Prepare for the FAA Commercial Pilot written exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers aerodynamics, federal aviation regulations, weather, navigation, and aircraft systems.
Q: Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damageA.) which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.B.) to an engine caused by engine failure in flight.C.) which requires repairs to landing gear.
Answer: A.) which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.
Q: NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident?A.) Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing.B.) Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness.C.) Engine failure for any reason during flight.
Answer: B.) Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness.
Q: Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?A.) Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch.B.) In-flight fire.C.) Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to other property of more than $25,000.
Answer: B.) In-flight fire.
Q: Which airborne incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately?A.) Cabin door opened in-flight.B.) Flight control system malfunction or failure.C.) Cargo compartment door malfunction or failure.
Answer: B.) Flight control system malfunction or failure.
Q: During flight a fire, which was extinguished, burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations?A.) An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.B.) No notification or report is required.C.) A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office within 48 hours.
Answer: A.) An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office.
Q: When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries?A.) Within 10 days.B.) Within 30 days.C.) Immediately.
Answer: C.) Immediately
Q: The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSBA.) within 10 days.B.) within 7 days.C.) only if requested to do so.
Answer: C.) only if requested to do so.
Q: How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?A.) 7.B.) 2.C.) 10.
Answer: C.) 10.
Q: What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at the airport is not in operation?A.) Class D, which then becomes Class E.B.) Class B.C.) Class D, which then becomes Class C.
Answer: A.) Class D, which then becomes Class E.
Q: Regulations which refer to “commercial operators” relate to that person whoA.) for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.B.) is the owner of a small scheduled airline.C.) for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier.
Answer: A.) for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier.
Q: Regulations which refer to “operate” relate to that person whoA.) is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.B.) acts as pilot in command of the aircraft.C.) causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
Answer: C.) causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.
Q: Regulations which refer to the “operational control” of a flight are in relation toA.) the specific duties of any required crewmember.B.) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.C.) acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls.
Answer: B.) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
Q: Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?A.) VS0.B.) VS.C.) VS1.
Answer: C.) VS1.
Q: Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?A.) VS1.B.) VS0.C.) VS.
Answer: C.) VS.
Q: 14 CFR part 1 defines V[subscript F] asA.) flap operating speed.B.) maximum flap extended speed.C.) design flap speed.
Answer: C.) design flap speed.
Q: 14 CFR part 1 defines V[subscript NO] asA.) maximum operating speed.B.) maximum structural cruising speed.C.) normal operating speed.
Answer: B.) maximum structural cruising speed.
Q: 14 CFR part 1 defines V[subscript LE] asA.) maximum leading edge flaps extended speed.B.) maximum landing gear operating speed.C.) maximum landing gear extended speed.
Answer: C.) maximum landing gear extended speed.
Q: 14 CFR part 1 defines V[subscript NE] asA.) never-exceed speed.B.) maximum nose wheel extend speed.C.) maximum landing gear extended speed.
Answer: A.) never-exceed speed.
Q: 14 CFR part 1 defines V[subscript Y] asA.) speed for best angle of climb.B.) speed for best rate of climb.C.) speed for best rate of descent.
Answer: B.) speed for best rate of climb.
Q: If an airplane category is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers?A.) Limited acrobatics, excluding spins.B.) Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins.C.) Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved).
Answer: C.) Limited acrobatics, including spins (if approved.)
Q: Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and appropriate pilot certificate in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft whenA.) acting as pilot in command.B.) piloting for hire only.C.) carrying passengers only.
Answer: A.) acting as pilot in command.
Q: Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?A.) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.B.) Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic.C.) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.
Answer: A.) Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea.
Q: Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date?A.) No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months.B.) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.C.) Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued.
Answer: B.) No, it is issued without a specific expiration date.
Q: A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges?A.) Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later.B.) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.C.) Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year.
Answer: B.) Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year.
Q: When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?A.) All solo flights.B.) On practical tests given by an examiner or FAA Inspector.C.) On flights when carrying another person.
Answer: C.) On flights when carrying another person.
Q: Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating anyA.) aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.B.) aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.C.) multiengine airplane having a gross weight of more than 12,000 pounds.
Answer: B.) aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight.
Q: To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable-pitch propeller, a person is required toA.) hold a multiengine airplane class rating.B.) make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months.C.) receive an log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
Answer: C. receive and log ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement certifying proficiency.
Q: What flight time may a pilot log as second in command?A.) Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls.B.) All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft configured for more than one pilot.C.) All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.
Answer: C.) All flight time when qualified and occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot.
