converted into
Q: electrically with wires.
Answer: A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro receiver
Q: The existing atmospheric pressure.
Answer: What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating?
Q: – Aircraft flight manual- Aircraft maintenance manual
Answer: Where may a person look for the information necessary to determine the required markings on an engine instrument?
Q: both roll and yaw
Answer: A turn coordinator instrument indicates
Q: – Attitude indicator.- Heading indicator.- Turn needle of the turn-and-slip indicator.
Answer: What is controlled by gyroscopes?
Q: Lubber line
Answer: What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass bowl of a magnetic compass called?
Q: The mechanic installing the instrument
Answer: When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked?
Q: A certificated repair station approved for that class instrument.
Answer: Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument?
Q: altimeter after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed equivalent altitude to be indicated.
Answer: Instrument static system leakage can be detected by observing the rate of change in indication of the
Q: altitude above ground level.
Answer: A radar altimeter indicates
Q: – Free air- Carburetor air- Coolant (engine)- Oil temperature
Answer: Resistance-type temperature indicators using Wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuits may be used to indicate the temperatures of which of the following?
Q: By an expanding-type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the instrument panel.
Answer: How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an instrument panel?
Q: only No. 1 is true.
Answer: 1) Aircraft instruments are color-coded to direct attention to operational ranges and limitations2) Aircraft instruments range markings are not specified by Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations but are standardized by aircraft manufacturers.Regarding the above statements,
Q: Bonding straps must be installed across the instrument mounts as a current path.
Answer: What must be done to an instrument panel that is supported by shock mounts?
Q: the specific aircraft maintenance or flight manual
Answer: Aircraft instrument value should be marked and graduated in accordance with
Q: provide current return paths.
Answer: An aircraft instrument panel is electrically bonded to the aircraft structure to
Q: receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display.
Answer: The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an EFIS is to
Q: – Altimeter
Answer: When an unpressurized aircraft’s static pressure system is leak checked to comply with the requirements of Section 91.411, what aircraft instrument may be used in lieu of a pitot-static system tester?
Q: 29.92″ Hg
Answer: A barometric altimeter indicates pressure altitude when the barometric scale is set at
Q: represent the nose of the aircraft.
Answer: The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to
Q: – Red line missing- Mounting screws loose- Case paint chipped- Leaking at line B nut
Answer: Which of the following instrument discrepancies could be corrected by an aviation mechanic?
Q: 100 feet in 1 minute.
Answer: The maximum altitude loss permitted during an unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure system integrity check is
Q: electrically
Answer: Fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data
Q: transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal.
Answer: A radar altimeter determines altitude by
Q: A blue radial line.
Answer: How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the best rate-of-climb speed (one engine inoperative)?
Q: allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation.
Answer: The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to
Q: not be altered and are designed for a specific installation.
Answer: Aircraft temperature thermocouple leads may
Q: pressure altitude.
Answer: When an aircraft altimeter is set at 29.92″ Hg on the ground, the altimeter will read
Q: display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments
Answer: The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to
Q: not perform repairs to aircraft instruments.
Answer: A certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings may
Q: 100-hour inspections of instruments.
Answer: A certificated mechanic may perform
Q: Install another instrument.
Answer: Which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum-operated instrument glass loose?
Q: Cylinder head temperature gauge, airspeed indicator.
Answer: Which of the following instruments will normally have range markings?
Q: Dry-type vacuum pumps with carbon vanes are very susceptible to damage from solid airborne particles and must take in only filtered air.
Answer: Which statement regarding an aircraft instrument vacuum system is true?
Q: – Case paint chipped
Answer: Which instrument condition is acceptable and would not require correction?
Q: minimum and/ or maximum safe operating limits.
Answer: The red radial lines on the face of an engine oil pressure gauge indicates
Q: The altimeter and airspeed indicator will both read low.
Answer: What will be the result if the instrument static pressure line becomes disconnected inside a pressurized cabin during cruising flight?
Q: – Pressure- Temperature
Answer: A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate
Q: design of the instrument case.
Answer: The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on the
Q: Deviation.
Answer: Which of the following will cause inaccuracies in a magnetic compass that may be compensated for by an aircraft mechanic?
Q: – Vertical speed indicator.- Altimeter.- Airspeed indicator.
Answer: Which instruments are connected to an aircraft’s pitot-static system?
Q: isolating portions of the line and testing each portion systematically starting at the instrument connections.
Answer: If a static pressure system check reveals excessive leakage, the leak(s) may be located by
Q: low-frequency, high-amplitude shocks.
Answer: Aircraft instrument panels are generally shock-mounted to absorb
Q: Iron or steel cases
Answer: Cases for electrically operated instruments are made of
Q: 10°.
Answer: The maximum deviation (during level flight) permitted in a compensated magnetic direction indicator installed on an aircraft certificated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23 is
Q: the desirable temperature range.
Answer: The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge indicates
Q: not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft.
Answer: The operation of an angle-of-attack indicating system is based on detection of differential pressure at a point where the airstream flows in a direction
Q: negative pressure.
Answer: When performing the static system leakage check required by Section 91.411, the technician utilizes
Q: that function is inoperative.
Answer: When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS are displayed on an HSI, the indication is
Q: – Case leaking- Glass cracked- Will not zero out- Fogged
Answer: Which of the following instrument discrepancies would require replacement of the instrument?
Q: Vacuum relief valve improperly adjusted.
Answer: Which condition would be most likely to cause excessive vacuum in a vacuum system?
Q: 29.92 Mb. (Millibars)
Answer: At sea level, when the average atmospheric pressure is 14.7 PSI, the barometric pressure is
Q: inspections and function checks on aircraft instruments.
Answer: A certificated mechanic with at least an airframe rating may perform
Q: A- Low or high pressure compressor
Answer: 1 (8497) – Which section of a turbine engine provides high pressure bleed air to an air cycle machine for pressurization and air-conditioning?
Q: A- Expansion turbine.
Answer: 2 (8498) – At which component in an air-cycle cooling system does air undergo a pressure and temperature drop?
Q: B- Ambient air.
Answer: 3 (8499) – In a freon vapor-cycle cooling system, where is cooling air obtained for the condenser?
Q: B- Carries heat to the places where needed.
Answer: 4 (8500) – What is ventilating air used for on a combustion heater?
Q: C- bleed air.
Answer: 5 (8501) – Turbine engine air used for air-conditioning and pressurization is generally called
Q: A- Either a combustion air relief valve or a differential pressure regulator.
Answer: 6(8502) – In the combustion heater, combustion air system, what prevents too much air from entering the heaters as air pressure increases?
Q: C- controlling the rate at which air leaves the cabin.
Answer: 7 (8503) – The cabin pressure of an aircraft in flight is maintained at the selected altitude by
Q: A- Cabin altitude.
Answer: 8 (8504) – What controls the operation of the cabin pressure regulator?
Q: A- a source of compressed air, heat exchangers, and a turbine.
Answer: 9 (8505) – The basic air-cycle cooling system consists of
Q: A- all positive pressure from the cabin.
Answer: 10 (8506) – The purpose of the dump valve in a pressurized aircraft is to relieve
Q: A- Compressor.
Answer: 11 (8507) – What component might possibly be damaged if liquid refrigerant is introduced into the low side of a vapor-cycle cooling system when the pressure is too high or the outside air temperature is too low?
Q: A- Air bubbles in the sight glass disappear.
Answer: 12 (8508) – How can it be determined that a vapor-cycle cooling system is charged with the proper amount of freon?
Q: A- Blockage in the system.
Answer: 13 (8509) – When charging a vapor-cycle cooling system after evacuation, the low-pressure gauge fails to come out of a vacuum. What is indicated?
Q: A- Expansion valve.
Answer: 14 (8510) – What component in a vapor-cycle cooling system would most likely be at fault if a system would not take a freon charge?
Q: C- inadequate airflow through the evaporator.
Answer: 15 (8511) – Frost or ice buildup on a vapor-cycle cooling system evaporator would most likely be caused by
Q: C- Pressure test with water.
Answer: 16 (8512) – What test is used to determine the serviceability of an oxygen cylinder?
Q: A- Every 5 years.
Answer: 17 (8513) – How often should standard weight high-pressure oxygen cylinders be hydrostatically tested?
Q: A- 24 years or 4,380 filling cycles.
Answer: 18 (8514) – To be eligible for recharging, a DOT 3HT oxygen cylinder must have been hydrostatically tested every three years and be retired from service after
Q: B- Continuous flow.
Answer: 19 (8515) – What type of oxygen system uses the rebreather bag-type mask?
Q: C- outflow valve.
Answer: 20 (8516) – The altitude controller maintains cabin altitude by modulation of the
Q: C- ram air cycle cooling unit.
Answer: 21 (8517) – Hot compressor bleed air operates the conditioned air system on some turbine aircraft, cold air supplied by the
Q: A- Chemical oxygen generator systems.
Answer: 22 (8518) – For use in pressurized aircraft, which is generally the least complicated and requires the least maintenance?
Q: A- moisture.
Answer: 23 (8519) – The main cause of contamination in gaseous oxygen systems is
Q: C- Expansion turbine.
Answer: 24 (8520) – Where does the last stage of cooling in an air-cycle air-conditioning system occur?
Q: A- condenser.
Answer: 25 (8521) – The point at which freon flowing through a vapor-cycle cooling system gives up heat and changes from a gas to a liquid is the
Q: B- evaporator.
Answer: 26 (8522) – The point at which freon flowing through a vapor-cycle cooling system absorbs heat and changes from a liquid to a gas is the
Q: B- By an automatic outflow valve that dumps all the pressure in excess of the amount for which it is set.
Answer: 27 (8523) – How is the cabin pressure of a pressurized aircraft usually controlled?
Q: A- Supplement physical inspections with periodic operational carbon monoxide detection tests.
Answer: 28 (8524) – Which is considered a good practice concerning the inspection of heating and exhaust systems of aircraft utilizing a jacket around the engine exhaust as a heat source?
Q: A- main landing gear operated switch.
Answer: 29 (8525) – On some cabin pressurization systems, pressurization on the ground is restricted by the
Q: A- outflow valve opening.
