Prepare for the Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) exam with these systems of care questions and answers. This guide covers cardiac arrest chains of survival and emergency response systems.
Q: Which quality improvement component of systems of care best describes the capture and review of data related to resuscitation education, processes, and outcomes?
Answer: Measurement
Q: Which one of the following is an interdependent component of systems of care?
Answer: Structure
Q: Which is the max interval you should allow for an interruption in chest compressions
Answer: 10 seconds
Q: What is an effect of excessive ventilation?
Answer: Decreased cardiac output
Q: What is the recommended next step after a defibrillation attempt?
Answer: Resume CPR, starting with chest compressions
Q: How does complete chest recoil contribute to effective CPR?
Answer: Allows maximum blood return to the heart
Q: What is an advantage of a systematic approach to patient assessment?
Answer: Reduces the changes of missing important signs and symptoms
Q: What is the first step in the systematic approach to patient assesssment?
Answer: Initial impression
Q: Which action is part of the secondary assessment of a conscious patient?
Answer: Formulate a differential diagnosis
Q: Which is one of the H’s and T’s that represent a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and other emergency cardiopulmonary conditions?
Answer: Hypothermia
Q: What should be the primary focus of the CPR Coach on a resuscitation team?
Answer: To ensure high quality CPR
Q: The CPR Coach Role can be blended into which of the following roles?
Answer: The monitor/defibrillator
Q: Which of the following is a responsibility of the CPR coach?
Answer: Coordinating compressor switches
Q: What is the recommended compression rate for high-quality CPR?
Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute
Q: Which best describes the length of time it should take to perform a pulse check during the BLS assessment?
Answer: 5-10 seconds
Q: Which is a component of high-quality CPR?
Answer: Depth of a least 2 inches
Q: Which component of high-quality CPR directly affects chest compression fraction?
Answer: Interruptions
Q: To properly ventilate a patient with a perfusing rhythm, how often do you squeeze the bag?
Answer: Once every 6 seconds
Q: Which is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized oropharyngeal airway?
Answer: Measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the mandible
Q: Which action is likely to cause air to enter the victim’s stomach (gastric inflation), during bag-mask ventilation?
Answer: Ventilating to quickly
Q: In addition to clinical assessment, which is the most reliable method to confirm and monitor correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
Answer: Continuous waveform capnography
Q: What are the 3 signs of clinical deterioration that would cause activation of a rapid response system?
Answer: Symptomatic hypertension, unexplained agitation, and seizure
Q: What is the purpose of a rapid response team (RRT) or medical emergency team (MET)?
Answer: Identify and treat early clinical deterioration
Q: What is the difference between stable angina and unstable angina?
Answer: Stable angina involved chest discomfort during exertion.
Q: What is a classic symptom of acute ischemic chest discomfort?
Answer: Pain radiation down the left arm
Q: What is the most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infarction?
Answer: Retrosternal chest pain
Q: What is one goal of therapy for patients with ACS?
Answer: Relief of ischemic chest discomfort
Q: What is the recommended dose of aspirin if not contraindicated?
Answer: 162-325 mg
Q: Which is a contraindication to the administration of aspirin for the management of a patient with ACS?
Answer: Recent GI Bleed
Q: What is the initial drug therapy for ACS?
Answer: Oxygen if needed, aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine
Q: A patient without dyspnea has sign an ACS. There are no obvious signs of heart failure. You assess a noninvasively monitored oxyhemoglobin saturation. Which patient should receive supplemental oxygen?
Answer: 88%
Q: Which clinical finding represents a contraindication to the administration of nitroglycerin?
Answer: Systolic BP of 84
Q: What is one major sign of a patient having a stroke?
Answer: Facial droop
Q: What are the major types of strokes?
Answer: Ischemic and hemorrhagic
Q: What is the most common type of stroke?
Answer: Ischemic
Q: What stroke screen was used in the stroke video?
Answer: CPSS
Q: Which is a sign or symptom of a stroke
Answer: Trouble speaking
Q: Why is it important for EMS personnel to alert the receiving facility stroke team as soon as possible?
Answer: Reduce the time interval to definitive care
Q: What is the highest priority once the patient has reached the emergency department?
Answer: CT Scan
Q: What is the goal for neurologic assessment by the team or designee and non-contrast CT or MRI performed after hospital arrival?
Answer: 20 minutes
Q: What is the primary window for the administration of fibrinolytic therapy, timed from the onset of symptoms
Answer: 3 hours
Q: In which situation does bradycardia require treatment?
Answer: Hypotension
Q: A patient in stable narrow-complex tachycardia with a peripheral IV in place is refractory to the first dose of adenosine. Which dose would you administer next?
Answer: 12 mg
Q: A 57- year old women has palpitations, chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide-complex QRS at a rate of 180. She becomes diaphoretic and her blood pressure is 80/66. What should you do?
Answer: Perform electrical cardioversion
Q: A patient is in cardiac arrest Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which drug should be administered first?
Answer: Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO
Q: A patient is in pulseless Ventricular tachycardia. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been given. Which drug should be
Answer: Amiodarone 300 mg
Q: A patient has been resuscitated from cardiac arrest. During post ROSC treatment, the patient becomes unresponsive, with a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia on the monitor. Which action is indicated?
Answer: Give an immediate unsynchronized high-energy shock (defibrillation dose)
Q: What is the recommended range from which a temperature should be selected and maintained constantly to achieve targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?
Answer: 32-36 degrees C
Q: During post-cardiac arrest care, which is the recommended duration of targeted temperature management after reaching the correct temperature range?
Answer: At least 24 hours