Prepare for the AP Psychology exam with these flashcard questions and answers. This covers key terms, theories, psychologists, and essential concepts.
Q: psychology
Answer: the scientific study of behavior and mental processes
Q: behavior
Answer: an observable action
Q: monism
Answer: seeing mind and body as different aspects of the same thing
Q: dualism
Answer: seeing mind and body as two different things that interact
Q: eclectic
Answer: use of techniques and ideas from a variety of approaches
Q: empiricism
Answer: the view that knowledge should be acquired through observation and often an experiment
Q: science
Answer: way of getting knowledge about the world based on observation
Q: theory
Answer: a collection of interrelated ideas and facts put forward to describe, explain, and predict behavior and mental processes
Q: scientific method
Answer: in psychology, the techniques used to discover knowledge about human behavior and mental processes
Q: hypothesis
Answer: a tentative statement or idea expressing a causal relationship between two events or variables that is to be evaluated in a research study
Q: experiment
Answer: a procedure in which a researcher systematically manipulates and observes elements of a situation in order to test a hypothesis and make a cause-and-effect statement
Q: independent variable
Answer: the variable in a controlled experiment that the experimenter directly and purposefully manipulates to see how the other variables under study will be affected
Q: dependent variable
Answer: the variable in a controlled experiment that is expected to change due to the manipulation of the independent variable
Q: experimental group
Answer: in an experiment, the group of participants to whom a treatment is given
Q: control group
Answer: subjects and not exposed to a changing variable in an experiment
Q: variable
Answer: a condition or characteristic of a situation or a person that is subject to change (it varies) within or across situations or individuals
Q: sample
Answer: a group of participants who are assumed to be representative of the population about which an inference is being made
Q: random sample
Answer: selection of a part of the population without reason; participation is by chance
Q: operational definition
Answer: a definition of a variable in terms of the set of methods or procedures used to measure or study that variable
Q: participant
Answer: an individual who takes part in an experiment and whose behavior is observed as part of the data collection process
Q: double-blind procedure
Answer: technique in which neither the persons involved for those conducting the experiment know in what group to participate is involved
Q: debriefing
Answer: a procedure to inform participants about the true nature of an experiment after its completion
Q: ethics
Answer: rules of proper and acceptable conduct that investigators use to guide psychological research
Q: ethnocentrism
Answer: tendency to believe that one’s own group is the standard, the reference point by which other people and groups should be judged
Q: case study
Answer: a highly detailed description of a single individual or a vent
Q: ex post facto study
Answer: describes differences between groups of participants that differ naturally on a variable such as race or gender
Q: naturalistic observation
Answer: observing and recording behavior naturally without trying to manipulate and control the situation
Q: correlational research
Answer: establish the relationship between two variables
Q: survey research
Answer: the measurement of public opinion through the use of sampling and questioning
Q: experimenter bias
Answer: expectation of the person conducting an experiment which may be affect the outcome
Q: observer bias
Answer: expectations of an observer which may distort an authentic observation
Q: response bias
Answer: preconceived notions of a person answering [a survey] which may alter the experiments purpose
Q: informed consent
Answer: the agreement of participants to take part in an experiment and their acknowledgement that they understand the nature of their participation in the research, and have been fully informed about the general nature of the research, its goals, and methods
Q: normal distribution
Answer: approximate distribution of scores expected when a sample is taken from a large population, drawn as a frequency polygon that often takes the form of a bell-shaped curve, called the normal curve
Q: placebo
Answer: typically a pill that is used as a control in the experiment; a sugar pill
Q: pseudoscience
Answer: an unscientific system which pretends to discover psychological information that his means are unscientific or deliberately fraudulent
Q: representative sample
Answer: selection of a part of the population which mirrors the current demographics
Q: significant difference
Answer: in an experiment, a difference that is unlikely to have occurred because of chance alone and is inferred to be most likely due to the systematic manipulations of variables by the researcher
Q: self-fulfilling prophecy
Answer: when a researcher’s expectations unknowingly create a situation that affects the results
Q: statistics
Answer: branch of mathematics that deals with collecting, classifying, and analyzing data
Q: descriptive statistics
Answer: general set of procedures used to summarize, condense, and describe sets of data
Q: frequency distribution
Answer: a chart or array of scores, usually arranged from highest to lowest, showing the number of instances for each score
Q: frequency polygon
Answer: graph of a frequency distribution that shows the number of instances of obtained scores, usually with the data points connect by straight lines
Q: measure of central tendency
Answer: a descriptive statistic that tells which result or score best represents an entire set of scores
Q: mean
Answer: the arithmetic average of a set of scores
Q: median
Answer: the measure of central tendency that is the data point with 50% of the scores above it and 50% below it
Q: mode
Answer: the most frequently occurring score in a set of data
Q: range
Answer: the spread between the highest and the lowest scores in a distribution
Q: correlation coefficient
Answer: a number that expresses the degree and direction of the relationship between 2 variables, ranging from -1 to +1
Q: inferential statistics
Answer: procedures used to draw conclusions about larger populations from small samples of data
Q: normal distribution
Answer: approximate distribution of scores expected when a sample is taken from a large population, drawn as a frequency polygon that often takes the form of a bell-shaped curve, called the normal curve
Q: standard deviation
Answer: a descriptive statistic that measures the variability of data from the mean of the sample
Q: variability
Answer: the extent to which scores differ from one another
Q: structuralism
Answer: school of psychological thought that considered the structure and elements of conscious experience to be the proper subject matter of psychology
Q: introspection
Answer: a person’s description and analysis of what he or she is thinking and feeling or what he or she has just thought about
Q: functionalism
Answer: school of psychological thought that was concerned with how and why the conscious mind works
Q: psychoanalytic
Answer: perspective developed by freud, which assumes that psychological problems are the result of anxiety resulting from unresolved conflicts and forces of which a person might be unaware
Q: Gestalt psychology
Answer: school of psychological thought that argued that behavior cannot be studied in parts but must be viewed a s whole
Q: behaviorism
Answer: perspective that defines psychology as the study of behavior that is directly observable or through assessment instruments
Q: cognitive psychology
Answer: perspective that focuses on the mental processes involved in perception, learning, memory, and thinking
Q: humanistic psychology
Answer: perspective that emphasizes the uniqueness of the individual and the idea that humans have free will
Q: self-actualization
Answer: the human need to fulfill one’s potential
Q: sociocultural psychology
Answer: perspective concerned with how cultural differences affect behavior
Q: evolutionary psychology
Answer: perspective that seeks to explain and predict behaviors by analyzing how the human brain developed over time, how it functions, and how input from the environment affects human behaviors
Q: positive psychology
Answer: in emerging Theo psychology that focuses on positive experiences; includes subjective well-being, self-determination, the relationship between positive emotions and physical health, and the factors that allow individuals, communities, and societies to boorish
Q: psychologist
Answer: professional who studies behavior and uses behavioral principles in scientific research or in applied settings
Q: clinical psychologist
Answer: psychologist who treats people serious psychological problems or conducts research into the causes of behavior
Q: counseling psychologist
Answer: psychologist who treats people with adjustment problems
Q: psychiatrist
Answer: a medical doctor who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders
Q: psychoanalyst
Answer: one who uses psychoanalysis to treat psychological problems
Q: developmental psychologist
Answer: studies psychological development across the lifespan
Q: educational psychologist
Answer: focuses on how effective teaching and learning take place
Q: engineering psychologist
Answer: does research on how people function best with machines
Q: forensic psychologist
Answer: applies psychological concepts to legal issues
Q: health psychologist
Answer: focuses on psychological factors in illness
Q: industrial/organizational psychologist
Answer: applies psychological principles to the workplace to improve productivity and the quality of work life
Q: neuropsychologist
Answer: concerned with the relationship between brain/nervous system and behavior
Q: psychometrician
Answer: focuses on methods of acquiring and analyzing data
Q: school psychologist
Answer: assesses and counsels students, consults with educators and parents, and performs behavioral intervention when necessary
Q: social psychologist
Answer: focuses on how the individual’s behavior and mental processes are affected by interactions with other people
Q: sports psychologist
Answer: helps athletes improve their focus, increase motivation, and deal with anxiety and fear of failure
Q: confounding variable
Answer: anything that causes a difference between the IV and the DV other than the independent variable
Q: demand characteristics
Answer: clues participants discover about the purpose of a study that suggest how they should respond
Q: placebo effect
Answer: response to the belief that the IV will have an effect, rather than the IV’s actual effect, which can be a confounding variable
Q: percentile score
Answer: the percentage of scores at or below a certain score
Q: refractory period
Answer: after firing when a neuron will not fire again no matter how strong the incoming message may be
Q: acetylcholine (ACh)
Answer: neurotransmitter that causes contraction of skeletal muscles; lack of Ach linked with Alzheimer’s disease;
Q: action potential
Answer: an electrical current sent down the axon of a neuron and is initiated by the rapid reversal of the polarization of the cell membrane
Q: ACTH (arenocorticotropic hormone)
Answer: released by adrenal glands; triggered by norepinephrine to prolong the response to stress (used in the sympathetic nervous system)
Q: adrenal glands
Answer: endocrine glands located above the kidney and secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine, which prepare the body for “fight or flight”
Q: afferent neuron
Answer: nerve cell that sends messages to brain or spinal cord from other parts of the body; also called sensory neurons
Q: all-or-none principle
Answer: the law that the neuron either fires at 100% or not at all
Q: amygdala
Answer: part of the limbic system; influences emotions such as aggression, fear, and self-protective behaviors
Q: aphasia
Answer: inability to understand or use language
Q: association areas
Answer: areas of the cerebral cortex that are not involved in primary motor or sensory functions, rather, they are involved in higher mental processes such as thinking, planning, and communicating
Q: autonomic nervous system
Answer: a division of the peripheral nervous system that regulates involuntary functions; made up of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
Q: axon terminal
Answer: terminal button, synaptic knob; the structure at the end of an excellent terminal branch; houses the synaptic vesicles and neurotransmitters
Q: axon
Answer: a single long, fiber that carries outgoing messages to other neurons, muscles, or glands
Q: behavioral genetics
Answer: study of hereditary influences and how it influences behavior and thinking
Q: brain
Answer: portion of the CNS above the spinal cord; consists of hindbrain, midbrain, and forebrain
Q: brainstem
Answer: top of the spinal column
Q: Broca’s area
Answer: located in left frontal lobe; controls production of speech
Q: central nervous system
Answer: the brain and spinal cord
Q: cerebellum
Answer: part of the brain that coordinates balance, movement, reflexes
Q: (cerebral) cortex
Answer: wrinkled outer portion of brain; center for higher order brain functions such as thinking, planning, judgment; processes sensory information and directs movement
Q: chromosome
Answer: threadlike structure within the nucleus of cells that contain genes
Q: computerized axial tomography (CT scan)
Answer: creates a computerized image using x-rays passed through the brain
Q: convolutions
Answer: the folds in the cerebral cortex that increase the surface area of the brain
Q: corpus callosum
Answer: large band of white neural fibers that connects to to brain hemispheres and carries messages between them; myelinated; involved in intelligence, consciousness, and self-awareness; does it reach full maturity until 20s
Q: dendrites
Answer: branching extensions of neuron that receives messages from neighboring neurons
Q: DNA
Answer: deoxyribonucleic acid; genetic formation in a double-helix; can replicate or reproduce itself; made of genes
Q: dominant genes
Answer: member of a gene terror that controls the appearance of a certain trait
Q: dopamine
Answer: neurotransmitter that influences voluntary movement, attention, alertness; lack of dopamine linked with Parkinson’s disease; too much is linked with schizophrenia
Q: EEG (electroencephalogram)
Answer: shows brain’s electrical activity by positioning electrodes over the scalp