Answer: 30 (8526) – The cabin pressure control setting has a direct influence upon the
Q: B- lower the temperature of the cabin air.
Answer: 31 (8527) – The function of the evaporator in a freon cooling system is to
Q: A- Control the supply of hot, cool, and cold air.
Answer: 32 (8528) – What is the purpose of a mixing valve in a compressor bleed air air-conditioning system?
Q: B- Negative pressure relief valve.
Answer: 33 (8529) – What component of a pressurization system prevents the cabin altitude from becoming higher than airplane altitude?
Q: B- be operated for a period of time to reach a stable condition and then the freon level rechecked.
Answer: 34 (8530) – If the liquid level gauge in a vapor-cycle cooling system indicates a low freon charge, the system should
Q: B- outflow valve to close faster.
Answer: 35 (8531) – If the cabin rate of climb is too great, the control should be adjusted to cause the
Q: C- freon in the outlet of the evaporator.
Answer: 36 (8532) – The position of the thermostatic expansion valve in a vapor-cycle cooling system is determined by temperature and pressure of the
Q: A- transfer heat from the freon gas to ambient air.
Answer: 37 (8533) – The function of the condenser in a freon cooling system is to
Q: C- reduce the pressure of the liquid freon.
Answer: 38 (8534) – The function of an expansion valve in a freon cooling system is to act as a metering device and to
Q: C- Delivery air duct check valve.
Answer: 39 (8535) – Which prevents a sudden loss of pressurization in the event that there is a loss of the pressurization source?
Q: B- check oil and add as necessary, evacuate the system, and add freon.
Answer: 40 (8536) – When servicing an air-conditioning system that has lost all of its freon, it is necessary to
Q: B- maintain the desired cabin pressure.
Answer: 41 (8537) – The primary function of the cabin pressurization system outflow valve is to
Q: B- provide for augmentation of airflow in some areas of the aircraft.
Answer: 42 (8538) – One purpose of a jet pump in a pressurization and air-conditioning system is to
Q: A- all connections checked for leaks.
Answer: 43 (8539) – After cleaning or replacing the filtering element in a combustion heater fuel system, the system should be pressurized and
Q: A- alternately turns the fuel on and off, a process known as cycling.
Answer: 44 (8540) – The operation of an aircraft combustion heater is usually controlled by a thermostat circuit which
Q: C- extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.
Answer: 45 (8541) – The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by
Q: C- Evaporator coils.
Answer: 46 (8542) – (Refer to Figure 13.) Determine what unit is located immediately downstream of the expansion valve in a freon refrigeration system.
Q: C- low.
Answer: 47 (8543) – When checking a freon system, a steady stream of bubbles in the sight gauge indicates the charge is
Q: A- one complete series of events or operations that recur regularly.
Answer: 48 (8544) – An aircraft pressurization cycle is normally considered to be
Q: B- Difference between the ambient and internal air pressure.
Answer: 49 (8545) – Which best describes cabin differential pressure?
Q: C- 15 years or 10,000 filling cycles whichever occurs first.
Answer: 50 (8546) – Composite oxygen bottles that conform to DOT-E-8162 have a service life of
Q: B- differential, unpressurized, and isobaric.
Answer: 51 (8547) – The cabin pressurization modes of operation are
Q: C- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 52 (8548) – (1) Usually bleed air from a gas-turbine engine compressor can be safely used for cabin pressurization.(2) Independent cabin condition air machines (air cycle machine) can be powered by bleed air from an aircraft turbineengine, Regarding the above statements compressor.
Q: B- barometric pressure, cabin altitude, and cabin rate of change.
Answer: 53 (8549) – A pressurization controller uses
Q: A- Receiver-dryer.
Answer: 54 (8550) – What unit in a vapor-cycle cooling system serves as a reservoir for the refrigerant?
Q: C- High-pressure vapor.
Answer: 55 (8551) – What is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the condenser of a vapor-cycle cooling system?
Q: B- Low-pressure liquid.
Answer: 56 (8552) – What is the condition of the refrigerant as it enters the evaporator of a vapor-cycle cooling system?
Q: C- lowering the boiling point of the water and drawing out the vapor.
Answer: 57 (8553) – The evacuation of a vapor-cycle cooling system removes any water that may be present by
Q: B- Low-pressure vapor.
Answer: 58 (8554) – What is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the evaporator of a vapor-cycle cooling system?
Q: B- High-pressure liquid.
Answer: 59 (8555) – What is the condition of the refrigerant as it leaves the condenser of a vapor-cycle cooling system?
Q: C- Vertical with the outlet at the bottom.
Answer: 60 (8556) – In what position should the bottle be placed when adding liquid freon to a vapor-cycle cooling system?
Q: B- Prevent excessive loss of refrigerant oil.
Answer: 61 (8557) – When purging a freon air-conditioning system, it is important to release the charge at a slow rate. What is the reason for the slow-rate discharge?
Q: A- Oil seepage.
Answer: 62 (8558) – When a vapor-cycle cooling system is not in operation, what is an indication that the system is leaking freon?
Q: B- The expansion valve is not metering freon properly.
Answer: 63 (8559) – In an operating vapor-cycle cooling system, if the two lines connected to the expansion valve are essentially the same temperature, what does this indicate?
Q: C- cool the freon to prevent premature vaporization.
Answer: 64 (8560) – The purpose of a subcooler in a vapor-cycle cooling system is to
Q: B- only No. 2 is true.
Answer: 65 (8561) – (1) A small amount of water in a vapor-cycle cooling system can freeze in the receiver-dryer and stop the entire system operation.(2) Water in a vapor-cycle cooling system will react with refrigerant to form hydrochloric acid which is highly corrosive to the metal in the system.Regarding the above statements,
Q: C- changes to phosgene gas.
Answer: 66 (8562) – When Refrigerant-12 is passed over an open flame, it
Q: B- Special high grade refrigeration oil.
Answer: 67 (8563) – What type of oil is suitable for use in vapor-cycle cooling system?
Q: C- bubble tested with a special soap solution manufactured specifically for this purpose.
Answer: 68 (8564) – When an aircraft’s oxygen system has developed a leak, the lines and fittings should be
Q: C- moisture to collect in the bottle.
Answer: 69 (8565) – If oxygen bottle pressure is allowed to drop below a specified minimum, it may cause
Q: A- Calibrated orifice.
Answer: 70 (8566) – What controls the amount of oxygen delivered to a mask in a continuous-flow oxygen system?
Q: C- When the user breathes.
Answer: 71 (8567) – In the diluter demand oxygen regulator, when does the demand valve operate?
Q: B- aviation breathing oxygen has had all the water vapor removed.
Answer: 72 (8568) – The primary difference between aviation breathing oxygen and other types of commercially available compressed oxygen is that
Q: A- Pressure reducer valve.
Answer: 73 (8569) – What is used in some oxygen systems to change high cylinder pressure to low system pressure?
Q: B- Pressure relief valve.
Answer: 74 (8570) – In a high-pressure oxygen system, if the pressure reducer fails, what prevents high-pressure oxygen from entering the system downstream?
Q: C- green color and the words ‘AVIATOR’S BREATHING OXYGEN’ stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
Answer: 75 (8571) – High-pressure cylinders containing oxygen for aviation use can be identified by their
Q: A- 445 to 450 PSI.
Answer: 76 (8572) – (Refer to Figure 14.) One hour after an oxygen system was charged for a leakage check, the oxygen pressure gauge read 460 PSI at 63°F; 6 hours later the temperature was 51°F. (A 5 PSI change is the maximum allowable in a 6-hour period.) What pressure gauge readings would be acceptable to remain within the allowable limits?
Q: A- with the test date, DOT number and serial number stamped on the cylinder near the neck.
Answer: 77 (8573) – An aircraft oxygen bottle may be considered airworthy if it has been hydrostatically tested and identified
Q: A- Pressure relief valves.
Answer: 78 (8574) – In a gaseous oxygen system, which of the following are vented to blow out plugs in the fuselage skin?
Q: C- both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 79 (8575) – The purpose of pressurizing aircraft cabins is to(1) create the proper environment for prevention of hypoxia.(2) permit operation at high altitudes.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A- only No. 1 is true.
Answer: 80 (8576) – (1) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is at least 99.5 percent pure and is practically water free.(2) Oxygen used in aircraft systems is 99.5 percent pure and is hospital quality.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A- continuous-flow and pressure-demand types.
Answer: 81 (8577) – Oxygen systems in unpressurized aircraft are generally of the
Q: B- regulate airflow in relation to cabin altitude when in diluter demand position.
Answer: 82 (8578) – The purpose of the airflow metering aneroid assembly found in oxygen diluter demand regulators is to
Q: B- Department of Transportation.
Answer: 83 (8579) – If a high-pressure oxygen cylinder is to be installed in an airplane, it must meet the specifications of the
Q: A- hydrostatically tested within the proper time interval.
Answer: 84 (8580) – Before a high-pressure oxygen cylinder is serviced, it must be the correct type and have been
Q: A- oxygen.
Answer: 85 (8581) – A contaminated oxygen system is normally purged with
Q: B- Read the pressure gauge mounted on the cylinder.
Answer: 86 (8582) – How should you determine the amount of oxygen in a portable, high-pressure cylinder?
Q: C- Teflon tape.
Answer: 87 (8583) – What may be used as a lubricant on oxygen system tapered pipe thread connections?
Q: A- The green thermal expansion disk missing.
Answer: 88 (8584) – On transport category aircraft what might be an indication of an over pressure event of the aircraft oxygen system?
Q: A- 2 & 3.
Answer: 89 (8585) – Which of the following are characteristic of a chemical or solid state oxygen system?1. An adjustable oxygen release rate.2. A volume storage capacity about three times that of compressed oxygen.3. The system generators are inert below 400°F even under severe impact.4. A distribution and regulating system similar to gaseous oxygen systems.
Q: C- 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8.
Answer: 1 (8305) – Exposure to and/or storage near which of the following is considered harmful to aircraft tires?1. Low humidity.2. Fuel.3. Oil.4. Ozone.5. Helium.6. Electrical equipment.7. Hydraulic fluid.8. Solvents.
