Prepare for the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) Radiography exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers image production, patient care, radiation safety, and radiographic positioning.
Q: What radiographic procedure must you use sterile gloves for touching items on the tray?
Answer: Myelogram
Q: Written defamation of character is known as?
Answer: Libel
Q: Which drug would you administer when a patient develops urticaria?
Answer: Antihistamine
Q: What is another name for hives?
Answer: Urticaria
Q: A skin rash triggered by a reaction to food, medicine, or other irritants.
Answer: HiveOrUrticaria
Q: Transmission of an infection by insects such as a tick or mosquito is known as a?
Answer: Vector
Q: When an object is free of all microorganisms it is termed?
Answer: Sterile
Q: Why is the IV bag 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein?
Answer: To prevent the backflow of blood into the tubing which forms a clot and obstructs the flow of the IV fluid
Q: An inanimate object that is been in contact with an infectious organism is a?
Answer: Fomite
Q: a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful to the person.
Answer: Contraindication
Q: The main advantage of using non-ionic water-soluble contrast media on the patient would be?
Answer: Fewer adverse reactions
Q: What type of radiographic procedure requires an intrathecal injection?
Answer: Myelogram
Q: ______ is a route of administration for drugs via an injection into the spinal canal
Answer: intrathecal
Q: Which gauge size has the biggest lumen?
Answer: The smallest number gauge has the biggest lumen
Q: If the CR is angled 40° Cephalic what projection of the calcareous so calcis are you taking?
Answer: Plantodorsal Projection
Q: In the thoracic cavity each lung is enclosed in a?
Answer: Pleura
Q: Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the long arch?
Answer: Lateralmedial erect or weight-bearing
Q: In the AP axial projection Townes of the skull with the CR directed 30° caudal to the OML and passing midway between the EAM which structures best demonstrated?
Answer: Occipital Bone
Q: not alive, especially not in the manner of animals and humans.objects like stonesshowing no sign of life; lifeless.
Answer: inanimate
Q: An imaging examination that involves the introduction of a spinal needle into the spinal canal and the injection of contrast material in the space around the spinal cord and nerve roots (the subarachnoid space) using a real-time form of x-ray called fluoroscopy.
Answer: Myelogram
Q: The best way to control voluntary motion is?
Answer: Careful explanation of the procedure to the patient
Q: What is demonstrated on the oblique position of the cervical spine?
Answer: Intervertebral foramina
Q: In relation to the Esophagus the trachea is located where?
Answer: The trachea is anterior in relation to the esophagus
Q: Which position will demonstrate the right axillary ribs?
Answer: RPOOrLAO
Q: The manubrial notch is located at the level of?
Answer: T2-t3 interspace
Q: Which projection of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibio fibular joint?
Answer: Medial oblique 45°
Q: What is the position of the gallbladder in a Asthenic patient?
Answer: Inferior and medial
Q: The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
Answer: Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IRMSP parallel to the IRIOML parallel to the IR
Q: During myelography a contrast medium is injected into which space?
Answer: Subarachnoid space
Q: Which position of the elbow will separate the radial head neck and tuberosity from the superimposition of the ulna?
Answer: Lateral or external oblique
Q: With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR where will the Petrous pyramids be demonstrated within the orbits?
Answer: Completely within the orbits
Q: The sternoclavicular joint is best demonstrated with the patient PA and ?
Answer: A slightly oblique position with the affected side adjacent to the IR. RAO
Q: What position will demonstrate the patients left kidney parallel to the IR and the right kidney perpendicular to the IR?
Answer: 30 degrees RPO or LAO
Q: Which position will demonstrate the lumbar intervertebral foramina?
Answer: Lateral
Q: Which position will demonstrate the apophyseal joints closest to the IR?
Answer: RPO (right)LPO (left)
Q: How should a patient be examined for separation of the AC joint?
Answer: Erect position with use of weights to improve demonstration of both joints
Q: The coronoid process can be visualized in profile in what position of the elbow?
Answer: Both medial and internal AP oblique
Q: If the lesser tubercle is in profile for the AP shoulder joint the humorus is in which rotation?
