Prepare for your Anatomy and Physiology final exam with this comprehensive study guide. This covers all body systems, organ functions, and physiological processes.

Q: The difference between the study of anatomy and physiology

Answer: Anatomy is the study of the structures, while physiology is the study of the functions of these structures

Q: The Levels of Organization in the Human Body

Answer: AtomsMoleculeOrganelleCellTissueOrganOrgan SystemsOrganism

Q: What is Hematopoiesis

Answer: The formation of blood cells in the living body and is made in the skeletal system

Q: What are the necessary life functions?

Answer: Maintaining boundariesMovementResponsivenessDigestionMetabolismExcretionReproductionGrowth

Q: What are the five survival needs?

Answer: Nutrients (food)OxygenWaterBody TemperatureAtmospheric Pressure

Q: What is homeostasis?

Answer: The maintenance of stable internal environments

Q: What two body systems control homeostasis?

Answer: Nervous and Endocrine Systems

Q: What is the order of the homeostatic control system?

Answer: Stimulus, Receptor, Afferent Pathway, Control Center, Efferent Pathway, Effectors, Response

Q: What is the element of the homeostatic feedback mechanism that detects change?

Answer: Receptor

Q: What is the element of the homeostatic feedback mechanism that sets the normal range?

Answer: Control Center

Q: What is the element of the homeostatic feedback mechanism that is usually a gland?

Answer: Effector

Q: What type of feedback operates in such a way to shut off or reduce the initial stimulus?

Answer: Negative Feedback

Q: What type of feedback mechanism operates to enhance or increase the original stimulus?

Answer: Positive Feedback

Q: Body is erect with feet parallel and arms hanging at the sides with palms facing forward is an example of what?

Answer: Anatomical Position

Q: Vertebral is describing what?

Answer: Spine

Q: Antecubital is describing what?

Answer: Front of the elbow

Q: Scapular is describing what?

Answer: Shoulder blade

Q: Thoracic is describing what?

Answer: Chest

Q: Peroneal is describing what?

Answer: Side of the leg

Q: Gluteal is describing what?

Answer: Buttocks

Q: Popliteal is describing what?

Answer: Back of the knee

Q: Sural is describing what?

Answer: Calf

Q: Sternal is describing what?

Answer: Breastbone

Q: Tarsal is describing what?

Answer: Ankle

Q: Inguinal is describing what?

Answer: Groin area

Q: The lungs are ______ to the heart.

Answer: Lateral

Q: The heart is ________ to the lungs.

Answer: Medial

Q: The wrist is ______ to the elbow.

Answer: Distal

Q: The knee is ________ to the ankle.

Answer: Proximal

Q: Ventral Body Cavity includes

Answer: Cranial, Thoracic cavity, Abdominal cavity and Abdominiopelvic cavity

Q: Dorsal Body Cavity Includes

Answer: Spinal Cavity, Pelvic Cavity

Q: What is a section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into right and left parts?

Answer: Sagittal plane

Q: What type of section could used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic?

Answer: Transversal/Cross-Section

Q: ____ are compounds that release hydrogen ions (protons) when dissolved in water

Answer: Acids

Q: What is the sub-unit of a carbohydrate?

Answer: Simple Sugars or Monosaccarides

Q: What is the sub-unit of a protein?

Answer: Amino Acids

Q: What is the sub-unit of a lipid?

Answer: Fatty Acids and glycerol?

Q: What is the sub-unit of a nucleic acid?

Answer: Nucleotides

Q: Hemoglobin is a type of what?

Answer: Protein

Q: Starch is a type of what?

Answer: Carbohydrate

Q: Triglycerides are a type of what?

Answer: Carbohydrates

Q: Collagen is a type of what?

Answer: Protein

Q: Keratin is a type of what?

Answer: Protein

Q: What are the four types of tissue found in the human body?

Answer: Epithelial, Connective, Muscle, Nervous

Q: What is the function of epithelial tissue?

Answer: Protection, Absorption, Filtration, and Secretion

Q: What is the function of connective tissue?

Answer: Binding tissues together, support and protection

Q: What is the function of muscle tissue?

Answer: to produce movement

Q: What is the function of nervous tissue?

Answer: send and receive messages to other areas of the body

Q: What type of tissue it well vascularized and has an extensive matrix?

Answer: Connective tissue

Q: What tissue is found lining body organs, covering the body surfaces or is found covering glandular surfaces?

Answer: Epithelial tissue

Q: What type of tissue contains intercalated disks?