Q: C- The brakes would drag.
Answer: 2 (8306) – What would be the effect if the piston return spring broke in a brake master cylinder?
Q: B- withdrawing fluid from the system for the purpose of removing air that has entered the system.
Answer: 3 (8307) – In brake service work, the term ‘bleeding brakes’ is the process of
Q: A- various types of valves or orifices are used which restrict the reverse fluid flow.
Answer: 4 (8308) – To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock strut after initial compression resulting from landing impact,
Q: B- air in the brake hydraulic system.
Answer: 5 (8309) – A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a normal manner. The probable cause is
Q: A- An internal leak in the master cylinder.
Answer: 6 (8310) – Aside from an external leak in the line, what will cause parking brakes to continually bleed off pressure?
Q: A- To allow the tube to position itself correctly inside the tire.
Answer: 7 (8311) – Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers recommend that the tubes in newly installed tires be first inflated, fully deflated, and then reinflated to the correct pressure?
Q: B- retard the flow of oil as the struts are compressed.
Answer: 8 (8312) – The metering pins in oleo shock struts serve to
Q: C- make an operational check with the aircraft on jacks.
Answer: 9 (8313) – After performing maintenance on an aircraft’s landing gear system which may have affected the system’s operation, it is usually necessary to
Q: B- As a safety precaution in case the bolts that hold the wheel halves together have been damaged or weakened.
Answer: 10 (8314) – Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often recommend that the tires on split rim wheels be deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?
Q: B- By allowing the caliper to float to automatically equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
Answer: 11 (8315) – The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk between two opposite brake linings. How is equal pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured?
Q: C- Deteriorated flexible hoses.
Answer: 12 (8316) – If it is determined that spongy brake action is not caused by air in the brake system, what is the next most likely cause?
Q: C- Expander-tube type.
Answer: 13 (8317) – Many brake types can be adapted to operate mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not adaptable to mechanical operation?
Q: A- that are designed to work with lower pressure.
Answer: 14 (8318) – A brake debooster valve is installed in systems where the high pressure of the hydraulic system (3000 psi) is used to operate brakes
Q: A- slippage mark.
Answer: 15 (8319) – A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and extending onto the sidewall of a tube-type tire is a
Q: C- firm brake pedals.
Answer: 16 (8320) – When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the indications that the air has been purged from the system is
Q: C- wheel flange.
Answer: 17 (8321) – Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the
Q: C- reduce the pressure and release the brakes rapidly.
Answer: 18 (8322) – Debooster valves are used in brake systems primarily to
Q: B- inserting, removing, or changing the location of washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of the scissor torque links.
Answer: 19 (8323) – The repair for an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of main landing gear wheels determined not to be the result of bent or twisted components consists of
Q: C- An embossed letter ‘H.’
Answer: 20 (8324) – On an air valve core stem, what indicates high-pressure type?
Q: A- prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
Answer: 21 (8325) – The primary purpose for balancing aircraft wheel assemblies is to
Q: A- high landing speeds.
Answer: 22 (8326) – Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that have
Q: B- extend the landing gear if the normal operating mechanism fails.
Answer: 23 (8327) – On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear, some means must be provided to
Q: B- inlet of the steering damper.
Answer: 24 (8328) – An automatic damping action occurs at the steering damper if for any reason the flow of high-pressure fluid is removed from the
Q: C- Maintain correct wheel alignment.
Answer: 25 (8329) – What is the purpose of the torque links attached to the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
Q: C- preventive maintenance.
Answer: 26 (8330) – The removal, installation, and repair of landing gear tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate on an aircraft owned or operated is considered to be
Q: C- use power brake control valves.
Answer: 27 (8331) – Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to operate the brakes generally
Q: C- The restriction will cause slow release of the brakes.
Answer: 28 (8332) – What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a master cylinder will have on a brake system?
Q: B- the fluid being forced through a metered opening.
Answer: 29 (8333) – When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is used, the initial shock of landing is cushioned by
Q: C- the pedal to slowly creep down while pedal pressure is applied.
Answer: 30 (8334) – Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can cause
Q: B- limit the extension stroke.
Answer: 31 (8335) – A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a landing gear oleo shock strut to
Q: C- ensure operation of the landing gear and gear doors in the proper order.
Answer: 32 (8336) – The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic retractable landing gear system is to
Q: A- the main hydraulic system.
Answer: 33 (8337) – The pressure source for power brakes is
Q: B- Do not set parking brake when brakes are hot.
Answer: 34 (8338) – Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk type brake assemblies?
Q: C- A shuttle valve.
Answer: 35 (8339) – What type of valve is used in the brake actuating line to isolate the emergency brake system from the normal power brake control valve system?
Q: A- collapsed and fluid added at the filler opening.
Answer: 36 (8340) – When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-5606 the strut should be
Q: C- in the aircraft manufacturer’s service manual.
Answer: 37 (8341) – Instructions concerning the type of fluid and amount of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are found
Q: C- compensate for thermal expansion.
Answer: 38 (8342) – The purpose of a relief valve in a brake system is to
Q: B- at least once a week or more often.
Answer: 39 (8343) – Aircraft tire pressure should be checked
Q: A- toe-out.
Answer: 40 (8344) – If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing gear wheel assemblies intersects aft of the aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having
Q: A- Permits the fluid to flow toward or away from the reservoir as temperature changes.
Answer: 41 (8345) – What is the purpose of a compensating port or valve in a brake master cylinder of an independent brake system?
Q: A- low fluid.
Answer: 42 (8346) – If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon initial landing contact, but functions correctly during taxi, the most probable cause is
Q: B- Straightens the nosewheel.
Answer: 43 (8347) – What is the function of a cam incorporated in a nose gear shock strut?
Q: C- proper operating position of the strut.
Answer: 44 (8348) – Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to determine the
Q: C- reduce the pressure to the brake and increase the volume of fluid flow.
Answer: 45 (8349) – Debooster cylinders are used in brake systems primarily to
Q: C- strut should be removed, disassembled, and inspected.
Answer: 46 (8350) – If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly serviced, the
Q: C- an indefinite number of times.
Answer: 47 (8351) – A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body and bead may be recapped
Q: B- worn brake linings.
Answer: 48 (8352) – If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and single-disk brakes has excessive brake pedal travel, but the brakes are hard and effective, the probable cause is
Q: B- the aircraft service manual.
Answer: 49 (8353) – The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire can be obtained from
Q: C- Fluid level.
Answer: 50 (8354) – What should be checked when a shock strut bottoms during a landing?
Q: B- By noting whether the brake is firm or spongy.
Answer: 51 (8355) – How can it be determined that all air has been purged from a master cylinder brake system?
Q: A- foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder compensating port.
Answer: 52 (8356) – The left brake is dragging excessively on an airplane on which no recent brake service work has been performed. The most probable cause is
Q: B- between the brake control valve and the brake actuating cylinder.
Answer: 53 (8357) – If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake system, its position in the system will be
Q: C- used only with a specific type of fluid.
Answer: 54 (8358) – The hydraulic packing seals used in a landing gear shock strut are
Q: A- allow full debooster piston travel without fluid from the high pressure side entering the low pressure chamber.
Answer: 55 (8359) – Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure reducing valves that
Q: A- replaced.
Answer: 56 (8360) – When a properly operating fusible plug has allowed a tire to deflate, the tire should be
Q: C- deflect water away from the fuselage.
Answer: 57 (8361) – Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tires to help
Q: B- short ground rolls, slow taxi speeds, minimum braking, and proper tire inflation.
Answer: 58 (8362) – The best safeguards against heat buildup in aircraft tires are
Q: C- melt at a specified elevated temperature.
Answer: 59 (8363) – The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels will
Q: B- Correct the discrepancy and enter in the aircraft records.
Answer: 60 (8364) – What action, if any, should be taken when there is a difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure in tires mounted as duals?
Q: A- At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather).
Answer: 61 (8365) – How long should you wait after a flight before checking tire pressure?
Q: C- underinflation.
Answer: 62 (8366) – Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tire is an indication of
Q: C- overinflation.
Answer: 63 (8367) – Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an aircraft tire is an indication of
Q: C- ensure proper packing ring seating and removal of air bubbles.
Answer: 64 (8368) – When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid, care should be taken to extend and compress the strut completely at least two times to
Q: B- prevent oil from escaping.
Answer: 65 (8369) – In shock struts, chevron seals are used to
Q: C- releasing the air and seeing that the oil is to the level of the filler plug.
Answer: 66 (8370) – On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil shock strut is checked by
Q: B- lack of fluid in the brake system.
Answer: 67 (8371) – A pilot reports that the brake pedals have excessive travel. A probable cause is
Q: A- retarded and gear is not down and locked.
Answer: 68 (8372) – A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is
Q: C- split field series-wound motor.
Answer: 69 (8373) – An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing gear would most likely be a
Q: C- the direction of fluid pressure.
Answer: 70 (8374) – When installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal should face
Q: C- center the nosewheel before it enters the wheel well.
Answer: 71 (8375) – Nose gear centering cams are used in many retractable landing gear systems. The primary purpose of the centering device is to
Q: C- Pressure regulator.
Answer: 72 (8376) – What device in a hydraulic system with a constant-delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid when no demands are on the system?
Q: B- a source for additional hydraulic power when heavy demands are placed on the system.
Answer: 73 (8377) – A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides
Q: B- have all hydraulic power components located in one unit.
Answer: 74 (8378) – A hydraulic system referred to as a ‘power pack’ system will
Q: A- is used to ensure that the hose is installed without excessive twisting.
Answer: 75 (8379) – A hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8794 will have a yellow stripe running the length of the hose. This stripe
Q: A- a blue stripe or dot.
Answer: 76 (8380) – An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic system using MIL-H-5606 (mineral base) fluid will be marked with
Q: B- Inadequate supply of fluid.
Answer: 77 (8381) – What condition would most likely cause excessive fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the hydraulic pump is operating?
Q: C- micronic filter.
Answer: 78 (8382) – A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose paper is identified as a
Q: B- restrict flow in one direction and allow free flow in the other.