Q: What flight time must be documented and recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?A.) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review.B.) Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.C.) All flight time flown for compensation or hire.
Answer: A.) Flight time showing training and aeronautical experience to meet requirements for a certificate, rating or flight review.
Q: If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1900 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried isA.) 1800 CST.B.) 1900 CST.C.) 1959 CST.
Answer: C.) 1959 CST.
Q: Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings inA.) any category aircraft.B.) the same category and class of aircraft to be used.C.) the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).
Answer: C.) the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required).
Q: No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, performed and logged under actual or simulated instrument conditions, at leastA.) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category.B.) six instrument flights and six approaches.C.) three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours of instruments.
Answer: A.) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses, or passed an instrument proficiency check in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category.
Q: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the precedingA.) 12 calendar months.B.) 6 calendar month.C.) 24 calendar months.
Answer: C.) 24 calendar months.
Q: Pilots, who change their permanent mailing address, and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period ofA.) 60 days.B.) 90 days.C.) 30 days.
Answer: C.) 30 days.
Q: To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to haveA.) a logbook record of having made at least three flights as sole manipulator of the controls of a glider being towed by an airplane.B.) at least a private pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft, and made and logged at least three flights as pilot or observer in a glider being towed by an airplane.C.) a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders.
Answer: C.) a logbook endorsement from an authorized glider instructor certifying receipt of ground and flight training in gliders, and be proficient with techniques and procedures for safe towing of gliders.
Q: To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished, within the preceding 12 moths, at leastA.) three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.B.) ten flights as pilot in command of an aircraft while towing a glider.C.) three actual glider tows under the supervision of a qualified tow pilot.
Answer: A.) three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.
Q: What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot – airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengersA.) or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.B.) for fire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.C.) for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night is prohibited.
Answer: C.) for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night is prohibited.
Q: What is the maximum amount of flight instruction an authorized instructor may give in any 24 consecutive hours?A.) 6 hours.B.) 4 hours.C.) 8 hours.
Answer: C.) 8 hours.
Q: Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend fromA.) 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.B.) 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.C.) 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL.
Answer: B.) 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.
Q: What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR part 91?A.) Upon landing, report the deviation to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office.B.) Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.C.) Advise ATC of the pilot in command’s intentions.
Answer: B.) Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.
Q: Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?A.) The owner or operator.B.) The pilot in command.C.) A certificated aircraft mechanic.
Answer: B.) The pilot in command.
Q: When operating a U.S-registered civil aircraft, which document is required by regulation to be available in the aircraft?A.) A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.B.) A manufacturer’s Operations Manual.C.) An Owner’s Manual.
Answer: A.) A current, approved Airplane Flight Manual.
Q: A pilot in command (PIC) of a civil aircraft may not allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flightA.) unless the PIC has permission to drop any object over private propertyB.) unless reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury to property.C.) if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
Answer: C.) if it creates a hazard to persons and property.
Q: Which person is directly responsible for the prelaunch briefing of passengers for a balloon flight?A.) Safety officer.B.) Pilot in command.C.) Crew chief.
Answer: B.) Pilot in command.
Q: When is preflight action required, relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed?A.) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.B.) Any flight conducted for compensation or hire.C.) IFR flights only.
Answer: A.) Any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
Q: The required preflight action relative to weather reports and fuel requirements is applicable toA.) any flight conducted for compensation or hire.B.) IFR flights only.C.) any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
Answer: C.) any flight not in the vicinity of an airport.
Q: Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot mustA.) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.B.) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.C.) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
Answer: A.) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
Q: Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot mustA.) list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.B.) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.C.) be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
Answer: B.) be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, weather reports, fuel requirements, and alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed.
Q: Required flight crewmembers’ safety belts must be fastenedA.) only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft.B.) while the crewmembers are at their stations.C.) only during takeoff and landing.
Answer: B.) while the crew members are at their stations.
Q: Each required flight crewmember is required to keep his or her shoulder harness fastenedA.) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.B.) while the crewmembers are at their stations, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.C.) during takeoff and landing only when passengers are aboard the aircraft.
Answer: A.) during takeoff and landing, unless he or she is unable to perform required duties.
Q: With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings forA.) each person over 2 years of age on board.B.) safe operating practice, but not required by regulations.C.) commercial passenger operations only.
Answer: A.) each person over 2 years of age on board.
Q: Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?A.) Approval from ATC to operate in Class E airspace.B.) A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.C.) A safety link at each end of the towline which has a breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the aircraft’s gross weight.
Answer: B.) A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator.
