Prepare for the Dental Hygiene HESI exam with these practice questions and answers. This covers oral health assessment, periodontal treatment, and dental hygiene procedures.
Q: Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found?
Answer: Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
Q: A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition?
Answer: Ankyloglossia
Q: When is tooth eruption complete?
Answer: Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing jaw
Q: When does mixed dentition begin?
Answer: Eruption of first permanent tooth
Q: How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition?
Answer: 20
Q: The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge.
Answer: The first statement is true and the second is false
Q: Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries?
Answer: reduced permeability
Q: Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar?
Answer: Distolingual
Q: Which is true regarding the height of contour?
Answer: Greatest elevation of tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically
Q: How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child?
Answer: 14 primary; 10 permanent
Q: Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown?
Answer: line angle
Q: Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incised edge or angle?
Answer: IV
Q: Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars?
Answer: Oblique
Q: Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint?
Answer: Mandibular
Q: Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve?
Answer: VII
Q: Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block?
Answer: mandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible
Q: Which salivary gland is encapsulated?
Answer: Sublingual
Q: Which type of joint is the temporomandibular?
Answer: Synovial
Q: Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland secretion?
Answer: autonomic; sympathetic
Q: Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva?
Answer: First statement is true second statement is false
Q: Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions?
Answer: Aciduric
Q: Anaerobe bacteria
Answer: grow only in the absence of oxygen
Q: Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis?
Answer: capsule
Q: Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions?
Answer: Psychrophils
Q: Endotoxin is a virulence property of
Answer: gram-negative bacteria
Q: When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses
Answer: enter host cells before they can multiply
Q: Which is treated with nystatin?
Answer: Candidiasis
Q: Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B vaccine?
Answer: Anti-HBs
Q: Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves?
Answer: I
Q: Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis?
Answer: Streptococcus
Q: Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?A. EthambutolB. IsoniazidC. NizoralD. Rifampin
Answer: C. Nizoral
Q: Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication?
Answer: Repaired congenital heart disease
Q: It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic predication?
Answer: Renal dialysis shunt
Q: A patient’s prescription has the abbreviation “qid” meaning?
Answer: take medication four times a day
Q: Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states “NO REFILLS”
Answer: schedule II controlled substance
Q: Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide?
Answer: Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
Q: Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure)
Q: Which food is a good source of vitamin K?
Answer: Kale!;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c
Q: Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack?
Answer: Albuterolshort acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Q: Lipitor is a/an
Answer: statin(lowers cholesterol levels)
Q: Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb calcium.
Answer: Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb calcium.
Q: Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C?
Answer: Steak, brown rice, and cornAlthough corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli, strawberries, and cantaloupe
Q: Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates?
Answer: IronNitrogen is found in protein, but not carbohydrates. Iron is not an element found in either nutrient. Carbon and oxygen are found in carbohydrates and proteins.
Q: Some vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of
Answer: intestinal bacteria
Q: Which vitamin is associated with the deficiency beriberi?
Answer: Thiamin
Q: Which is primarily responsible for pharmacologic metabolism?
Answer: Liver
Q: Which procedure establishes the most definitive diagnosis for oral cancer?
Answer: Scalpel biopsy
Q: A 17 yr old presents for a third molar evaluation. The panoramic radiograph reveals the apical thirst of roots #1 & #2 have fused together. Which best defines this anomaly?
Answer: ConcrescenceConcrescence is the fusion of 2 individually developed teeth with cementum only. Gemination occurs when a single tooth bud forms tow joined teeth.
Q: A patient’s intramural examination reveals a well-circumscribed, raised lesion along the lateral border of the tongue. The lesion is soft, deep purple and measures 2mm diameter. The patient believes it first appeared after accidentally biting the tongue. Which best defines the lesion?
Answer: Hemangioma
Q: Intraoral lesions may occur with each of the following condition EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Basal cell carcinomaBasal cell carcinoma is a skin tumor often found the face or lips, not the oral cavity.
Q: Which infectious disease is NOT caused by the coxsackievirus?
Answer: Verruca vulgarisVerruca vulgaris is an oral wart caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV)
Q: In which region does an early symptom of measles appear?
Answer: Buccal mucosa
Q: A pregnant woman reports a freely moveable, deep red tissue mass, which extends from the labial gingival between maxillary right premolars. The surface of the lesion is ulcerated and bleeds easily. A histologic analysis indicates the lesion is composed of connective tissue, capillaries, and inflammatory cells. Which best defines the lesion?