Answer: Internal
Q: If the greater tubercle is in profile then the humorous is in which rotation?
Answer: External
Q: What type of fracture is it called when a bone is driven into another bone?
Answer: Impacted
Q: No grid(Times mAs by…)
Answer: 1
Q: 5:1(Times mAs by…)
Answer: 2
Q: 6:1
Answer: 3
Q: 8:1
Answer: 4Most commonly used
Q: 12:1
Answer: 5
Q: 16:1
Answer: 6
Q: Density Maintenance Formula
Answer: mAs1 = D1 squaredmAs2 D2 squared
Q: Inverse square law
Answer: I1= D2 squaredI2 D1 squared
Q: What is the establish fetal does limit guideline for pregnant radiograph’s during the entire gestation period?
Answer: 0.5 rem5 mSv500mrem
Q: What should you use if you have to restrain a child or infant in order to perform a procedure?
Answer: Restraining them with the use of a mechanical device if you cannot use a mechanical device have the patients father hold the child
Q: According to the NCRP the annual occupational full body does equipment limit is?
Answer: 5 rem50 mSv5000mrem
Q: How will the x-ray photons intensity be affected if the SID is doubled?
Answer: The intensity of the beam will decrease four times this is known as the inverse square law
Q: If the patient received 2000 MRAD during a 10 minute fluoro exam how much exposure will the patient recieve in five-minutes?
Answer: 1000 Mrad which is half of what they received in 10 minutes
Q: The photo electric effect is an interaction between x-ray photons and…
Answer: And inner shell electron
Q: What is recommended for the pregnant radiographer to use as far as the dosimeter badge?
Answer: Wear one dosimeter badge outside the lead apron at the collar level and one dosimeter badge inside the lead apron at the level of the waist so A total of two badges are worn and these badges position should never be interchanged
Q: What is likely to occur if 25 Rad is delivered to fetus in early pregnancy?
Answer: Spontaneous abortion will occur if 25 rad were to be delivered to fetus during the second through the 10th weekskeletal abnormalities may appear
Q: How does filtration affect the primary beam?
Answer: It increases the average energy of the primary beam by filtering out the low-energy photons
Q: The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is the?
Answer: REM (seivert)
Q: The unit of absorbed dose is?
Answer: Rad (gray)
Q: Biologic material is most sensitive to irradiation under which condition?
Answer: Oxygenated
Q: The reduction in the intensity of the x-ray beam as it passes through a material is termed?
Answer: Attenuation
Q: The largest amount of diagnostic x-ray absorption occurs in which tissue?
Answer: Bone since it is the most dense tissue
Q: The effects of radiation on biological material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time the fact will be?
Answer: The effect will be less than if it were delivered all at one time for a short period of time
Q: What interaction contributes most to occupational exposure?
Answer: Compton Scatter
Q: What factors affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary been?
Answer: Half value layer (hvl)KV
Q: The unit of exposure in air is?
Answer: Roentgen (C/kg)
Q: How often should lead aprons and lead gloves be check for cracks?
Answer: Annually or once a year by the fluoroscope
Q: Which radiation monitors function on the basis of stimulated luminescence?
Answer: 0SL and TLD
Q: What is the single most important scattering object in both radiography in Fluoroscopy?
Answer: The patient
Q: A group of exposure factors are given which one will deliver the least amount of exposure?
Answer: Highest KVp with lowest mass will give the least or safest amount
Q: The purpose of filters in a film badge is?
Answer: To measure radiation quality
Q: Compton scatter occurs when a high-energy incident electron ejects what?
Answer: An outer shell electron
Q: When a fast screen film system is used with the slow screen film automatic system the resulting images are?
Answer: Too dark or overexposed
Q: A change to 3 phase and 6 pulse = ____ (original mAs)
Answer: 2/3
Q: A change to 3 phase and 12 pulse = ____ (original mAs)
Answer: 1/2
Q: What does a penetimeter evaluate?
Answer: Penumbra
Q: Edge blur
Answer: Penumbra
Q: Field of view (FoV)/ matrix =
Answer: Pixel Size
Q: As matrix size increases pixel size
Answer: Decreases
Q: mAs controls
Answer: Density
Q: KVP controls
Answer: Contrast
Q: Windowing
Answer: Changing image brightnessContrast Scale
Q: A star pattern tests what?