Answer: 79 (8383) – The purpose of an orifice check valve is to
Q: A- 24
Answer: 80 (8384) – (Refer to Figure 10.) The trunnion nut on an aircraft landing gear requires a torque of 320 inch-pounds. To reach the nut, a 2-inch straight adapter must be used on an 18-inch torque wrench. How many foot-pounds will be indicated on the torque wrench when the required torque of the nut is reached?
Q: C- 36.6.
Answer: 81 (8385) – A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-pounds are required?
Q: C. threaded section should be covered with a suitable sleeve.
Answer: 1. (8386)-To protect packing rings or seals from damage when it is necessary to install them over or inside threaded sections, the?
Q: A. O-ring seal.
Answer: 2. (8387)-To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is the?
Q: A. Check valve.
Answer: 3. (8388)-Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid flow in the other direction?
Q: C. Selector.
Answer: 4. (8389)-Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from the other end.
Q: C. Regulates the compressor inlet air to provide a stabilized source of air for the compressor.
Answer: 5. (8390)-What function does the absolute pressure regulator perform in the pneumatic power system?
Q: A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 6. (8391)-(1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems as damage-preventing units.(2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and pneumatic systems.Regarding the above statements,
Q: A. fluid flows through the valve in the OFF position.
Answer: 7. (8392)-One of the distinguishing characteristics of an open-center selector valve used in a hydraulic system is that?
Q: B. Packing materials made for ester base fluids.
Answer: 8. (8393)-What type of packings should be used in hydraulic components to be installed in a system containing Skydrol?
Q: C. as damage-preventing units.
Answer: 9. (8394)-Relief valves are used in pneumatic systems?
Q: C. a moisture separator.
Answer: 10. (8395)-An aircraft pneumatic system, which incorporates an engine-driven multistage reciprocating compressor, also requires?
Q: B. by operating the various hydraulic components through several cycles.
Answer: 11. (8396)-The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is generally accomplished?
Q: B. relief valves.
Answer: 12. (8397)-Pneumatic systems utilize?
Q: C. selector valve.
Answer: 13. (8398)-The component in the hydraulic system that is used to direct the flow of fluid is the?
Q: A. Four-port, closed-center valve.
Answer: 14. (8399)-What type of selector valve is one of the most commonly used in hydraulic systems to provide for simultaneous flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
Q: C. Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal between the moving and stationary part.
Answer: 15. (8400)-What is the purpose of using backup rings with O-rings in hydraulic systems above 1,500 PSI?
Q: A. maintain system operating pressure within a predetermined range and to unload the pump.
Answer: 16. (8401)-The purpose of the pressure regulator in a hydraulic system is to?
Q: B. packing.
Answer: 17. (8402)-A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a?
Q: C. 1, 2, 4.
Answer: 18. (8403)-Which characteristics apply to aircraft hydraulic systems?1. Minimum maintenance requirements.2. Lightweight.3. About 80 percent operating efficiency (20 percent loss due to fluid friction).4. Simple to inspect.
Q: B. may distort the flare.
Answer: 19. (8404)-If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening?
Q: C. enough bends to allow the tube to expand and contract with temperature changes and to absorb vibration.
Answer: 20. (8405)-The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be made with?
Q: C. backup ring on the side of the O-ring away from the pressure.
Answer: 21. (8406)-Extrusion of an O-ring seal is prevented in a high-pressure system by the use of a?
Q: B. There is no fire hazard if the motor is stalled.
Answer: 22. (8407)-What is one advantage of piston-type hydraulic motors over electric motors?
Q: A. relieve system pressure.
Answer: 23. (8408)-Generally, the first step in removing an accumulator from an aircraft is to?
Q: A. 1.
Answer: 24. (8409)-(Refer to Figure 11.) Which fitting is an AN flared-tube fitting?
Q: C. 1 and 3.
Answer: 25.(8410)-(Refer to Figure 12.) Which illustration(s) show(s) the correct spiral for teflon backup rings?
Q: A. mineral base oil.
Answer: 26. (8411)-If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the system is?
Q: B. viscosity.
Answer: 27. (8412)-The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing is called?
Q: C. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to prevent it from flowing.
Answer: 28. (8413)-What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?
Q: A. Flammable under normal conditions.
Answer: 29. (8414)-Which is a characteristic of petroleum base hydraulic fluid?
Q: C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 30. (8415)-(1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic systems, use the type fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer’s maintenance manual or on the instruction plate affixed to the reservoir or unit.(2) Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a specific color for each type of fluid.Regarding the above statements,
Q: C. Red.
Answer: 31. (8416)-Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?
Q: C. 2.
Answer: 32. (8417)-Which of the following is adversely affected by atmospheric humidity if left unprotected?1. MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid.2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid.3. None of the above.
Q: B. High flash point.
Answer: 33. (8418)-Which is a characteristic of synthetic base hydraulic fluid?
Q: C. All fluids readily transmit pressure.
Answer: 34. (8419)-Which statement about fluids is correct?
Q: A. mineral base, and phosphate ester base.
Answer: 35. (8420)-Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in civil aircraft are?
Q: C. Low viscosity, high flash point, high fire point.
Answer: 36. (8421)-Which of the following lists only desirable properties of a good hydraulic fluid that has chemical stability?
Q: C. light green color, phosphate ester base, fire resistant, butyl rubber seals.
Answer: 37. (8422)-Characteristics of MIL-H-8446 (Skydrol 500 A & B) hydraulic fluid are?
Q: A. Fluid manufacturer’s technical bulletins.
Answer: 38. (8423)-Where can information be obtained about the compatibility of fire-resistant hydraulic fluid with aircraft materials?
Q: C. red color, petroleum base, will burn, uses synthetic rubber seals.
Answer: 39. (8424)-Characteristics of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid are?
Q: C. blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural rubber seals.
Answer: 40. (8425)-Characteristics of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are?
Q: B. System will be contaminated, fluids will not blend, and the seals will fail.
Answer: 41. (8426)-If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base hydraulic fluid, but phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is used, what will be the effect on the system?
Q: B. Naphtha or varsol.
Answer: 42. (8427)-What is used to flush a system normally serviced with MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid?
Q: A. Stoddard solvent.
Answer: 43. (8428)-Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic fluid may be cleaned with?
Q: C. Consult the aircraft manufacturer’s service manual.
Answer: 44. (8429)-How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an airplane be determined?
Q: B. water in the atmosphere.
Answer: 45. (8430)-Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to contamination from?
Q: A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Answer: 46. (8431)-(1) Materials which are Skydrol compatible or resistant include most common aircraft metals and polyurethane and epoxy paints.(2) Skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and natural fibers.Regarding the above statements,
Q: B. shuttle valve.
Answer: 47. (8432)-The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid from either the normal source or an emergency source to an actuating cylinder is called a?
Q: B. Shuttle valve.
Answer: 48. (8432.1)-What is commonly used to connect an emergency source of power, and at the same time disconnect the normal hydraulic source from critical parts of a landing gear or wheel braking system for operation (usually when the normal source system fails)?
Q: B. fluid pressure into useful work.
Answer: 49. (8433)-The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to transform?
Q: A. prevent the flaps from being lowered at airspeeds which would impose excessive structural loads.
Answer: 50. (8434)-The primary function of the flap overload valve is to?
Q: A. an actuating cylinder.
Answer: 51. (8435)-A unit which transforms hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called?
Q: B. Units with the highest pressure settings are adjusted first.
Answer: 52. (8436)-If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating valves in a hydraulic system, what particular sequence, if any, should be followed?
Q: C. low accumulator air preload.
Answer: 53. (8437)-If an aircraft’s constant-pressure hydraulic system cycles more frequently than usual and no fluid leakage can be detected, the most probable cause is?
Q: B. relieve the pump pressure.
Answer: 54. (8438)-Unloading valves are used with many engine-driven hydraulic pumps to?
Q: C. Pump drive coupling shear section.
Answer: 55. (8439)-What safety device is usually located between the driving unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft??
Q: C. Thermal relief valve.
Answer: 56. (8440)-Which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have the highest pressure setting?
Q: B. Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.
Answer: 57. (8441)-Excluding lines, which components are required to make up a simple hydraulic system?
Q: C. contain a built-in means of system pressure regulation.
Answer: 58. (8442)-Most variable displacement aircraft hydraulic pumps in use?
Q: C. shear pin.
Answer: 59. (8443)-In a gear-type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety device incorporated to protect the pump from overload is the?
Q: C. hand pump outport check valve.
Answer: 60. (8444)-After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump, it is found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping direction (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an incorrectly installed?
Q: A. pounds per square inch.
Answer: 61. (8445)-Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area. Pressure is usually expressed in?
Q: C. equal amounts of force and will move at the same rate of speed.
Answer: 62. (8446)-If two actuating cylinders which have the same cross-sectional area but different lengths of stroke are connected to the same source of hydraulic pressure, they will exert?
Q: A. 100 PSI.
Answer: 63. (8447)-Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 PSI has been built up in a hydraulic system. The hand pump piston is 1 inch in diameter. A 1/2-inch line connects the hand pump to an actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the pressure in the line between the hand pump and the actuator?
Q: B. high pressures and high rates of fluid flow.
Answer: 64. (8448)-Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some aircraft hydraulic systems because of?
Q: B. If the time required to operate the mechanism decreases with successive operations, it indicates the air is being worked out of the system.
Answer: 65. (8449)-Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap operating mechanism which has just been installed?
Q: C. The fluid level in the reservoir is low.
Answer: 66. (8450)-A hydraulic system operational check during ground runup of an aircraft indicates that the wing flaps cannot be lowered using the main hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using the emergency hand pump. Which is the most likely cause?
Q: B. supply fluid to the auxiliary pump.
Answer: 67. (8451)-Many hydraulic reservoirs contain a small quantity of fluid which is not available to the main system pump. This fluid is retained to?
Q: B. sequence valve.
Answer: 68. (8452)-The unit which causes one hydraulic operation to follow another in a definite order is called a?
Q: C. relieve the pump of its load when no actuating units are being operated.
Answer: 69. (8453)-The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to?
Q: C. The hand pump outlet check valve is sticking open.
Answer: 70. (8454)-Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate which of the following?