Answer: Pyogenic granuloma
Q: A patient’s buccal mucosa exhibits tiny white nodules connected by slender raised lines in a lace-like pattern. This finding is a clinical manifestation of
Answer: lichen plants
Q: The parents of a 7 yr old are concerned by the development a soft, blue, vesicle-like swelling on the gingiva where tooth #8 is expected to erupt. No significant radiographic findings exist other than the partial eruption of tooth #8. Which course of action is recommended?
Answer: No treatment is required; the cyst will dissipate naturally.
Q: Which best describes the etiology of pemphigus vulgaris?
Answer: Autoimmune response
Q: The most common tumor of the salivary glands is ranula. A ranula is clinically found on the floor of the mouth.
Answer: The first statement is false, the second is true.
Q: During pregnancy, when do most embryonic cleft malformations occur?
Answer: First trimester
Q: Where is chronic atrophic candidiasis most likely found?
Answer: Palate
Q: Which description best explains the phenomenon of referred pain?
Answer: Convergence of sensory nerve impulses
Q: Which results will ensue if a kilovolt peak (kVp) below 65 is used when exposing radiographs?
Answer: Exposure to radiation is increased
Q: Each of the following compounds is used to fluoridate domestic water systems EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?A. Acidulated phosphateB. Hydrofluorosilicic acidC. Sodium fluorideD. Sodium silicofluoride
Answer: Acidulated phosphateAcidulated phosphate is an in-office, professional topical fluoride.
Q: Most dental sealants places are self cured because this process allows for a longer working time for the operator.
Answer: NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct.
Q: Each of the following patients would benefit from prescription fluoride supplements EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: 33 yr old female in her second trimester of pregnancy who drinks unfluoridated water.
Q: In addition to bleeding, which other characteristic best describes a mild case of gingivitis?
Answer: Areas of pseudopocketing
Q: Each of the following are true concerning professionally applied topical fluoride in a tray EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Ask patient to rinse thoroughly following the application to prevent ingestion.
Q: Which most effectively identifies plaque biofilm on tooth surfaces?
Answer: Disclosing agent
Q: Mobility is a risk factor for periodontal disease progression. Mobility is measures using bidigital evaluation when teeth are not occluded.
Answer: Both statements are true
Q: After taking a periodical of tooth #24 using the paralleling technique, the dental hygienist notices the image appears elongated. How would the dental hygienist correct this error?
Answer: Increase negative vertical angulation
Q: A patient in her seventh mont ho pregnancy begins to feel nauseous during the dental prophylaxis. Suddenly, the patient begins to sweat and starts grasping for air. What is the patient experiencing?
Answer: Supine hypotensive syndromeSupine hypotensive syndrome is an abrupt fall in blood pressure resulting from compression of the inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus when the patient is in a supine position. It manifests as bradycardia, sweating, nausea, weakness, and air hunger.
Q: Which vaccination does OSHA require employers to offer all personnel at risk of exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials?
Answer: Hepatitis B
Q: The Hepatitis B airs (HBV) is transmitted through ingestion of foods or water contaminated by an infected person. The Hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted through blood, blood products, or body fluids.
Answer: Both statements are false. It’s swapped.The Hepatitis A virus is transmitted through ingestion of foods or water contaminated by an infected person. The HBV virus is transmitted through blood.
Q: Which pathogen is transmitted via inhalation of airborne droplet nuclei?
Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q: Each of the following medical emergencies indicates administration of oxygen EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Hyperventilation
Q: Which sounds results from a bronchospasm that occurs during an asthmatic attack?
Answer: Wheezing
Q: Which oral physiotherapy is indicated for a patient with type I embrasures?
Answer: Dental floss
Q: The exaggerated inflammatory response of gingival tissues to local irritants that can occur during pregnancy is commonly known as pregnancy gingivitis. This exaggerated response of gingival tissues is sue to an increase in the systemic level of the hormone testosterone.
Answer: The first statement is true and the second is false
Q: Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient recognize a problem and indicate a tentative inclination toward action?
Answer: Self-interest
Q: Where on the learning-ladder continuum does a patient institute a new behavior?
Answer: Action
Q: Where on the learning-ladder continuum is the patient motivated to act on the information provided?
Answer: Involvement
Q: Dental needles are available in three lengths: long, short, and ultrashort. The lower the cause number of the needle, the smaller the diameter of the lumen
Answer: The first statement is true and the second is false
Q: Which is the most common desensitizing agent found in over-the-counter dentifrices?
