Prepare for the AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers ICD-10-CM, CPT coding, HCPCS, and official coding guidelines.
Q: ABN
Answer: Advanced Beneficiary Notice: information given to the patient in advance of a test or a procedure that Medicare will not cover
Q: depressed fracture
Answer: broken bone portion is pressed inward, typical of skull fracture
Q: hairline fracture
Answer: a minor fracture appears as a thin line on x-ray; and may not extend completely through the bone
Q: Type IIIa
Answer: Wound is less than 10 cm with crushed tissue and contamination; soft tissue coverage of bone is usually possible; with intramedullary nailing, average time for union is 30-35 weeks
Q: Acroparalysis refers to paralysis of the
Answer: extremities
Q: Edema means
Answer: swelling
Q: Megalomania is a mental __________.
Answer: disorder
Q: Splenopathy means a disease of the
Answer: spleen
Q: Ureterocele means __________ of the ureter.
Answer: herniation
Q: Neuralgia means pain along the course of a
Answer: nerve
Q: Esthesia means __________ or __________.
Answer: feeling, sensation
Q: dacryorrhea
Answer: excessive flow of tears
Q: Cytology is the study of?
Answer: cells
Q: Colocentesis means puncture of the
Answer: colon
Q: Vasotripsy means the crushing of a
Answer: vessel
Q: An angiospasm is a spasm of a
Answer: vessel
Q: A proctoscopy is an examination of the
Answer: rectum and anus
Q: The lacrimal glands secrete
Answer: tears
Q: Myocarditis is:
Answer: inflammation of the cardiac muscle and conduction system.
Q: Glossoplegia is a paralysis of the
Answer: tongue
Q: Onychosis means a condition of the __________.
Answer: nails
Q: Bronchorrhagia means __________ hemorrhage.
Answer: bronchial
Q: Rhinoplasty means surgical repair of the __________.
Answer: nose
Q: pneumomycosis
Answer: abnormal condition of fungus in the lungs
Q: necroparasite
Answer: parasite that lives on dead organic matter
Q: A pharyngotomy is an incision into the
Answer: pharynx
Q: Arthritis is a word which means inflammation of a__________.
Answer: joint
Q: Keratectasia means dilatation of the __________.
Answer: cornea
Q: Type II open fracture
Answer: greater than 3 mm of broken skin; enough skin to cover the area; internal and external cause
Q: Type I open fracture
Answer: less than 3mm breakage of skin; inside out (internal force); low probability of infection
Q: Type III open fracture
Answer: Segmental fracture with displacement; fracture with diaphyseal segmental loss; fracture with associated vascular injury requiring repair; farmyard injuries or highly contaminated wounds; high velocity gunshot wound; fracture caused by crushing force from fast-moving vehicle
Q: diaphyseal fracture
Answer: Fracture of the long shaft of a bone
Q: compression impacted fracture
Answer: The bone is compressed onto another bone; caused by trauma or osteoporosis, and common in vertebrae.
Q: diaphysis
Answer: shaft of a long bone
Q: The patient has developed plantar fasciitis, a painful condition in his heel and the sole of his foot. He has tried using shoe inserts and over-the-counter pain relievers but is still having pain. His physician performs an injection of the tendon sheath on the bottom of his foot. What procedure code is reported?
Answer: 20550
Q: plantar fasciitis
Answer: inflammation of plantar fascia, connective tissue of the sole of the foot, due to repetitive injury; common cause of heel pain
Q: condyle
Answer: Rounded process that usually articulates with another bone
Q: hypothenar muscles
Answer: muscles that flex, abduct and oppose the little finger
Q: Gastrocnemius
Answer: muscle that is attached to the lower rear surface of the heel and pulls the foot down
Q: -ic
Answer: pertaining to
Q: glyc/o
Answer: sugar
Q: neutrophil
Answer: A type of white blood cell that engulfs invading microbes and contributes to the nonspecific defenses of the body against disease.
Q: What is the purpose of leukocytes?
Answer: protect against infectious microorganisms and other pathogens
Q: coagul/o
Answer: clotting
Q: bone marrow aspiration
Answer: removal of small sample of bone marrow by needle and examined for diseases such as leukemia or aplastic anemia
Q: What are the types of seizures?
Answer: Generalized seizures-Also called grand mal seizures-Patient is unresponsive and experiences full-body convulsionsAbsence seizures-Also called petit mal seizures-Patient does not interact with environment, but there is no convulsive activityPartial seizures-Simple partial seizure: no change in LOC, possible twitching or sensory changes but no full-body convulsions-Complex partial seizures: altered LOC, isolated twitching and sensory changes possibleStatus epilepticus-Prolonged seizure (about 30 minutes) or recurring seizures without the patient regaining consciousness in between-Highly dangerous, possibly leading to permanent brain damage and death
Q: layers of meninges
Answer: dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
Q: status epilepticus
Answer: a condition in which a patient undergoes a series of seizures without regaining consciousness
Q: absence seizure (petit mal)
Answer: Generalized Seizure• More common in children• Consists of brief periods (often seconds) of loss of consciousness and blank staring as if daydreaming• Returns to baseline immediately after seizure• If undiagnosed/untreated, may occur frequently throughout day interfering with work or school
Q: tonic-clonic seizure
Answer: generalized seizure in which the patient loses consciousness and has jerking movements of paired muscle groups
Q: PET
Answer: positron emission tomography
Q: Triidothyronine (T3) and Thyroxine (T4)
Answer: known as the thyroid hormones; regulate metabolism
Q: What are the types of diabetes?