Answer: Focal spot size
Q: In three phase equipment half of the expected arc is a sign of?
Answer: Rectifier failure
Q: For three-phase equipment a synchronous spinning top test is used to check?
Answer: Rectifier function and test timer accuracy
Q: In a three phase equipment full-wave rectified current should have a____degree arc per second
Answer: 360
Q: A gentle curve usually has___speed,____contrast, and___latitude.
Answer: SlowLowWide
Q: Hypovolemic
Answer: Shock caused by lack of blood
Q: The conversion of the latent image into a manifested image takes place in the?
Answer: Developer
Q: Decreasing film size from 14 x 17 to 8 x 10″ will do what?
Answer: Decrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scatter
Q: A group of exposure factors are given consisting of MA and time. Which will produce the greatest radiographic density?
Answer: Multiply all factorsthe highest mas will produce the highest density
Q: High mass equals high ______
Answer: Density
Q: The process of leveling and windowing of digital images determines?
Answer: Contrastadjusting the level adjusts the optical density and adjusting the window adjust the contrast
Q: Exposure factors are given of KVP and mas using a non-grid exposure. How much mass would you be used if you use the 8 to 1 grid?
Answer: The grid conversion factor of the 8 to 1 is four so you would multiply your mass using a non-grid exposure by four
Q: Unopened boxes of radiographic film should be stored away from radiation and…
Answer: In the vertical position or on the end
Q: To be suitable for use in intensifying screen a phosphor should have what characteristic?
Answer: High conversion efficiency, High x-ray absorption and a high atomic number
Q: The purpose of the automatic processors circulation system is too?
Answer: Agitate, mix and filter solutions
Q: The height of the lead strips divided by the width of the interspace material is defined as?
Answer: Grid ratio
Q: When going from a lower kVP to a higher kvp what will happen?
Answer: You will have greater exposure latitude produce a longer scale of contrast and produce more scatter
Q: Misalignment of the tube part IR relationship results in?
Answer: Shape distortionelongation occurs from angling of the tubeForeshortening occurs from angling of the part
Q: What has an effect on recorded detail?
Answer: SID is directly proportionalIncreasing SID will decrease magnification and increase recorded detail.
Q: A decrease in SID will do what to magnification?Do what to recorded detail?
Answer: Increase magnificationDecrease recorded detail
Q: Increasing SID will______magnification and_____recorded detail.
Answer: DecreaseIncrease
Q: A smaller focal spot size will____recorded detail since the focal spot blur is smaller?
Answer: Increase
Q: A larger focal spot size will____recorded details since greater blur is produced
Answer: Decrease
Q: Density (brightness) is controlled by1.2.
Answer: 1. The number of the exit (remnant) rays sticking the IR2. Window leveling
Q: What controls the number of electrons passing from the cathode to the anode an x-ray tube?
Answer: Mas
Q: What controls the quantity of the x-rays produced at the anode?
Answer: Mas
Q: Quantity
Answer: Mas
Q: Quality
Answer: Kvp
Q: What controls the amount of radiation exiting the x-ray tube?
Answer: Mas
Q: As mas is increased density is____in the same amount
Answer: Increased
Q: As mas is decreased density_____in the same amount
Answer: Decreases
Q: What directly controls the energy or quality of the x-rays produced?
Answer: Kvp
Q: As KVP _____, a greater potential difference exists between the cathode in the anode
Answer: Increases
Q: As the_____ __________increases, the electrons from the cathode strike the anode in greater numbers and with greater energy
Answer: Potential difference
Q: As a Kvp increases a greater potential difference excists which results in an increase level of production of___wavelength and high-energy radiation
Answer: Short
Q: KVP’s affect on density is governed by what?
Answer: 15% rule
Q: A increases in KVp of 15% ___ density
Answer: Doubles
Q: A decrease in KVp by 15% _____ density
Answer: 1/2s
Q: Intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the source of x-rays and the image receptor
Answer: Inverse square law
Q: Intensity is measured in
Answer: RoentgensOrcoulombs/kilogram (SI)
Q: Radiographic density is a function of what?