Answer: Potassium nitrate
Q: Pain threshold is the point at which an uncomfortable stimulus is perceived as painful. Pain tolerance is the maximum amount of pain a person can tolerate.
Answer: Both statements are true.
Q: Which preservative ingredient is in local anesthesics?
Answer: Sodium bisulfite
Q: Which strategy should be implemented for a patient who presents with a sustain blood pressure reading of 160/100 mm Hg with no previous history of hypertension?
Answer: Postpone treatment and refer patient to physician of record.
Q: Which oral hygiene index included all teething the assessment and is used for plaque visualization and oral hygiene motivation?
Answer: O’Leary’s Plaque Control Record
Q: Which is classified as an acquired disability?
Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)
Q: Which is a developmental disability?
Answer: Chromosomal abnormality
Q: Which should be obtained when physical restraint is recommended for patient safety during a dental procedure?
Answer: Informed consentInformed consent give permission from a patient, or legal guardian, after the potential risks of treatment have been explained. Implied consent occurs when a patient without a formal agreement, consents to treatment through actions. Informed refusal occurs when a patient declines treatment after a tx plan is presented. Implied approval is not a legal term used in dentistry.
Q: Which person may give consent when presenting a treatment plan for an incompetent adult?
Answer: Legal guardian
Q: For elective dental procedures, in which trimester should a pregnant patient be treated?
Answer: Second
Q: When developing oral hygiene instruction for an elderly patient, at what age should the education material be directed?
Answer: FunctionalFunctional age is based on performance capacities of the patient; educational strategies are always based on a patient’s functional ability.
Q: During a case presentation, which patient visual impairment requires the clinician to be positioned to the patients side?
Answer: Macular degeneration
Q: Which best describes the principal cause of the periodontitis?
Answer: Host response to bacterial plaque biofilm
Q: Which bony structure is initially destroyed by periodontitis?
Answer: Cortical plate of interdental septum
Q: The initial examination of a 45 yr old female reveals localized advanced periodontitis. Which is the initial treatment?
Answer: Nonsurgical periodontal therapy
Q: Which periodontal disease does NOT benefit from systemic antibiotic treatment?
Answer: Localized advanced chronic
Q: Which sequence of debridement is recommended for moderate periodontitis (Case type III)?
Answer: Quadrant scaling and root planing in four treatment appointments
Q: At which interval of maintenance treatment, in months, does the long-term success of nonsurgical periodontal therapy rely?
Answer: 3 months
Q: An assessment of the patient’s dentition reveals the presence of a large amalgam overhang. Radiographic evidence confirms that nearly two-thirds of the inter-proximal embrasure space is obstructed by amalgam. Which procedure is indicated?
Answer: Replacement of restoration
Q: Which is true regarding sutures?
Answer: Sutures are always knotted buccal surfaces
Q: Periodontal dressings are used to stop gingival bleeding after periodontal surgery. Surgical wounds heal more quickly when protected by a periodontal dressing.
Answer: Both statements are false
Q: Which are side effects of locally administered antibiotics?
Answer: Nonexistent
Q: Which periodontal probing depth is recorded when the 3mm mark is just barely covered?
Answer: 4mm
Q: The patient’s periodontal evaluation reveals a localized 6mm probe reading accompanied by 3mm of recession and 1mm of mesiolingual mobility. Which figure in mm represents the clinical attachment loss?
Answer: 9 mm CAL
Q: From which approach is the missal furcation of tooth #3 examined?
Answer: Palatal
Q: Which assesses fremitus?
Answer: Clinician’s index finger
Q: Each oral finding is within normal limits EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Ranula
Q: In which position is the hard and soft palate most visible?
Answer: Supine; head tilted back and mouth wide open
Q: Which is the most common site for intraoral cancer?
Answer: Lateral border of tongue
Q: Which extra-oral projection is used to evaluate skeletal relationships prior to orthodontic treatment?
Answer: Lateral cephalometric
Q: Which classification does the ASA assign a patient with controlled angina pectoris?
Answer: III
Q: The vast majority of disabled individuals earn a middle-class income. The cost of dental treatment is manageable for most patients with disabilities.
Answer: Both statements are false
Q: Each of the following are signs of moderate apprehension EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Dizziness
Q: Which defines right and wrong conduct?