Q: C. Orifice check valve.
Answer: 71. (8455)-What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system permits fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other direction?
Q: A. with the power control valve held in the CLOSED position.
Answer: 72. (8456)-The main system pressure relief valve in a simple hydraulic system equipped with a power control valve should be adjusted?
Q: B. 3,000 PSI.
Answer: 73. (8457)-A hydraulic accumulator is charged with an air preload of 1,000 PSI. When a hydraulic system pressure of 3,000 PSI is developed, the pressure on the air side of the accumulator will be?
Q: B. By physically separating the air chamber from the oil chamber with a flexible or movable separator.
Answer: 74. (8458)-How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented from entering the fluid system?
Q: C. the fluid side of the accumulator has been charged.
Answer: 75. (8459)-After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until?
Q: A. Eliminate the action of the unloading valve.
Answer: 76. (8460)-Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure regulator?
Q: C. Buna-N.
Answer: 77. (8461.1)-Which seals are used with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?
Q: B. Blue dot or stripe.
Answer: 78.(8461.2)-Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic fluid are identified by which color code?
Q: A. exhausted or dumped, usually overboard.
Answer: 79. (8462)-The air that is expended and no longer needed when an actuating unit is operated in a pneumatic system is?
Q: A. hydraulic fuse.
Answer: 80. (8463)-Some hydraulic systems incorporate a device which is designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an established rate. This device is generally referred to as a?
Q: A. A shear section on the main hydraulic pump drive shaft.
Answer: 81. (8464)-When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units fail to function properly, how are most systems protected against overpressure?
Q: A. hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain line.
Answer: 82. (8465)-A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be detected by?
Q: C. restriction in the pump outlet.
Answer: 83. (8466)-If an engine-driven hydraulic pump of the correct capacity fails to maintain normal system pressure during the operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable cause is?
Q: C. relieve the air pressure.
Answer: 84. (8467)-Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic reservoir, in order to service the system, you must?
Q: B. The output pressure reduces, but the volume remains the same.
Answer: 85. (8468)-What happens to the output of a constant-displacement hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the reservoir?
Q: C. 1, 2, 3.
Answer: 86. (8469)-Hydraulic system accumulators serve which of the following functions?1. Dampen pressure surges.2. Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond the pump’s capacity.3. Store power for limited operation of components if the pump is not operating.4. Ensure a continuous supply of fluid to the pump.
Q: C. that air is entering the pump.
Answer: 87. (8470)-Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an indication?
Q: C. quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into the system.
Answer: 88. (8471)-Quick-disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems provide a means of?
Q: B. Butyl rubber.
Answer: 89. (8472)-Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids?
Q: C. delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.
Answer: 90. (8473)-A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it?
Q: B. rotary motion.
Answer: 91. (8474)-A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to?
Q: C. landing gear system.
Answer: 92. (8475)-A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from one side of an actuating cylinder to the other side, under certain conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the?
Q: B. discarded at regular intervals and replaced with new filtering elements.
Answer: 93. (8476)-Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of porous paper are normally?
Q: C. leaking accumulator air valve.
Answer: 94. (8477)-A pilot reports that when the hydraulic pump is running, the pressure is normal. However, when the pump is stopped, no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of a?
Q: B. The fluid level will increase when system pressure is reduced.
Answer: 95. (8478)-If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, what will result?
Q: C. Air pressure regulator.
Answer: 96. (8479)-In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized with turbine-engine compressor bleed air, which unit reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir?
Q: B. Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation.
Answer: 97. (8480)-What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a hydraulic system?
Q: A. wide operating temperature.
Answer: 98. (8481)-One of the main advantages of skydrol is its?
Q: C. normal system power pump.
Answer: 99. (8482)-Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the?
Q: A. inlet of the main hydraulic system.
Answer: 100. (8483)-An emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the main hydraulic system reservoir by the use of a standpipe. The supply line is connected to the?
Q: A. reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the reading on the accumulator air gauge.
Answer: 101. (8484)-To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator?
Q: C. Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins as it goes toward zero.
Answer: 102. (8485)-How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system still has hydraulic pressure?
Q: B. Neoprene, Buna-N.
Answer: 103. (8486)-How many of these seals are used with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?
Q: B. higher pressure than the system relief valve.
Answer: 104. (8487)-Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at a?
Q: C. air in the system.
Answer: 105. (8488)-Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by?
Q: C. a ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.
Answer: 106 (8489)-If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of the accumulator is depressed, it is evidence of?
Q: C. 20.
Answer: 107. (8490)-Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible, they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube providing they are less than what percent of the tube diameter?
Q: B. no air pressure in the accumulator.
Answer: 108. (8491)-If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the engine-driven pump is running, but there is no pressure after the engine has been shut off, it indicates?
Q: A. control the rate of movement of hydraulically operated mechanisms.
Answer: 109. (8492)-The purpose of restrictors in hydraulic systems is to?
Q: C. internal leakage in the actuating unit.
Answer: 110. (8493)-A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic components is?
Q: C. too low or no preload in the accumulator.
Answer: 111. (8494)-A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an accumulator usually indicates?
Q: A. not be straightened or bent further.
Answer: 112. (8495)-Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from being exposed to high pressure or temperature should?
Q: C. malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.
Answer: 113. (8496)-In a typical high-pressure pneumatic system, if the moisture separator does not vent accumulated water when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a?
Q: aircraft owners & other interested persons of unsafe conditions and prescribes condition under which the product may continue to be orperated
Answer: AD’s are designed to notify the
Q: does not exceed 10 flight hours
Answer: An aircraft may be flown beyond the 100-hour inspection requirement to reach a place where the inspection can be accomplished, provided it
Q: maintenance instructions published by the aircraft and or equipment operator
Answer: When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary information should be obtained from
Q: 14 CFR Part 43
Answer: Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an aircraft after a 100 hour inspection or annual
Q: 14 cfr part 91
Answer: Where would you find the operating conditions that make a 100 hour inspection mandatory
Q: Mechanic may repair but IA has to approve
Answer: Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair
Q: An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defect and approve the aircraft for return to service.
Answer: Which statement is correct when an aircraft has not been approved for return to service after an annual inspection because of several items requiring minor repair?
Q: a&p
Answer: For an individual (not a repair station) to conduct a complete 100 hr inspection on an aircraft and approve it for return to sevice requires a mechanic with
Q: if a special flight permit has been issued
Answer: An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown
Q: 10hr
Answer: The maximum time a 100 hr inspection may be extended is
Q: Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded
Answer: Which statement about AD’s is true?
Q: by an IA
Answer: Radio equipment installations made in accordance with Supplemental Type Certificate data require approval for return to service
Q: in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Part 91
Answer: large airplanes and turbine powered multiengine airplanes operated under federal aviation regulation part 91 general operating and flight rules, must be inspected
Q: move toward the leading edge
Answer: As the angle of attack of an airfoil increases, the center of pressure will
Q: fowler flaps
Answer: what type of flap system increases the wing area and changes the wing chamber?
Q: span (length) and chord (width)
Answer: what physical factors are involved in the aspect ratio of airplane wings?
Q: cyclic pitch control
Answer: movement about the longitudinal axis (roll) in a helicopter is effected by movement of the
Q: directional stability
Answer: the purpose of the vertical fin is to provide
Q: the up travel is more than the down travel
Answer: differential control on an aileron system means that
Q: reduce stalling speed
Answer: the purpose of wing slats is to
Q: leading edge to trailing edge
Answer: the chord of a wing is measured from
Q: track
Answer: main rotor blades that do not cone by the same amount during rotation are said to be out of
Q: so that the airplane will have a nose-heavy tendency
Answer: an airplane’s center of lift is usually located aft of its center of gravity
Q: break usually occurs where cables pass over pulleys and through fairleads
Answer: where does the breakage of control cable wires occur most frequently?
Q: the safety wire ends are wrapped a minimum of four turns around the terminal end shanks .
Answer: when inspecting a control cable turnbuckle for proper installation, determine that
Q: rudder
Answer: an airplane is controlled directionally about its vertical axis by the
Q: torque direction is the opposite of rotor blade rotation
Answer: which statement is correct concerning torque effect on helicopters?
Q: cyclic pitch control
Answer: movement about the lateral axis (pitch) in a helicopter is effected by movement of the
Q: varying the pitch of the tail rotor blades
Answer: in a hovering helicopter equipped with a tail rotor, directional control is maintained by
Q: pulley misalignment
Answer: excessive wear on both of the sides of a control cable pully groove is evidence of
Q: both drag and lift will increase due to increased angle of attack
Answer: washing-in the left wing of a monoplane, for purpose of rigging corrections after flight test, will have what effect on the lift and drag of that wing?
Q: through the center of gravity at all times
Answer: in rotorcraft external-loading, the ideal location of the cargo release is where the line of action passes
Q: the full rated strength of the cable 100%
Answer: if all instructions issed by the swaging tool manufacturer are followed when swaging a cable terminal, the resultant swaged terminal strength should be
Q: pitch
Answer: an airplane which has good longitudinal stability should have a minimum tendency
Q: increasing the angle of incidence of the left wing, or decreasing the angle of incidence of the right wing, or both.
Answer: if a pilot reports that an airplane flies left wing heavy, this condition may be corrected by
Q: automatically disengage the rotor from the engine in case of an engine failure.
Answer: one purpose of the freewheeling unit required between the engine and the helicopter transmission is to
Q: 117 pounds minimum, 143 pounds maximum
Answer: when the outside air temperature is 80f select the acceptable 3/16 cable tension range
Q: assist the pilot in moving the control surfaces
Answer: the purpose of spring tabs or servo tabs is to
Q: using a dihedral board and bubble level along the front spar or each wing
Answer: the correct dihedral angle can be determined by
Q: 3
Answer: identify the cable that is used in primary control systems and in other places where operation over pulleys is frequent
Q: also increase
Answer: when the lift of an airfoil increases, the drag will
Q: front spar
Answer: the dihedral angle of a wing may be measured by placing a straightedge and level protractor on the
Q: lateral axis
Answer: improper rigging of the elevator trim tab system will affect the balance of the airplane about its
Q: bubble level and special fixtures describes by the manufacturer
Answer: proper wing twist in a sheet metal constructed wing can usually be checked by utilizing a
Q: relative position of the blades during rotation
Answer: the purpose in checking main rotor blade tracking is to determine the
Q: cotter pin
Answer: which is an acceptable safety device for a castle nut when installed on secondary structure
Q: worn attachment fittings
Answer: if control cables are adjusted properly and the control surfaces tend to vibrate, the probable cause is
Q: with the aileron in the neutral position
Answer: a universal propeller protractor used to measure the degrees of aileron travel should be zeroed
Q: retain a set tension
Answer: a tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all-metal aircraft is used primarily to
Q: it disengages the engine from the main rotor when engine RPM is less than rotor RPM
Answer: what is the purpose of the free-wheeling unit in a helicopter drive system?