Q: efferent neuron
Answer: nerve cell that send messages from brain and spinal cord to other parts of body; also called motor neurons
Q: endocrine glands
Answer: the bodies “slow” chemical communication by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream
Q: endocrine system
Answer: glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream, which regulate body and behavioral processes
Q: endorphins
Answer: chemical similar to opiates that relieves pain; may induce feelings of pleasure
Q: epinephrine
Answer: adrenaline; activates a sympathetic nervous system by making the heart beat faster, stopping digestion, enlarging pupils, sending sugar into the bloodstream, preparing a blood clot faster
Q: excitatory neurotransmitter
Answer: chemical secreted at terminal button that causes the neuron on the other side of the synapse to fire
Q: family studies
Answer: studies of hereditability on the assumption that if a gene influences a certain trait, close relatives should be more similar on that trait in distant relative
Q: forebrain
Answer: top of the brain which includes the thalamus, hypothalamus, and cerebral cortex; responsible for emotional regulation, complex thought, memory aspect of personality
Q: fraternal twins
Answer: twins from two separate fertilized eggs (zygotes); share half of the same genes
Q: frontal lobes
Answer: control emotional behaviors, make decisions, carry out plans; speech (Broca’s area); controls movement of muscles
Q: functional MRI (fMRI)
Answer: shows brain activity at higher reolution than PET scan when changes in oxygen concentration in neurons alters its magnetic qualities
Q: GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)
Answer: neurotransmitter that inhibits firing of neurons; linked with Huntington’s disease
Q: gene
Answer: a DNA segment on a chromosome that controls transmission of traits
Q: genetics
Answer: study of how traits are transmitted from one generation to the next
Q: genotype
Answer: an individual’s genetic make-up
Q: glial cells
Answer: supportive cells of nervous system that guide growth of new neurons; forms myelin sheath; holds neuron in place; provides nourishment and removes waste
Q: gonads
Answer: reproductive glands-male, testes; female, ovaries
Q: graded potential
Answer: shift in electrical charge in a tiny area of the neuron (temporary); transmits a long cell membranes leaving neuron and polarized state; needs higher than normal threshold of excitation to fire
Q: heritability
Answer: the proportion of variation among individuals that is due to genetic causes
Q: hindbrain
Answer: division which includes the cerebellum, Pons, and medulla; responsible for involuntary processes: blood pressure, body temperature, heart rate, breathing, sleep cycles
Q: hippocampus
Answer: part of the limbic system and is involved in learning and forming new long-term memories
Q: hormone
Answer: chemical that carries messages that travel through the bloodstream to help regulate bodily functions
Q: human genomes
Answer: 30,000 genes needed to build a human
Q: hypothalamus
Answer: area of the brain that is part of the limbic system and regulates behaviors such as, eating, drinking, sexual behaviors, motivation; also body temperature
Q: identical twins
Answer: twins from a single fertilized egg (zygote) with the same genetic makeup; also called monozygotic (MZ) twins
Q: inhibitory neurotransmitter
Answer: chemical secreted at terminal button that prevents (or reduces ability of) the neuron on the other side of the synapse from firing
Q: insulin
Answer: hormone backpacks in the regulation of blood sugar by acting in the utilization of carbohydrates; released by pancreas; too much-hypoglycemia, too little-diabetes
Q: interneurons
Answer: nerve cell that transmits messages between sensory and motor neurons
Q: ions
Answer: electrically charged particles found both inside and outside a neuron; negative ions are found inside the cell membrane in a polarized neuron
Q: limbic system
Answer: a donut ring-shaped of loosely connected structures located in the forebrain between the central core and cerebral hemispheres; consists of: septum, cingulate gyrus, endowments, hypothalamus, and to campus, and amygdala; associated with emotions and memories
Q: magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Answer: creates a computerized image using a magnetic field and pulses of radio waves
Q: medulla (also medulla oblongata)
Answer: part of the brain which controls living functions such as breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, body temperature
Q: midbrain
Answer: the middle division of brain responsible for hearing and sight; location where pain is registered; includes temporal lobe, occipital lobe, and most of the parietal lobe
Q: motor neurons
Answer: efferent neurons; neurons that carry messages from spinal cord/brain to muscles and glands
Q: motor projection areas
Answer: primary motor cortex; areas of the three boat cortex for response messages from the brain to the muscles and glands
Q: myelin sheath
Answer: a white, fatty covering of the axon which speeds transmission of message
Q: nature-nurture controversy
Answer: deals with the extent to which heredity and the environment each influence behavior
Q: nerve
Answer: bundles of axons
Q: neural impulse
Answer: action potential; the firing of a nerve cell; the entire process of the electrical charge (message/impulse) traveling through inner on; can be as fast as 400 fps (with myelin) or 3 fps (no myelin)
Q: neural plasticity
Answer: Ability of the brain to change their experience, both structurally and chemically
Q: neurogenesis
Answer: production of new brain cells; November 1988: cancer patients proved that new neurons grew until the end of life
Q: neuron
Answer: individual cells that are the smallest unit of the nervous system; it has three functions: receive information, process it, send to rest of body
Q: neuroscience
Answer: study of the brain and nervous system; overlaps with psychobiology
Q: neurotransmitters
Answer: chemical messengers released by terminal buttons into the synapse
Q: norepinephrine
Answer: noradrenaline; chemical which is excitatory, similar to adrenaline, and affects arousal and memory; raises blood pressure by causing blood vessels to become constricted, but also carried by bloodstream to the anterior pituitary which relaxes ACTH thus prolonging stress response
Q: occipital lobes
Answer: primary area for processing visual information
Q: pancreas
Answer: organ lying between the stomach and small intestine; regulates blood sugar by secreting to regulating hormones insulin and glucagon
Q: parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: a branch of the autonomic nervous system that maintains normal body functions; it calms the body after sympathetic stimulation
Q: parathormone
Answer: hormone that controls imbalances levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood and tissue fluid; influences levels of excitability; secreted by parathyroids
Q: parathyroid
Answer: for glands embedded in the thyroid; secretes parathormone; controls announces level of calcium and phosphate (which influence levels of excitability)
Q: parietal lobes
Answer: processes sensory information including touch, temperature, and pain from other body parts
Q: peripheral nervous system
Answer: division that connects the central nervous system to the rest of the body; includes all sensory and motor neurons; divided into somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system
Q: phenotype
Answer: the expression of genes
Q: pineal gland
Answer: endocrine gland that produces melatonin that helps regulate sleep/wake cycle
Q: pituitary gland
Answer: endocrine gland that produces a large amount of hormones; it regulates growth and helps control other endocrine glands; located on underside of brain; sometimes called the “master gland”
Q: polarization
Answer: when the neuron is at rest; condition of neuron when the inside of the neuron is negatively charged relative to the outside of Enron; is necessary to generate the neuron signal in release of this polarization
Q: polygenic inheritance
Answer: process by which several genes interact to produce a certain trait; responsible for most important traits
Q: pons
Answer: part of the brain involved in sleep/wake cycles; also connects cerebellum and medulla to the cerebral cortex
Q: positron emission tomography (PET scan)
Answer: shows brain activity when radioactively tagged glucose rushes to active neurons
Q: psychobiology
Answer: study that focuses on biological foundations of behavior and mental processes; overlaps with neuroscience
Q: receptor site
Answer: a location on a receptor neurons which is like a key to a lock (with a specific nerve transmitter); allows for orderly pathways
Q: recessive gene
Answer: member of the gene terror that controls the appearance of a certain trait only if it is paired with the same gene
Q: relative refractory period
Answer: a period after firing when a neuron is returning to its normal polarize state and will only fire again if the incoming message open parentheses impulse) is stronger than usual; returning to arresting state
Q: resting potential
Answer: when a neuron is in polarization; more negative ions are inside the neuron cell membrane with a positive ions on the outside, causing a small electrical charge; release of this charge generates a neuron’s impulse (signal/message)
Q: reticular formation (RF) (RES)
Answer: netlike system of neurons that weaves through limbic system and plays an important role in attention, arousal, and alert functions; arouses and alerts higher parts of the brain; anesthetics work by temporary shutting off RF system
Q: selection studies
Answer: studies that estimate the hereditability of a trait by breeding animals with another animal that has the same trait
Q: sensory neurons
Answer: afferent neurons; neurons that carry messages from sensory organs to the brain and spinal cords
Q: serotonin
Answer: neurotransmitter that affects sleep, arousal, mood, appetite; lack of it is linked with depression
Q: somatic nervous system
Answer: division of peripheral nervous system; controls voluntary actions
Q: spinal cord
Answer: portion of the CNS that carries messages to the PNS; connects brain to the rest of the body
Q: strain studies
Answer: studies of hereditability it be a behavioral traits using animals that have been inbred to produce strains that are genetically similar to one another
Q: sympathetic nervous system
Answer: a branch of the autonomic nervous system and prepares the body for quick action in emergencies; “fight or flight”
Q: synapse
Answer: the space between two neurons where neurotransmitters are secreted by terminal buttons and received by dendrites
Q: synaptic cleft
Answer: synaptic gap or synaptic space; tiny gap between the terminal of one neuron and the dendrites of another neuron (almost never touch); location of the transfer of an impulse from one neuron to the next
Q: synaptic vesicles
Answer: tiny oval-shaped sacs in a terminal of one neuron; assist in transferring mineral impulse from one neuron to another neuron by releasing specific neurotransmitters
Q: temporal lobes
Answer: main area for hearing, understanding language (Wernicke’s area), understanding music; smell
Q: terminal buttons (axon terminals)
Answer: ends of axons that secrete neurotransmitters
Q: thalamus
Answer: motor sensory relay center for four of the five senses; and with a brain stem and composed of two egg-shaped structures; integrates in shades incoming sensory signals; Mnemonic-“don’t smell the llamas because the llamas smell bad”
Q: thyroid gland
Answer: located in neck; regulates metabolism by secreting thyroxine
Q: thyroxine
Answer: released by thyroid; hormone that regulates the body’s metabolism; OVERACTIVE-over-excitability, insomnia, reduced attention span, fatigue, snap decisions, reduced concentration (hyperthyroidism); UNDERACTIVE-desire to sleep, constantly tired, weight gain (hypothyroidism)
Q: twin studies
Answer: studies as identical and rhetorical twins to determine relative influence of heredity and environment on human behavior
Q: Wernicke’s area
Answer: located in left temporal lobe; plays role in understanding language and making meaningful sentences
Q: nature
Answer: a person’s inherited traits, determined by genetics
Q: nurture
Answer: a person’s experiences in the environment
Q: mutation
Answer: unexpected changes in the gene replication process that are not always evident in phenotype and create unusual and sometimes harmful characteristics of body or behavior
Q: genetic mapping
Answer: dividing the chromosomes into smaller fragments that can be characterized and ordered so that the fragments reflect their respective locations on specific chromosomes
Q: natural selection
Answer: the principle that those characteristics and behaviors that help organisms adapt, be fit, and survive will be passed on to successive generations, because flexible, fit individuals have a greater chance of reproduction
Q: adaptation
Answer: a trait or inherited characteristic that has increased in a population because it solved a problem of survival or reproduction
Q: nervous system
Answer: the structures and organs that facilitate electrical and chemical communication in the body and allow all behavior and mental processes to take place
Q: agonist
Answer: chemical that mimics or facilitates the actions of a neurotransmitter
Q: antagonist
Answer: chemical that opposes the actions of a neurotransmitter
Q: hindbrain
Answer: the most primitive of the three functional divisions of the brain, consisting of the pons, medulla, reticular formation, and cerebellum
Q: midbrain
Answer: the second level of the three organizational structures of the brain that receives signals from other parts of the brain or spinal cord and either relays the information to other parts of the brain or causes the body to act immediately; involved in movement
Q: forebrain
Answer: largest, most complicated, and most advanced of the three divisions of the brain; comprises the thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system, basal ganglia, corpus callosum, and cortex
Q: split brain patients
Answer: people whose corpus callosum has been surgically severed
Q: Phineas Gage
Answer: railroad worker who survived a severe brain injury that dramatically changed his personality and behavior; case played a role in the development of the understanding of the localization of brain function
Q: Aaron Beck
Answer: pioneer in Cognitive Therapy. Suggested negative beliefs cause depression.