Q: Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on a U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flownA.) in air carrier operations.B.) within the U.S.C.) along Federal airways.
Answer: A.) in air carrier operations.
Q: Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being flownA.) under IFR.B.) in passenger carrying operationsC.) along Federal airways.
Answer: A.) under IFR.
Q: If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter forA.) 30 minutes at slow cruising speed.B.) 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.C.) 1 hour at normal cruising speed.
Answer: B.) 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Q: A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required forA.) Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.B.) all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface).C.) both answer A and B.
Answer: A.) Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
Q: In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace aboveA.) 12,500 feet MSL.B.) 10,000 feet MSL.C.) 14,500 feet MSL.
Answer: B.) 10,000 feet MSL.
Q: What is the maximum bearing error (+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an FAA-approved ground test signal?A.) 6 degrees.B.) 8 degrees.C.) 4 degrees.
Answer: C.) 4 degrees.
Q: In accordance with 14 CFR part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flight crew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes ofA.) 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.B.) 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.C.) 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL.
Answer: B.) 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL.
Q: What are the oxygen requirements when operating at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL?A.) Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a balloon.B.) The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.C.) Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew.
Answer: B.) The flightcrew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen.
Q: Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?A.) Gyroscopic direction indicator.B.) Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator.C.) Anticollision light system.
Answer: C.) Anticollision light system.
Q: Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?A.) Flashlight with red lens, if the flight is for hire.B.) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.C.) An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
Answer: C.) An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire.
Q: Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,A.) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.B.) more than 50 statue miles from shore.C.) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.
Answer: A.) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Q: Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,A.) in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore.B.) more than 50 statue miles from shore.C.) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Answer: C.) beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Q: Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a “restricted” category airplane?A.) A pilot of a “restricted” category airplane is required to hold a commercial pilot certificate.B.) A “restricted” category airplane is limited to an operating radius of 25 miles from its home base.C.) No person may operate a “restricted” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
Answer: C.) No person may operate a “restricted” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
Q: Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a “primary” category airplane?A.) A “primary” category airplane is limited to a specific operating radius from its home base.B.) No person may operate a “primary” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.C.) A pilot of a “primary” category airplane must hold a commercial pilot certificate when carrying passengers for compensation or hire.
Answer: B.) No person may operate a “primary” category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
Q: The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot isA.) not authorized in a “limited” category aircraft.B.) not authorized in a “utility” category aircraft.C.) authorized in “restricted” category aircraft.
Answer: A.) not authorized in a “limited” category aircraft.
Q: The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged isA.) 60 minutes.B.) 45 minutes.C.) 30 minutes.
Answer: A.) 60 minutes.
Q: No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to theFAA aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Sections, Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its executionA.) 72.B.) 24.C.) 48.
Answer: B.) 24.
Q: What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace? A transponderA.) is required for airplane operations when visibility is less than 3 miles.B.) with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.C.) with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement.
Answer: B.) with 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
Q: Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights areA.) not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.B.) not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.C.) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.
Answer: A.) not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
Q: Which is true with respect to operating near other aircraft in flight? They areA.) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.B.) authorized when carry passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.C.) not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
Answer: C.) not authorized, when operated so close to another aircraft they can create a collision hazard.
Q: Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights areA.) authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.B.) not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.C.) not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.
Answer: B.) not authorized, except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
Q: While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90 degree angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over helicopters?A.) The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters.B.) The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.C.) The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes.
Answer: B.) The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.
Q: Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraftA.) that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft.B.) at the higher altitude.C.) at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
Answer: C.) at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft.
Q: During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraftA.) #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1.B.) #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.C.) #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.
Answer: B.) #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
Q: A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way?A.) The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.B.) Each pilot should alter course to the right.C.) The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left.
Answer: A.) The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-ensine airplane is to its right.
Q: Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way?A.) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.B.) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to the passed on the left.C.) Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass.
Answer: A.) Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Q: An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?A.) Airplane; the airplane pilot should alter course to the left to pass.B.) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.C.) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left.
Answer: B.) Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Q: What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?A.) 156 knots.B.) 200 knots.C.) 230 knots.
Answer: B.) 200 knots.
Q: Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport within Class C or D airspace isA.) 230 knots.B.) 180 knots.C.) 200 knots.
Answer: C.) 200 knots.
Q: What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?A.) 3,000 feet AGL and 1 mile.B.) 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.C.) 2,000 feet AGL and 2 miles.
Answer: B.) 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
Q: If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flightA.) 30 minutes after sunset.B.) 1 hour after sunset.C.) at sunset.
Answer: C.) at sunset.