Q: aileron
Answer: with which system is differential control associated?
Q: less than the retreating blade
Answer: if a single-rotor helicopter is in forward horizontal flight, the angle of attack of the advancing blade is
Q: a width measurement left or right of, and parallel to, the vertical centerline.
Answer: where is the buttocks line or buttline of an aircraft?
Q: use a terminal gauge to check the diameter of the swaged portion of the terminal
Answer: what nondestructive checking method is normally used to ensure that the correct amount of swaging has taken place when installing swaged-type terminals on aircraft control cable?
Q: decrease when the aircraft structure and cables become cold
Answer: the cable-operated control system of an all-metal aircraft, not incorporating a temperature compensating device, has been rigged to the correct tension in a heated hangar. If the aircraft is operated in very cold weather, the cable tension will
Q: corrosion resisting steel
Answer: when used in close proximity to magnetic compass, cotter pins are made of what material?
Q: aircraft service or maintenance manual
Answer: where would you find a precise information to perform a symmetry alignment check for a particular aircraft?
Q: the behavior of the trailing edge when the surface is suspended from its hinge points.
Answer: very often, repairs to a control surface require static rebalancing of the control surface. Generally, flight control balance condition may be determined by
Q: upward regardless of elevator position
Answer: movement of the cockpit control toward the nosedown position during a ground operational check of the elevator trim tab system will cause the trailing edge of the trim tab to move in which direction?
Q: lateral stability
Answer: stability about the axis which runs parallel to the line of flight is referred to as
Q: each aileron to have a greater up travel(from the streamlined position) than down travel
Answer: during inspection of the flight control system of an airplane equipped with differential-type aileron control, side-to-side movement of the control stick will
Q: down and the elevator will move up
Answer: if the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left, the right aileron will move
Q: to manufacturer’s specifications
Answer: after repairing or re-covering a rudder, the surface should be rebalanced
Q: degrees of flap travel
Answer: the universal propeller protractor can be used to measure
Q: minimum recommended torque plus friction drag torque
Answer: when installing a castle nut, start alignment with the cotter pin hole at the
Q: tilting the main rotor disk in the desired direction
Answer: a helicopter in forward flight, cruise configuration, changes direction by
Q: 3°
Answer: fairleads should never deflect the alignment of a cable more than
Q: nose into the wind
Answer: rigging and alignment checks should not be undertaken in the open. However, if this cannot be avoided, the aircraft should be positioned with the
Q: torque and directional control
Answer: the auxiliary (tail) rotor of a helicopter permits the pilot to compensate for and/or accomplish which of the following?
Q: longitudinal axis
Answer: wing dihedral, a rigging consideration on most airplanes of conventional design, contributes most stability of the airplane about its
Q: the threaded rod ends should be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the inspection hole provided.
Answer: which statement concerning the 100-hour inspection of an airplane equipped with a push-pull tube-type control system is true?
Q: install critical stress panels or plates
Answer: which should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?
Q: a line parallel to the wing chord and a line parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Answer: the angle of incidence is that acute angle formed by
Q: 137 inches aft of the zero or fixed reference line
Answer: where is fuselage station No. 137 located?
Q: collective pitch changes
Answer: the vertical flight of a helicopter is controlled by
Q: tail to pivot in the direction of torque rotation around the main rotor axis
Answer: a reduction in anti-torque thrust will cause the
Q: 1/8″
Answer: what is the smallest size capable that may be used in aircraft primary control systems?
Q: poor longitudinal stability
Answer: an airplane that has a tendency to gradually increase a pitching moment that had been set into motion has
Q: the vertical axis but not the longitudinal axis
Answer: if the vertical fin of a single engine, propeller-driven airplane is rigged properly, it will generally be parallel to
Q: stall the inboard portion of the wings first
Answer: the primary purpose of stall strips is to
Q: pulleys
Answer: how are changes in direction of a control cable accomplished?
Q: checked with go-no-go gauge before and after, to show compliance with the manufacturer’s requirements after the swaging operation
Answer: the vast majority of aircraft control cables are terminated with swaged terminals, that must be
Q: around or about the longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons
Answer: movement of an airplane along its lateral axis(roll) is also movement
Q: pilot can determine the relative position of the trim tab from the cockpit
Answer: aircraft flight control trim systems must be designed and installed so that the
Q: down and the elevator will move down
Answer: if the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved forward and to the far right, the left aileron will move
Q: does not change when in flight
Answer: the angle of incidence of an airplane at rest
Q: lateral axis
Answer: the elevators of a conventional airplane are used to provide rotation about the
Q: rejected
Answer: when a fiber or nylon insert-type, self-locking nut can be threaded on a bolt or stud through the insert with only the fingers, it should be
Q: aircraft type certificate data sheet
Answer: other than the manufacturer maintenance manual, what other document could be used to determine the primary flight control surface deflection for an imported aircraft that is reassembled after shipment?
Q: angle of attack
Answer: the acute angle formed by the chord line of a wing and the relative wind is known as the
Q: broken strands
Answer: placing a piece of cloth around a stainless steel control cable and running it back and forth over the length of the cable is generally a satisfactory method of inspecting for
Q: so that air currents do not destabilize the scales
Answer: why is it generally necessary to jack an aircraft indoors for weighing?
Q: an unsteady flow from turbulence
Answer: buffeting is the intermittent application of forces to a part of an airplane. It is caused by
Q: the airplane will be heavy on the controls
Answer: if the travel of an airplane’s control is correct but the cables are rigged exceptionally tight, what probable effect will this have when flying the airplane?
Q: airplane to be off balance both laterally, and directionally
Answer: if the right wing of a monoplane is improperly rigged to a greater angle of incidence than designated in the manufacturer’s specifications, it will cause
Q: A- prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle.
Answer: 1 (8179) – In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to
Q: C- Filler rod should be the same composition as base metal.
Answer: 2 (8180) – Which statement best describes magnesium welding?
Q: A- The welded section does not have the strength of the original metal.
Answer: 3 (8181) – Which statement is true in regard to welding heat-treated magnesium?
Q: B- neutral.
Answer: 4 (8182) – The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be
Q: A- To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film.
Answer: 5 (8183) – Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations?
Q: B- larger diameter tube with fishmouth and rosette welds.
Answer: 6 (8184) – Engine mount members should preferably be repaired by using a
Q: C- Welded patch plate.
Answer: 7 (8185) – What method of repair is recommended for a steel tube longeron dented at a cluster?
Q: A- not permitted.
Answer: 8 (8186) – Welding over brazed or soldered joints is
Q: A- Joints in electric wire to be soldered should be mechanically secure prior to soldering.
Answer: 9 (8187) – Which statement concerning soldering is correct?
Q: C- tinned.
Answer: 10 (8188) – A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has been
Q: C- 2
Answer: 11 (8189) – Which of the following can normally be welded without adversely affecting strength?1. Aircraft bolts.2. SAE 4130 chrome/molybdenum tubing.3. Spring steel struts.4. Most heat-treated steel/nickel alloy components.
Q: A- amount of heat applied to the work.
Answer: 12 (8190) – In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the
Q: B- It hardens the surface.
Answer: 13 (8191) – Why should a carburizing flame be avoided when welding steel?
Q: B- material compatibility.
Answer: 14 (8192) – The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is
Q: A- be neutral and soft.
Answer: 15 (8193) – The oxyacetylene flame used for aluminum welding should
Q: C- cool too rapidly.
Answer: 16 (8194) – A very thin and pointed tip on a soldering copper is undesirable because it will
Q: B- a way to bring about strength reduction in joint.
Answer: 17 (8195) – Filing or grinding a weld bead is considered to be
Q: A- dangerously unstable.
Answer: 18 (8196) – Acetylene at a line pressure above 15 PSI is
Q: C- contain acetone.
Answer: 19 (8197) – Cylinders used to transport and store acetylene
Q: A- a loose tip.
Answer: 20 (8198) – A welding torch backfire may be caused by
Q: A- The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere.
Answer: 21 (8199) – Which statement concerning a welding process is true?
Q: B- Painted on the surface to be welded and applied to the welding rod.
Answer: 22 (8200) – Where should the flux be applied when oxyacetylene welding aluminum?
Q: B- Minimizes or prevents oxidation.
Answer: 23 (8201) – What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminum?
Q: A- Reduces internal stresses and assures more complete penetration.
Answer: 24 (8202) – Why are aluminum plates 1/4 inch or more thick usually preheated before welding?
Q: A- Slightly carburizing.
Answer: 25 (8203) – How should a welding torch flame be adjusted to weld stainless steel?
Q: C- flux.
Answer: 26 (8204) – Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminum to use a
Q: B- size of the tip opening.
Answer: 27 (8205) – In gas welding, the amount of heat applied to the material being welded is controlled by the
Q: B- steel.
Answer: 28 (8206.1) – Oxygen and acetylene cylinders are made of
Q: B- the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
Answer: 29 (8207) – When a butt welded joint is visually inspected for penetration,
Q: C- removes stresses caused by forming.
Answer: 30 (8208) – Annealing of aluminum
Q: C- aids in getting full penetration of the metal and prevents local distortion.
Answer: 31 (8209) – Edge notching is generally recommended in butt welding above a certain thickness of aluminum because it
Q: B- the metal will absorb carbon and lose its resistance to corrosion.
Answer: 32 (8210) – If too much acetylene is used in the welding of stainless steel,
Q: C- helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon.
