Prepare for the NASM Corrective Exercise Specialist (CES) exam with these practice questions and answers. This covers movement assessment, muscle imbalances, and corrective strategies.
Q: A runner who experiences reoccuring episodes of plantar fascitis, shin splints and patellar tendonitis is most likely affected by which of the following postural distortion syndromes?
Answer: pronation distortion syndrome
Q: An estimated ACL injuries occur annually in the general U.S. population.
Answer: 80,000 to 100,000
Q: During an overhead squat you notice an asymmetrical weight shift, which muscles could be underactive?
Answer: gluteus medius on the side of the shift
Q: During an overhead squat you have low back rounds compensation, which muscles could be underactive?
Answer: erector spinae
Q: During the overhead squat assessment, the compensation of knees move inward can be attributed by overactivity of which muscles?
Answer: vastus lateralis
Q: Florence and Henry Kendall addressed postural deviations through the relationship of ?
Answer: agonist-antagonist muscle groups
Q: Flexion of the ankle is called
Answer: dorsiflexion
Q: For a foot and ankle impairment what muscle should receive SMR?
Answer: biceps femoris
Q: If the knees move inward what muscles would receive static stretching?
Answer: TFL
Q: If client demonstrates an asymmetric shift which muscles should receive static stretching?
Answer: TFL same side
Q: If low back arches which muscles should receive SMR?
Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Q: Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include
Answer: peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors
Q: Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive?
Answer: soleus
Q: A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive?
Answer: hip flexors
Q: Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of
Answer: load-bearing habits to the side
Q: How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda?
Answer: 3
Q: If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances?
Answer: hip flexors
Q: If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
Answer: adductor complex
Q: If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
Answer: quadratus lumborum
Q: In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive?
Answer: opposite side anterior tibialis
Q: In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR?
Answer: Gastrocnemius/Soleus
Q: IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as?
Answer: runners knee
Q: Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the?
Answer: patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints
Q: Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly
Answer: 80% of all adults
Q: Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patters are known as?
Answer: synergists
Q: what is the most prevalent shoulder injury?
Answer: shoulder impingement
Q: when shoulder pain is reported which is the most prevalent diagnosis
Answer: shoulder impingement
Q: Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized_____ relation to scapular retractors?
Answer: Pectoralis
Q: Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern?
Answer: lower crossed syndrome
Q: the tibiofemoral joint is comprised of the femur and the?
Answer: tibia
Q: The transverse arch of the foot consists of the?
Answer: cuboid and cuneiforms
Q: There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease?
Answer: Arthritis
Q: What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome?
Answer: increased scapular protraction
Q: What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain?
Answer: gluteus medius
Q: What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure?
Answer: decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure
Q: what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist?
Answer: Altered reciprocal inhibition
Q: what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production?
Answer: synergistic dominance
Q: what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination?
Answer: extension, abduction, external rotation
Q: which joint is comprised of the patella and femur?
Answer: patellafemoral joint
Q: which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance?
Answer: third class levers
Q: which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome?
Answer: rectus femoris
Q: which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting
Answer: illiopsoas
Q: which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening?
Answer: infraspinatus
Q: which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement?
Answer: radioulnar supination
Q: which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement?
Answer: side shuffling
Q: Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements?
Answer: hamstrings
Q: which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements?
Answer: transverse plane
Q: which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements?
Answer: sagittal plane
Q: which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint?
Answer: talus-calcaneus
Q: working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the?
Answer: rotator cuff
Q: Neuromuscular efficiency
Answer: The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonists, synergists, and stablilzers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.
Q: Posture
Answer: The independent and interdependent alignment (static posture) and function (transitional and dynamic posture) of all components of the human movement system at any given moment; controlled by the central nervous system.
Q: Structural efficiency
Answer: The alignment of each segment of the human movement system (HMS), which allows posture to be balanced in relation to one’s center of gravity.
Q: Functional efficiency
Answer: The ability of the neuromuscular system to recruit correct muscle synergies, at the right time, with the appropriate amount of force to perform functional tasks with the least amount of energy and stress on the human movement system.
Q: Cumulative injury cycle
Answer: A cycle in which an injury will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesion, altered neuromusclular control, and muscle imbalances.
Q: Movement impairment syndrome
Answer: Refers to the state in which the structural integrity of the human movement system (HMS) is compromised because the components are out of alignment.
Q: Altered reciprocal inhibition
Answer: The process whereby a tight muscle (short, overactive, myofascial adhesions) causes decreased neural drive and therefore optimal recruitment of its functional antagonist.
Q: Synergistic dominance
Answer: The process by which a synergist compenstates for a prime mover to maintain force production.
Q: Lower extremity movement impairment syndrome
Answer: Usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), increased knee valgus (tibia externally rotated and femur internally rotated and adducted or knock-kneed), and increased movement at the lumbo-pelvic-hip-complex (extension or flexion) during functional movements.
Q: Upper extremity movement impairment syndrome
Answer: Usually characterized as having rounded shoulders and a forward head posture or improper scapulothoracic or glenohumeral kinematics during functional movements.
Q: Lengthening Techniques
Answer: 2nd phase in the Corrective Exercise Continuum is to lengthen those overactive or tight neuromyofascial tissues.
Q: Lengthening
Answer: refers to the elongation of mechanically shortened muscle and connective tissuenecessary to increase range of motion (ROM) at the tissue and joint.
Q: 2 most common methods of stretching:
Answer: Static stretchingNeuromuscular stretching
Q: Static stretching
Answer: Combines low force with long duration using autogenic inhibition. This form of stretching allows for relaxation and concomitant elongation of muscle. To perform static stretching, the stretch is held at the first point of tension or resistance barrier for 30 seconds. Performed solo
Q: Neuromuscular stretching
Answer: commonly called proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation,or PNF involves taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation), actively contracting the muscle to be stretched for 7 -15 seconds, then passively moving the joint to a new end ROM and holding this position for 20-30 seconds.
Q: Recurrent inhibition
Answer: A feedback circuit that can decrease the excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the Renshaw cell.
Q: Stretch reflex
Answer: A muscle contraction in response to stretching within the muscle.
Q: Static stretching is characterized by:
Answer: The elongation of neuromyofascial tissue to an end-range and statically holding that position fora period of time.Maximal control of structural alignmentMinimal acceleration into and out of the elongated (stretch) position.
Q: Neuromuscular stretching is (NMS) characterized by:
Answer: Taking the muscle to its end ROM (point of joint compensation)Active contraction of the muscle to be stretchedPassively (or actively) moving to a new end ROMStatically holding new position for 20-30 seconds and repeating 3 times.
Q: Neuromuscular stretching
Answer: Is a technique that involves a process of isometrically contracting a desired muscle in a lengthened position to induce a relazation response on the tissue, allowing it to further elongate. Requires the assistance of another person.
Q: Autogenic inhibition
Answer: The process when neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles
Q: What is the origin of the Anterior Tibialis?
Answer: The lateral condyle and proximal two thirds f the lateral surface of the tibia
Q: What is the origin of the Posterior Tibilais ?
Answer: Proximal two thirds surface of the tibia and fibula
Q: What is the origin of the Soleus?
Answer: Posterior surface of the fibular head and proximal one third of its shaft and the posterior side of the tibia
Q: What is the origin of the Gastrocnemius?
Answer: Posterior aspect of the lateral and medial femoral condyles
Q: What is the origin of Peroneus Longus?
Answer: Lateral condyle of the tibia, head and proximal two thirds of the lateral surface of the fibula
Q: What is the origin of the long head of Biceps Femoris?
Answer: Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis and part of the sacrotuberous ligament
Q: What is the origin of the short head of Biceps Femoris?
Answer: Lower one third of the posterior aspect of the femur
Q: What is the origin of Semimembranosus?
Answer: Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of Semitendinosus?
Answer: Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis and part of the sacrotuberous ligament
Q: What is the origin of Vastus Lateralis?
Answer: Anterior and inferior border of the greater trochanter, lateral region of the gluteal tuberosity, lateral lip of the linea aspera of the femur
Q: What is the origin of Vastus Medialis?
Answer: Lower region of the intertrochanteric line, medial lip of the linea aspera, proximal medial supracondylar line of the femur
Q: What is the origin of Vastus Intermedius?
Answer: Anterior-lateral regions of the upper two thirds of the femur
Q: What is the origin of Rectus femoris?
Answer: Anterior-inferior illiac spine of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of Adductor longus ?
Answer: Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Adductor magnus?