Q: If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anti collision light system, no person may operate that aircraftA.) 1 hour after sunset.B.) after dark.C.) after sunset to sunrise.
Answer: C.) after sunset to sunrise.
Q: Which is true regarding flight operations in Class C airspace?A.) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.B.) The pilot must receive ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.C.) Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command in instrument rated.
Answer: B.) The pilot must receive ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
Q: Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace?A.) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.B.) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.C.) Solo student pilot operations are not authorized.
Answer: B.) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
Q: Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?A.) The pilot in command must hold at least a private pilot certificate with an instrument rating.B.) The pilot in command must hold at least a student pilot certificate.C.) The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Answer: C.) The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Q: The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude ofA.) 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground.B.) 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.C.) 14,500 feet MSL.
Answer: B.) 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
Q: What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C,D, and E, airspace?A.) 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds.B.) 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below.C.) 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
Answer: C.) 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
Q: Which minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a day VFR helicopter flight in Class G airspace at 3,500 feet MSL over terrain with an elevation of 1,900 feet MSL?A.) Visibility-1 miles; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.B.) Visibility-3 miles; distance from clouds-1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 miles horizontally.C.) Visibility-3 miles; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
Answer: A.) Visibility-1 miles; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
Q: Basic VFR weather minimums require at least what visibility for operating a helicopter within Class D airspace?A.) 3 miles.B.) 2 miles.C.) 1 mile.
Answer: A.) 3 miles.
Q: When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?A.) Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.B.) 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.C.) Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 NM.
Answer: A.) Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
Q: At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR areA.) authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM.B.) not authorized.C.) authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
Answer: C.) authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
Q: To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?A.) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.B.) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long at the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums.C.) The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area.
Answer: A.) The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
Q: VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flyingA.) at 3,000 feet or more AGL, based on true course.B.) at 3,000 feet or more above MSL, based on magnetic course.C.) more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
Answer: C.) more than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
Q: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight isA.) 2,000 feet over all terrain.B.) 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.C.) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
Answer: C.) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
Q: Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition?A.) The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft.B.) Pilot in command or operator.C.) Owner or operator of the aircraft.
Answer: C.) Owner or operator of the aircraft.
Q: Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of theA.) pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft.B.) owner or operator of that aircraft.C.) pilot in command of that aircraft.
Answer: B.) owner or operator of that aircraft.
Q: After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be madeA.) in the aircraft maintenance records.B.) in the FAA-approved flight manual.C.) on the airworthiness certificate.
Answer: A.) in the aircraft maintenance records.
Q: A standard airworthiness certificate remains in effect as long as the aircraft receivesA.) an annual inspection.B.) an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration dates.C.) required maintenance and inspections.
Answer: C.) required maintenance and inspections.
Q: If an aircraft’s operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operatedA.) under VFR or IFR rules.B.) with passengers aboard.C.) for compensation or hire.
Answer: B.) with passengers aboard.
Q: Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot?A.) Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flightB.) A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.C.) A record of preventive maintenance is not required.
Answer: B.) A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records.
Q: An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection?A.) The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at that time it departs.B.) The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours.C.) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.
Answer: C.) The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done.
Q: Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections?A.) An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.B.) A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection.C.) An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved.
Answer: A.) An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection.
Q: An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the precedingA.) 30 days.B.) 12 calendar months.C.) 24 calendar months.
Answer: C.) 24 calendar month.
Q: Aircraft maintenance records must include the current states of theA.) life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe.B.) applicable airworthiness certificate.C.) life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
Answer: C.) life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance.
Q: Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD’s) ?A.) Noncompliance with AD’s renders an aircraft unairworthy.B.) Compliance with AD’s is the responsibility of maintenance personnel.C.) AD’s are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately.
Answer: A.) Noncompliance with AD’s renders an aircraft unairworthy.
Q: A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previousA.) annual inspections performed on the engine.B.) changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.C.) operating hours of the engine.
Answer: B.) changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
Q: If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?A.) It may be used when in Class G airspace.B.) its use is not permitted.C.) It may be used for VFR flight only.
Answer: B.) Its use is not permitted.
Q: To act as pilot-in-command of an airplane with more than 200 horsepower, a person is required toA.) receive and log ground and flight training from a qualified pilot in such an airplane.B.) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.C.) obtain an endorsement from a qualified pilot stating that the person is proficient to operate such an airplane.
Answer: B.) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in such an airplane.
Q: To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person mustA.) complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.B.) complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.C.) receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized flight instructor.
Answer: B.) complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.