Answer: Cardiac muscle tissue

Q: What are the six types of connective tissue?

Answer: bloodareolarbone (oseous)adiposecartilagedense connective

Q: What are the four types of body membranes?

Answer: CutaneousMucousSerousSynovial

Q: Cutaneous membrane contains what type of tissues?

Answer: Epithelial

Q: Mucous membrane contains what type of tissues?

Answer: epithelial and connective

Q: Serous membrane contains what type of tissues?

Answer: epithelial and connective

Q: Synovial membrane contains what type of tissues?

Answer: Connective

Q: The outer membrane that is in contact with the cavity wall is called the ____ membrane

Answer: parietal

Q: The inner membrane that is in contact with the organ is called the ____ membrane

Answer: visceral

Q: Where would you find the parietal pericardium?

Answer: the heart

Q: Where would you find the parietal pleura?

Answer: the lungs

Q: Where would you find the visceral peritoneum?

Answer: abdominal organs

Q: What protein waterproofs the skin?

Answer: Keratin

Q: What type of tissue makes up the external skin region?

Answer: stratified squamous epithelial

Q: What layer of the skin is lacking blood supply?

Answer: Epidermis

Q: How does the epidermis get nutrients?

Answer: Diffusion of blood from underlying dermis

Q: What are the layers of the epidermis from the outermost layer to the innermost layer? (Come Let’s Get Sun Burnt)

Answer: Stratum CorneumStratum LucidumStratum GranulosumStratum SpinosumStratum Basale

Q: Acne is an inflammation of the _____ glands?

Answer: Sebacceous

Q: The papillary layer of the dermis has structures called the ____ that creates fingerprints.

Answer: Dermal Papillae

Q: What are the two most life threatening concerns if a person has severe burns?

Answer: Dehydration and infection

Q: What clues would indicate that a person has melanoma?

Answer: AsymmetryBorder IrregularityColorDiameter > 6mm

Q: What are the functions of the skeletal system?

Answer: Support, Storage (minerals and fats), Blood cell production (hematopoeisis)

Q: Vertebrae are considered what type of bone?

Answer: Irregular bones

Q: Ankles are considered what type of bone?

Answer: Short bones

Q: What type of marrow functions to produce blood cells?

Answer: Red marrow

Q: What type of marrow functions to store fat tissue?

Answer: Yellow marrow

Q: How is compact bone characterized?

Answer: Smooth, homogeneous look

Q: How is spongy bone characterized?

Answer: spongy, porous, trabeculae

Q: What would the presence of an epiphyseal plate indicate?

Answer: Growth

Q: What is the functioning unit of bone?

Answer: Osteon

Q: The middle of an osteon is a canal which contains?

Answer: Blood vessels and nerve fibers

Q: The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called?

Answer: lacunae

Q: What two hormones control the growth of long bones?

Answer: Growth and sex hormones

Q: What two types of bone cells control remodelling?

Answer: Osteoblasts and Osteoclasts

Q: What three factors affect bone remodeling?

Answer: Mechanical stress, Diet and hormones

Q: An excess of parathyroid hormone can ____ bone breakdown by causing _____ activity of osteoclasts

Answer: increase, increase

Q: What are the five regions of the vertebral column from superior to inferior?

Answer: Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacrum, Coccyx

Q: How many are there of the cervical vertebrae?

Answer: 7

Q: How many are there of the thoracic vertebrae?

Answer: 12

Q: How many are there of the lumbar vertebrae?

Answer: 5

Q: The mastoid process is a landmark found on the ____ bone

Answer: temporal

Q: What are the two types of involuntary muscle tissue?

Answer: Smooth and cardiac

Q: Which connective tissue surrounds an individual muscle cell?

Answer: Endomysium

Q: What is the area between two z lines called? (Also known as the functional contracting unit of muscle)

Answer: Sarcomere

Q: What are thin filaments also called?

Answer: Actin

Q: What are thick filaments also called?

Answer: Myosin

Q: What is the joint movement that decreases an angle between two bones?

Answer: Flexion

Q: What is the joint movement that increases the angle between two bones?

Answer: Extension

Q: What is the joint movement where you are moving away from the midline of your body?

Answer: Abduction

Q: What is the joint movement where your palms are facing down?

Answer: Pronation

Q: What is the joint movement where your toes are pulling towards the shin?

Answer: Dorsiflexion

Q: What is the joint movement where you are pointing your toes?

Answer: Plantarflexion

Q: The term central nervous system refers to the what?