Q: Abraham Maslow
Answer: humanistic psychology; hierarchy of needs-needs at a lower level dominate an individual’s motivation as long as they are unsatisfied; self-actualization, transcendence
Q: Albert Bandura
Answer: pioneer in observational learning (AKA social learning), stated that people profit from the mistakes/successes of others; Studies: Bobo Dolls-adults demonstrated ‘appropriate’ play with dolls, children mimicked play
Q: Albert Ellis
Answer: pioneer in Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET), focuses on altering client’s patterns of irrational thinking to reduce maladaptive behavior and emotions
Q: Alfred Adler
Answer: neo-Freudian, psychodynamic; Contributions: inferiority complex, organ inferiority; Studies: birth order influences personality
Q: Alfred Binet
Answer: pioneer in intelligence (IQ) tests, designed a test to identify slow learners in need of help-not applicable in the U.S. because it was too culture-bound (French)
Q: Anna Freud
Answer: child psychoanalysis; emphasized importance of the ego and its constant struggle
Q: Anna O.
Answer: Austrian-Jewish woman (real name: Bertha Pappenheim) diagnosed with hysteria, treated by Josef Breuer for severe cough, paralysis of the extremities on the right side of her body, and disturbances of vision, hearing, and speech, as well as hallucinations and loss of consciousness. Her treatment is regarded as marking the beginning of psychoanalysis.
Q: Benjamin Whorf
Answer: language; his hypothesis is that language determines the way we think
Q: B.F. Skinner
Answer: behaviorism; pioneer in operant conditioning; behavior is based on an organism’s reinforcement history; worked with pigeons
Q: Carl Jung
Answer: neo-Freudian, analytic psychology; archetypes; collective unconscious; libido is all types of energy, not just sexual; dream studies/interpretation
Q: Carl Rogers
Answer: humanistic psychology; Contributions: founded client-centered therapy, theory that emphasizes the unique quality of humans especially their freedom and potential for personal growth, unconditional positive regard,
Q: Carol Gilligan
Answer: moral development studies to follow up Kohlberg. She studied girls and women and found that they did not score as high on his six stage scale because they focused more on relationships rather than laws and principles. Their reasoning was merely different, not better or worse
Q: Charles Darwin
Answer: biologist; developed theory of evolution; transmutation of species, natural selection, evolution by common descent; “The Origin of Species” catalogs his voyage on The Beagle
Q: Charles Spearman
Answer: intelligence; found that specific mental talents were highly correlated, concluded that all cognitive abilities showed a common core which he labeled ‘g’ (general ability)
Q: Clark Hull
Answer: motivation theory, drive reduction; maintained that the goal of all motivated behavior is the reduction or alleviation of a drive state, mechanism through which reinforcement operates
Q: Daniel Goleman
Answer: emotional intelligence
Q: Darley & Latane
Answer: social psychology; bystander apathy, diffusion of responsibility
Q: David McClelland
Answer: achievement motivation; developed scoring system for TAT’s use in assessing achievement motivation
Q: David Rosenhan
Answer: did study in which healthy patients were admitted to psychiatric hospitals and diagnoses with schizophrenia; showed that once you are diagnosed with a disorder, the label, even when behavior indicates otherwise, is hard to overcome in a mental health setting
Q: David Weschler
Answer: established an intelligence test especially for adults (WAIS); also WISC and WPPSI
Q: Hermann Ebbinghaus
Answer: memory; studied memorization of meaningless words
Q: Edward Thorndike
Answer: behaviorism; Law of Effect-relationship between behavior and consequence
Q: Ekman & Friesen
Answer: Universal Emotions (based upon facial expressions); Study Basics: Constants across culture in the face and emotion
Q: Elizabeth Kübler-Ross
Answer: developmental psychology; wrote “On Death and Dying”: 5 stages the terminally ill go through when facing death (1. denial, 2. anger, 3. bargaining, 4. depression, 5. acceptance)
Q: Elizabeth Loftus
Answer: cognition and memory; studied repressed memories and false memories; showed how easily memories could be changed and falsely created by techniques such as leading questions and illustrating the inaccuracy in eyewitness testimony
Q: Erik Erikson
Answer: neo-Freudian, humanistic; 8 psychosocial stages of development: theory shows how people evolve through the life span. Each stage is marked by a psychological crisis that involves confronting “Who am I?”
Q: Ernst Weber
Answer: perception; identified just-noticeable-difference (JND) that eventually becomes Weber’s law
Q: Francis Galton
Answer: differential psychology AKA “London School” of Experimental Psychology; Contributions: behavioral genetics, maintains that personality & ability depend almost entirely on genetic inheritance; compared identical & fraternal twins, hereditary differences in intellectual ability
Q: Gazzaniga or Sperry
Answer: neuroscience/biopsychology; studied split brain patients
Q: Gibson & Walk
Answer: developmental psychology; “visual cliff” studies with infants
Q: Gordon Allport
Answer: trait theory of personality; 3 levels of traits: cardinal, central, and secondary
Q: Harry Harlow
Answer: development, contact comfort, attachment; experimented with baby rhesus monkeys and presented them with cloth or wire “mothers;” showed that the monkeys became attached to the cloth mothers because of contact comfort
Q: Harry Stack Sullivan
Answer: interpersonal psychoanalysis; groundwork for enmeshed relationships, developed the Self-System, a configuration of personality traits
Q: Henry Murray
Answer: personality assessment; created the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) with Christina Morgan, stated that the need to achieve varied in strength in different people and influenced their tendency to approach and evaluate their own performances
Q: Hermann Rorschach
Answer: developed one of the first projective tests, the Inkblot test which consists of 10 standardized inkblots where the subject tells a story, the observer then derives aspects of the personality from the subject’s commentary
Q: Hans Eysenck
Answer: personality theorist; asserted that personality is largely determined by genes, used introversion/extroversion
Q: Hobson & McCarley
Answer: sleep/dreams/consciousness; pioneers of Activation-Synthesis Theory of dreams; sleep studies that indicate the brain creates dream states, not information processing or Freudian interpretations
Q: Holmes & Rahe
Answer: stress and coping; used “social readjustment scale” to measure stress
Q: Howard Gardner
Answer: devised theory of multiple intelligences: logical-mathematic, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, intrapersonal, linguistic, musical, interpersonal, naturalistic
Q: Ivan Pavlov
Answer: discovered classical conditioning; trained dogs to salivate at the ringing of a bell
Q: Jean Piaget
Answer: cognitive psychology; created a 4-stage theory of cognitive development, said that two basic processes work in tandem to achieve cognitive growth (assimilation and accommodation)
Q: John B Watson
Answer: behaviorism; emphasis on external behaviors of people and their reactions on a given situation; famous for Little Albert study in which baby was taught to fear a white rat
Q: Judith Langlois
Answer: developmental psychology;: social development & processing, effects of appearance on behavior, origin of social stereotypes, sex/love/intimacy, facial expression
Q: Karen Horney
Answer: neo-Freudian, psychodynamic; criticized Freud, stated that personality is molded by current fears and impulses, rather than being determined solely by childhood experiences and instincts, neurotic trends; concept of “basic anxiety”
Q: Karl Wernicke
Answer: “Wernicke’s area”; discovered area of left temporal lobe that involved language understanding: person damaged in this area uses correct words but they do not make sense
Q: Kenneth Clark
Answer: social psychology; research evidence of internalized racism caused by stigmatization; doll experiments-black children chose white dolls
Q: Kurt Lewin
Answer: social psychology; German refugee who escaped Nazis, proved the democratic style of leadership is the most productive; studied effects of 3 leadership styles on children completing activities
Q: Langer & Rodin
Answer: Social Psychology; Helping behavior, personal responsibility; studied the effects of enhanced personal responsibility and helping behavior
Q: Lawrence Kohlberg
Answer: moral development; presented boys moral dilemmas and studied their responses and reasoning processes in making moral decisions. Most famous moral dilemma is “Heinz” who has an ill wife and cannot afford the medication. Should he steal the medication and why?
Q: Leon Festinger
Answer: social cognition, cognitive dissonance; Study Basics: Studied and demonstrated cognitive dissonance
Q: Lev Vygotsky
Answer: child development; investigated how culture & interpersonal communication guide development; zone of proximal development; play research
Q: Lewis Terman
Answer: revised Binet’s IQ test and established norms for American children; tested group of young geniuses and followed in a longitudinal study that lasted beyond his own lifetime to show that high IQ does not necessarily lead to wonderful things in life
Q: Little Albert
Answer: subject in John Watson’s experiment, proved classical conditioning principles, especially the generalization of fear
Q: Konrad Lorenz
Answer: ethology (animal behavior); studied imprinting and critical periods in geese
Q: Martin Seligman
Answer: learning; Positive Psychology; learned helplessness theory of depression; Studies: Dogs demonstrating learned helplessness
Q: Mary Ainsworth
Answer: developmental psychology; compared effects of maternal separation, devised patterns of attachment; “The Strange Situation”: observation of parent/child attachment
Q: Mary Cover-Jones
Answer: behaviorism/learning; pioneer in systematic desensitization, maintained that fear could be unlearned
Q: Masters & Johnson
Answer: motivation; human sexual response—studied how both men and women respond to and in relation to sexual behavior
Q: Noam Chomsky
Answer: language development; disagreed with Skinner about language acquisition, stated there is an infinite # of sentences in a language, humans have an inborn native ability to develop language
Q: Paul Ekman
Answer: emotion; found that facial expressions are universal
Q: Phillip Zimbardo
Answer: social psychology; Stanford Prison Study; college students were randomly assigned to roles of prisoners or guards in a study that looked at who social situations influence behavior; showed that peoples’ behavior depends to a large extent on the roles they are asked to play
Q: Phineas Gage
Answer: Vermont railroad worker who survived a severe brain injury that changed his personality and behavior; his accident gave information on the brain and which parts are involved with emotional reasoning
Q: Raymond Cattell
Answer: intelligence: fluid & crystal intelligence; personality testing: 16 Personality Factors (16PF personality test)
Q: Robert Rosenthal
Answer: social psychology; focus on nonverbal communication, self-fulfilling prophecies; Studies: Pygmalion Effect-effect of teacher’s expectations on students
Q: Robert Sternberg
Answer: intelligence; devised the Triarchic Theory of Intelligence (academic problem-solving, practical, and creative)
Q: Robert Yerkes
Answer: intelligence, comparative; Yerkes-Dodson law: level of arousal as related to performance
Q: Robert Zajonc
Answer: motivation; believes that we invent explanations to label feelings
Q: Rosenhan
Answer: Psychopathology and Social Psychology; effects of labeling; Rosenhan and colleagues checked selves into mental hospitals with symptoms of hearing voices say “empty, dull and thud.” Diagnosed with schizophrenia. After entered, acted normally. Never “cleared” of diagnosis. Roles and labels in treating people differently.