Answer: type 1, type 2, and gestational diabetes
Q: diabetes mellitus
Answer: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin secretion, insulin action, or both
Q: diabetes insipidus (DI)
Answer: antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is not secreted, or there is a resistance of the kidney to ADH
Q: exophthalmos
Answer: condition in which eyeballs protrude, such as in Graves disease; commonly caused by hypersecretion of thyroid hormones
Q: dwarfism
Answer: being excessively short in height; can result from lack of growth hormone
Q: radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Answer: test used to measure levels of hormones in plasma of blood
Q: Pheochromocytoma
Answer: usually benign tumor of adrenal medulla; secretes excessive amount of epinephrine; symptoms include anxiety, heart palpitations, dyspnea, hypertension, profuse sweating, headache, and nausea
Q: blood serum test
Answer: Blood test to measure the level of substances such as calcium, electrolytes, testosterone, insulin, and glucose. Used to assist in determining the function of various endocrine glands.
Q: adrenal virilism
Answer: development of male secondary sex characteristics in females; often the result of increased androgen secretion by the adrenal cortex
Q: Cushing syndrome
Answer: condition resulting from hypersecretion of adrenal cortex; can be product of adrenal gland tumor; symptoms include weakness, edema, excess hair growth, skin discoloration, and osteoporosis
Q: congenital hypothyroidism
Answer: condition present at birth that results in lack of thyroid hormones; results in poor physical and mental development; formerly called cretinism
Q: Graves’ Disease
Answer: autoimmune disorder of the thyroid gland characterized by the production of more thyroid hormone than the body needs
Q: insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
Answer: also called type 1 diabetes mellitus; tends to develop early in life; pancreas stops producing insulin; can be autoimmune disease; patient must take insulin injections
Q: adrenal feminization
Answer: hypersecretion of estrogen by adrenal cortex in males; develops female secondary sexual characteristics like gynecomastia
Q: NPH
Answer: neutral protamine Hagedorn (insulin)
Q: FBS
Answer: fasting blood sugar
Q: LH
Answer: Luteinizing hormone, ovulation and egg release, maturation of egg, release of testosterone in males.
Q: K+
Answer: Potassium
Q: DM
Answer: diabetes mellitus
Q: GTT
Answer: glucose tolerance test
Q: FSH
Answer: follicle-stimulating hormone
Q: IDDM
Answer: insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1)
Q: RIA
Answer: radioimmunoassay – measures hormone levels in plasma
Q: T3 and T4
Answer: Hormones produced by the thyroid gland which increase metabolism
Q: MSH
Answer: melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Q: radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU)
Answer: test to measure the ability of the thyroid gland to concentrate ingested iodine. Increased level can indicate hyperthyroidism, cirrhosis, and/or thyroiditis. Decreased level can indicate hypothyroidism
Q: Hashimoto’s disease
Answer: chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease in which the body’s own antibodies attack and destroy the cells of the thyroid gland
Q: What is the term for the surgical removal of the adrenal gland?
Answer: Adrenalectomy
Q: ER
Answer: emergency room
Q: EKG
Answer: electrocardiogram
Q: CXR
Answer: chest x-ray
Q: BP
Answer: blood pressure
Q: BPM, bpm
Answer: beats per minute
Q: Na
Answer: Sodium
Q: TFT
Answer: thyroid function test
Q: PTH
Answer: parathyroid hormone
Q: thyroid/o
Answer: thyroid gland
Q: Parathyroid hormone works to raise blood levels of
Answer: calcium
Q: orchi/o
Answer: testes
Q: ex-
Answer: out
Q: Progesterone
Answer: A hormone produced by the ovaries which acts with estrogen to bring about the menstral cycle.
Q: estrogen
Answer: hormone produced by the ovaries; promotes female secondary sex characteristics
Q: glycos/o
Answer: combining form that means sugar or glucose
Q: melatonin
Answer: hormone secreted by the endocrine gland that serves as an important regulator of the sleep-wake cycle
Q: pineal gland
Answer: the gland that plays a major role in sexual development, sleep, and metabolism
Q: s.gl
Answer: without correction or glasses
Q: Another name for night blindness is:
Answer: nyctalopia
Q: REM
Answer: rapid eye movement