Answer: Ischial ramus of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of the posterior fibers of Adductor magnus?
Answer: Ischial tuberosity of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of Adductor brevis?
Answer: Anterior surface of the inferior pubic ramus of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of Gracilis?
Answer: Anterior aspect of the lower body of the pubis
Q: What is the origin of Pectineus?
Answer: Pectineal line on the superior pubic ramus of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of the anterior fibers of Gluteus medius?
Answer: Outer surface of the ilium
Q: What is the origin of the posterior fibers of gluteus medius?
Answer: Outer surface of the ilium
Q: What is the origin of Gluteus maximus?
Answer: Outer ilium, posterior side of the sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament, and the posterior sacroiliac ligament
Q: What is the origin of Gluteus minimus?
Answer: Ilium, between the anterior and inferior gluteal line
Q: What is the origin of Tensor Fascia Late?
Answer: Outer surface of the illiac crest just posterior to the anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis
Q: What is the origin of Psoas?
Answer: Transverse processes and lateral bodies of the last thoracic and all lumbar vertebrae, including the intervertebral disc
Q: What is the origin of Sartorius?
Answer: Anterior-superior iliac spine of the pelvis
Q: which of the following best describes how plantar fasciitits has affected the population?
Answer: more than one million ambulatory care visits per year are attributed to plantar fasciitis
Q: which of the following is the correct sequence for NASM corrective exercise continuum?
Answer: inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate
Q: which of the following best describes a muscle imbalance?
Answer: when a muscle on both sides of the joint are too strong
Q: which of the following best describes a postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances?
Answer: pronation distortion syndrome
Q: which of the following best describes proper alignment of the kinetic chain checkpoints?
Answer: feet/ankles: straight, knees: in line with toes, LPHC: pelvis level, Shoulders:level and head: neutral
Q: which of the following terms best describes an assessment in which movement is occuring without a change is one’s base of support?
Answer: transitional assessment
Q: which of the following compensations are viewed from the posterior view during the overhead squat assessment?
Answer: heel of foot rises
Q: which of the following muscles are overactive if the client demonstrates their feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment?
Answer: soleus, Lateral gastrocnemius, Bicep Femoris Short Head,
Q: which of the following best describes the purpose of the standing row assessment?
Answer: evaluates the function of the LPHC and the scapular and cervical stabilizers
Q: which of the following is the most appropriate when considering the LESS and tuck jump tests with a client?
Answer: if a client has difficulty performing a single leg squat then these tests are not appropriate
Q: which of the following bones make up the medial longitudinal arch?
Answer: calcaneus, talus, navicular, medial cuneiform, and first metatarsal
Q: which bones make up the ankle joint?
Answer: The “ankle joint” is a synovial hinge composed of the talus, fibula, and tibia, the last of which bears 85% of the weight pressing down on the foot during standing.
Q: which of the following best describes shin splints
Answer: medial tibial stress syndrome Pain in the front of the tibia is caused by an overload to the tibia and associated musculature
Q: which of the following best describes the tibia and the knww when the feet flatten?
Answer: a flat foot will lead to internal tibial rotation and knees will move in
Q: which of the following goniometric measurements are likely to be found if a clients feet turn out during an overhead squat assessment?
Answer: …
Q: which of the following forces are the most likely to result in ACL rupture if the client does not demonstrate proper neuromuscular control of the lower extremities
Answer: anterior, lateral, rotational
Q: which of the following is the most appropriate sequence of assessments for the knee impairments?
Answer: static posture, overhead squat, single-leg squat, tuck jump, goniometric, and manual muscle testing
Q: if the knees move in during the overhead squat assessment which of the following muscles needs to be activated?
Answer: gluteus medius
Q: which of the following would be the most appropriate integrated movement for a client with elbow and wrist impairments?
Answer: prone triceps extension with cobra
Q: during activation of the anterior tibialis, which of the following is the most appropriate position?
Answer: dorsiflexion and inversion
Q: flexion of the ankle is called
Answer: dorsiflexion
Q: functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include
Answer: peroneals, lateral gastrocnemius, soleus, lateral hamstrings, IT band adductors
Q: low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly
Answer: 80% of all adults
Q: Most ACL injuries occur between the ages of
Answer: 15 to 25
Q: muscles assist prime movers during functional movement patterns are known as
Answer: synergists
Q: NASM Corrective Exercise Continuum is organized into which four phases
Answer: inhibit, lengthen, activate, integrate
Q: of all the work related injuries that involve the trunk, more than ____involve the low back
Answer: 60%
Q: of the following shoulder injuries which diagnosis is the most common?
Answer: shoulder impingment
Q: Clients with low back pain have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation and abnormal muscle recruitment patterns with the ____and____ musculature being most noticeable
Answer: transverse abdominius and multifidus
Q: what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist
Answer: altered reciprocal inhibition
Q: what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production
Answer: synergistic dominance
Q: what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity
Answer: extension, abduction, external rotation
Q: which levers are the most common in the body and have the pull effort between the fulcrum and resistance?
Answer: Third class levers
Q: which of the following is a common static malalignment associated with patellafemoral pain and ACL injury?
Answer: Hyperpronation of the foot
Q: which of the following is an example of the predominantly sagittal plane movement?
Answer: climbing stairs
Q: which of the following is an example of a predominantly frontal plane movement?
Answer: side shuffling
Q: which plane of motion bisects the body into front and back halves and consists of primarily adduction and abduction movements
Answer: frontal plane
Q: which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements?
Answer: transverse plane
Q: which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements?
Answer: sagittal plane
Q: which of the following is reported to be the most common sports related injury?
Answer: ankle sprains
Q: joint motion is referred to as
Answer: arthrokinematics
Q: when a muscle is exerting more force that is being placed on it resulting in the shortening of the muscle. What us the type of contraction?
Answer: concentric
Q: which of the following terms explains the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible?
Answer: speed
Q: what is the name of the plane where movements such as abduction and adduction primarily occur?
Answer: frontal plane
Q: the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle is known as:
Answer: intermuscular coordination
Q: what is known as the study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within the body?
Answer: biomechanics
Q: exercises performed in the transverse plane of motion include
Answer: cable lift
Q: resistance training can become a hinderance if the following factors occur
Answer: improper assessment and poor flexibility protocol
Q: what is the term given to an anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body
Answer: ipsilateral
Q: the LPHC has approximately how many muscles attached to it?
Answer: 29
Q: The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods is known as
Answer: strength endurance
Q: balance and neuromuscular efficiency are improved through repetive exposure to a variety of which of the following kinds of conditions
Answer: multisensory conditions
Q: the bending of a joint, causing the angle of the joint to decrease is termed what?
Answer: flexion
Q: balance is what type of process?
Answer: static and dynamic
Q: which of the following exercises is performed predominantly in the sagittal plane of motion?
Answer: bicep curls
Q: a cellular structure that supplies energy for many biomechanical cellular processes by undergoing enzymatic hydrolysis is known as?
Answer: adenenosine triphosphate
Q: what motion is the rectus abdominus responsible for?
Answer: concentrically accelerating spinal flexion
Q: when the assisting muscle in the force couple substitutes for a prime mover during a muscle contraction, which of the following is occurring?
Answer: synergistic dominance
Q: performing exercises in the scapular plane of motion is a preferred motion as it decreases the risk of rotator cuff impingement This can be accomplished in which of the following shoulder exercises?
Answer: dumbbell scaption
Q: when excited which of the following sensory receptors will cause an activated muscle to relax through the process of autogenic inhibition
Answer: Golgi tendon organs GTO
Q: performing exercises in the scapular plane of motion is a preferred motion as it decreases the risk of rotator cuff impingement. This can be accomplished in which of the following shoulder exercises?
Answer: dumbbell scaption
Q: prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle resulting in:
Answer: autogenic inhibition
Q: what is the name of the sensory afferents that are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue?
Answer: mechanoreceptors
Q: the kinetic chain, or human movement system constists of which of the following systems?
Answer: nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems
Q: Research demonstrated that optimum stride length at maximum velocity is
Answer: 2.1-2.5 times leg length
Q: the functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin and lies in the space between two Z lines is known as
Answer: sarcomere
Q: the single most functional unit of the nervous system is a neuron. What are its three outer components?
Answer: cell body, axon, and dendrites
Q: which muscle is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation
Answer: TFL tensor fascia latae
Q: the core stabilizer muscles are predominantly made up of what muscle fiber type?