Answer: Beam intensity
Q: Beam intensity is governed by the?
Answer: Inverse square law
Q: The inverse square law describes changes in____ ______
Answer: Beam intensity(and radiographic density which is a function of being intensity)
Q: If the SID is doubled intensity (density)….
Answer: Decreases four times
Q: If distance is halved, intensity (density) …
Answer: Increase four times
Q: Variations in intensity is the result of the____of the x-ray beam as it travels through space
Answer: Divergence
Q: Different atomic numberSame numbers of neutrons
Answer: Isotones
Q: Same elementSame atomic numberDifferent mass
Answer: Isotope
Q: Different atomic numberSame mass
Answer: Isobar
Q: During the first part of the first term of a pregnancy what type of abnormalities occur?
Answer: Skeletal
Q: During the second part of the first term of pregnancy what type of abnormalities occur?
Answer: Neurologic
Q: General diagnostic exams deliver a fetal dose less than ___-__ RAD
Answer: 1-2
Q: Late effectsMalignancyLeukemiaGenetic effects
Answer: Stochastic effects
Q: Stochastic effects have a ______, _______Dose- response curve
Answer: Linear, non-threshold
Q: Max leakage radiation
Answer: 100 Mr/h at 1m
Q: As OFD increases
Answer: ResolutionQualityDecreases
Q: As FFS increases
Answer: ResolutionQualityDecreases
Q: A proportional increase in SID and OiD
Answer: No change in resolution
Q: Higher sampling frequencies
Answer: Aliasing artifacts are more obvious
Q: Lower sampling frequencies aliasing artifacts…
Answer: .. are less obvious
Q: Moire effect
Answer: Aliasing artifactOccurs when using stationary grids
Q: When SID is increased the recorded detail is?
Answer: Increased
Q: Best recorded detail when using a ______ SID
Answer: Long
Q: There is a _____ relationship between recorded detail and SID
Answer: Direct
Q: A image plate front material
Answer: Carbon fiber
Q: Interspace materials of a grid
Answer: AlumuniumPlastic fiber
Q: As matrix size increases pixel size ______
Answer: Decreases
Q: Pixel size is ________ related to resolution
Answer: Inversely
Q: Dynamic range =
Answer: Pixel depth/ shades of gray
Q: More bits = ____ shades of gray
Answer: More
Q: Pix depth is _____ to resolution
Answer: Unrelated
Q: A increase in matrix size results in…..
Answer: smaller pixelsImproved resolution
Q: What does aluminum filtration remove?
Answer: Low-energy photons
Q: A decrease in the number of photons=
Answer: A decrease in beam intensity
Q: If low energy photons are removed the average energy of the beam is…
Answer: Increased
Q: True or FalseEven with filtration the max energy of the beam remains unchanged unless KV is changed
Answer: True
Q: Pus in the thoracic cavity
Answer: Empyema
Q: Over distentions of air in the alveoli
Answer: Emphysema
Q: Congential Clubfoot
Answer: TalipesDeformed talusshortened Achilles’ tendon
Q: In which view is the OML at a 37° angle?
Answer: Waters
Q: In which view are the petrous ridges projected below the maxillary sinuses?
Answer: Waters
Q: When are the petrous ridges below the orbits?
Answer: Caldwell at 30 degrees caudad
Q: When are the petrous ridges in the bottom one thirds of the orbits?
Answer: PA caldwell 15 degrees caudad
Q: When do the petrous ridges fill the orbits?
Answer: PA view
Q: Where is the degree difference of the OML and the IOML for a baby or small child?
Answer: 14 degrees
Q: What is the degree difference between the OML and IOML for an adult?
Answer: 7 degrees
Q: Glossitis
Answer: Inflammation of the tongue
Q: 1 sec
Answer: 1000ms
Q: Smallest carpal
Answer: Pisiform
Q: Most palpable carpal
Answer: Pisiform
Q: In which position is the pisiform free from superimposition?
Answer: AP medial oblique
Q: Processes of the scapula?