Q: Rosenthal & Jacobson
Answer: Intelligence and learning, self-fulfilling prophecy; Study Basics: Researchers misled teachers into believing that certain students had higher IQs. Teachers changed own behaviors and effectively raised the IQ of the randomly chosen students
Q: Solomon Asch
Answer: conformity; showed that social pressure can make a person say something that is obviously incorrect ; in a famous study in which participants were shown cards with lines of different lengths and were asked to say which line matched the line on the first card in length
Q: Stanley Milgram
Answer: obedience to authority; had participants administer what they believed were dangerous electrical shocks to other participants; wanted to see if Germans were an aberration or if all people were capable of committing evil actions
Q: Stanley Schachter
Answer: emotion; stated that in order to experience emotions, a person must be physically aroused and know the emotion before you experience it
Q: Tolman
Answer: cognition; studied rats and discovered the “cognitive map” in rats and humans
Q: Walter B. Cannon
Answer: motivation; believed that gastric activity as in empty stomach, was the sole basis for hunger; did research that inserted balloons in stomachs
Q: William James
Answer: founder of functionalism; studied how humans use perception to function in our environment
Q: William Sheldon
Answer: personality; theory that linked personality to physique on the grounds that both are governed by genetic endowment: endomorphic (large), mesomorphic (average), and ectomorphic (skinny)
Q: Wilhelm Wundt
Answer: structuralism; in 1879 founded first psychology laboratory in world at University of Leipzig; introspection, basic units of experience
Q: Wolpe
Answer: learning; systematic desensitization
Q: Zajonc & Markus
Answer: intelligence and development; discovered that first born and only children tend to have higher IQs than latter born children
Q: John Locke
Answer: 17th century English philosopher. Wrote that the mind was a “blank slate” or “tabula rasa”; that is, people are born without innate ideas. We are completely shaped by our environment .
Q: René Descartes
Answer: 17t century French philosopher. Famously known for writing “cogito ergo sum” (“I think, therefore I am”). Wrote about concept of dualism.
Q: Socrates
Answer: Ancient Greek philosopher. Promoted introspection by saying, “Know thyself.”
Q: Aristotle
Answer: Ancient Greek philosopher. Wrote “Peri Psyches” (“About the Mind”).
Q: William Dement
Answer: Sleep researcher who discovered and coined the phrase “rapid eye movement” (REM) sleep.
Q: John Garcia
Answer: Researched taste aversion. Showed that when rats ate a novel substance before being nauseated by a drug or radiation, they developed a conditioned taste aversion for the substance.
Q: memory
Answer: the ability to recall past events, images, ideas, or previously learned information or skills; the storage system that allows a person to retain and retrieve previously learned information
Q: encoding
Answer: organizing sensory information so it can be processed by the nervous system
Q: levels-of-processing approach
Answer: brain encodes information in different ways or on different levels; deeper processing leads to deeper memory
Q: encoding specificity principle
Answer: retrieval cues that match original information work better
Q: transfer appropriate processing
Answer: occurs when initial processing of information is similar to the process of retrieval; the better the match, the better the recall
Q: storage
Answer: the process of maintaining or keeping information readily available; the locations where information is held
Q: sensory memory
Answer: performs initial encoding; provides brief storage; also called sensory register
Q: short-term storage
Answer: holds information for processing; fragile; also called short term memory or working memory
Q: Lloyd and Margaret Peterson
Answer: did work on short-term memory
Q: memory span
Answer: the number of items a person can reproduce from short-term memory, usually consisting of one or two chunks
Q: chunks
Answer: manageable and meaningful units of information organized in such a way that it can be easily encoded, stored, and retrieved
Q: rehearsal
Answer: process of repeatedly verbalizing, thinking about, or otherwise acting on or transforming information in order to keep that information active in memory
Q: maintenance rehearsal
Answer: repetitive review of information with little or no interpretation
Q: elaborative rehearsal
Answer: rehearsal involving repletion and analysis, in which a stimulus may be associated with (linked to) other information and further processed
Q: working memory
Answer: Temporarily holds current or recent information for immediate or short-term use; Information is maintained for 20-30 seconds while active processing (e.g., rehearsal) takes place
Q: long-term memory
Answer: storage mechanism that keeps a relatively permanent record of memory
Q: procedural memory
Answer: memory for skills, including perceptual, motor, and cognitive skills required to complete tasks
Q: declarative memory
Answer: memory for specific information
Q: episodic memory
Answer: memory of specific personal events and situations (episodes) tagged with information about time
Q: semantic memory
Answer: memory of ideas, rules, words, and general concepts about the world
Q: explicit memory
Answer: conscious memory that a person is aware of
Q: implicit memory
Answer: memory a person is not aware of possessing
Q: consolidation
Answer: the process of changing a short-term memory to a long-term one
Q: retrieval
Answer: process by which stored information is recovered from memory
Q: ex post facto study
Answer: a type of design that contrasts groups of people who differ on some variable of interest to the researcher
Q: state-dependent learning
Answer: the tendency to recall information learned while in a particular physiological state most accurately when one is in that physiological state again
Q: primacy effect
Answer: the more accurate recall of items presented at the beginning of a series
Q: recency effect
Answer: the more accurate recall of items presented at the end of a series
Q: imagery
Answer: the creation or re-creation of a mental picture of a sensory or perceptual experience
Q: schema
Answer: a conceptual framework that organizes information and allows a person to make sense of the world
Q: decay
Answer: loss of information from memory as a result of disuse and the passage of time
Q: Von Restorff effect
Answer: occurs when recall is better for a distinctive item, even if it occurs in the middle of a list
Q: interference
Answer: the suppression of one bit of information by another
Q: proactive interference
Answer: previously learned information interferes with the ability to learn new information
Q: retroactive interference
Answer: newly learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information
Q: amnesia
Answer: inability to remember information (typically, all events within a specific period), usually due to physiological trauma
Q: retrograde amnesia
Answer: loss of memory of events and experiences that preceded an amnesia-causing event
Q: anterograde amnesia
Answer: loss of memory for events and experiences occurring from the time of an amnesia-causing event forward
Q: motivated forgetting
Answer: occurs when frightening, traumatic events are forgotten because people want to forget them
Q: long-term potentiation
Answer: the biochemical processes that make it easier for the neuron to respond again when it has been stimulated
Q: flashbulb memories
Answer: detailed memory for events surrounding a dramatic event that is vivid and remembered with confidence
Q: Hermann Ebbinghaus
Answer: the first person to study memory scientifically and systematically; used nonsense syllables and recorded how many times he had to study a list to remember it well
Q: Cognitive Psychology
Answer: The study if the overlapping fields of perception, learning, memory, and thought, with a special emphasis on how people attend to, acquire, transform, store, and retrieve knowledge.
Q: Concept
Answer: Mental category used to classify an event or object according to some distinguishing property or feature.
Q: Prototype
Answer: An abstraction, an idealized pattern of an object or idea that is stored in memory and used to decide whether similar objects or ideas are members of the same class of items.
Q: Problem Solving
Answer: The behavior of individuals when confronted with a situation or task that requires insight or determination of some unknown elements.
Q: Algorithm
Answer: Procedure for solving a problem by implementing a set of rules over and over again until the solution is found.
Q: Heuristics
Answer: Sets of strategies, rather than strict rules, that act as guidelines for discovery-oriented problem solving.
Q: Subgoal analysis
Answer: Heuristic procedure in which a problem is broken down into smaller steps, each of which has a subgoal.
Q: Means-ends analysis
Answer: Heuristic procedure in which the problem solver compares the current situation with the desired goal to determine the most efficient way to get from one to the other.
Q: Backward search
Answer: Heuristic procedure in which a problem solver works backward from the goal or end of a problem to the current position, in order to analyze the problem and reduce the steps needed to get from the current position to the goal.
Q: Functional fixedness
Answer: Inability to see that an object can have a function other than its stated or usual one.
Q: Creativity
Answer: A feature of thought and problem solving that includes the tendency to generate or recognize ideas considered to be high-quality, original, novel, and appropriate.
Q: Convergent thinking
Answer: In problem solving, the process of narrowing down choices and alternatives to arrive at a suitable answer.
Q: Divergent thinking
Answer: In problem solving, the process of widening the range of possibilities and expanding the options for solutions.
Q: Brainstorming
Answer: Problem-solving technique that involves considering all possible solutions without making prior evaluative judgments.
Q: Reasoning
Answer: The purposeful process by which a person generates logical and coherent ideas, evaluates situations, and reaches conclusions.
Q: Logic
Answer: The system of principles of reasoning used to reach valid conclusions or make inferences.
Q: Decision making
Answer: Assessing and choosing among alternatives.
Q: Language
Answer: A system of symbols, usually words, that convey meaning and a set of rules for combining symbols to generate an infinite number of messages.
Q: Linguistics
Answer: The study of language, including speech sounds, meaning, and grammar.
Q: Psycholinguistics
Answer: The study of how language is acquired, perceived, understood, and produced.
Q: Phonology
Answer: The study of the patterns and distributions of speech sounds in a language and the tacit rules for their pronunciation.
Q: Phoneme
Answer: A basic or minimum unit of sound in a language.
Q: Morpheme
Answer: A basic unit of meaning in a language.
Q: Semantics
Answer: The analysis of the meaning of language, especially of individual words.
Q: Syntax
Answer: The way words and groups of words combine to form phrases, clauses, and sentences.
Q: Grammar
Answer: The linguistic description of how a language functions, especially the rules and patterns used for generating appropriate and comprehensible sentences.
Q: Naturalistic observation
Answer: A descriptive research method in which researchers study behavior in its natural context.
Q: Developmental Psychology
Answer: The study of the lifelong, often age-related, processes of change in the physical, cognitive, moral, emotional, and social domains of functioning; such changes are rooted in biological mechanisms that are genetically controlled, as well as in social interactions
Q: Zygote
Answer: A fertilized egg
Q: Embryo
Answer: The prenatal organism from the 5th through the 49th day after conception
Q: Fetus
Answer: The prenatal organism from the 8th week after conception until birth
Q: Placenta
Answer: A mass of tissue that is attached to the wall f the uterus and connected to the developing fetus by the umbilical cord; it supplies nutrients and eliminates waste products
Q: Teratogen
Answer: Substance that can produce developmental malformations (birth defects) during the prenatal period
Q: Babinski reflex
Answer: Reflex in which a newborn fans out the toes when the sole of the foot is touched
Q: Moro reflex
Answer: Reflex in which a newborn strectches out the arms and legs and cries in response to a loud noise or an abrupt change in the environment
Q: Rooting reflex
Answer: Reflex that causes a newborn to turn the head toward a light touch on lips or cheek
Q: Sucking reflex
Answer: Reflex that causes a newborn to make sucking motions when a finger or nipple if placed in the mouth
Q: Grasping reflex
Answer: Reflex that causes a newborn to grasp vigorously any object touching the palm or fingers or placed in the hand
Q: Critical Period
Answer: The time in to development of an organism when it is especially sensitive to certain environmental influences; outside of that period the same influences will have far less effect
Q: Schema
Answer: In Piaget’s view, a specific mental structure; an organized way of interacting with the environment and experiencing it- a generalization a child makes based on comparable occurences of various actins, usally physical, motor actions
Q: Assimilation
Answer: According to Piaget, the process by which new ideas and experiences are absorbed and incorporated into existing mental structures and behaviors
Q: Accommodation
Answer: According to Piaget, the process by which existing mental structures and behaviors are modified to adapt to new experiences
Q: Sensorimotor stage
Answer: The first of Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development (covering roughly the first 2 years of life), during which the child develops some motoer coordination skills and a memory for past events
Q: Object permanence
Answer: The realization of infants that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight
Q: Preoperational stage
Answer: Piaget’s second stage of cognitive development (lasting from about age 2 to age 6 or 7), during which the child begins to represent the world symbolically
Q: Egocentrism
Answer: Inability to perceive a situation or event except in relation to oneself; also know as self-centeredness
Q: Decentration
Answer: Process of changing from a totally self-oriented point of view to one tha recognizes other people’s feelings, ideas, and viewpoints
Q: Concrete operational stage
Answer: Piaget’s thrid stage of cognitive development (lasting from approximately age 6 or 7 to age 11 or 12), during which the child develops the ability to understand constant factors in the environment, rules, and higher-order symbolic systems
Q: Conservation
Answer: Ability to recognize that objects can e transformed in some way, visually or phycially, yet still be the same in number, weight, substance, or volume
Q: Formal operational stage
Answer: Piaget’s fourth and final stage of cognitive development (beginning at about age 12), during which the individual can think hypothetically, can consider future possibilites, and can use deductive logic
Q: Cross-sectional study
Answer: A type of research design that compares individuals of different ages to determine how they differ on an important dimension
Q: Theory of mind
Answer: An understanding of mental states such as feelings, desires, beliefs, and intentions and of the causal role they play in human behavior
Q: Morality
Answer: A system of learned attitudes about social practices, instituations, and individual behavior used to evaluate situations and behavior as right or wrong, good or bad
Q: Sex
Answer: The biologically based categories of male and female
Q: Gender
Answer: A socially and culturally constructed set of distinctions between masculine and feminine sets of behaviors that is promoted and expected by society
Q: Attachment
Answer: The strong emotional tie that a person feels toward special other persons in his or her life
Q: Bonding
Answer: Special process of emotional attachment that may occur between parents and babies in the minutes and hours immediately after birth
Q: Temperament
Answer: Early-emerging and long-lasting individual differences in disposition and in the intensity and especially the quality of emotional reactions
Q: Gender stereotype
Answer: A fixed, overly simple, sometimes incorrect idea about traits, attitudes, and behaviors of males or females
Q: Consciousness
Answer: The general state of being aware of and responsive to events in the environment, as well as one’s own mental processes
Q: Circadian Rhythms
Answer: Internally generated patterns of body functions, including hormonal signals, sleep, blood pressure, and temperature regulation, which have approximately a 24-hour cycle and occur even in the absence of normal cues about whether it is day or night
Q: Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Answer: Graphical record of brain-wave activity obtained through electrodes placed on the scalp and forehead
Q: Rapid Eye Movement Sleep
Answer: Stage of sleep characterized by high-frequency, low-amplitude brain-wave activity, rapid and systematic eye movements, more vivid dreams, and postural muscle paralysis
Q: Non-rapid Eye Movement Sleep
Answer: Four distinct stages of sleep during which no rapid eye movements occur.