Answer: type 1
Q: when sprinting proper backside mechanics include which of the following movements?
Answer: ankle plantar flexion
Q: the core is defined as which of the following
Answer: Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, thoracic spine and cervical spine
Q: during seated row exercise the motion occurring at the shoulder joint during the concentric phase of the movement is what?
Answer: shoulder extension
Q: which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body?
Answer: right atrium
Q: arterioles branch out into a multitude of microscopic blood vessels known as
Answer: capillaries
Q: Trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation resulting in muscle spasm and adhesions. If left unchecked these adhesions can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue evident by which law?
Answer: David’s Law
Q: what is the anatomical position that refers to a position above a reference point?
Answer: superior
Q: over time poor posture and repetive movements can begin to create dysfunctions in connective tissue, such as ligaments and tendons, resulting in the initiation of the
Answer: cumulative injury cycle
Q: what is the correct position of the back leg during the cable rotation exercise?
Answer: triple extension
Q: flexion and extension or forward and backward movement primarily occurs int which plane of motions?
Answer: sagittal
Q: alterations in length tension relationships, force couple relationships and arthrokinematics can decrease which of the following?
Answer: neuromuscular control
Q: which section of the the heart gathers re-oxygenated blood coming from the lungs?
Answer: left atrium
Q: which of the following muscles are involved during the inspiration phase?
Answer: pectoralis minor
Q: during a squat exercise, which of the following muscles serve as a synergist?
Answer: hamstrings
Q: which of the following sensory receptors are most sensitive to change in length and the same rate at which that change in length occurs?
Answer: muscle spindles
Q: what is the name of the movement of a body part away from the middle of the body?
Answer: abduction
Q: what is the term that refers to a position toward the back of the body?
Answer: posterior
Q: The idea that there is a certain optimum length at which a muscle can produce the greatest amount of force is termed what?
Answer: length tension relationship
Q: what is the term of the anatomical location referring to the position described as being closer to the midline of the body from a reference point?
Answer: medial
Q: when a muscle is exerting less force than is being placed on it resulting in the lengthening of the muscle, this is known as what type of contraction?
Answer: eccentric
Q: Type 1 muscle fibers are considered to be
Answer: slow twitch
Q: A runner who experiences reoccuring episodes of plantar fascitis, shin splints and patellar tendonitis is most likely affected by which of the following postural distortion syndromes?
Answer: pronation distortion syndrome
Q: An estimated ACL injuries occur annually in the general U.S. population.
Answer: 80,000 to 100,000
Q: During an overhead squat you notice an asymmetrical weight shift, which muscles could be underactive?
Answer: gluteus medius on the side of the shift
Q: During an overhead squat you have low back rounds compensation, which muscles could be underactive?
Answer: erector spinae
Q: During the overhead squat assessment, the compensation of knees move inward can be attributed by overactivity of which muscles?
Answer: vastus lateralis
Q: Florence and Henry Kendall addressed postural deviations through the relationship of ?
Answer: agonist-antagonist muscle groups
Q: Flexion of the ankle is called
Answer: dorsiflexion
Q: For a foot and ankle impairment what muscle should receive SMR?
Answer: biceps femoris
Q: If the knees move inward what muscles would receive static stretching?
Answer: TFL
Q: If client demonstrates an asymmetric shift which muscles should receive static stretching?
Answer: TFL same side
Q: If low back arches which muscles should receive SMR?
Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Q: Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include
Answer: peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors
Q: Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive?
Answer: soleus
Q: A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive?
Answer: hip flexors
Q: Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of
Answer: load-bearing habits to the side
Q: How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda?
Answer: 3
Q: If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances?
Answer: hip flexors
Q: If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
Answer: adductor complex
Q: If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
Answer: quadratus lumborum
Q: In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive?
Answer: opposite side anterior tibialis
Q: In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR?
Answer: Gastrocnemius/Soleus
Q: IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as?
Answer: runners knee
Q: Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the?
Answer: patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints
Q: Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly
Answer: 80% of all adults
Q: Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patters are known as?
Answer: synergists
Q: what is the most prevalent shoulder injury?
Answer: shoulder impingement
Q: when shoulder pain is reported which is the most prevalent diagnosis
Answer: shoulder impingement
Q: Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized_____ relation to scapular retractors?
Answer: Pectoralis
Q: Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern?
Answer: lower crossed syndrome
Q: the tibiofemoral joint is comprised of the femur and the?
Answer: tibia
Q: The transverse arch of the foot consists of the?
Answer: cuboid and cuneiforms
Q: There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease?
Answer: Arthritis
Q: What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome?
Answer: increased scapular protraction
Q: What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain?
Answer: gluteus medius
Q: What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure?
Answer: decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure
Q: what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist?
Answer: Altered reciprocal inhibition
Q: what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production?
Answer: synergistic dominance
Q: what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination?
Answer: extension, abduction, external rotation
Q: which joint is comprised of the patella and femur?
Answer: patellafemoral joint
Q: which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance?
Answer: third class levers
Q: which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome?
Answer: rectus femoris
Q: which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting
Answer: illiopsoas
Q: which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening?
Answer: infraspinatus
Q: which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement?
Answer: radioulnar supination
Q: which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement?
Answer: side shuffling
Q: Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements?
Answer: hamstrings
Q: which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements?
Answer: transverse plane
Q: which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements?
Answer: sagittal plane
Q: which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint?
Answer: talus-calcaneus
Q: working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the?
Answer: rotator cuff
Q: biomechanics
Answer: study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a living body
Q: sagittal plane
Answer: bisects body into right a left halves (movements are flexion and extension)
Q: frontal plane
Answer: bisects body into anterior and posterior halves (movements are lateral)
Q: transverse plane
Answer: bisects body to create upper and lower halves (movement is rotational – int./ext. rotation, etc.)
Q: force
Answer: influence applied by one object to another which results in acceleration or deceleration of the second object
Q: length-tension relationship
Answer: resting length of a muscle and the tension it can produce at that length
Q: force-velocity curve
Answer: relationship of a muscle’s ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities
Q: force-couple
Answer: synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint
Q: rotary motion
Answer: movement of bones around joints
Q: torque
Answer: force that produces rotation (measured in newton-meters)
Q: agonist
Answer: muscle that acts as prime mover
Q: antagonist
Answer: muscle that acts in direct opposition to prime mover
Q: synergist
Answer: muscle that assists prime mover during functional movement patterns
Q: stabilizer
Answer: muscles that support body isometrically while prime movers and synergists perform functional movement patterns
Q: local musculature system
Answer: muscle system predominately involved in joint support or stabilization
Q: global muscular system
Answer: muscle system predominately responsible for movement
Q: deep longitudinal systemposterior oblique systemanterior oblique systemlateral subsystem
Answer: four distinct subsystems of the global muscular system
Q: motor behavior
Answer: HMS response to internal and external stimuli
Q: sensory information
Answer: data that the CNS receives from sensory receptors to determine position in space, limb orientation, temperature, texture, etc.
Q: motor control
Answer: study of posture and movements with involved structures and mechanisms used by CNS to integrate sensory info with previous experience
Q: motor learning
Answer: utilization of sensory info and experience leading to permanent change in one’s capacity to produce skilled movements
Q: motor development
Answer: change in motor behavior over time throughout one’s lifespan
Q: perception
Answer: integration of sensory info with past experience or memories
Q: sensation
Answer: sensory info received by receptor, transferred to spinal cord or higher cortical areas for processing
Q: proprioception
Answer: cumulative neural input from sensory afferents to the CNS
Q: feedback
Answer: utilization of sensorimotor integration to aid in permanent neural representations of motor patterns for efficient movement (two types)
Q: internal feedback
Answer: process by which sensory info is used by body via length-tension and force-couple relationships and arthrokinematics to monitor movement and the environment
Q: external feedback
Answer: info provided by some external source (trainer, mirror, HR monitor, etc,.)
Q: knowledge of results
Answer: used after completion of movement to inform individuals about outcome of performance (“good”movement, etc.)