Answer: CoracoidAcromion
Q: Elimination of all living microorganisms
Answer: Sterilization
Q: The frontal sinuses and ethmoidal are best used in the…
Answer: Pa axial caldwell
Q: The sphenoid sinus is best viewed in the…
Answer: Open mouth waters
Q: The maxillary sinuses are best viewed in the ….
Answer: Waters
Q: In which view is the dorsum sellae and posterior clinoid process projected through the Foramina Magnum?
Answer: Townes
Q: CR spatial frequency/resolution increases as PSP…..
Answer: Crystal size decreases
Q: CR spatial frequency/resolution increases as …
Answer: Matrix size increases
Q: In electronic imaging brightness/density changes with changes in…
Answer: Window level
Q: In electronic imaging contrast changes with changes in…
Answer: Window width
Q: Electronic imaging there is a___dynamic range
Answer: Wide
Q: In electronic Imaging there is a greater…
Answer: Exposure latitude
Q: In electronic imaging mas and KV do not regulate ….
Answer: density/brightness and contrast
Q: In electronic imaging IP’s are very…
Answer: Sensitive to fog
Q: When a CR artifact appears such as image fading what is the cause?
Answer: Delay in processing
Q: When a CR artifacts such as fog appears what is the cause?
Answer: Exposure to scattered radiation
Q: When a large field of view is used the image is___and requires___exposure
Answer: BrighterLess
Q: When a small field of view is used that image is___bright and requires___exposure
Answer: LessMore
Q: CR spatial frequency/resolution increases as laser…
Answer: Beam size decreases
Q: A grid results in …….123
Answer: Less scatter fogFewer gray tonesIncrease in contrast
Q: Beam restriction =
Answer: A decrease in Compton interations
Q: Contrast decreases as filtration ____
Answer: Increases
Q: Anatomy/pathology = ________ ______
Answer: Subject contrast
Q: What controls contrast ?
Answer: Atomic numberTissue densityTissue thicknessContrast agents
Q: Atomic number effects on contrast
Answer: Increase in atomic number = increase in contrast
Q: Tissue density and thickness effects on contrasts
Answer: Increase in tissue density or thickness = decrease in contrast
Q: Contrast agents equal a…..
Answer: Increase in contrast
Q: Increase in contrast =
Answer: Fewer gray tonesShort scale contrastLow KVp
Q: Decrease in contrast =
Answer: Many shades of grayLong scale contrastIncrease in KVp
Q: Controls X-ray beam energy
Answer: Kvp
Q: Grids increase ____
Answer: Contrast
Q: Beam restriction increases ____
Answer: Contrast
Q: Protrusion of a portion of the stomach through the cardiac sphincter
Answer: Hiatal Hernia
Q: When the Tube is directed 15degrees caudal the petrous pyramids will fill….
Answer: The bottom 1/3rd of the orbits
Q: Where is the most accurate spot to find a pulse?
Answer: apical which is at the apex of the heartFound with a stethoscope
Q: Where is the most common place to find a pulse?
Answer: Radial pulse
Q: Bradycardia
Answer: Slow heart rate
Q: Tachycardia
Answer: Rapid heart rate
Q: Chonr-
Answer: Cartilge
Q: ThyroidSkinExtremitiesOccupational Dose Equivalent Limit
Answer: 50 Rem500 mSv5000 mRem
Q: 50 Rem = _______mRem and mSv
Answer: 5000mRem500 mSv
Q: Occupational dose equivalent for the lens of the eye?
Answer: 150 mSv
Q: Occupational dose equivalent for the pregnant women’s fetus/embryo?
Answer: 5 mSv
Q: A higher ratio grid = ______ grays
Answer: Fewer
Q: Whole body occupational dose equivalent ?