Q: Insomnia
Answer: Problems in going to sleep or maintaining sleep
Q: Dream
Answer: A state of consciousness that occurs during sleep, usually accompanied by vivid visual, tactile, or auditory imagery.
Q: Lucid Dream
Answer: Dream in which the dreamer is aware of dreaming while it is happening
Q: Manifest Content
Answer: The overt story line, characters, and setting of a dream-the obvious, clearly discernible events of the dream
Q: Latent Content
Answer: The deeper meaning of a dream, usually involving symbolism hidden meaning, and repressed or obscured ideas and wishes
Q: Collective Unconscious
Answer: Jung’s theory of a shared storehouse of primitive ideas and images that are inherited ideas and images, called archetypes, are emotionally charged and rich in meaning and symbolism
Q: Descriptive Studies
Answer: A type of research method that allows researchers to measure variables so that they can develop a description of a situation or phenomenon
Q: Biofeedback
Answer: A process through which people receive information about the status of a physical system and use this feedback information to learn to control the activity of that system
Q: Mediation
Answer: The use of a variety of techniques including concentration, restriction of incoming stimuli, and deep relaxation to produce a state of consciousness characterized by a sense of detachment.
Q: Drug
Answer: Any chemical substance that, in small amounts, alters biological or cognitive processes or both
Q: Psychoactive Drug
Answer: A drug that alters behavior, thought, or perception by altering biochemical reactions in the nervous system, thereby affecting consciousness
Q: Tolerance
Answer: The characteristic of requiring higher and higher doses of a drug to produce the same effect.
Q: Dependence
Answer: The situation that occurs when the drug becomes part of the body’s functioning and produces withdrawal symptoms when the drug is discontinued
Q: Blood-Brain Barrier
Answer: A mechanism that prevents certain molecule from entering the brain but allows others to cross
Q: depressants (AKA sedative-hypnotics)
Answer: Any of a class of drugs that relax and calm a user and, in higher doses, induce sleep; also known as a depressant
Q: opiates (AKA narcotics)
Answer: Drugs derived from the opium poppy, including opium, morphine, and heroin
Q: Stimulant
Answer: A drug that increases alertness, reduces fatigue, and elevates mood
Q: hallucinogens (AKA psychedelic drugs)
Answer: Consciousness-altering drugs that affect moods, thoughts, memory, judgment, and perception and that are consumed for the purpose of producing those results
Q: Substance Abuser
Answer: A person who overuses and relies on drugs to deal with everyday life
Q: Withdrawal Symptoms
Answer: The Reaction experienced when a substance abuser stops using a drug with dependence properties
Q: Adolescence
Answer: The period of extending from the onset of puberty to early adulthood
Q: Puberty
Answer: The period during which the reproductive system matures; it begins with an increase in the production of sex hormones, which signals the end of childhood
Q: Secondary Sex Characteristics
Answer: The genetically determined physical features that differentiate the sexes but are not directly involved with reproduction
Q: Imaginary Audience
Answer: A cognitive distortion experienced by adolescents, in which they see themselves as always “on stage” with an audience watching
Q: Personal Fable
Answer: A cognitive distortion experienced by adolescents, in which they believe they are so special and unique that other people cannot understand them and risky behaviors will not harm them
Q: Longitudinal Study
Answer: A research method that focuses on a specific group of individuals at different ages to examine changes that have occurred over time
Q: Cross-sectional Studies
Answer: A type of research design that compares individuals of different ages to determine how they differ
Q: Gender Identity
Answer: A person’s sense of being male or female
Q: Gender Schema Theory
Answer: The theory that children and adolescents use gender as an organizing theme to classify and interpret their perceptions about the world and themselves
Q: Anorexia Nervosa
Answer: An eating disorder characterized by an obstinate and willful refusal to eat, a distorted body image, and an intense fear of being fat
Q: Androgynous
Answer: Having both stereotypically male and stereotypically female characteristics
Q: Bulimia Nervosa
Answer: An eating disorder characterized by repeated episodes of binge eating (and a fear of not being able to stop eating) followed by purging
Q: Ageism
Answer: Prejudice against the elderly and the resulting discrimination against them
Q: Dementia
Answer: Impairment of mental functioning and global cognitive abilities in otherwise alert individuals, causing memory loss and related symptoms and typically having a progressive nature
Q: Alzheimer’s Disease
Answer: A chronic and progressive disorder of the brain that is the most common cause of degeneration dementia
Q: Thanatology
Answer: The study of the psychological and medical aspects of death and dying
Q: Motivation
Answer: any internal condition, although usually an internal one, that initates, activates, or maintains an organism’s goal directed behavior
Q: Drive theory (aka, drive-reduction theory)
Answer: an explanation of behavior that assumes that an organism is motivated to act because of a need to attain, reestablish, or maintain some goal that helps with survival
Q: Drive
Answer: an internal aroused condition that directs an organism to satisfy a physiological need
Q: Need
Answer: State of physiological imbalance usually accompanied by arousal
Q: Homeostasis
Answer: Maintenance of a constant state of inner stability or balance
Q: Conflict
Answer: The emotional state or condition that arises when a person must choose between two or more competing motives, behaviors, or impulses
Q: Approach-approach conflict
Answer: Conflict that results from having to choose between two attractive alternatives
Q: Avoidance-avoidance conflict
Answer: Conflict that results from having to choose between two distasteful alternatives
Q: Approach-avoidance conflict
Answer: Conflict that results from having to choose an alternative that has both attractive and unappealing aspects
Q: Arousal
Answer: Activation of the central nervous system, the autonomic nervous system, and the muscles and glands
Q: Cognitive theories
Answer: In the study of motivation, an explanation of behavior that asserts that people actively and regularly determine their own goals and the means of achieving them through thought.
Q: Expectancy Theories
Answer: Explanations of behavior that focus on people’s expectations about reaching a goal and their need for achievement as energizing factors
Q: Motive
Answer: a specific (usually internal) condition, usually involving some form of arousal, which directs an organism’s behavior toward a goal.
Q: Social Need
Answer: An aroused condition that directs people to behave in ways that allow them to feel good about themselves and others and to establish and maintain relationships
Q: Extrinsic motivation
Answer: Motivation supplied by rewards that come from the external environment
Q: Intrinsic motivation
Answer: Motivation that leads to behaviors engaged in for no apparent reward except the pleasure and satisfaction of the activity itself
Q: Overjustification effect
Answer: Decrease in likelihood that an intrinsically motivated task, after having been extrinsically rewarded, will be performed when the reward is no longer given.
Q: Humanistic theory
Answer: An explanation of behavior that emphasizes the entirety of life rather than individual components of behavior and focuses on human dignity, individual choice, and self-worth
Q: Self-actualization
Answer: In humanistic theory, the final level of psychological development, in which one strives to realize one’s uniquely human potential-to achieve everything one is capable of achieving
Q: Excitement phase
Answer: the first phase of the sexual response cycle during which there are increases in heart rate blood pressure and respiration
Q: Vasocongestion
Answer: In the sexual response cycle, engorgement of the blood vessels, particularly in the genital area, due to increased blood flow
Q: Plateau phase
Answer: the second phase of the sexual response cycle, during which physical arousal continues to increase as the partners bodies prepare for orgasm
Q: Orgasm phase
Answer: the third phase of the sexual response cycle, during which autonomic nervous system activity reaches its peak and muscle contractions occur in spasms throughout the body, but especially in the genital area
Q: Resolution Phase
Answer: the fourth phase of the sexual response cycle, following orgasm, during which the body returns to its resting, or normal state
Q: Survey
Answer: One of the descriptive methods of research; it requires construction of a set of questions to administer to a group of participants
Q: Representative sample
Answer: A sample that reflects the characteristics of the population from which it is drawn
Q: Need for achievement
Answer: A social need that directs a person to strive constantly for excellence and success
Q: Self-efficacy
Answer: The belief that a person can successfully engage in and execute a specific behavior
Q: Emotion
Answer: A subjective response, usually accompanied by a physiological change, which is interpreted n a particular way by the individual and often leads to a change in behavior
Q: Appraisal
Answer: the evaluation of the significance of a situation or event as it relates to a person’s well-being
Q: Sensation
Answer: Process in which the sense organs’ receptor cells are stimulated and relay initial information to higher brain centers for further processing.
Q: Perception
Answer: Process by which an organism selects and interprets sensory input so that it acquires meaning.
Q: Psychophysics
Answer: Subfield of psychology that focuses on the relationship between physical stimuli and people’s conscious experiences of them.
Q: Absolute threshold
Answer: The statistically determined minimum level of stimulation necessary to excite a perceptual system.
Q: Subliminal perception
Answer: Perception below the threshold of awareness.
Q: Signal Detection Theory
Answer: Theory that holds that an observer’s perception depends not only on the intensity of a stimulus but also on the observer’s motivation, the criteria he or she sets for determining that a signal is present, and on the background noise.
Q: Electromagnetic Radiation
Answer: The entire spectrum of waves initiated by the movement of charged particles.
Q: Light
Answer: The small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye.
Q: Myopic
Answer: Able to see clearly things that are close but having trouble seeing objects at a distance; nearsighted.
Q: Hyperopic
Answer: Able to see objects at a distance clearly but having trouble seeing things up close; farsighted
Q: Photoreceptors
Answer: The light-sensitive cells in the retina- the rods and cones.
Q: Transduction
Answer: Process by which a perceptual system analyzes stimuli and converts them into electrical impulses; also known as coding.
Q: Visual cortex
Answer: The most important area of the brain’s occipital lobe, which receives and further processes information from the lateral geniculate nucleus; also known as the striate cortex.
Q: Dark adaptation
Answer: The increase in sensitivity to light that occurs when the illumination level changes from high to low, causing chemicals in the rods and cones to regenerate and return to their inactive state.
Q: Optic chiasm
Answer: Point at which half of the optic nerve fibers from each eye cross over and connect to the other side of the brain.