Answer: Ethics
Q: Which ethical competency is conflicted when individual autonomy is challenged?
Answer: Core values
Q: Which is NOT a part of a patient’s informed refusal of treatment?
Answer: Dismissal from practice
Q: Each of the following is a component of informed consent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Financial arrangements
Q: A plaintiff cannot use the testimony of a specialist to establish the standard of care for a general dentist because the courts require all dentists to properly diagnose disease.
Answer: Bothe the statement and the reasons are correct but NOT related.
Q: Under the legal theory of respondent superior, which party is liable for damages to a patient resulting from breach of confidence?
Answer: Dentist
Q: Which is NOT cause fro patient dismissal from a dental practice?
Answer: Lack of proof of alien work permit
Q: Each of the following should be included in a dismissal letter EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Financial details and method of payment
Q: Each of the following is a concept dental professionals should embrace EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: Compliance with self-referral
Q: The dental hygienist speaks privately with the dentist regarding over-prescribing radiographs for a patient. Which ethnical responsibility dos this acknowledge?
Answer: Autonomy
Q: Which communication technique is most beneficial when addressing an ethical concern with the dentist?
Answer: Provide sound scientific evidence
Q: The dental hygienist attempts to view the dentist’s directive to expose radiographs every six months. Which is evident?
Answer: Empathy
Q: Dental professionals who volunteer their time and services for nonprofit are exempt from liability. Dental professional who treat family members at no charge are giving a gift that is not subject to malpractice action or damage award.
Answer: Both statements are false
Q: How long should a minor’s records be kept?
Answer: Until a child reaches age of majority
Q: Which is the best reason to maintain a separate incident file for documenting irrational or belligerent patient behavior?
Answer: Dentist-client-attorney privilege
Q: The dentist cannot be held liable for acts by employees because the patient must prove the dentist knew the employee was incompetent.
Answer: The statement is not correct but the reason is correctThe dentist can be held liable for acts or omission by employees. In cases of negligent hiring and retention, the patient must prove the dentist knew or should have known the employee was incompetent.
Q: Which is NOT a purpose for accurate chart documentation?
Answer: Genetic mapping
Q: Two-tone disclosing solution is used to assess the patient’s overall home-care routine. Violet-blue pigment stains the lingual surfaces of the MD premolars, which are tilted lingually towards the prominent MD tori. All other tooth surfaces are clean and unstained. Which brushing modification will likely produce an improvement?
Answer: Augment current routine with a child-size toothbrush and area-specific instruction
Q: Which instruction is NOT recommended fo maintenance of a pariah denture with clasps?
Answer: Soak partial denture overnight in a dilute sodium hypochlorite solution
Q: Which toothbrushing method is most effective for cleaning around fixed orthodontic appliances?
Answer: CharterThe Charter method effectively cleans around fixed orthodontic appliances because the toothbrush bristles are positions in an occlusal, rather than sulcular direction.
Q: A patient in her second trimester of pregnancy experiences severe muring sickness. Which should the patient do immediately after vomiting>
Answer: Rinse mother-in-law thoroughly with a solution of baking soda and water
Q: A through review of the health history and nutritional analysis indicates the patient is at an elevated risk for developing osteoporosis. Which vitamin deficiency is associated with a loss of mineralized bone tissue
Answer: vitamin D
Q: Which oral finding is indicative of habitual thumb-sucking?
Answer: Extreme over-jet of MX incisors
Q: Which restorative material provided the greatest compressive strength?
Answer: Amalgram
Q: Which polishing method is least damaging to enamel?
Answer: Air-powder using sodium bicarbonate and water
Q: Which technique produces the most accurate alginate impression?
Answer: Mix alginate powder with cool water
Q: Impressions for athletic mouthgaurds are acquired with removable appliances in place. Athletes should be advised to remove these appliances when participating in sports.
Answer: The first statement is false and the second is true
Q: Which patient is the best candidate for aesthetic bleaching?
Answer: 32 yr old male with trauma related discoloration in non-vital teeth
Q: During sealant placement, which angles in degrees, provides the greatest retention?
Answer: 45
Q: Which sequence of steps correctly prepares a tooth for sealant placement?
Answer: Clean, dry, etch, rinse, and dry
Q: The thin layer of uncured resin which forms on the surface of a newly-cured sealant should be removed with gauze or a cotton roll because this oxygen-inhibited layer is harmful to the patient
Answer: The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
Q: Each of the following can be recommended a fluoride rincse EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
Answer: 4 yr old female with visible heavy plaque and clinical evidence of incipient caries
Q: Which instruction supports proper moth protector (athletic mouthguard) home care?