Q: To serve as second in command of an airplane that is certificated for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person mustA.) within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.B.) receive and log flight training from an authorized flight instructor in the type of airplane from which privileges are requested.C.) hold at least a commercial pilot certificate with an airplane category rating.
Answer: A.) within the last 12 months become familiar with the required information, and perform and log pilot time in the type of airplane for which privileges are requested.
Q: What person is directly responsible for the final authority as to the operation of the airplane?A.) Airplane owner/operator.B.) Pilot in command.C.) Certificate holder.
Answer: B.) Pilot in command.
Q: Operating regulations for U.S.-registered civil airplanes required that during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings, a seat belt and shoulder harness (if installed) must be properly secured about eachA.) person on board.B.) flight crewmember only.C.) flight and cabin crewmembers.
Answer: A.) person on board.
Q: No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight conditions unless theA.) other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.B.) pilot has filed an IFR flight plan and received an IFR clearance.C.) other control seat is occupied by at least an appropriately rated commercial pilot.
Answer: A.) other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot, who holds at least a private pilot certificate and is appropriately rated.
Q: If the minimum safe speed for any particular operation is greater than the maximum speed prescribed in 14 CFR part 91, theA.) operator must have a Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) with the controlling agency.B.) operator must have a Letter of Agreement with ATC.C.) aircraft may be operated at that speed.
Answer: C.) aircraft may be operated at that speed.
Q: What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?A.) Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.B.) Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route.C.) 29.92″ Hg.
Answer: C.) 29.92″ Hg.
Q: After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot may not deviate from that clearance, unless the pilotA.) receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.B.) requests an amended clearance.C.) is operating VFR on top.
Answer: A.) receives an amended clearance or has an emergency.
Q: When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot shouldA.) fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.B.) enter and fly a traffic pattern an 800 feet AGL.C.) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
Answer: C.) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
Q: When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, a helicopter pilot shouldA.) avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.B.) enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL.C.) make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
Answer: A.) avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.
Q: When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior toA.) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.B.) 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.C.) 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.
Answer: A.) 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Q: When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior toA.) 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.B.) 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL.C.) 30 SM, and be transponder equipped.
Answer: A.) 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Q: Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?A.) Prior to landing, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with an ATC facility.B.) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.C.) Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.
Answer: B.) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Q: Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?A.) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder.B.) Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility.C.) Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
Answer: C.) Prior to entering that airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the ATC serving facility.
Q: Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace.A.) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).B.) Aircraft must be equipped with an approved ATC transponder.C.) Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
Answer: C.) Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
Q: Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace?A.) Aircraft must be equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME).B.) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.C.) May conduct operations under visual flight rules.
Answer: B.) Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
Q: When weather information indicated that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs.A.) 32.00B.) 30.50C.) 31.00
Answer: C.) 31.00
Q: When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR? Within the precedingA.) 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.B.) 30 days.C.) 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
Answer: B.) 30 days.
Q: Which data must be recorded in the aircraft logbook or other record by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?A.) VOR name or identification, place of operational check, amount of bearing error, and date of check.B.) VOR name or identification, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature.C.) Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature.
Answer: C.) Date of check, place of operational check, bearing error, and signature.
Q: For an airport with an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must be at or above the following weather minimums.A.) Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 NM for precision.B.) Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.C.) Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 NM for nonprecision.
Answer: B.) Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 SM for nonprecision.
Q: For an airport without an approved instrument approach procedure to be listed as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, the forecasted weather conditions at the time of arrival must have at least aA.) ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.B.) ceiling of 2,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.C.) ceiling of 1,000 feet and visibility 3 SM.
Answer: A.) ceiling and visibility that allows for a descent, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
Q: Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless theA.) flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.B.) flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.C.) visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distinctly visible to the pilot.
Answer: A.) flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.
Q: On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may no operate below, or continue the approach unless theA.) aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.B.) flight visibility can ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.C.) approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.
Answer: A.) aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.
Q: A pilot performing a published instrument approach is not authorized to perform a procedure turn whenA.) receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.B.) maneuvering at minimum safe altitudes.C.) maneuvering at radar vectoring altitudes.
Answer: A.) receiving a radar vector to a final approach course or fix.
Q: The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible whenA.) passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude.B.) changing control facilities.C.) passing FL 180.
Answer: A.) passing each designated reporting point, to include time and altitude.
Q: The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC whenA.) climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.B.) experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.C.) required to contact a new controlling facility.
Answer: B.) experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.