Q: Receptive fields
Answer: Areas of the retina that, when stimulated, produce a change in the firing of cells in the visual system.
Q: Saccades
Answer: Rapid voluntary movements of the eyes.
Q: Hue
Answer: The psychological property of light referred to as color, determined by the wavelengths of reflected light.
Q: Brightness
Answer: The lightness or darkness of reflected light, determined in large part by the light’s intensity.
Q: Saturation
Answer: The depth and richness of a hue determined by determined by the homogeneity of the wavelengths contained in the reflected light; also known as purity.
Q: Trichromatic theory
Answer: Visual theory, stated by Young and Helmholtz that all colors can be made by mixing the three basic colors: red, green, and blue; a.k.a the Young-Helmholtz theory.
Q: Color Blindness
Answer: The inability to perceive different hues.
Q: Opponent-process theory
Answer: Visual theory, proposed by Herring, that color is coded by stimulation of three types of paired receptors; each pair of receptors is assumed to operate in an antagonist way so that stimulation by a given wavelength produces excitation (increased firing) in one receptor of the pair and also inhibits the other receptor.
Q: Trichromats
Answer: People who can perceive all three primary colors and thus can distinguish any hue.
Q: Monochromats
Answer: People who cannot perceive any color, usually because their retinas lack cones.
Q: Dichromats
Answer: People who can distinguish only two of the three basic colors.
Q: Size constancy
Answer: Ability of the visual perceptual system to recognize that an object remains constant in size regardless of its distance from the observer or the size of its image on the retina.
Q: Learning
Answer: Relatively permanent change in an organism that occurs as a result of experiences in the environment
Q: Conditioning
Answer: Systematic procedure through which associations and responses to specific stimuli are learned
Q: Reflex
Answer: Automatic behavior that occurs involuntarily in response to a stimulus and without prior learning and usually shows little variability from instance to instance
Q: Classical Conditioning
Answer: Conditioning process in which an originally neutral stimulus, by repeated pairing with a stimulus that normally elicits a response, comes to elicit a similar or even identical response; aka Pavlovian conditioning
Q: Unconditioned Stimulus
Answer: Stimulus that normally produces a measurable involuntary response
Q: Unconditioned Response
Answer: Unlearned or involuntary response to an unconditioned stimulus
Q: Conditioned Stimulus
Answer: Neutral stimulus that, through repeated association with an unconditioned stimulus, begins to elicit a conditioned response
Q: Conditioned Response
Answer: Response elicited by a conditioned stimulus
Q: Higher-order Conditioning
Answer: Process by which a neutral stimulus takes on conditioned properties through pairing with a conditioned stimulus
Q: Extinction (classical conditioning)
Answer: The procedure of withholding the unconditioned stimulus and presenting the conditioned stimulus alone, which gradually reduces the probability of the conditioned response
Q: Spontaneous Recovery
Answer: Recurrence of an extinguished conditioned response, usually following a rest period
Q: Stimulus Generalization
Answer: Process by which a conditioned response becomes associated with a stimulus that is similar but not identical to the original conditioned stimulus
Q: Stimulus Discrimination
Answer: Process by which an organism learns to respond only to a specific stimulus and not to other stimuli
Q: Operant Conditioning
Answer: Conditioning in which an increase or decrease in the probability that a behavior will recur is affected by the delivery of reinforcement or punishment as a consequence of the behavior;
Q: Skinner Box
Answer: Named for its developer, B.F. Skinner, a box that contains a responding mechanism and a device capable of delivering a consequence to an animal in the box whenever it makes the desired response
Q: Shaping
Answer: Selective reinforcement of behaviors that gradually approach the desired response
Q: Reinforcer
Answer: Any event that increases the probability of a recurrence of the response that preceded it
Q: Positive Reinforcement
Answer: Presentation of a stimulus after a particular response in order to increase the likelihood that the response will recur
Q: Negative Reinforcement
Answer: Removal of a stimulus after a particular response to increase the likelihood that the response will recur
Q: Primary Reinforcer
Answer: Reinforcer that has survival value for an organism; this value does not have to be learned
Q: Secondary Reinforcer
Answer: Any neutral stimulus that initially has no intrinsic value for an organism but that becomes rewarding when linked with a primary reinforcer
Q: Superstitious Behavior
Answer: Behavior learned through coincidental association with reinforcement
Q: Punishment
Answer: Process of presenting an undesirable or noxious stimulus, or removing a desirable stimulus, to decrease the probability that a preceding response will recur
Q: Primary Punisher
Answer: Any stimulus or event that is naturally painful or unpleasant to an organism
Q: Secondary Punisher
Answer: Any neutral stimulus that initially has no intrinsic negative value for an organism but acquires punishing qualities when linked with a primary punisher
Q: Learned Helplessness
Answer: The behavior of giving up or not responding to punishment, exhibited by people or animals exposed to negative consequences or punishment over which they have no control
Q: Fixed-interval Schedule
Answer: A reinforcement schedule in which a reinforcer (reward) is delivered after a specified interval of time, provided that the required response occurs at least once in the interval
Q: Variable-interval Schedule
Answer: A reinforcement schedule in which a reinforcer (reward) is delivered after predetermined but varying amounts of time, provided that the required response occurs at least once after each interval
Q: Fixed-ratio Schedule
Answer: A reinforcement schedule in which a reinforcer(reward) is delivered after a specified number of responses has occurred
Q: Variable-ratio Schedule
Answer: A reinforcement schedule in which a reinforcer (reward) is delivered after a predetermined but variable number of responses has occurred
Q: Extinction (operant conditioning)
Answer: The process by which the probability of an organism’s emitting a response is reduced when reinforcement no longer follows the response
Q: Latent Learning
Answer: Learning that occurs in the absence of direct reinforcement and that is not necessarily demonstrated through observable behavior
Q: Observational Learning Theory
Answer: Theory that suggests that organisms learn new responses by observing the behavior of a model and then imitating it; aka. Social learning theory
Q: Social Psychology
Answer: The scientific study of how people think about, interact with, influence, and are influenced by the thoughts, feelings, and behaviors of other people.
Q: Attitudes
Answer: Patterns of feelings and beliefs about other people, ideas, or objects that are based on a person’s past experiences, shape his or her future behavior, and are evaluative in nature.
Q: Elaboration Likelihood Model
Answer: Theory suggesting that there are two routes to attitude change: the central route, which focuses on thoughtful consideration of an argument for change, and the peripheral route, which focuses on less careful, more emotional, and even superficial evaluation.
Q: Cognitive Dissonance
Answer: A state of mental discomfort arising from a discrepancy between two or more of a person’s beliefs or between a person’s beliefs and overt behavior.
Q: Self-perception Theory
Answer: Approach to attitude formation that assumes that people infer their attitudes and emotional states from their behavior.
Q: Reactance
Answer: The negative response evoked when there is an inconsistency between a person’s self-image as being free to choose and the person’s realization that someone is trying to force him or her to choose a particular occurrence.
Q: Social Cognition
Answer: The process of analyzing and interpreting events, other people, oneself, and the world in general.
Q: Impression Formation
Answer: The process by which a person uses behavior and appearance of others to form attitudes about them.
Q: Nonverbal Communication
Answer: The communication of information by cues or actions that include gestures, tone of voice, vocal inflections, and facial expressions.
Q: Body Language
Answer: Communication of information through body positions and gestures.
Q: Attributions
Answer: The process by which a person infers other people’s motives or intensions by observing their behavior.
Q: Fundamental Attribution Error
Answer: The tendency to attribute other people’s behavior to dispositional (internal) causes rather than situational (external) causes.
Q: Actor-observer Effect
Answer: The tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional causes but to attribute one’s own behavior to situational causes.
Q: Self-serving Bias
Answer: People’s tendency to ascribe their positive behaviors to their own internal traits, but their failures and shortcomings to external, situational factors.
Q: Prejudice
Answer: Negative evaluation of an entire group of people, typically based on unfavorable (and often wrong) stereotypes about groups.
Q: Stereotypes
Answer: Fixed, overly simple and often erroneous ideas about traits, attitudes, and behaviors of groups of people; stereotypes assume that all members of a given group are alike.
Q: Discrimination
Answer: Behavior targeted at individuals or groups and intended to hold them apart and treat them differently.
Q: Social Categorization
Answer: The process of dividing the world into “in” groups and “out” groups.
Q: Social Influence
Answer: The ways people alter the attitudes or behaviors of others, either directly or indirectly.
Q: Conformity
Answer: People’s tendency to change attitudes or behaviors so that they are consistent with those of other people or with social norms.
Q: Obedience
Answer: Compliance with the orders of another person or group of people.
Q: Debriefing
Answer: Informing participants about the true nature of a experiment after its completion.
Q: Group
Answer: Two or more individuals who are working with a common purpose or have some common goals, characteristics, or interests.
Q: Social Facilitation
Answer: Change in behavior that occurs when people believe they are in the presence of other people.
Q: Social Loafing
Answer: Decrease in effort and productivity that occurs when an individual works in a group instead of alone.
Q: Group Polarization
Answer: Shifts or exaggeration in group members’ attitudes or behavior as a result of group discussion.
Q: Groupthink
Answer: The tendency of people in a group to seek concurrence with one another when reaching a decision, rather than effectively evaluating options.
Q: Deindividuation
Answer: The process by which individuals lose their self-awareness and distinctive personality in the context of a group, which may lead them to engage in antinormative behavior.
Q: Aggression
Answer: Any behavior intended to harm another person or thing.
Q: Prosocial Behavior
Answer: Behavior that benefits someone else or society but that generally offers no obvious benefit to the person performing it and may even involve some personal risk or sacrifice.
Q: Altruism
Answer: Behaviors that benefit other people and for which there is no discernable extrinsic reward, recognition, or appreciation.
Q: Sociobiology
Answer: A discipline based on the premise that even day-to-day behaviors are determined by the process of natural selection – that social behaviors that contribute to the survival of a species are passed on via the genes from one generation to the next.
Q: Bystander Effect
Answer: Unwillingness to help exhibited by witnesses to an event, which increase when there are more observers.
Q: Interpersonal Attraction
Answer: The tendency of one person to evaluate another person (or a symbol or image of another person) in a positive way.
Q: Equity Theory
Answer: Social psychological theory that states that people attempt to maintain stable, consistent interpersonal relationships in which the ratio of member’s contributions is balanced.
Q: Intimacy
Answer: A state of being or feeling in which each person in a relationship is willing to self-disclose and to express important feelings and information to the other person.
Q: Ex Post Facto Design
Answer: A type of design that contrasts groups of people who differ on some variable of interest to the researcher.
Q: Personality
Answer: A pattern of relatively permanent traits, dispositions, or characteristics that give some consistency to people’s behavior.
Q: Consciousness
Answer: Freud’s level of mental life that consists of those experiences that we are aware of at any given time.
Q: Preconscious
Answer: Freud’s level of the mind that contains those experiences that are not currently conscious but may become so with varying degrees of difficulty.
Q: Unconscious
Answer: Freud’s level of mental life that consists of mental activities beyond people’s normal awareness.
Q: Id
Answer: In Freud’s theory, the source of a person’s instinctual energy, which works mainly on the pleasure principle.
Q: Ego
Answer: In Freud’s theory, the part of personality that seeks to satisfy instinctual needs in accordance with reality.
Q: Superego
Answer: In Freud’s theory, the moral aspect of mental functioning comprising the ego ideal (what a person would ideally like to be) and the conscience and taught by parents and society.
Q: Oral Stage
Answer: Freud’s first stage of personality development, from birth to about age 2, during which the instincts of infants are focused on the mouth as the primary pleasure center.
Q: Anal Stage
Answer: Freud’s second stage of personality development, from about age 2 to about age 3, during which children learn to control the immediate gratification they obtain through defecation and to become responsive to the demands of society.