Answer: clean with a toothbrush and liquid soap
Q: The operator is cautioned to close his or her eyes when curing materials because direct exposure to the intense blue light may damage the retina.
Answer: The statement is NOT correct but the reason is correct
Q: Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG) is a wifely used chemotherapeutic rinse proven effective in reducing plaque and gingivitis. Chlorhexidine gluconate is effective against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
Answer: Both statements are true
Q: Which is NOT a local functional factor that contributes to the retention of dental biofilm?
Answer: tooth anatomytooth anatomy is a local predisposing factor, not a functional factor that contributes to biofilm retention.
Q: Locally administered antimorcrobials places in a periodontally diseased pocket have proven to produce a positive change in the health of the periodontist. Locally administered antimicrobials are designed to be applied in periodontal pockets 5 mm or greater.
Answer: Both statements are true
Q: According to the Classification System of the American Academy of Periodontology, which classification of periodontal diseases is generalized aggressive periodontitis?
Answer: III
Q: Interdental vertical bony defects are typically visible on radiographs. The occurrence of interdental vertical bony defects decreases with age.
Answer: The first statement is true and the second is false
Q: Visibility of the tooth root may be an esthetic concern for a patient following periodontal surgery. Exposed root surfaces in the oral cavity may lead to dentinal hypersensitivity and an increased risk for developing root caries.
Answer: Both statement are true.
Q: In relation to disease transmission, which describes an improperly stored toothbrush?
Answer: FomiteA fomite is an inanimate object capable of transmitting infectious agents. A host is a living organism that can be infected by an infectious agent. A vector is disease transmission from host to host. A pathogen is antinfectious agent.
Q: Which statement indicates the dental hygienist is making a dental diagnosis
Answer: “an over-the-counter mouthguard would help relieve your TMJ discomfort”
Q: Which correctly defines the concept of ionization?
Answer: An electron is removed from the orbital by binding energy
Q: At which locality are x-ray photons created inside the dental X-ray tube?
Answer: Anode
Q: Increasing the exposure time on the x-ray control panel will have the same affect not he resultant image as increasing which other radiation control?
Answer: Milliamperage
Q: Which part of the dental tube head is responsible for removing the longer wavelength x-rays from the beam?
Answer: Aluminum filter
Q: Which has the greatest amount of radiation sensitivity?
Answer: Small lymphocyte
Q: Which is an early clinical sign of overexposure?
Answer: ErthemaErythema, or reddening of the skin, is an early clinical sign of radiation overexposure not commonly seen in dentistry.
Q: Which radiology concept is characterized by directing the central ray perpendicular to the image receptor and long axis of the tooth?
Answer: Vertical angulation
Q: Which is the recommended vertical angulation, in degrees, for exposures of bitewing films with tabs?
Answer: +10 degrees
Q: Which technique is NOT recommended for the patient with a gag reflex?
Answer: Ask patient of their gagging reflex history
Q: Which tooth structures is least likely to be viewed on a dental radiograph?
Answer: Cementum
Q: On which periodical image is the mylohyoid ridge visible?
Answer: MD molar
Q: The genial tubercles are located close to which other normal anatomic structure?
Answer: Lingual foramen
Q: Which commonly used for temporary cementation?
Answer: Zinc-oxide eugenol
Q: Which is true of a phenolic disnfectant?
Answer: Leaves residue on surfaces
Q: Where does the base of a supra bony pocket lie?
Answer: Above crest of alveolar bone
Q: Which ethical principle does informed consent uphold?
Answer: Autonomy
Q: A dental material’s resilience estimates the total elastic energy it ca absorb before deformation occurs. A dental materials elastic strain represents its stiffness.
Answer: The first statement is true and the second is false
Q: a 42 yr old patient presents to the dental office for periodontal care. The health history indicates she is currently undergoing cancer treatment. Which is recorded other than in the patient’s disease status information?
Answer: Patient’s appearance due to cancer
Q: A 53 yr old patient returns to the dental office 5 weeks after non-surgical periodontal therapy for re-evaluation. Although the tissue response is generally positive, the hygienist notes one area of localized inflammation with bleeding on probing. Which action should the hygienist take?
Answer: Explore site for residual calculus deposits or plaque retentive factors
Q: Which describes the dental hygienist’s role in treating a person with ADHD?