Answer: brain and spinal cord

Q: What is the part of the neuron that normally receives the stimuli?

Answer: Dendrites

Q: What is the mass of white lipid material that insulate the axon of a neuron?

Answer: Myelin Sheath

Q: What is a neuron whose primary function is connection other neurons?

Answer: association or interneuron

Q: What is the first step of action potential?

Answer: Sodium channels open and sodium diffuses inward

Q: What is the second step of action potential?

Answer: The membrane becomes depolarized

Q: What is the third step of action potential?

Answer: Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward while sodium is actively transported out of the cell

Q: What is the last step of action potential?

Answer: The membrane becomes repolarized

Q: What are the three major parts of the brain stem?

Answer: Midbrain, Pons, Medulla Oblongata

Q: What lobe of the brain contains the primary motor area?

Answer: Frontal lobe

Q: What does Broca’s Area control?

Answer: Speech

Q: What part of the brain controls temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst?

Answer: Hypothalamus

Q: What part of the brain is the vital center for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure?

Answer: Medulla oblongata

Q: What part of the nervous system controls the “fight or flight” response?

Answer: Autonomic Nervous System

Q: What is the clear anterior portion of the sclera called?

Answer: cornea

Q: Where is the “blind spot” of the eye located?

Answer: Optic nerve

Q: What is the portion of the eye that regulates the amounts of light entering the eye?

Answer: Iris

Q: Where is the greatest visual acuity found in the eye?

Answer: Fovea Centralis

Q: What is the white of the eye called?

Answer: sclera

Q: What is the blood rich tunic that contains dark pigment to prevent light from scattering?

Answer: choroid tunic

Q: What is the flexible, biconvex-crystal like structure of the eye that focuses images on the retina?

Answer: lens

Q: What is the order that light passes as it enters the eye?

Answer: corneaaqueous humorlensvitreous humor

Q: What major processes do hormones control?

Answer: maintaining electrolyte balancegrowth and developmentmobilizing body defenses against stressorsregulates cellular metabolism

Q: What type of feedback usually regulates hormone concentrations in the body?

Answer: negative feedback

Q: What gland is located in “turk’s saddle” of the sphenoid bone?

Answer: pituitary gland

Q: What is the hormone that triggers ovulation of an egg from the female ovary?

Answer: leutenizing hormone

Q: What is the antagonist hormone to calcitonin?

Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Q: What hormone is produced by the pineal gland?

Answer: Melatonin

Q: What hormone causes a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose?

Answer: Insulin

Q: What are the receiving chambers of the heart?

Answer: the atrium

Q: What are the discharging chambers of the heart?

Answer: the ventricles

Q: What are valves in the heart for?

Answer: prevent the backflow of blood

Q: The mitral valve is located where?

Answer: in between the left ventricle and left atrium

Q: What is the pacemaker of the heart?

Answer: SA Node

Q: What is the pathway of an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart, starting with the SA (sinoatrial node)?Save His Bundles Please

Answer: SA NodeAV NodeBundle of HisPurkinje Fibers

Q: What is the lub sound of the heart?

Answer: Closing of Atrioventricular valves

Q: What is the dub sound of the heart?

Answer: Closing of Semilunar valves

Q: What is the volume of blood pumped out by a ventricle with each beat of the heart called?

Answer: stroke volume

Q: What is the pathway of blood flow in the vascular system?

Answer: (Goes from):ArteriesArteriolesCapillary BedsVenulesVeins

Q: What blood vessel has the highest blood pressure?

Answer: arteries

Q: What is the order in which food passes through the alimentary canal?

Answer: MouthPharynxEsophagusStomachSmall IntestinesLarge IntestinesAnus

Q: What is the primary function of the small intestine?

Answer: Nutrient absorption

Q: What do swallowing and peristalsis both assist in?

Answer: Propulsion

Q: What are the male gonads?

Answer: Testes

Q: What are the female gonads?

Answer: Ovareis

Q: The endocrine function of the testes is what?

Answer: Testosterone production

Q: The exocrine function of the testes is what?

Answer: Sperm production

Q: The “sperm forming factories” of the male reproductive system is called?

Answer: Testes (interstitial cells)

Q: What is the order of the male duct system? (inside to outside)

Answer: EpididymisVas DeferensUrethra

Q: What is the layer of the uterus that sloughs off on a monthly basis?

Answer: Endometrium

Q: What is the hormone that is responsible for ovulation?

Answer: Leutenizing hormone