Answer: 33 (8211) – The shielding gases generally used in the Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding of aluminum consist of
Q: C- contain acetone.
Answer: 34 (8206.2) – High pressure cylinders used to transport and store acetylene must
Q: Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
Answer: What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft rivets?
Q: Radius, thickness, and degree of bend
Answer: The most important factors needed to makr a flat pattern layout are
Q: 140° and turn at a low speed
Answer: When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of
Q: 56
Answer: How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of rivets, minimum edge distance, and 4D spacing?
Q: Bend radius
Answer: A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The curvature of the bend is referred to as the
Q: Diameter of the rivets being used
Answer: A factor which determines the minimum space between rivets is the
Q: Warp
Answer: Composite fabric material is considered to be the strongest in what direction?
Q: Pot life
Answer: The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain in a workable state is called the
Q: 60:40
Answer: Which fiber to resin (percent) ratio for advanced composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the best for strength?
Q: Warp clock (or compass)
Answer: What reference tool is used to determine how fiber is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric?
Q: Zinc chloride will have no effect
Answer: Which is a identify characteristics of acrylic plastic?
Q: Three times the diameter of the rivet shank
Answer: What is rhe minimum spacing for a single row of rivets?
Q: A specially modified twist drill
Answer: What type of bit should be used to drill holes in Plexiglas?
Q: 13/16 inch
Answer: A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of 1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable overlap will be
Q: 5/16 inch
Answer: The length of rivets to be chosen when makinv a structural repair that involves the joining 0.032-inch and a 0.064-inch aluminum sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is
Q: By testing with a 10 precent solution of caustic soda
Answer: You can distinguish between aluminum and aluminum alloy by
Q: Neutral line
Answer: When bending metal, the material on the outside of the curve stretches while the material on the inside of the curve compresses. That part of the material which is not affected by either stress is the
Q: Inability to be over torqued
Answer: Which of the following is one advantage of Hi-Lok fasteners?
Q: A = .748 B = 1.496 C = 1.258
Answer: (Refer to Figure 6.) Determine the dimensions of A, B, and C in the flat layout.Setback = .252Bend allowance = .345
Q: Hundredths of an inch
Answer: The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is measured in
Q: By picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration that may be present.
Answer: How does acoustic emission testing detect defects in composite materials?
Q: They can be installed with ordinary hand tools
Answer: One of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type fasteners over earlier generations is that
Q: the layout should be made so that the bend will be 90° to the grain of the sheet
Answer: When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using a minimum radius for the type and thickness of material,
Q: MS20470AD-4-4
Answer: Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of .032-inch aluminum?
Q: Skin or covering
Answer: The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the strength of
Q: Number of locking collar grooves
Answer: A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt tension and shear fasteners ( other than their application) is in the
Q: one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake
Answer: The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked
Q: Greater than both steel and aluminum.
Answer: The coefficient of expansion of the most plastic enclosure materials is
Q: By the manufacturer and do not require heat treatment before being driven
Answer: Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
Q: 2 and 3
Answer: Which of the following, when added to wet resins, provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener holes in composite panels?1. Microballons2. Flox3. Chopped fibers
Q: Dimples
Answer: Most rivets used in aircraft construction have
Q: Inside radius of the metal being formed
Answer: Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the
Q: 6.8 inches
Answer: (Refer to figure 5) What is the flat layout dimension?
Q: Thermpoplastic
Answer: A category of plastic meterial that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a
Q: Fretting corrosion is occuring between the rivets and the skin
Answer: What is indicated by black ‘smoky’ residue streaming back from some of the rivets on an aircraft?
Q: 2,3, and 5
Answer: Which of the following are generally characteristic of carbon/graphite fiber composites?1.Flexibility2.Stiffness3.High compressive strength4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum.5. Abilitty to conduct electricity
Q: Covered with a thin coat of wax
Answer: If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces should be
Q: The orentation of the piles to the load direction
Answer: The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed composite buildip depends primarily on
Q: Sepration of the liminates
Answer: When inspecting a composite panel using the ring test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate
Q: 1
Answer: (Refer to Figure 2.) Select the preferred drawing for proper countersinking
Q: Rivet length
Answer: Which of the following need not be considered when determining minimum rivet spacing?
Q: Must be constructed of material such as titanium or corrosion resistant steel
Answer: Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite structures
Q: Lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill
Answer: When comparing the machining techniques for stainless stell sheet meterial to those for aluminum alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice drill the stainless stell at a
Q: Only after a period of age hardening
Answer: When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear strength is obtained
Q: May be repaired
Answer: Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a laminated sandwich structure
Q: 2
Answer: The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated by the number
Q: Attach parts or components with screws to sheet metal
Answer: Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to
Q: Has a high strength of weight ratio
Answer: Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb construction are used on modern aircraft because this type of construction
Q: 4.182
Answer: (Refer to Figure 6.) What is dimension D?Setback = .252Bend allowance = .345
Q: Subtracting the setback from both legs
Answer: On a sheet metal fitting layout with a signle bend, allow for stretching by
Q: Minimun radius bend
Answer: The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part is called the
Q: Must be reheated before use
Answer: Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are not driven within the prescribed time after heat treatment or removal from refrigeration
Q: Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
Answer: Which procedure is correct when a reamer to finish a drill hole to the correct size?
Q: The minimun edge distance for a single row is equal to that for multiple row
Answer: What is the minimum edge distance for the single distance allowed for aluminum alloy single lap sheet splices containing a single row of rivets as compared to a joint with multiple rows, all rivets being equal in diameter?
Q: Monel
Answer: Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?
Q: Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row.
Answer: Rivet pitch is the distance between the
Q: 2, 3, and 4
Answer: How many of the following are benefits of using microballons when making repairs to laminate honeycomb panels?1. Greater concenteration of resin in edge and corners.2. Improved strength to weight ratio.3. Less density4. Lower stress concentrations
Q: 1 inch diameter
Answer: A potted compound repair on honeycomb can usually be made on damages less than
Q: The shear strength of the rivited joint
Answer: When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin, the major consideration in the design of the path should be
Q: Shear
Answer: What type load cause the most rivet failures?
Q: Repairable, using approved methods
Answer: Aircraft structual units, such as spars, engine supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet metal , are normally
Q: Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the rivets
Answer: The identifying mask on the heads of aluminum alloy rivets indicate the
Q: 1
Answer: (Refer to Figure 1) Which of the rivets shown will accurately fit the conical depression made by a 100° countersink?
Q: Longerons and stingers
Answer: Which part(s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage prevent(s) tension and comparession from bending the fuselage?
Q: 3.7 inches
Answer: (Refer to Figure 5) What is the length of flat A?
Q: Ribbon direction
Answer: The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must line up with the adjacent original is the
Q: 90°
Answer: What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals?
Q: 3
Answer: (Refer to Figure 3) Which is the grip length of the flush rivet?
Q: To retard age hardening
Answer: What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024 aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
Q: 3.750 inches
Answer: (Refer to Figure 4) the length of flat A is
Q: Low strength characteristics
Answer: Under certain conditions, type A rivets are not used because of their
Q: 5/16 inch
Answer: A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet hole are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. the length of the rivets to be used will be
Q: 1/8 inch
Answer: The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal from which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 inch is to be depended upon the radius of the desired bend. The bracket which will require the greatest amount of material is one which has bend radius of
Q: Allow clearance for a sheet or extrusion
Answer: The purpose of a joggle is to
Q: Have a surface layers of pure aluminum or aluminum alloy bonded to the core material to inhibit corrosion
Answer: Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because they
Q: 1 and 2
Answer: Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites?1. High tensile strength2.Flexibility3.Stiffness4.Corrosive effect in contract with aluminum5.Ability to conduct electricity
Q: Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
Answer: The general rule for finding the proper rivet diameter is
Q: Center of rivets in adjacent rows
Answer: Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance between the
Q: An unairworthy repair
Answer: Repairing advanced composites using materials and techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is likely to result in
Q: 100 times the thickness of the metal
Answer: When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the doubler should be tapered to
Q: use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair
Answer: When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One method of reducing the amount of warpage is to
Q: Thickness of the material is greater than the thickness if the rivet head
Answer: What is one of the determining factors which permits machine countersinking when flush riveting?
Q: TSO C22
Answer: If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft, the belt must conform to the strength requirements in which document?
Q: Laminating on new repair plies
Answer: The preferred way to make permanent repairs on composites is by
Q: The grain is perpendicular to the skin
Answer: When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that
Q: when rivets are used, adequate spacer or other satisfactory means to prevent excessive tightening of the frame to the plastic should be provided
Answer: Which is considered good practice concerning the installation of acrylic plastics?
Q: Bleeder
Answer: What is material layer used within the vacuum bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during curing called?
Q: Permitted but are not normally more critical in reference to strength in tension then similar repairs to upper surface
Answer: Repair or splices involving stringers on lower surfaces of stressed skin metal wings are usually
Q: one or more coats of suitable resin ( room-temperature catalyzed) to the surface
Answer: Superficial scares, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain erosion on fiber glass laminates can generally be repaired by applying
Q: Dull thud
Answer: When conducting a tap test on a composite panel, which of the following sounds would indicate delamination?
Q: To join and reinforce intersection structural members
Answer: What is the purpose of gusset or gusset plate used in the construction and repair of aircraft structures?
Q: Soak method
Answer: What is the most common method of cementing of transparent plastics?
Q: E-glass
Answer: The classification for fiberglass reinforcements material that has high resistivity and is the most common is
Q: 1 and 4
Answer: Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally accomplished by1. applying external heat.2. room temperature exposure.3. adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin.4. applying pressure.
Q: If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the same direction
Answer: Which statement true regarding the inspection of a stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have been critically loaded?
Q: Drill to the base of the manufacture rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove rivet with a punch
Answer: What so generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet?
Q: An overall length if 5/16
Answer: MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet which has
Q: MEK (methyl ethyl ketone)
Answer: When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The final cleaning should be made using
Q: Be at least flame resistant
Answer: Cabin upholstery materials installed in current standard category airplanes must
Q: Shear failure
Answer: Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial
Q: Requires the replacements of damaged core and facing
Answer: Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core
Q: Possibility of causing delamination
Answer: Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the
Q: Crazing
Answer: If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit fine cracks which may extend in a network over or under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is said to be
Q: 2117-T3
Answer: Which rivet may be used as received without further treatment?