Answer: 5 Rem50 mSv
Q: Percentage of time that the primary beam is directed toward a particular wall
Answer: Use factor
Q: Achalasia
Answer: Dilation of the esophagusThe cardiac sphincters failure to relax and allow food to pass
Q: A low energy x-Ray photon uses all of its energy to eject an inner-shell electron
Answer: Photoelectric effect
Q: Loss of brightness = _____ FOV
Answer: Decreased
Q: RAD
Answer: Radiation absorbed dose
Q: Unit of exposuremeasures quantity of ionization in the air
Answer: Roentgen
Q: Dose to the biological tissue
Answer: rem
Q: Rate at which particulate or photon energy is transferred to the absorber
Answer: LET
Q: Measures quality of radiation
Answer: LET
Q: Hair losss
Answer: Epilation
Q: Tissue without O2
Answer: Anoxic
Q: Tissue with little o2
Answer: Hypoxic
Q: Intensity =
Answer: Quantity
Q: The thicker portion should be under the ______
Answer: Cathode side
Q: The upper part of the lateral T spine should be under what?
Answer: The cathode side
Q: When is the anode heal effect more pronounced?
Answer: Large IR with a short SIDBecause the anode has a steep target angle
Q: A high S number
Answer: Underexposure
Q: A high Ei number
Answer: Overexposure
Q: Strep throat is a____
Answer: Bacteria
Q: Most of the primary beam is made up of_____
Answer: brems Radiation
Q: An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy
Answer: Brems radiation production
Q: An x-ray to the inner target needs to have a____ ______ number and a____ ______ point
Answer: High atomicHigh melting
Q: True or falsethe cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages
Answer: True
Q: High scale contrast =
Answer: Short scale contrast
Q: CRs use ____ while DRs do not
Answer: IPs
Q: The term_____is used to describe how much of the patient is included in the matrix
Answer: FOV
Q: What permits the flow of current in only One Direction?
Answer: A rectifier
Q: Interaction with low energy photons
Answer: Compton scatter
Q: Which is the source of most scattered radiation?
Answer: Patient
Q: When is more high energy photons produced?
Answer: High kvp
Q: Quality
Answer: Kvp
Q: Quantity
Answer: MA
Q: 50 rem = _____ msv
Answer: 500
Q: The punch/penetrability
Answer: Kvp
Q: High mAs____ number of photons produced
Answer: High….is unrelated to photon energy
Q: ____ mas _____ kVPKeeps radiation dose to a minimumTube life is extended
Answer: Low mAshigh kvp
Q: LET
Answer: Linear Energy Transfer
Q: The rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to the soft tissue
Answer: LET
Q: Leakage radiation is a form of ________ radiation
Answer: Secondary
Q: The _________ radiation barrier has a _____ inch lead wall above _____feet.
Answer: Secondary1/327
Q: True or falseSecondary barriers should never be struck by the useful beam
Answer: True
Q: True or falsePrimary barriers can be struck by the primary beam
Answer: True
Q: Primary protective barriers are ______ feet tall and should have _____inch thick lead
Answer: 71/16 (1.5mm)
Q: The dose to the lens is significantly reduced if a skull is shot ____
Answer: PA
Q: NCRP annual occupational whole-body dose-equivalent limit
Answer: 50 mSV5rem5000mrem
Q: NCRP annual occupational whole-body dose-equivalent limit for a student under the age of 18
Answer: 1mSV 100mrem. 0.1rem
Q: NCRPLens of eye limit
Answer: 150 mSV 15 rem
Q: NCRPThyroid, skin and extremities limit
Answer: 500 mSV. 50 rem
Q: ______ ______ describes the % of time that the primary beam is directed toward a particular wall
Answer: Use Factor
Q: Total gestational dose-equivalent limitEmbryo/fetus of a pregnant radiographer
Answer: No greater than 0.5 mSV/1 month5 mSV 500 mrem
Q: Hair loss
Answer: Epilation
Q: If the line begins at zero, there is ______ ______
Answer: No threshold
Q: Redding of irradiated skin area
Answer: Erythema
Q: Number of X-ray exposures made per week
Answer: Workload
Q: Immediate Radiation Reading Device
Answer: Pocket Dosimeter/pocket ionization chamber
Q: What is the minimum lead amount for the fluoro drape?
Answer: 0.25 mmPb
Q: Atoms of the same element but different mass number
Answer: Isotopes
Q: Same atomic number and mass number
Answer: Isomers
Q: Milliamperage is directly proportional to X-ray _______
Answer: Intensity
Q: Isotones
Answer: Same neutron amount but different atomic number