Answer: Allow patient to be involved with appointment and hold suction
Q: A dental hygienist is creating an oral health care program for participants at a local Women, Infants, and Children program (WIC). The hygienist will develop a community profile to determine the WIC participant’s dental knowledge. Instruction will include toothbrushing, oral physiotherapy techniques, and the relationship between diet and dental decay. The program will be offered for one month on days participants pick up food vouchers. By offering instruction at the WIC site, the dental hygienist hopes to educate caregivers and children early enough to prevent dental decay.
Answer: Agriculture
Q: Which describes WIC historical data used to develop the community profile?
Answer: Secondary
Q: Which type of data is gathered when WIC participants are asked, “Describe how you brush your child’s teeth.”
Answer: QualitativeQualitative data describes, rather than measures, information.
Q: The statement, “The oral health care program will improve the dental health of women and their children,” is an example of the program…
Answer: goal
Q: Which level of prevention does the oral health care program address?
Answer: Primary
Q: Which provides information to parents on child development stages so the child’s oral health needs can be adequately met?
Answer: Anticipatory guidance
Q: An orthodontist hypothesizes a relationship exists between tongue thrust swallowing and the position of anterior teeth. He conducts a study by selecting 35 subjects who have tongue thrust swallowing and a control group of 35 subjects without tongue-thrust swallowing. Occlusion was determines using Angle’s classification of malocclusion. The overate of those who had tongue thrust were measured and compared with the corresponding values of the control subjects. The same orthodontist performed all measurements. Results determines that with p < 0.05, overate measurements were significantly increased in persons with tongue-thrust when compared to persons who did not have tongue-thrust.Which study was conducted?
Answer: Clinical trial
Q: Which sampling technique was used to select the subjects?
Answer: Purposive
Q: In this study, which was the independent variable?
Answer: Tongue-thrust swallowing
Q: In this study, which important aspect was achieved by using only one examiner?
Answer: Intra-examiner reliability
Q: Which statistical test is used to test the mean scores of the two groups?
Answer: Independent t-test
Q: Referring to occurrence by chance alone, what does p< .05 indicate?
Answer: 5% or less probability
Q: A community fair was held to provide information to residents regarding issue related to dental health. The dental hygienists organizing the event wanted to determine if the fair had an impact on the attendees’ dental knowledge. Attendee were asked to complete a questionnaire prior to visiting five booths and immediately following attendance at the last booth. 93 attendees voluntarily chose to complete the survey. The survey was a 10-item dental health knowledge questionnaire with each item worth one point. It was administered in a pre and post test design. Questionnaire items were in a true or false format. Each item was scored “1” of answered correctly and “0” if answered incorrectly. Items were totaled and overall pre-test scores were compared with overall post-test scores. A statistical analysis was used to determine the difference between the mean scores (p<.01). The pre-test results revealed a mean score of 6.49 and the post-test score revealed a mean score of 7.91. After reviewing the results the hygienists concluded the dental health fair was a benefit to the community.Which study was conducted?
Answer: Cross-sectional
Q: Which sampling technique was used to select the attendees?
Answer: Convenience
Q: In this study, which was the dependent variable?
Answer: Test scores
Q: In this study, which is the independent variable?
Answer: Dental education
Q: Which statistical test measure the mean scores?
Answer: Dependent t-test
Q: Referring to occurrence by chance alone, what does p< .01 indicate?
Answer: 1% or less probability
Q: City council members are scheduled to listen to concerns of the community at a public meeting regarding fluoride supplementation of city water. The main points of contention within the community revolve around the issues of too much or too little fluoride in the water. In addition, several vocal antifluoridationists declare the city government is forcing medication on them with the fluoridation. The president of the local dental hygiene association has been asked to provide the forum with information on water fluoridation, alternatives to fluoridation, and other community concerns.Which level of prevention is water fluoridation?
Answer: Primary
Q: Before January 2011, which is the optimum concentration of fluoride in parts per million in community drinking water?
Answer: 1
Q: Which ethical principle is expressed by the antifluoridationists?
Answer: Autonomy
Q: Which dental index measures dental fluorosis on tow or more teeth?
Answer: Dean’s
Q: Which United States government agency declared fluoridation of drinking water as one of the ten great public health achievements of the twentieth century?
Answer: CDC
Q: Which is the most efficacious and cost-effective method of bringing fluoride to a community?
Answer: Water fluoridation