Q: Carbine W-Point
Answer: Which of the following drill bit types work best when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar(c)) composite laminate?
Q: Tightened to a firm fit, than backed off one full turn
Answer: When installing transparent plastic enclosure which are retained by bolts extending through plastic material and self-locking nuts, the nut should be
Q: A pull tool
Answer: The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-Lok rivets is accomplished by utilizing
Q: Only no.1 is true
Answer: (1) When preforming a ring (coin tap) test on composite structures, a change in sound may be due to damage or to transition to a different internal structure.(2) The extent of separation damage in composite structures is most accurately measured by a ring(coin tap) test,Regarding the above statements,
Q: Heat treatment
Answer: The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are usually hardened by which method?
Q: Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filling very soft metals such as lead or aluminum
Answer: Which is correct concerning the use of a file?
Q: 2 and 3
Answer: Which of these methods may be used to inspect fiberglass/honeycomb structures for entrapped water?1. Acoustic emission monitoring2. X-ray3. Backlighting
Q: 165°
Answer: A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed angle of 15° must be bent through an
Q: Forms the cutting edge of the drill point
Answer: Select the alternative which best describes the function of the flute section of a twist drill.
Q: Water only
Answer: When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually acceptable for machining composite laminates?
Q: Longerons and stingers
Answer: On semimonocoque fuselage, the skin is reinforced by longitudinal structural members called
Q: 1/4 inch
Answer: A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of 0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the rivets to be used will be
Q: Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be held to a minimum
Answer: Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum sheet stock must have all
Q: Straighten cold and reinforce
Answer: When you straightening members made if 2024-T4 you should
Q: Steel parts
Answer: Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
Q: 1/8 inch diameter and 1/2 inches long
Answer: The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are
Q: Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and steel from the atmosphere.
Answer: What precaution, if any, should taken to prevent corrosion inside a repair meta honeycomb structure?
Q: One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch
Answer: The length of a rivet t be used to join a sheet of .032-inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to
Q: Start by tapping the aluminum lightly around the edges and gradually working down into the center
Answer: If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold and securely fastened in place. The bumping operation should be
Q: Soften to facilitate riveting
Answer: A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
Q: 5056 aluminum
Answer: Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy structures?
Q: Shear loads
Answer: A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to
Q: Body diameter, type of head, and length of the fastener
Answer: The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify the
Q: Place a protective separator between areas of potential electric difference
Answer: When riveting dissimilar metals together, what precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic action?
Q: Filling with a putty consisting of a compatible resin and clean, short glass fibers
Answer: Fiberglass laminate damage not exceeding the first layer or ply can be repaired by
Q: Found by adding approximately one -half of the stock thickness to the bend radius
Answer: If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be
Q: One and one-half times the diameter of the rivet shank.
Answer: The shop head of a rivet should be
Q: Have mixed enough for a sample test
Answer: One of the best ways to assure that a properly prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is to
Q: Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head.
Answer: A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should
Q: sixteenths of a inch
Answer: The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud, grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is measured in
Q: 2
Answer: Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy designation indicates the primary alloying agent used in its manufacture?
Q: S-glass
Answer: The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass used in aircraft structures is
Q: 0.3436 inches
Answer: (Refer to Figure 4.) The amount of meterial required to make the 90° bend is
Q: Burnishing
Answer: Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by
Q: 5.936
Answer: (Refer to Figure 7.) What is the dimension F?
Q: Strip the damage area of all paint and shine a strong light through the structure
Answer: One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass structure that has been subjected to damage is to
Q: No external bracing is needed.
Answer: Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?
Q: 118°
Answer: What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hand metal?
Q: T3
Answer: Which part of 2024-T3 aluminum alloy indicates the temper designation?
Q: A- 52 inches.
Answer: 1 (8026) – If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C?Note:2/3 x height = character width.1/6 x height = width for 1.1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing.1/6 x height = stroke or line width.
Q: C- cure to the finish and be very difficult to remove.
Answer: 2 (8027) – If masking tape is applied to an aircraft such as for trim spraying, and is left on for several days and/or exposed to heat, it is likely that the tape will
Q: B- Retarder.
Answer: 3 (8028) – What is used to slow the drying time of some finishes and to prevent blush?
Q: A- Wash primer.
Answer: 4 (8029) – Which type of coating typically includes phosphoric acid as one of its components at the time of application?
Q: C- Polyurethane.
Answer: 5 (8030) – Which properly applied finish topcoat is the most durable and chemical resistant?
Q: C- reflect ultraviolet from the fabric.
Answer: 6 (8031) – Aluminum-pigment in dope is used primarily to
Q: B- remove grease from fabric.
Answer: 7 (8032) – A correct use for acetone is to
Q: B- Static electricity buildup.
Answer: 8 (8033) – Which of the following is a hazard associated with sanding on fabric covered surfaces during the finishing process?
Q: A- Corrosion.
Answer: 9 (8034) – What is likely to occur if unhydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
Q: B- first coat to prevent fabric rotting and are applied thin enough to saturate the fabric.
Answer: 10 (8035) – Fungicidal dopes are used in aircraft finishing as the
Q: C- avoid touching the surface with bare hands.
Answer: 11 (8036) – Before applying a protective coating to any unpainted clean aluminum, you should
Q: B- A glossy, blush-free finish.
Answer: 12 (8037) – What is likely to occur if hydrated wash primer is applied to unpainted aluminum and then about 30 to 40 minutes later a finish topcoat, when the humidity is low?
Q: A- Too much material applied in one coat.
Answer: 13 (8038) – What is the usual cause of runs and sags in aircraft finishes?
Q: B- Blushing.
Answer: 14 (8039) – Which defect in aircraft finishes may be caused by adverse humidity, drafts, or sudden changes in temperature?
Q: C- Old wash primer coats may be overcoated directly with epoxy finishes.
Answer: 15 (8040) – Which statement is true regarding paint system compatibility?
Q: C- Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and must be recorded in the maintenance records.
Answer: 1 (8293) – Which statement about Airworthiness Directives (AD’s) is true?
Q: B- maintenance instructions published by the aircraft and/or equipment manufacturer.
Answer: 2 (8294) – When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary information should be obtained from
Q: A- An appropriately rated mechanic may accomplish the repair, and an IA may approve the aircraft for return to service.
Answer: 3 (8295) – Which statement is correct regarding an aircraft that is found to be unairworthy after an annual inspection, due to an item requiring a major repair (assuming approved data is used to accomplish the repair)?
Q: C- by the holder of an inspection authorization.
Answer: 4 (8296) – Radio equipment installations made in accordance with Supplemental Type Certificate data require approval for return to service
Q: A- does not exceed 10 flight hours.
Answer: 5 (8297) – An aircraft may be flown beyond the 100-hour inspection requirement to reach a place where the inspection can be accomplished, provided it
Q: B- 14 CFR Part 43.
Answer: 6 (8298) – Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an aircraft after a 100-hour or annual inspection?
Q: A- 10 hours.
Answer: 7 (8299) – The maximum time a 100-hour inspection may be extended is
Q: B- An appropriately rated mechanic may repair the defects and approve the aircraft for return to service.
Answer: 8 (8300) – Which statement is correct when an aircraft has not been approved for return to service after an annual inspection because of several items requiring minor repair?
Q: A- if a special permit has been issued for the aircraft.
Answer: 9 (8301) – An aircraft that is due an annual inspection may be flown
Q: B- airframe and powerplant ratings.
Answer: 10 (8302) – For an individual (not a repair station) to conduct a complete 100-hour inspection on an aircraft and approve it for return to service requires a mechanic certificate with
Q: A- 14 CFR Part 91.
Answer: 11 (8303) – Where would you find the operating conditions that make a 100-hour inspection mandatory?
Q: A- in accordance with an inspection program authorized under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, Subpart E.
Answer: 12 (8304) – Large airplanes and turbine-powered multiengine airplanes operated under Federal Aviation Regulation Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rules, must be inspected
Q: Careful inspections fails to reveal any decay
Answer: (8007)-Which of the following conditions will determine acceptance of wood with mineral streaks?
Q: If the same quality of wood is used in both
Answer: (8001)-Laminated wood spars may be substituted for solid rectangular wood spars.
Q: Glue
Answer: (8002)-The strength of a well-designed and properly prepared wood splice joint is provided by the.
Q: AC 43.13-1B
Answer: (8003)-Where is information found concerning acceptable species substitutions for wood materials used in aircraft repair?
Q: A new section of spar should be spliced in or the spar replaced entirely
Answer: 8004 In cases of elongated boltholes in a wood spar or cracks in the vicinity of boltholes,
Q: Compression failure
Answer: (8005)-A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates.
Q: Compression failure
Answer: (8005-1)-Any wooden member that has been overstressed is subject to which type of failure?
Q: Decay is not acceptable in any form or amount.
Answer: 8006 Which statement about wood decay is correct?
Q: Any form or amount of decay is not permitted
Answer: (8006-1)- Which statement concerning wood decay is correct?
Q: Reduce weight
Answer: 8008 The I-beam wooden spar is routed to
Q: They produce a small effect on grain direction
Answer: 8009Pin knot clusters are permitted in wood aircraft structure provided
Q: no external bracing
Answer: 8010 The cantilever wing uses
Q: Parallel grain structure
Answer: (8011)-Laminated wood is sometimes used in the construction of highly stressed aircraft components. This wood can be identified by its?
Q: Circular or elliptical patches
Answer: (8012)-When patching a plywood skin, abrupt changes in cross-sectional areas which will develop dangerous stress concentration should be avoided by using?
Q: When a joint has separated and the glue surface shows only the imprint of the wood with no wood fibers clinging to the glue
Answer: (8013)-Glue deterioration in wood aircraft structure is indicated?
Q: At right angles to the grain
Answer: (8014)-Compression failures in wood aircraft structures are characterized by buckling of the fibers that appear as streaks on the surface?