Q: knowledge of performance
Answer: provides info about quality of movement – during motion or after asking what may have been different in a poor motion pattern (another example, cueing to land light on feet by telling them to listen and land quietly)
Q: neuromuscular efficiency
Answer: ablity of NMS to allow agonist, antagonist, synergists, and stabilizers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, stabilize the HMS in all three planes of motion
Q: posture
Answer: independent and interdependent alignment (static) and function (transition and dynamic) of all componenets of the HMS at any given moment, controlled by the CNS
Q: structural efficiency
Answer: alignment of each segment of the HMS, which allows posture to be balanced in relation to one’s center of gravity
Q: functional efficiency
Answer: ability of the NMS to recruit correct muscle synergies at the right time, with appropriate amount of force to perform functional tasks with least amount of energy and stress to body
Q: cumulative injury cycle
Answer: cycle whereby injury will induce inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesion, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalances
Q: movement impairment syndrome
Answer: refers to the state in which structural integrity of HMS is compromised because the components are out of alignment
Q: altered reciprocal inhibition
Answer: process where by tight or overactive muscle causes decreased neural drive and recruitment of its functional antagonist
Q: synergistic dominance
Answer: process by which synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production
Q: lower extremity movement impairment syndrome
Answer: general term – usually characterized by excessive foot pronation (flat feet), knee valgus, and increased movement at LPHC during functional movements
Q: dynamic posture
Answer: how an individual is able to maintain an erect posture while performing functional tasks
Q: static posture
Answer: how an individual physically physically presents themselves in stance – reflected in alignment of body
Q: myofascia
Answer: connective tissue in and around muscles and tendons
Q: muscle imbalance
Answer: alteration of the functional relationship in groups or pairs of muscles
Q: hypomobility
Answer: restricted movement
Q: lower crossed syndrome
Answer: postural distortion syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and lower extremity muscle imbalances
Q: upper crossed syndrome
Answer: postural distortion syndrome characterized by forward head rounded shoulders with upper extremity imbalances
Q: pronation distortion syndrome
Answer: postural distortion syndrome characterized by foot pronation and lower extremity muscle imbalances
Q: muscle balance
Answer: establishing normal length-tension relationships, which ensure proper length and strength of each muscle around a joint
Q: kinetic chain
Answer: interconnected link of joints throughout the body – force transference from nervous system to muscular and skeletal systems
Q: transitional movement assessments
Answer: assessment involving movement that doesnt change one’s base of support (squatting, pushing, pulling, pressing, balance)
Q: dynamic movement assessments
Answer: assesments that involve a change in one’s base of support (lunging, walking, jumping)
Q: range of motion
Answer: amount of motion available at specific joint
Q: passive range of motion
Answer: amount of ROM obtained by examiner without any effort by client
Q: active range of motion
Answer: amount of ROM obtained solely through voluntary contraction by client
Q: strength
Answer: ability of the NMS to produce internal tension to overcome external force
Q: isokinetic testing
Answer: muscle strength test with sophisticated equipment, creating constant speed of movement no matter the force
Q: dynamometry
Answer: process of measuring forces at work using handheld instrument that measures force of muscle contraction
Q: IT-band syndrome
Answer: continual rubbing of IT-band over lateral femoral epicondoyle leading to area becoming inflamed
Q: break test
Answer: muscle manual test – end of available ROM, client asked to hold position and not allow examiner to “break” hold with manual resistance
Q: self-myofascial release
Answer: flexibility techninque used to inhibit overactive fibers – uses foam rollers, balls, etc.
Q: Davis’s law
Answer: states that soft tissue will model along lines of stress
Q: relative flexibility
Answer: phenomenon of HMS seeking path of least resistance during functional movement patterns (movement compensation)
Q: autogenic inhibition
Answer: inhibition of muscle spindle resulting from golgi tendon organ stimulation
Q: gamma loop
Answer: reflex arc consisting of small anterior horn nerve cells and fibers that project to the intrafusal bundle which initiates afferent impulses that pass through the posterior root back to anterior horn cells inducing muscle contraction – efferents cause reciprocal inhibition of antagonists
Q: recurrent inhibition
Answer: feedback circuit that can decrease excitability of motor neurons via the interneuron called the renshaw cell
Q: stretch reflex
Answer: muscle contraction in response to stretching within muscle
Q: synchronization
Answer: synergistic activation of multiple motor units
Q: intramuscular coordination
Answer: ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor recruitment and synchronization within a muscle
Q: motor unit activation
Answer: progressive activation of a muscle by successive recruitment of contractile units to accomplish increasing gradations of contractile strength
Q: firing rate
Answer: frequency at which a motor unit is activated
Q: intermuscular coordination
Answer: ability of neuromuscular system to allow muscles to work together with proper activation and timing between them
Q: phalanges, metatarsals, tarsals
Answer: three main groups of bones that make up the foot and ankle
Q: talocrural joint
Answer: the ankle joint is actually called what?
Q: tibiofemoral joint
Answer: the tibia of the lower leg and the femur make up which joint?
Q: patellofemoral joint
Answer: the patella and femur make up which joint?
Q: illiofemoral joint
Answer: the pelvis and femur make up which joint?
Q: plantar fasciitis
Answer: irritation and swelling of tissue on sole of the foot – most common pain is in bottom of the heel
Q: tendinopathy
Answer: combination of pain, swelling, and impaired performance commonly associated with the Achille’s tendon
Q: tendinosis
Answer: damage to tendon at the cellular level, but doesn’t present as inflammation
Q: medial tibial stress syndrome
Answer: pain in front of tibia caused by overload to the tibia and associated musculature (commonly called shin splints)
Q: periosteum
Answer: membrane that lines the outer surface of all bones
Q: ankle sprains
Answer: injury to the ankle ligaments in which small tears occur
Q: chronic ankle instability
Answer: repetitive episodes of giving way at the ankle, coupled with feelings of instability
Q: posterior talofibular, anterior talofibular, and calcaneofibular ligaments
Answer: three lateral ankle ligaments most affected by ankle sprains
Q: pes planus
Answer: flattened medial arch during weight-bearing
Q: pes cavus
Answer: high medial arch during weight-bearing
Q: patellar tendinopathy
Answer: common overuse injury to patellar tendon, resulting in tiny tears. can cause necrotic degenerative change or inflammation in the tendon and pain. (injury common in jumping sports – also called “Jumper’s knee”)
Q: jumper’s knee
Answer: patellar tendinopathy is commonly called what?
Q: illiotibial band syndrome
Answer: syndrome that is a result of inflammation/irritation to distal part of the IT band, usually caused by overuse and abnormal biomechanics/gait
Q: lateral femoral condyle, greater trochanter of the hip
Answer: most commonly, the IT band rubs against the ________ of the knee causing IT band syndrome, and much less commonly the __________
Q: TFL, stance
Answer: IT band syndrome may occur due to lack of flexibility in the ________, which can result in increased IT band tension during _____ phase of running
Q: gluteus medius
Answer: a common weakness in IT band syndrome is the _____ causing synergistic dominance of the TFL
Q: patellofemoral syndrome
Answer: abnormal tracking of patella within the femoral trochlea
Q: females
Answer: which sex is more likely to acquire ACL injury?
Q: circumduction
Answer: circular movement of a limb
Q: subacromial impingement syndrome (SAIS)
Answer: common diagnosis broadly defined as compression of the structures that run beneath the caracoacromial arch, most often from decrease in subacromial space
Q: dyskinesis
Answer: an alteration in the normal position or motion of the scapula during coupled scapulohumeral movements
Q: deafferentiation
Answer: elimination or interruption of sensory nerve impulses by destroying or injuring the sensory nerve fibers
Q: de quervain syndrome
Answer: inflammation or tendinosis of the sheath that surrounds two tendons that control movement of the thumb
Q: cartesian coordinate system
Answer: system used for measurements in three-dimensional space
Q: a-band
Answer: region of the sarcomere where myosin filaments are predominately seen with minor overlap of actin filaments
Q: afferent neurons
Answer: neurons that gather incoming sensory info and deliver to CNS
Q: Corrective Exercise
Answer: Systematic process of ID nueromusculoskeletal dysfunction, plan of action, and implement integrated corrective strategy
Q: Corrective Exercise Continuum
Answer: NuerMuscSkel dysfunction – inhibitory, lengthening, activation, integration technique
Q: Inhibitory Techniques
Answer: Release tension of overactive muscle tissues in body
Q: Lengthening techniques
Answer: Increase extensibility, length, and range of motion of nueromyofascial tissues in body
Q: Activation Technique
Answer: Corrective exercise techniques reeducate or increase activation of under active tissues
Q: Integration techniques
Answer: Retrain collective synergistic function.