Q: A person with a Commercial Pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire, if that personA.) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR park 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.B.) holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61.C.) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
Answer: C.) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
Q: A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that personA.) holds appropriate category, class ratings, and meets the recent flight experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61.B.) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR park 61 and has passed a pilot competency check given by an authorized check pilot.C.) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
Answer: C.) is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
Q: To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot mustA.) log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor.B.) receive and long flight training from an authorized instructor.C.) pass a competency check and receive an endorsement from an authorized instructor.
Answer: B.) receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor.
Q: No person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental airworthiness certificateA.) when carrying property for hire.B.) under instrument flight rules (IFR).C.) when carrying persons or property for hire.
Answer: C.) when carrying persons or property for hire.
Q: A pilot convicted of operating a motor vehicle while either intoxicated by, impaired by, or under the influence of alcohol or a drug is required to provide aA.) written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.B.) notification of the conviction to an FAA Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) not later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.C.) written report to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Answer: A.) written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
Q: A piot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to theA.) FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.B.) FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.C.) nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action.
Answer: B.) FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
Q: A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statue relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds forA.) notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.B.) a written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.C.) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
Answer: C.) suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
Q: A pilot convicted of operating an aircraft as a crewmember under the influence of alcohol, or using drugs that affect the person’s faculties, is grounds for aA.) written notification to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.B.) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.C.) written report to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.
Answer: B.) denial of an application for an FAA certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
Q: a TWEB on a low-frequency and/or VOR receiver.
Answer: To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot could monitor
Q: changes as required by Airworthiness Directives.
Answer: A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous
Q: 24
Answer: No person may operate a large civil aircraft of U.S. registry which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Aircraft Registration Branch, Technical Section, Oklahoma City, OK, within how many hours of its execution?
Q: A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator
Answer: Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner?
Q: Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
Answer: What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
Q: ARTCCs on all frequencies, except emergency, when any part of the area described is within 150 miles of the airspace under their jurisdiction.
Answer: Weather Advisory Broadcasts, including Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), Convective SIGMETs, and SIGMETs, are provided by
Q: Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
Answer: The Decide Model is comprised of a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:
Q: 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
Answer: minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight
Q: Upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator
Answer: What action must be taken when a pilot in command deviates from any rule in 14 CFR part 91?
Q: FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
Answer: A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the
Q: only if requested to do so.
Answer: The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
Q: exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
Answer: Regulations which refer to the ‘operational control’ of a flight are in relation to
Q: Permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
Answer: The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
Q: design flap speed.
Answer: 14 CFR part 1 defines VF as
Q: beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Answer: Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each airplane if it is being flown for hire over water,
Q: is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
Answer: A person with a Commercial Pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft for compensation or hire, if that person
Q: continuous broadcast of inflight weather advisories.
Answer: The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a broadcast service over selected VORs that provides
Q: VS1
Answer: Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration?
Q: 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
Answer: What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a ‘serious injury’
Q: 360
Answer: When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
Q: 22.5 miles and 15 minutes.
Answer: The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing changes from 090° to 100° in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. If the true airspeed is 90 knots, the distance and time en route to that radiobeacon would be
Q: Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
Answer: What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process
Q: They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal to 3/4 inch in diameter.
Answer: Which correctly describes the purpose of Convective SIGMET’s (WST)?
Q: 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Answer: When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
Q: 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
Answer: The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of
Q: each person over 2 years of age on board.
Answer: With U.S.-registered civil airplanes, the use of safety belts is required during movement on the surface, takeoffs, and landings for
Q: weak.
Answer: Dashed lines on a Surface Analysis Chart, if depicted, indicate that the pressure gradient is
Q: three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified tow pilot.
Answer: To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a pilot must have accomplished, within the preceding 24 months, at least
Q: under IFR
Answer: Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on U.S.-registered civil aircraft being operated
Q: complete a pilot-in-command proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months in an airplane that is type certificated for more than one pilot.
Answer: To serve as pilot in command of an airplane that is certified for more than one pilot crewmember, and operated under part 91, a person must
Q: base of the lowest layer.
Answer: When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the
Q: 10
Answer: How many days after an accident is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office?
Q: AIRMETs and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).
Answer: What type of Inflight Weather Advisories provides an en route pilot with information regarding the possibility of moderate icing, moderate turbulence, winds of 30 knots or more at the surface and extensive mountain obscurement?
Q: suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR part 61.
Answer: A pilot convicted for the violation of any Federal or State statute relating to the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for
Q: rapid opening and closing of the throttle.
Answer: A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that may be caused by
Q: No person may operate a ‘primary’ category airplane carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire.
Answer: Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a ‘primary’ category airplane?