Q: Phallic Stage
Answer: Freud’s third stage of personality development, from about age 4 through age 7, during which children obtain gratification primarily from the genitals.
Q: Oedipus Complex
Answer: Feelings of rivalry with the parent of the same sex and sexual desire for the parent of the other sex, occurring during the phallic stage and ultimately resolved through identification with the parent of the same sex.
Q: Latency Stage
Answer: Freud’s fourth stage of personality development, from about age 7 until puberty, during which sexual urges are inactive.
Q: Genital Stage
Answer: Freud’s last stage of personality development, from the onset of puberty through adulthood, during which the sexual conflicts of childhood resurface (at puberty) and are often resolved during adolescence).
Q: Libido
Answer: In Freud’s theory, the instinctual (and sexual) life force that, working on the pleasure principle and seeking immediate gratification, energizes the id.
Q: Defense Mechanism
Answer: An unconscious way of reducing anxiety by distorting perceptions of reality.
Q: Repression
Answer: Defense mechanism by which anxiety-provoking thoughts and feelings are forced to the unconscious.
Q: Rationalization
Answer: Defense mechanism by which people reinterpret undesirable feelings or behaviors in terms that make them appear acceptable.
Q: Fixation
Answer: An excessive attachment to some person or object that was appropriate only at an earlier stage of development
Q: Regression
Answer: A return to a prior stage after a person has progressed through the various stages of development; caused by anxiety.
Q: Projection
Answer: Defense mechanism by which people attribute their own undesirable traits to others.
Q: Reaction Formation
Answer: Defense mechanism by which people behave in a way opposite to what their true but anxiety-provoking feelings would dictate.
Q: Displacement
Answer: Defense mechanism by which people divert sexual or aggressive feelings for one person onto another person.
Q: Denial
Answer: Defense mechanism by which people refuse to accept reality.
Q: Sublimation
Answer: Defense mechanism by which people redirect socially unacceptable impulses toward acceptable goals.
Q: Social Interest
Answer: In Adler’s theory, a feeling of openness with all humanity.
Q: Collective Unconscious
Answer: In Jung’s theory, a shared storehouse of primitive ideas and images that reside in the unconscious and are inherited from one’s ancestors.
Q: Archetypes
Answer: In Jung’s theory, the emotionally charged ideas and images that are rich in meaning and symbolism and exist within the collective unconscious.
Q: Longitudinal Study
Answer: A research approach that follows a group of people over time to determine change or stability in behavior.
Q: Trait
Answer: Any readily identifiable stable quality that characterizes how an individual differs from other individuals.
Q: Types
Answer: Personality categories in which broad collections of traits are loosely tied together and interrelated.
Q: Self-actualization
Answer: The process of growth and the realization of individual potential; in the humanistic view, a final level of psychological development in which a person attempts to minimize ill health, be fully functioning, have a superior perception of reality, and feel a strong sense of self-acceptance.
Q: Fulfillment
Answer: In Roger’s theory of personality, an inborn tendency directing people toward actualizing their essential nature and thus attaining their potential.
Q: Self
Answer: In Roger’s theory of personality, the perception an individual has of himself or herself and of his or her relationships to other people and to various aspects of life.
Q: Ideal Self
Answer: In Roger’s theory of personality, the self a person would ideally like to be.
Q: Self-efficacy
Answer: A person’s belief about whether he or she can successfully engage in and execute a specific behavior.
Q: Assessment
Answer: Process of evaluating individual differences among human beings by means of tests interviews, observations, and recordings of physiological.
Q: Projective Tests
Answer: Devices or instruments used to assess personality, in which examinees are shown a standard set of ambiguous stimuli and asked to respond to the stimuli in their own way.
Q: Psychotherapy
Answer: The treatment of emotional or behavior problems through psychological techniques.
Q: Placebo effect
Answer: A nonspecific improvement that occurs as a result of a person’s expectations of change rather than as a direct result of any specific therapeutic treatment.
Q: Double-blind techniques
Answer: A research technique in which neither the experimenter nor the participants know who is in the control and experimental groups.
Q: Demand characteristics
Answer: Elements of an experimental situation that might cause a participant to perceive the situation in a certain way or become aware of the purpose of the study and thus bias the participant to behave in a certain way, and in so doing, distort results.
Q: Psychoanalysis
Answer: A lengthy insight therapy that was developed by Freud and aims at uncovering conflicts and unconscious impulses through special techniques, including free association, dream analysis, and transference.
Q: Psychodynamically
Answer: Therapies that use approaches or techniques derived from Freud, but that reject or modify some elements of Freud’s theory.
Q: Insight therapy
Answer: Any therapy that attempts to discover relationships between unconscious motivations and current abnormal behavior.
Q: Free association
Answer: Psychoanalytic technique in which a person is asked to report to the therapist his or her thoughts and feelings as they occur, regardless of how trivial, illogical, or objectionable their content may appear.
Q: Dream analysis
Answer: Psychoanalytic technique in which a patient’s dreams are described in detail and interpreted so as to provide insight into the individual’s unconscious motivations.
Q: Interpretation
Answer: In Freud’s theory, the technique of providing a context, meaning, or cause for a specific idea, feeling, or set of behaviors; the process of tying a set of behaviors to its unconscious determinant.
Q: Resistance
Answer: In psychoanalysis, an unwillingness to cooperate, which a patient signals by showing a reluctance to provide the therapist with information or to help the therapist understand or interpret a situation.
Q: Transference
Answer: Psychoanalytic phenomenon in which a therapist becomes the object of a patient’s emotional attitudes about an important person in the patient’s life, such as a parent.
Q: Working through
Answer: In psychoanalysis, the repetitive cycle of interpretation, resistance to interpretation, and transference.
Q: Client-centered therapy
Answer: An insight therapy, developed be Carl Rogers, that seeks to help people evaluate the world and themselves from their own perspective by providing them with a nondirective environment and unconditional positive regard; also known as person-centered therapy.
Q: Behavior therapy
Answer: A therapy that is based on the application of learning principles to human behavior and that focuses on changing overt behaviors rather than on understanding subjective feelings, unconscious processes, or motivations; also known as behavior modification.
Q: Symptom substitution
Answer: The appearance of one overt symptom to replace another that has been eliminated by treatment.
Q: Token economy
Answer: An operant conditioning procedure in which individuals who display appropriate behavior receive tokens that they can exchange for desirable items or activities.
Q: Time-out
Answer: An operant conditioning procedure in which a person is physically removed from sources of reinforcement to decrease the occurrence of undesired behaviors.
Q: Counterconditioning
Answer: Process of reconditioning in which a person is taught a new, more adaptive response to a familiar stimulus.
Q: Systematic desensitization
Answer: A three-stage counterconditioning procedure in which people are taught to relax when confronting stimuli that forming elicited anxiety.
Q: Aversive counterconditioning
Answer: A counterconditioning technique in which an aversive or noxious stimulus is paired with a stimulus with the undesirable behavior.
Q: Rational-emotive therapy
Answer: A cognitive behavior therapy that emphasizes the importance of logical, rational thought processes.
Q: Group therapy
Answer: Psychotherapeutic process in which several people meet as a group with a therapist to receive psychological help.
Q: Family therapy
Answer: A type of therapy in which two or more people who are committed to one another’s well-being are treated at once, in and effort to change the ways the interact.
Q: Psychosurgery
Answer: Brain surgery used in the past to alleviate symptoms of serious mental disorders.
Q: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
Answer: A treatment for severe mental illness in which an electric current is briefly applied to the head in order to produce a generalized seizure.
Q: Abnormal Behavior
Answer: Behavior characterized as atypical, socially unacceptable, distressing to the individual or others, maladaptive, and/or the result of distorted cognitions
Q: Model:
Answer: an analogy or a perspective that uses a structure from one field to help scientists describe data in another field
Q: Abnormal psychology
Answer: The field of psychology concerned with the assessment, treatment, and prevention of maladaptive behavior.
Q: Prevalence
Answer: the percentage of a population displaying a disorder during any specified period.
Q: Case study
Answer: a descriptive study that includes an intensive study of one person and allows an intensive examination of a single case, usually chosen for its interesting or unique characteristics
Q: Anxiety
Answer: a generalized feeling of fear and apprehension that may be related to a particular situation or object and is often accompanied by increased physiological arousal.
Q: Generalized anxiety disorder
Answer: An anxiety disorder characterized by persistent anxiety occurring on more days than not for at least 6 months, sometimes with increased activity of the autonomic nervous system, apprehension, excessive muscle tension, and difficulty in concentrating
Q: Phobic disorders
Answer: Anxiety disorders characterized by excessive and irrational fear of, and consequent attempted avoidance of, specific objects or situations.
Q: Agoraphobia
Answer: anxiety disorder characterized by marked fear and avoidance of being alone in a place from which escape might be difficult or embarrassing
Q: Panic Attack
Answer: Anxiety disorders characterized as acute anxiety, accompanied by sharp increases in autonomic nervous system arousal, that is not triggered by a specific event.
Q: Social phobia
Answer: Anxiety disorder characterized by fear of, and desire to avoid, situations in which the person might be exposed to scrutiny by others and might behave in an embarrassing or humiliating way.
Q: Specific phobia
Answer: Anxiety disorder characterized by irrational and persistent fear of a particular object or situation, along with a compelling desire to avoid it.
Q: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Answer: Anxiety disorder characterized by persistent and uncontrollable thoughts and irrational beliefs that cause the performance of compulsive rituals that interfere with daily life.
Q: Depressive disorders
Answer: general category of mood disorders in which people show extreme and persistent sadness, despair, and loss of interest in life’s usual activities.
Q: Major depressive disorder
Answer: Depressive disorder characterized by loss of interest in almost all of life’s usual activities; a sad, hopeless, or discourage mood, sleep disturbance; loss of appetite; loss of energy; and feelings of unworthiness and guilt.
Q: Delusions
Answer: False beliefs that are inconsistent with reality but are held in spite of evidence that disproves them.
Q: Learned helplessness
Answer: the behavior of giving up or not responding, exhibited by people and animals exposed to negative consequences or punishment over which they feel they have no control.
Q: Vulnerability
Answer: A person’s diminished ability to deal with demanding life events.
Q: Dissociative disorders
Answer: psychological disorders characterized by a sudden but temporary alteration in consciousness, identity, sensorimotor behavior, or memory
Q: Dissociative amnesia
Answer: Dissociative disorder characterized by the sudden and extensive inability to recall important personal information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature.
Q: Dissociative identity disorder
Answer: dissociative disorder characterized by the existence within an individual of two or more distinct personalities, each of which is dominant at different times and directs the individual’s behavior at those times; commonly known as multiple personality disorder.
Q: Schizophrenic disorders
Answer: a group of psychological disorders characterized by a lack of reality testing and by deterioration of social and intellectual functioning and personality beginning before age 45 and lasting at least 6 months
Q: Psychotic
Answer: suffering from a gross impairment in reality testing that interferes with the ability to meet the ordinary demands of life.
Q: Paranoid type of schizophrenia
Answer: type of schizophrenia characterized by hallucinations and delusions of persecution or grandeur (or both), and sometimes irrational jealousy.
Q: Catatonic type of schizophrenia
Answer: Type of schizophrenia characterized either by displays of excited or violent motor activity or by stupor.
Q: Disorganized type of schizophrenia
Answer: type of schizophrenia characterized by severely disturbed thought processes, frequent incoherence, disorganized behavior, and inappropriate affect.
Q: Residual type of schizophrenia
Answer: a schizophrenic disorder in which the person exhibits inappropriate affect, illogical thinking, and/or eccentric behavior but seems generally in touch with reality.
Q: Undifferentiated type of schizophrenia
Answer: a schizophrenic disorder that is characterized by a mixture of symptoms and does not meet the diagnostic criteria of any one type.