Q: 1985
Answer: International Obesity Task force deemed obesity an epidemic
Q: 1/6 or 16% of adults
Answer: Are obese
Q: 18% of teenagers and adolescents
Answer: Are overweight
Q: Muscoskeletal is more common
Answer: Now than 40 years ago due to because of technology and manual labor saving devices
Q: Plantar Fasciitis
Answer: 1 million ambulatory care Dr visits per year
Q: 1/3 work related injury involves
Answer: Trunk
Q: More than 60% involve
Answer: Lower back
Q: Low back pain cost in US
Answer: 26%billion
Q: ACL injuries in US
Answer: 80-100k injuries
Q: ACL non contact injuries
Answer: 70-75% are non contact
Q: Shoulder pains occur in
Answer: 21%of population
Q: Shoulder pain
Answer: 40% persist for a year annual cost 39 billion.
Q: Shoulder impingement
Answer: 40-65% of reported pain
Q: Most ACL injuries
Answer: Occur between 15-25 years old
Q: Low back is major degenerate form in adult population
Answer: 80% predominant in enclosed spaces and manual labor, altered lumber lordosis , sit more than 3 hours
Q: Low back athletes
Answer: 6-15%
Q: Ankle Sprain
Answer: Most common sports related injuries
Q: Low- back is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly
Answer: 80% of Adults
Q: Adductor Complex concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
Q: adductor complex eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip abduction, extension and external rotation
Q: adductor complex isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: Adductor Magnus, anterior fibers – concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
Q: adductor magnus, anterior fibers, eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip abduction, extension and external rotation
Q: adductor magnus, anterior fibers, isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: Adductor Magnus, posterior fibers, concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip adduction, extension, and external rotation
Q: Adductor Magnus, posterior fiers, eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip abduction, flexion and external rotation
Q: Adductor Magnus, posterior fibers, isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: adductor brevis concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
Q: adductor brevis eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip abduction, extension and external rotation
Q: adductor brevis isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: Gracilis concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation; assists in tibial internal rotation
Q: gracilis eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip abduction, extension and external rotation
Q: gracilis isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc and knee
Q: pectineus concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip adduction, flexion and internal rotation
Q: pectineus eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip abduction, extension and external rotation
Q: pectineus isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: Gluteus medius, anterior fibers concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip abduction and internal rotation
Q: gluteus medius anterior fibers eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip adduction and external rotation
Q: gluteus medius anterior fibers, isometric action
Answer: dynamically stabilizes the lphc
Q: gluteus medius posterior fibers, concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip abduction and external rotaion
Q: gluteus medius posterior fibers, eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation
Q: gluteus medius posterior fibers, isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: gluteus minimus concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip abduction, flexion and internal rotation
Q: gluteus minimus eccentric action
Answer: decelerates frontal plane hip adduction, extension and external rotation
Q: gluteus minimus isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: tensor Fascia Latae concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
Q: tensor fascia latae eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip extension, adduction and external rotation
Q: tensor fascia latae isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: gluteus maximus concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip extension, and external rotation
Q: gluteus maximus eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip flexion, internal rotation, and tibial internal rotation via the IT-band
Q: Gluteus maximus isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: psoas concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip flexion and external rotation, extends and rotates lumbar spine
Q: psoas eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip internal rotation and decelerates hip extension
Q: psoas isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc
Q: sartorius concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip flexion, external rotation and abduction, accelerates knee flexion and internal rotation
Q: sartorius eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip extension, external rotation, knee extension and external rotation
Q: sartorius isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the lphc and knee
Q: piriformis concentric action
Answer: accelerates hip external rotation, abduction and extenson
Q: piriformis eccentric action
Answer: decelerates hip internal rotation, adduction and flexion
Q: piriformis isometric action
Answer: stabilizes the hip and sacroiliac joints
Q: Biomechanics
Answer: principles of physics to study how forces interact within a living body
Q: Force
Answer: Influence applied by one object to another, results in accelerate or deceleration in 2nd object
Q: Rotary Motion
Answer: Movement of Bones around joint
Q: Torque
Answer: Force that produces rotation
Q: Agonist
Answer: Prime movers
Q: Antagonist
Answer: Act in direct opposition to prime movers
Q: Synergists
Answer: Assist prime movers during functional movement
Q: Stabilizers
Answer: Support body while prime movers and synergists perform movement patterns
Q: Motor Behavior
Answer: HMS response to internal and external stimuli
Q: Motor control
Answer: Posture and movements with involved structured and mechanisms used by CNS to assimilate and integrate sensory information with previous experiences
Q: Motor Learning
Answer: Integration of Motor Control process through practice and experience = relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled movements.
Q: Motor Development
Answer: Change in Motor Behavior with time throughout lifespan.
Q: Internal(Sensory) Feedback
Answer: Used by body via length-tension relationships, force-couple, and arthrokinematics to monitor movement and environment
Q: External ( augmented) feedback
Answer: Info provided by some external source, for example, a health and fitness professional, videotape, mirror, or heart rate monitor
Q: Knowledge of results
Answer: Feedback after completion of movement to educate on outcome of performance
Q: Knowledge of performance
Answer: Provides info about quality of movement
Q: Length- tension relationship
Answer: Resting length of muscle and tension it can produce at this resting length
Q: Force -Velocity curve
Answer: Relationship of a muscle abilities at different shortening velocities
Q: Force-couple
Answer: Synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint
Q: Local musculature system
Answer: Muscles that are predom involved in joint support and stabilization
Q: Global musculature system
Answer: Muscles responsible predominately for movement consisting of more superficial muscle that originates from Pelvis to rib cage, lower extremities or both
Q: Sensory information
Answer: Ability of CNS to gather and interpret sensory info to execute proper motor response
Q: Sensation
Answer: Sensory info Recieved by receptor and transferred to either spinal cord for reflexive motor behavior or to cortical areas for processing, or both.
Q: Perception
Answer: Integration of sensory info with past experiences or memories
Q: Sensorimotor integration
Answer: Utilization of sensory info and sensorimotor integrate to aid in development of permanent nueral representations of motor patterns for efficient movement
Q: Feedback
Answer: Data that CNS recieved from sensory receptors go determine such things as body’s position in space and limb orientation as well as info about environment, temp, texture…
Q: Supination
Answer: Multi planar, synchronized joint motion CONCENTRIC muscle function
Q: Pronation
Answer: Eccentric
Q: Isometric
Answer: Contractive force is equal to resistive Force
Q: Concentric
Answer: Contractile greater than resistive Force
Q: Lateral Sub-System
Answer: Gluteus medius, tensor fascia late, adductor complex
Q: Deep Longitudinal Sub-System
Answer: Erector Spinae, thoracic umbra fascia, sacrotuberous ligament, biceps femoris
Q: Anterior Oblique Sub-system
Answer: Internal and external obliques, adductor complex, hip external rotators
Q: Posterior Oblique Sub-System
Answer: Gluteus Maximas, thoracolumbar fascia, contra lateral latissimus dorsi, SYNERGistically with deep longitudinal sub system
Q: Limbo-Pelvic-Hip-Complex
Answer: LPHC- Transverse abdominus, multifidus, internal oblique, diaphragm, pelvic floor muscles.
Q: Sensation
Answer: Cumulative nueral input from sensory afferents to the CNS
Q: Central
Answer: Nervous system designed to optimize muscle synergies.
Q: Dorsiflexion
Answer: flexion at the ankle
Q: Anterior tibialis (concentric)
Answer: Accelerate ankle dorsiflexion and eversion
Q: Gluteus Medius (posterior fibers)
Answer: Decel hip abd and intern rotation
Q: Latissimus Dorsi (Conentric)
Answer: Shldr ext, adduct, internal rotation
Q: Biceps Femoris short head (Concentric)
Answer: Accel knee flex
Q: Tensor Fascia Latae (Concentric)
Answer: Accel hip flexion, adduct, and internal rotation
Q: Pectoralis Major (eccentric)
Answer: Decel shldr ext, horizontal abduct, and ext rotation
Q: A runner who experiences reoccuring episodes of plantar fascitis, shin splints and patellar tendonitis is most likely affected by which of the following postural distortion syndromes?
Answer: pronation distortion syndrome
Q: An estimated ACL injuries occur annually in the general U.S. population.
Answer: 80,000 to 100,000
Q: During an overhead squat you notice an asymmetrical weight shift, which muscles could be underactive?
Answer: gluteus medius on the side of the shift
Q: During an overhead squat you have low back rounds compensation, which muscles could be underactive?
Answer: erector spinae
Q: During the overhead squat assessment, the compensation of knees move inward can be attributed by overactivity of which muscles?