Q: 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
Answer: When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
Q: after sunset to sunrise
Answer: If an aircraft is not equipped with an electrical or anticollision light system, no person may operate that aircraft
Q: weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.
Answer: Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the
Q: The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area
Answer: Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace?
Q: receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor as well as receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who finds the person proficient in a tailwheel airplane.
Answer: To act as pilot in command of a tailwheel airplane, without prior experience, a pilot must
Q: 10° to 12°.
Answer: When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?
Q: observed freezing level data from upper air observations.
Answer: A freezing level panel of the composite moisture stability chart is an analysis of
Q: for hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM, or for hire at night is prohibited.
Answer: What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial pilot – airplane, if that person does not hold an instrument rating? The carriage of passengers
Q: Surface Analysis Chart.
Answer: Which chart provides a ready means of locating observed frontal positions and pressure centers?
Q: 24,000 feet.
Answer: What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
Q: continuous recording of meteorological and/or aeronautical information available by telephone.
Answer: The Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS) provided by AFSSs includes
Q: airspeed and RPM.
Answer: A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of
Q: is qualified in accordance with 14 CFR part 61 and with the applicable parts that apply to the operation.
Answer: A person with a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, if that person
Q: 24,000 feet to 63,000 feet.
Answer: The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart forecasts significant weather for what airspace?
Q: On flights when carrying another person.
Answer: When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?
Q: 80 miles apart.
Answer: For IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF FLIGHT portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navigational aids which are no more than
Q: 384′
Answer: (Refer to figure 33.)GIVEN:Weight 3,700 lbPressure altitude 22,000 ftTemperature -10 °CWhat is the maximum rate of climb under the given conditions
Q: 636 feet.
Answer: (Refer to figure 35.)GIVEN:Temperature 50 °FPressure altitude Sea levelWeight 3,000 lbHeadwind 10 ktsDetermine the approximate ground roll.
Q: 689 feet.
Answer: (Refer to figure 35.)GIVEN:Temperature 70 °FPressure altitude Sea levelWeight. 3,400 lbHeadwind 16 ktsDetermine the approximate ground roll.
Q: 742 feet.
Answer: (Refer to figure 35.)GIVEN:Temperature 85 °FPressure altitude 6,000 ftWeight 2,800 lbHeadwind 14 ktsDetermine the approximate ground roll.
Q: 800
Answer: (Refer to figure 32.)GIVEN:Temperature 50 °FPressure altitude 2,000 feetWeight 2,700 lbWind CalmWhat is the total takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Q: 1,350 feet
Answer: (Refer to figure 32.)GIVEN:Temperature 100 °FPressure altitude 4,000 ftWeight 3,200 lbWind CalmWhat is the ground roll required for takeoff over a 50-foot obstacle?
Q: 1,500 feet.
Answer: (Refer to figure 32.)GIVEN:Temperature 30 °FPressure altitude 6,000 ftWeight 3,300 lbHeadwind 20 ktsWhat is the total takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Q: range and maximum distance glide.
Answer: What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum
Q: light.
Answer: Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are
Q: design-maneuvering speed.
Answer: f severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to
Q: decreases as the relative humidity increases.
Answer: Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread? The temperature spread
Q: Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient.
Answer: Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level?
Q: Freezing rain at higher altitude.
Answer: What is indicated if ice pellets are encountered at 8,000 feet?
Q: the unusable fuel, full operating fluids, and full oil.
Answer: When computing weight and balance, the basic empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all installed optional equipment. Basic empty weight also includes
Q: leeward side when flying into the wind.
Answer: When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the
Q: increase, and induced drag will decrease.
Answer: If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will
Q: Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.
Answer: Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms?
Q: A curving jetstream associated with a deep low-pressure trough.
Answer: Which type of jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?
Q: to facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.
Answer: Which is true regarding STAR’s? STAR’s are
Q: 8,800 feet.
Answer: Refer to the excerpt from the following METAR report:KTUS 08004KT 4SM HZ 26/04 A2995 RMK RAE36 At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform clouds be expected?
Q: 6000′
Answer: What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 10 °C. and the dewpoint is 1 °C?
Q: angle of bank.
Answer: Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the
Q: 67.79.
Answer: GIVEN:Total weight 4,137 lbCG location station 67.8Fuel consumption 13.7 GPHFuel CG station 68.0After 1 hour 30 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station
Q: There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
Answer: Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight?
Q: weaker and farther north in the summer.
Answer: The strength and location of the jet stream is normally
Q: exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit
Answer: Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of
Q: Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 16 knots to a sustained speed of 22 knots or more for at least 1 minute.