Q: Concordance rate
Answer: The degree to which a condition or traits shared two or more individuals or groups
Q: Double bind
Answer: a situation in which an individual is given two different and inconsistent messages.
Q: Bipolar disorder
Answer: mood disorder originally know as manic-depressive disorder because it is characterized by behavior that vacillates between two extremes; mania and depression.
Q: Personality disorders
Answer: psychological disorders characterized by inflexible and longstanding maladaptive behaviors that typically cause stress and/or social or occupational problems.
Q: Antisocial personality disorder
Answer: Personality disorder characterized by egocentricity, and behavior that is irresponsible and that violates the rights of other people, a lack of guilt feelings, an inability to understand other people and a lack of fear of punishment.
Q: Child abuse
Answer: physical, emotional, or sexual mistreatment of a child.
Q: Rape
Answer: Forcible sexual assault on an unwilling partner.
Q: Intelligence
Answer: The overall capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally, and to deal effectively with the environment
Q: Factor analysis
Answer: Statistical procedure designed to discover the independent elements (factors) in any set of data
Q: Standardization
Answer: Process of developing uniform procedures for administering and scoring a test and for establishing norms
Q: Norms
Answer: The scores and corresponding percentile ranks of a large and representative sample of individuals from the population for which a test was designed
Q: Representative sample
Answer: A sample of individuals who match the population with whom they are being compared with regard to key variables such as socioeconomic status and age
Q: Normal curve
Answer: A bell-shaped graphic representation of data showing what percentage of the population falls under each part of the curve
Q: Raw score
Answer: A test score that has not been transformed or converted in any way
Q: Standard score
Answer: A score that expresses an individual’s position relative to the mean, based on the standard deviation
Q: Percentile score
Answer: A score indicating what percentage of the test population would obtain a lower score
Q: Deviation IQ
Answer: A standard IQ test score whose mean and standard deviation remain constant for all ages
Q: Reliability
Answer: Ability of a test to yield very similar scores for the same individual over repeated testings
Q: Validity
Answer: Ability of a test to measure what it is supposed to measure and to predict what it is supposed to predict
Q: Halo effect
Answer: The tendency for one characteristic of an individual to influence a tester’s evaluation of other characteristics
Q: Experimental design
Answer: A design in which researchers manipulate an independent variable and measure a dependent variable to determine a cause-and-effect relationship
Q: Self-fulfilling prophecy
Answer: The creation of a situation that unintentionally allows personal expectancies to influence participants
Q: Heritability
Answer: The genetically determined proportion of a trait’s variation among individuals in a population
Q: Mainstreaming
Answer: Practice of placing children with special needs in regular classroom settings, with the support of professionals who provide special education services
Q: Metal retardation
Answer: Below-average intellectual functioning, as measured on an IQ test, accompanied by substantial limitations in functioning that originate before age 8
Q: Burnout
Answer: State of emotional and physical exhaustion, lowered productivity, and feelings of isolation, often caused by work-related pressures
Q: Stress
Answer: A nonspecific, emotional response to real or imagined challenges or threats; a result of a cognitive appraisal by the individual
Q: Stressor
Answer: An environmental stimulus that affects an organism in physically or psychologically injurious ways, usually producing anxiety, tension, and physiological arousal
Q: Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Answer: Psychological disorder that may become evident after a person has undergone extreme stress caused by some type of disaster; common symptoms include vivid, intrusive recollections or reexperiences of the traumatic event and occasional lapses of normal consciousness
Q: Type A behavior
Answer: Behavior pattern characterized by competitiveness, impatience, hostility, and constant efforts to do more in less time
Q: Type B behavior
Answer: Behavior pattern exhibited by people who are calmer, more patient, and less hurried than Type A individuals
Q: Psychoneuroimmunology
Answer: An interdisciplinary area of study that includes behavioral, neurological, and immune factors and their relationship to the development of disease
Q: Coping
Answer: Process by which a person takes some action to manage, master, tolerate, or reduce environmental or internal demands that cause or might cause stress and that tax the individual’s inner resources
Q: Resilience
Answer: The extent to which people are flexible and respond adaptively to external or internal demands
Q: Health psychology
Answer: Subfield concerned with the use of psychological ideas and principles to enhance health, prevent illness, diagnose and treat disease, and improve rehabilitation
Q: Edward Bradford Titchener
Answer: Student of Wilhelm Wundt; founder of Structuralist school of psychology.
Q: Herman von Helmholtz
Answer: Theorist who both aided in the development of the trichromatic theory of color perception and Place theory of pitch perception.
Q: difference threshold
Answer: minimum difference between any two stimuli that person can detect 50% of the time
Q: just noticeable difference (JND)
Answer: experience of the difference threshold
Q: cornea
Answer: transparent covering of the eye
Q: iris
Answer: colored part of the eye that regulates size of pupil
Q: pupil
Answer: small opeing in iris that is smaller in bright light and larger in darkness
Q: lens
Answer: structure behind pupil that changes shape to focus light rays onto the retina
Q: retina
Answer: light-sensitive surface on back of eye containing rods and cones
Q: fovea
Answer: small area of retina where image is focused
Q: photoreceptors
Answer: light sensitive cells (rods and cones) that convert light to electrochemical impulses
Q: rods
Answer: photoreceptors that detect black, white, and gray, and movement; used for vision in dim light
Q: cones
Answer: photoreceptors that detect color and fine detail in bright-light conditions; not present in peripheral vision
Q: optic nerve
Answer: carries impulses from the eye to the brain
Q: visual acuity
Answer: sharpness of vision
Q: blind spot
Answer: area on retina with no receptor cells (where optic nerve leaves the eye)
Q: parallel processing
Answer: simultaneously analyzing different elements of sensory information, such as color, brightness, shape, etc.
Q: sensory adaptation
Answer: temporary decrease in sensitivity to a stimulus that occurs when stimulation is unchanging
Q: frequency
Answer: number of wavelengths that pass a point in a given amount of time; determines hue of light and the pitch of a sound
Q: audition
Answer: the sense of hearing
Q: pitch
Answer: the highness or lowness of a sound
Q: timbre
Answer: the quality of a sound determined by the purity of a waveform
Q: sound localization
Answer: the process by which the location of sound is determined
Q: cochlea
Answer: snail-shaped fluid-filled tube in the inner ear involved in transduction
Q: gate control theory
Answer: pain is only experienced in the pain messages can pass through a gate in the spinal cord on their route to the brain
Q: kinesthesis
Answer: body sense that provides information about the position and movement of individual parts of the body
Q: vestibular sense
Answer: body sense of equilibrium and balance
Q: gustation
Answer: sense of taste
Q: olfaction
Answer: sense of smell
Q: selective attention
Answer: focused awareness of only a limited amount of all you are capable of experiencing
Q: bottom-up processing
Answer: information processing that begins at the sensory receptors and works up to perception
Q: top-down processing
Answer: information processing guided by pre-existing knowledge or expectations to construct perceptions
Q: monocular cues
Answer: depth cues that are based on one eye
Q: binocular cues
Answer: depth cues that are based on two eyes
Q: ESP
Answer: the controversial claim that sensation can occur apart from sensory input
Q: preconscious
Answer: level of consciousness that is outside awareness but contains feelings and memories that can easily be brought into conscious awareness
Q: unconscious
Answer: level of consciousness that includes unacceptable feelings, wishes, and thoughts not directly available to conscious awareness
Q: nonconscious
Answer: the level of consciousness devoted to processes completely unavailable to conscious awareness (e.g., fingernails growing)
Q: REM (rapid eye movement) sleep
Answer: sleep stage when the eyes move about, during which vivid dreams occur; brain very active but skeletal muscles paralyzed
Q: hypnosis
Answer: state with deep relaxation and heightened suggestibility
Q: aversive conditioning
Answer: learning involving an unpleasant or harmful stimulus or reinforcer
Q: Law of Effect
Answer: behaviors followed by pleasant consequences are strengthened while behaviors followed by unpleasant consequences are weakened (Thorndike)
Q: Premack principle
Answer: commonly occurring behavior can reinforce a less frequent behavior
Q: shaping
Answer: positively reinforcing closer and closer approximation of a desired behavior to teach a new behavior
Q: token economy
Answer: operant training system that uses secondary reinforcers (tokens) to increase appropriate behavior; learners can exchange tokens for desired rewards
Q: motive
Answer: a need or want that causes someone to act
Q: instinct
Answer: inherited, automatic species-specific behaviors
Q: set point
Answer: preset natural body weight, determined by the number of fat cells in the body
Q: anorexia nervosa
Answer: eating disorder most common in adolescent females characterized by weight less than 85% of normal, restricted eating, and unrealistic body image
Q: bulimia nervosa
Answer: eating disorder characterized by pattern 9of eating binges followed by purging (e.g., vomiting, laxatives, exercise)
Q: James-Lange theory of emotion
Answer: conscious experience of emnotion results from one’s awareness of physiological arousal
Q: Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
Answer: conscious experience of emotion and physiological arousal occur at the same time
Q: opponent-process theory of emotion
Answer: following a strong emotion, an opposing emotion counters the first emotion, lessening the experience of that emotion; on repeated occasions, the opposing emotion becomes stronger
Q: Schachter-Singer theory of emotion
Answer: we determine our emotion based on our physiological arousal, then label that emotion according to our explanation for that arousal
Q: cognitive-appraisal theory of emotion
Answer: our emotional experience depends on our interpretation of the situation we are in
Q: Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome
Answer: three-stage process which describes the body’s reaction to stress: 1) alarm reaction, 2) resistance, 3) exahaustion
Q: cohort effect
Answer: observed group differences based on the era when people were born and grew up, exposing them to particular experiences that may affect the results of cross-sectional studies
Q: prenatal development
Answer: period of development from conception until birth
Q: fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
Answer: group of abnormalities that occur in the babies of mothers who drink alcoholic beverages during pregnancy
Q: habituation
Answer: decreased responsiveness with repeated presentation of the same stimulus
Q: schema
Answer: framework of basic ideas about people, objects and events based on past experience in long-term memory
Q: zone of proximal development
Answer: the range between the level at which a child can solve a problem working alone with difficulty, and the level at which a child can solve a problem with the assistance of adults or children with more skill
Q: preconventional level of moral development
Answer: morality based on consequences to self
Q: moral development
Answer: growth in the ability to tell right from wrong, control impulses, and act ethically
Q: conventional level of moral development
Answer: morality based on fitting in to the norms of society
Q: postconventional level of moral development
Answer: morality based on one’s own individual moral principles (i.e., conscience)
Q: authoritarian parenting
Answer: style of parenting marked by emotional coldness, imposing rules and expecting obedience
Q: authoritative parenting
Answer: parenting style characterized by emotional warmth, high standards for behavior, explanation and consistent enforcement of rules, and inclusion of children in decision making
Q: menarche
Answer: first menstrual period
Q: menopause
Answer: the cessation of the ability to reproduce
Q: Stanford-Binet intelligence tests
Answer: constructed by Lewis Terman, originally used ratio IQ (MA/CA x 100); now based on deviation from mean
Q: Wechsler intelligence tests
Answer: three age individual IQ tests: WPPSI (children), WISC (children), WAIS (adults)
Q: fluid intelligence
Answer: cognitive abilities requiring speed or rapid learning that tends to diminish with age
Q: crystallized intelligence
Answer: learned knowledge and skills such as vocabulary, which tends to increase with age
Q: emotional intelligence
Answer: the ability to perceive, express, understand, and regulate emotions
Q: triarchic theory of intelligence
Answer: Robert Sternberg’s theory that describes intelligence as having analytic, creative and practical dimensions
Q: aptitude test
Answer: a test designed to predict a person’s future performance
Q: achievement test
Answer: test designed to determine a person’s level of knowledge in a given subject area
Q: replication
Answer: the repetition of an experiment to test the validity of its conclusion
Q: population
Answer: all of the individuals in the group to which a study applies