Answer: vastus lateralis
Q: Florence and Henry Kendall addressed postural deviations through the relationship of ?
Answer: agonist-antagonist muscle groups
Q: Flexion of the ankle is called
Answer: dorsiflexion
Q: For a foot and ankle impairment what muscle should receive SMR?
Answer: biceps femoris
Q: If the knees move inward what muscles would receive static stretching?
Answer: TFL
Q: If client demonstrates an asymmetric shift which muscles should receive static stretching?
Answer: TFL same side
Q: If low back arches which muscles should receive SMR?
Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Q: Functionally tightened or overactive muscles accompanying the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include
Answer: peroneals, gastrocnemius, soleus, hamstrings, IT band, adductors
Q: Having an excessive forward lean in an overhead squat during LPHC movement compensation what muscles may be overactive?
Answer: soleus
Q: A low back arch in the overhead squat indicates what muscles are overactive?
Answer: hip flexors
Q: Hips that are shifted off the midline are most likely indicative of
Answer: load-bearing habits to the side
Q: How many postural distortion patterns were identified by Janda?
Answer: 3
Q: If a client sits all day this in turn can lead to tight______ that can cause postural imbalances?
Answer: hip flexors
Q: If the client has a hip hike during the single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
Answer: adductor complex
Q: If the hip drops during a single leg squat which muscle is underactive?
Answer: quadratus lumborum
Q: In the asymmetrical shift which muscles are most likely underactive?
Answer: opposite side anterior tibialis
Q: In the inhibit phase for knee impairments which muscles should be SMR?
Answer: Gastrocnemius/Soleus
Q: IT-Band tendonitis is often referred to as?
Answer: runners knee
Q: Knee injuries can cause decrease in nerual control to muscles that stabilize the?
Answer: patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints
Q: Low back pain is a major form of degeneration affecting nearly
Answer: 80% of all adults
Q: Muscles that assist prime movers during functional movement patters are known as?
Answer: synergists
Q: what is the most prevalent shoulder injury?
Answer: shoulder impingement
Q: when shoulder pain is reported which is the most prevalent diagnosis
Answer: shoulder impingement
Q: Swimmers often exhibit overemphasized_____ relation to scapular retractors?
Answer: Pectoralis
Q: Anterior pelvic tilt is a characteristic of which compensatory pattern?
Answer: lower crossed syndrome
Q: the tibiofemoral joint is comprised of the femur and the?
Answer: tibia
Q: The transverse arch of the foot consists of the?
Answer: cuboid and cuneiforms
Q: There is a strong correlation between ACL injuries and which chronic disease?
Answer: Arthritis
Q: What altered joint motion is commonly displayed in an individual with upper crossed syndrome?
Answer: increased scapular protraction
Q: What hip muscle has been shown to become weaker after an ankle sprain?
Answer: gluteus medius
Q: What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure?
Answer: decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure
Q: what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist?
Answer: Altered reciprocal inhibition
Q: what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production?
Answer: synergistic dominance
Q: what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination?
Answer: extension, abduction, external rotation
Q: which joint is comprised of the patella and femur?
Answer: patellafemoral joint
Q: which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance?
Answer: third class levers
Q: which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome?
Answer: rectus femoris
Q: which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting
Answer: illiopsoas
Q: which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening?
Answer: infraspinatus
Q: which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement?
Answer: radioulnar supination
Q: which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement?
Answer: side shuffling
Q: Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements?
Answer: hamstrings
Q: which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements?
Answer: transverse plane
Q: which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements?
Answer: sagittal plane
Q: which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint?
Answer: talus-calcaneus
Q: working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the?
Answer: rotator cuff
Q: Muscles involved in the Anterior Oblique subsystem (AOS)
Answer: Internal Oblique and adductor complex, external oblique and hip external rotators
Q: Function of anterior oblique subsystem
Answer: provides transverse plane stabilization and force transmission necessary for functional activities involving the trunk and extremities Provides rotation of the pelvis *provides dynamic stabilization of lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
Q: Muscles involved in the lateral subsystem (LS)
Answer: Gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adducor complex and quadratus lumborum
Q: Function of lateral subsystem (LS)
Answer: frontal plan stability and pelvo-femoral stability,
Q: Dysfunction in the Lateral subsystem (LS) is evident by
Answer: increased pronation of the knee, hip, or feet during walking, squats, lunges or climbing chairs
Q: Unwanted frontal plane movement is characterized by
Answer: decreased strength and neuromuscular control in the lateral subsystem (LS)
Q: The anterior subsystem (AOS) functions in the in which plane
Answer: transverse
Q: Force couple
Answer: the synergistic action of a muscle to produce movement around a joint
Q: length tension relationships
Answer: the resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce while resting
Q: The global stabilization subsystem in predominantly responsible for
Answer: LPHC stabilization and eccentric deceleration
Q: The global stabilization subsystem consists of
Answer: superficial musculature that originates from the pelvis to the ribcage, the lower extremities or both
Q: The major muscles of the global stabilization subsystem
Answer: rectus abdominis, external obliques, erector spinae, quadratus lumborum, psoas, and adductors
Q: The global stabilization subsystem muscles are predominately
Answer: larger and associated with movement of the trunk and limbs
Q: The global stabilization subsystem equalizes
Answer: external loads placed upon the body
Q: The muscles of the global stabilization subsystem are important in
Answer: transferring and absorbing forces from the upper and lower extremities to the pelvis (eccentric deceleration)
Q: The global movement system is predominately responsible for
Answer: concentric force production (acceleration)
Q: The muscles that make up global movement system
Answer: gastrocnemius, hamstrings, quadriceps, gluteus maximus, latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major
Q: The local muscular system or local stabilization system consists of muscles that are primarily involved in
Answer: joint support or stabilization
Q: The local muscular system or local stabilization system joint support muscles are not
Answer: movement specific
Q: The local muscular system or local stabilization system joint support muscles provide
Answer: stability to allow joint movement
Q: Overhead squat anterior view, feet turn out probable overactive muscles
Answer: soleus, lat. gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, tensor fascia late
Q: Overhead squat anterior view, feet turn out probable under active muscles
Answer: med gastrocnemius, med hamstring, gluteus medius/maximus, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
Q: Overhead squat anterior view, feet move inward probable overactive muscles
Answer: adductor complex, biceps femoris, TFL, lat gastrocnemius, vastus lateralis
Q: Overhead squat anterior view, feet move inward probable underactive muscles
Answer: med hamstring, med gastrocnemius, gluteus medius/maximus, vastas medialis
Q: Overhead squat anterior view, feet move outward probable overactive muscles
Answer: piriformis, bicep femoris, TFL, gluteus medius/maximus
Q: Overhead squat anterior view, feet move outward probable under active muscles
Answer: medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis & sartorius (wrap on the inside of the thigh/knee from pubis to tibia), popliteus
Q: overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, excessive forward lean probable overactive muscles
Answer: soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
Q: overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, excessive forward lean probable under active muscles
Answer: anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae
Q: overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, low back arches probable overactive muscles
Answer: hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
Q: overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, low back arches probable under active muscles
Answer: gluteus maximus, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, psoas, intrinsic core, stabilzers
Q: overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, arms fall forward probable overactive muscles
Answer: latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major/minor, teres major, corcobrachialis
Q: overhead squat assessment lateral view, upper body, arms fall forward probable under active muscles
Answer: mid/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff, posterior deltoid
Q: overhead squat assessment posterior view, feet flatten probable over active muscles
Answer: peroneal complex (peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, peroneus longus) biceps femoris, TFL, lat gastrocnemius
Q: overhead squat assessment posterior view, feet flatten probable under active muscles
Answer: posterior tibialis, anterior tibialis, med gastrocnemius, gluteus medius, med hamstring
Q: overhead squat assessment posterior view, heels rise probable under active muscles
Answer: anterior tibialis
Q: over head squat assessment posterior view, asymmetrical weight shift probable under active muscles
Answer: gluteus medius (on one side) adductor complex (opposite side of shift)
Q: over head squat assessment posterior view, asymmetrical weight shift probable over active muscles
Answer: adductor complex, TFL, piriformis, bicep femois (short head) gluteus medius (opposite of shift)
Q: sensorimotor intergration
Answer: ability of the central nervous system to gather and interpret sensory information to execute the proper motor response
Q: motor learning
Answer: the integration of these motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent chance in the capacity to produce skilled movements
Q: scapular stabilizers during squats
Answer: trapezius, rhomoids, cervical stabilizers
Q: lumbo hip complex stabilizers during squats
Answer: adductor longus, adductor brevis, transverse abdominus, gluteus medius
Q: lower extreme stabilizers during squats
Answer: flexor hallicus longus, poeterior tibialis, anterior tibialis, soleus, gastrocnemius
Q: prime movers during squats
Answer: quadiceps, gluteus maximus
Q: synergist during squats
Answer: hamstring, adductor magnus, gastronemius, soleus complex, posterior tibialis
Q: stabilizers during bench press
Answer: rotator cuff, biceps
Q: synergists during bench press
Answer: anterior deltoid, triceps
Q: prime movers during bench press
Answer: pectoralis major
Q: one form of sensory afferent iformation that uses mechanoreptors from cutaneous muscle, tendon, and joint receptors to provide information about static and dynamic positions, movements, and sensations related to muscle force and movement
Answer: proprioception
Q: the cumulative neural input from sensory afferents to the central nervous system
Answer: Lephart definition of proprioception
Q: common static malalignments
Answer: poor posture, joint hypomobility, myofascial adhesions.