Answer: What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your destination?
Q: 3 hours 22 minutes.
Answer: (Refer to figure 8.)GIVEN:Fuel quantity 47 galPower-cruise (lean) 55 percentApproximately how much flight time would be available with a night VFR fuel reserve remaining?
Q: long streaks of cirrus clouds.
Answer: The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by
Q: weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude.
Answer: The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of
Q: Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.
Answer: Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
Q: force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
Answer: Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the
Q: are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions.
Answer: While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you
Q: remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector.
Answer: While holding the angle of bank constant in a level turn, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would
Q: divided by the total weight of the aircraft.
Answer: Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time
Q: transmitter and receiver.
Answer: To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF
Q: stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence.
Answer: If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be
Q: 10 knots higher in a power-on, 60° bank, with gear and flaps up, than with gear and flaps down.
Answer: (Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall
Q: 24
Answer: (Refer to figure 10.) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 6,000 feet pressure altitude?Aircraft weight 3,200 lbAirport pressure altitude 2,000 ftTemperature 27 °C
Q: angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point.
Answer: True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the
Q: is constant and the stall speed increases.
Answer: For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn
Q: Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
Answer: Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
Q: evaporation and sublimation.
Answer: Moisture is added to air by
Q: positive static stability.
Answer: If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays
Q: 10 minutes, 348°, 18 NM, 1.4 gallons.
Answer: An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions:Cruising altitude 6,500 ftAirport elevation 700 ftDescends to 800 ft AGLRate of descent 500 ft/minAverage true airspeed 110 ktsTrue course 335°Average wind velocity 060° at 15 ktsVariation 3°WDeviation +2°Average fuel consumption 8.5 gal/hrDetermine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the descent.
Q: south and speed increases.
Answer: During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the
Q: recycling the gear.
Answer: If necessary to take off from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized byincreasing the airspeed to VLE before retraction.
Q: 52.14 pounds.
Answer: An aircraft is loaded with a ramp weight of 3,650 pounds and having a CG of 94.0, approximately how much baggage would have to be moved from the rear baggage area at station 180 to the forward baggage area at station 40 in order to move the CG to 92.0?
Q: Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface.
Answer: In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their formation or location?
Q: 300 pounds.
Answer: (Refer to figure 32.)GIVEN:Temperature 75 °FPressure altitude 6,000 ftWeight 2,900 lbHeadwind 20 ktsTo safely take off over a 50-foot obstacle in 1,000 feet, what weight reduction is necessary?
Q: It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog.
Answer: With respect to advection fog, which statement is true?
Q: 4 hours 30 minutes.
Answer: (Refer to figure 34.)GIVEN:Pressure altitude 6,000 ftTemperature -17 °CPower 2,300 RPM – 23 inches MPUsable fuel available 370 lbWhat is the maximum available flight time under the conditions stated
Q: a cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force.
Answer: The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is
Q: Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm.
Answer: Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail?
Q: 4 hours 1 minute.
Answer: (Refer to figure 12.)GIVEN:Pressure altitude 18,000 ftTemperature -21 °CPower 2,400 RPM – 28 inches MPRecommended lean mixture usable fuel 425 lbWhat is the approximate flight time available under the given conditions? (Allow for VFR day fuel reserve.)
Q: 46 pounds.
Answer: Refer to figure 14.)GIVEN:Aircraft weight 3,700 lbAirport pressure altitude 4,000 ftTemperature at 4,000 feet 21 °CUsing a normal climb under the given conditions, how much fuel would be used from engine start to a pressure altitude of 12,000 feet?
Q: 315 pounds and would not be excessive.
Answer: Baggage weighing 90 pounds is placed in a normal category airplane’s baggage compartment which is placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a positive load factor of 3.5 G’s, the total load of the baggage would be
Q: 40 miles
Answer: What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms?
Q: normal operations.
Answer: Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during
Q: 1,125 feet.
Answer: Refer to figure 35.)GIVEN:Temperature 80 °FPressure altitude 4,000 ftWeight 2,800 lbHeadwind 24 ktsWhat is the total landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle?
Q: Wind 15 knots or stronger.
Answer: Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds?
Q: 10
Answer: You have flown 52 miles, are 6 miles off course, and have 118 miles yet to fly. To converge on your destination, the total correction angle would be
Q: A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
Answer: Which is true with respect to a high – or low-pressure system?
Q: a heat exchange.
Answer: Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of
Q: on the low-pressure side of a jetstream core where the speed at the core is stronger than 110 knots.
Answer: A strong wind shear can be expected
Q: is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
Answer: Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front