Q: one of the most common cause of pain
Answer: joint dysfunction (hypomobility)
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, feet flatten probable over active muscles
Answer: soleus, lat gastrocnemius, bicpes femoris, TFL
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, feet flatten probable under active muscles
Answer: med gastrocnemius, med hamstring, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,knees move inward probable under active muscles
Answer: med hamstring, med goastrocenemius, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,knees move inward probable over active muscles
Answer: piriformis, bicep femoris, TFL, gluteus minimus, gluteus medius
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, LPHC hip hike probable over active muscles
Answer: quadratus lumborum (opposite side), TFL, gluteus minimus (same side)
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, LPHC hip hike probable under active muscles
Answer: adductor complex (same side), gluteus medius (same side)
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, LPHC hip drop probable under active muscles
Answer: gluteus medius (same side) quadratus lumbrum (opposite side)
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body inward trunk rotation probable over active muscles
Answer: internal oblique (same side) external oblique opposite side, TFL same side, adductor complex(same side)
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body inward trunk rotation probable under active muscles
Answer: internal oblique opposite side, external oblique same side, gluteus medius gluteus maximus
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body outward trunk rotation probable under active muscles
Answer: internal oblique same side, external oblique opposite side, adductor complex same side, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus
Q: compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body outward trunk rotation probable over active muscles
Answer: inernal oblique opposite side, external oblique same side, piriformis same side
Q: used to alleviate the side effects of active or latent trigger points
Answer: self-myofascial release
Q: used to influence the autonomic nervous system
Answer: self-myofascial release
Q: believed to stimulate the golgi receptors through sustained pressure at a specific intensity, amount, and duration to produce produces an inhibitory response to the muscle spindle and decrease gamma loop
Answer: self-myofascial release
Q: ischemic compression
Answer: pressure from an object
Q: can reduce trigger-point and sensitivity in individuals
Answer: ischemic compression
Q: makes it possible for a tissue to receive adequate amounts of oxygen and nutrients as well as removal of waste byproducts through circulation to speed tissue recovery and repair
Answer: increasing vasodilation
Q: allows for better tissue dynamics, which may provide better overall muscle contraction and joint motion
Answer: changing the viscosity
Q: reduces faulty contraction of muscle of muscle tissue that can lead to cumulative injury cycle
Answer: decreasing sympathetic tone
Q: can lead to better oxygen content in blood and deceases feeling of anxiety and fatigue
Answer: improving respiration
Q: can alter the carbon dioxide and oxygen content of blood, perpetuating dysfunctional breathing and leading to synergist dominance of secondary breathing muscles
Answer: faulty breathing patterns
Q: the influences of the effect neuromyofascia release or pressure and tension has on the autonomic nervous system are
Answer: 1. the fluid properties of tissue the effect the viscosity 2. the hypothalamus, which increases vagal tone and decreases global muscle tonus 3. smooth muscle cells in fascia that may be related to regulation of fascal pretension
Q: viscosity
Answer: resistance to flow or motion
Q: vagal tone
Answer: The effect produced on the heart when only the parasympathetic nerve fibres (which are carried in the vagus nerve) are controlling the heart rate.
Q: The parasympathetic nerve fibres
Answer: slow the heart rate from approximately 70 beats per minute to 60 beats per minute.
Q: Viscosity
Answer: may be thought of as fluid friction. Viscosity also acts internally on the fluid between slower and faster moving adjacent layers.
Q: existing or occurring with something else, often in a lesser way; accompanying; concurrent: an event and its concomitant circumstances.
Answer: concomitant
Q: inhibitory techniques
Answer: self-myofascial release
Q: lengthen techniques
Answer: static stretching, neuromuscular stretching
Q: activation techniques
Answer: positional isometrics, isolated strengthening
Q: integration techniques
Answer: integrated dynamic movement
Q: the elongation of neuromyofascial tissue to an end to end range holding the position for a given period
Answer: a characterization of static stretching
Q: maximal control of a structured ligament
Answer: a characterization of static stretching
Q: minimal acceleration into and out of the elongated (stretch position)
Answer: a characterization of static stretching
Q: static stretching appears to
Answer: affect the viscoelastic component of neuromyofascial tissue
Q: feedback circuit that can decrease the excitability of motor neurons by way of the inter-neuron called the renshaw cell
Answer: recurrent inhibition
Q: reciprocal inhibition.
Answer: What happens here is that if a muscle contracts, the opposite or antagonistic muscle will relax to allow the movement to occur without resistance.
Q: what provides information on tension increases in muscles.
Answer: Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO)
Q: connects with a small nerve cell in the spinal cord that inhibits or relaxes the muscle
Answer: Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO)
Q: Reflex inhibition of a motor unit in response to excessive tension in the muscle fibres it supplies. Muscle tension is monitored by the Golgi tendon organs.
Answer: Autogenic inhibition
Q: s a protective mechanism, preventing muscles from exerting more force than the bones and tendons can tolerate.
Answer: Autogenic inhibition
Q: small cells that reduce motor neuron discharge through a feedback circuit involving axon collaterals that excite interneurons. The system prevents rapid repeated firing of motor neurons.
Answer: Renshaw cells
Q: used to increase intramuscular coordination of specific muscles
Answer: isolated stretching
Q: isolated stretching can be performed
Answer: immediately following inhibitory and lengthening techniques
Q: proximal injuries of patellar tendentious
Answer: low back pain
Q: distal injuries of patellar tendentious
Answer: planter fasciitis
Q: proximal injuries of IT-band tendentious (runner’s knee)
Answer: hamstring, quadriceps, and groan strains
Q: distal injuries of IT-band tendentious (runner’s knee)
Answer: achilles tendentious
Q: proximal injuries of medial, lateral, and anterior knee pain
Answer: shoulder and upper-extremity injuries
Q: distal injuries of medial, lateral, and anterior knee pain
Answer: posterior tibialis tendonitis (shin splints)
Q: probable over active muscles on the compensation of knees that adduct and internally rotate
Answer: lat gastrocnemius, adductor complex, biceps femoris, rectus femors, TFL, vastus lateralis
Q: probable under active muscles on the compensation of knees that adduct and internally rotate
Answer: med gastrocnemius, med hamstring, vastus medialis (VMO) gluteus medius, gluteus maximus
Q: what bones make up the tibofemoral joint
Answer: tibia, femur
Q: what bones make up the patellofemoral joint
Answer: patella and femus
Q: what bones make up the iliofemoral joint
Answer: femur, pelvis
Q: what bones make up the sacroiliac joint
Answer: sacrum and pelvis
Q: what bones make up the talocrural (ankle) joint
Answer: tibia and fibula
Q: pronation
Answer: rotation of the hands and forearms so that the palms face downward
Q: Rotation of a body part (usually the hand or foot) backward, inward or downward.
Answer: pronation
Q: a slight inward rolling motion the foot makes during a normal walking or running stride. The foot (and ankle) rolls slightly inward to accomodate movement.
Answer: pronation
Q: In inversion, the sole of the foot is
Answer: directed medially.
Q: the sole is turned so that it faces laterally
Answer: eversion
Q: iversion of the ankle
Answer: sole of the foot is towards the opposite foot
Q: eversion of the ankle
Answer: sole is turns outwards away from the body
Q: squat to overhead press, step-up to overhead press, romanian deadlift with overhead press are examples of
Answer: integrated dynamic movement exercises
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet turn out probable over active muscles
Answer: soleus, lat gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, TFL,
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet turn out probable under active muscles
Answer: med gastrocnemius, med hamstring, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet turn out probable injuries
Answer: planter fasciities, posterior tibialis tendonitis (shin splints, patellar tendonitis (jumpers knee)
Q: on an overhead squat assessment, if the feet turn out they may have the following injuries
Answer: planter fasciities, posterior tibialis tendonitis (shin splints, patellar tendonitis (jumpers knee)
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet move inward probable over active muscles
Answer: adductor complex, biceps femoris, short head, TFL, lat gastrcnemius, vastas lateralis
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, feet move inward probable under active muscles
Answer: med hamstring, med gastrocnemius, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, vastas medialis, oblique (VMO)
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet move inward probable injuries
Answer: anterior, medial& lateral knee pain, IT band tendonitis
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet move outward probable injuries
Answer: anterior, medial& lateral knee pain, IT band tendonitis
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet move outward over active muscles
Answer: piriformis, biceps femoris, tfl, gluteus minimus, gluteus medius
Q: over head squat movement assessment compensations, anterior view feet move outward over under active muscles
Answer: adductors complex, med. hamstring, gluteus maximus
Q: over head squat assessment posterior view, feet flatten probable over active muscles
Answer: peroneal complex, peroneus, peroneus brevis, bicep femoris, tfl, lat gastrocnemius
Q: over head squat assessment posterior view, feet flatten probable under active muscles
Answer: posterior tibialis, anterior tibialis, med gastrocnemius, gluteus medius, med hamstrings
Q: over head squat assessment posterior view, heels rise probable under active muscles
Answer: anterior tibialis
Q: over head squat assessment posterior view, asymmetrical weight shift probable under active muscles
Answer: gluteus medius (on side of shift), adductor complex (opposite of shift)
Q: muscles that tend to be over active in the lower leg accompanying foot and ankle impairments
Answer: lateral gastrocnemius, soleus, peroneus longus
Q: muscles that tend to be under active in the lower leg accompanying foot and ankle impairments
Answer: med gastrocnemius, posterior tibialis, anterior tibialis
Q: what muscle concentrically planterflex ankle, evert calcaneus, externally rotate lower leg, and flex knee
Answer: lateral gastrocemius
Q: what muscle concentrically planterfex ankle, externally rotate (supinate) lower leg, and assists in knee extension
Answer: soleus
Q: what muscles concentrially evert ankle, planterflex ankle
Answer: peroneus longus
Q: what muscle planterflex ankle, invert calcaneus, internally rotate lower leg, and flex knee
Answer: medial gastrocemius
Q: what muscle planterfex ankle, externally rotate (supinate) lower leg, invert foot/ankle
Answer: posterior tibialis
Q: what muscle concentrically invert ankle, dorsiflex ankle
Answer: anterior tibialis
Q: overactive muscles of LPHC accompanying foot and ankle impairment
Answer: biceps femoris short head, TFL
Q: under ractive muscles of LPHC accompanying foot and ankle impairment
Answer: mdial hamstrings, gracilis, sartoius, popliteus, gluteus medius (posterior fibers) and gluteus maximus
Q: Over active muscles of the LPHC for knee impairment
Answer: adductor complex, biceps femoris short head, tfl, vastus lateralis, rectus femoris
Q: under active muscles of the LPHC for knee impairment
Answer: medial hampstrings, gluteus medius (posterioer fibers) and gluteus maximus, vastus medialis
Q: local injuries associated with LPHC impairment
Answer: low back pain, sacroiliac joint dysfuction, hamsring, quadriceps and groan strains
Q: injuries above the LPHC associated with LPHC impairment
Answer: shoulder and upper extremity injuries
Q: injuries below the LPHC associated with LPHC impairment
Answer: patellar tendonities (jumpers knee) IT-band tendonitis (runners knee) medial, lateral, and anteior knee pain, planter fasciitis, achiles tendonitis, posterior tibialis tendonitis (shin splints)
Q: (Anterior) Feet Turn out Overactive Muscles
Answer: SoleusLat. GastrocnemiusBiceps Femoris(short head)Tensor Fascia latae (TFL)
Q: (Anterior) Feet Turn out Under active Muscles
Answer: Medial GastrocnemiusMedial Hamstring ComplexGluteus Medius / MaximusGracilisPopliteusSartorius
Q: (Anterior) Feet Turn Out Possible Injuries
Answer: Plantar FasciitisAchilles’ TendinopathyMedial Tibial stress syndromeAnkle sprainsPatellar Tendinopathy (jumpers Knee)
Q: (Anterior) Feet Flatten Overactive muscles
Answer: Peroneal ComplexLateral GastrocnemiusBiceps FemorisTensor Fascia latae (TFL)
Q: (Anterior) Feet Flatten Underactive muscles
Answer: Anterior TibialisPosterior TibialsMedial GastrocnemiusGluteus Medius
Q: (Anterior) Feet Flatten possible injuries
Answer: Plantar FasciitisAchilles’ TendinopathyMedial Tibial Stress syndromeAnkle sprainsPatellar Tendinopathy (jumpers Knee)
Q: (Anterior) Knees Valgus (move inward) Overactive Muscles
Answer: Adductor complexBiceps Femoris (short head)Tensor Fascia Latae (TFL)Lateral GastrocnemiusVastus Medialis
Q: (Anterior) Knees Valgus (Move inward) Underactive muscles
Answer: Medial Hamstring complexMedial GastrocnemiusGluteus Medius/MaximusVastus medialis Oblique (VMO)Anterior TibialisPosterior Tibialis
Q: (Anterior) Knees Valgus (Move Inward) Possible Injuries
Answer: Patellar Tendinopathy (Jumpers Knee)Patellofemoral syndromeACL injuryIT-Band tendonitis
Q: (Anterior) Knees Varus (move outward) Overactive muscles
Answer: PiriformisBiceps FemorisTFL/gluteus minimus
Q: (Anterior) Knees Varus (Move outward) Underactive muscles
Answer: Adductor complexMedial HamstringGluteus maxmus
Q: (Anterior) Knees Varus (move outward) Injuries
Answer: Patellar Tendinopathy (Jumpers Knee)Patellofemoral syndromeACL injuryIT-Band tenonitis
Q: Lateral LPHC Excessive Forward Lean Overactive muscles
Answer: SoleusGastrocnemiusHip Flexor ComplexPiriformisAbdominal Complex (Rectus Abdominus, External Obliques)
Q: Lateral LPHC Excessive Forward Lean Underactive muscles
Answer: Anterior TibialisGluteus MaximusErector spinaeIntrinsic Core stabilizers(Transvers abdominus, Multifidus, Transversosoinalis, Internal oblique, Pelvic floor muscles)
Q: Lateral LPHC Excessive Forward lean Injuries
Answer: Hamstring strainGroin StrainLow Back Pain
Q: Lateral Low Back arches Overactive muscles
Answer: Hip flexor complexErector spinaelatissimus dorsi
Q: Lateral Low Back arches Underactive muscles
Answer: Gluteus MaximusHamstringsIntrinsic core stabilizers
Q: Lateral Low back arches Injuries
Answer: Hamstring strainGroin StrainLow Back Pain
Q: Lateral Low Back Rounds overactive muscles
Answer: HamstringsAdductor magnusRectus abdominusExternal obliques
Q: Lateral Low Back Rounds Underactive muscles
Answer: Gluteus MaximusErector spinaeInstrinsic core stabilizersHip Flexor complexLatissimus dorsi
Q: Lateral Low back Rounds Injuries
Answer: Hamstring strainGroin StrainLow Back Pain
Q: Lateral Shoulders Arms Fall Forward Overactive Muscles
Answer: Latissimus dorsiPectoralis major / minorCorocobrachialisTeres major
Q: Lateral Shoulders Arms fall forward underactive muscles
Answer: Mid/Lower TrapeziusRhomboidsPosterior deltoidRotator cuff
Q: Lateral Shoulders Fall Forward Injuries
Answer: HeadachesBiceps TendonitisShoulder Injuries
Q: Posterior Foot Flattens (evert) Overactive muscles
Answer: Peroneal complexLateral GastrocnemiusBiceps femoris (short head)Tensor Fascia Latae (TFL)
Q: Posterior Foot flattens (evert) underactive muscles
Answer: Anterior TibialisPosterior TibialisMedial GastrocnemiusGluteus Medius
Q: Posterior Foot Flattens (evert) Injuries
Answer: Plantar FasciitisAchilles’ TendinopathyMedial stress syndromeAnkle sprainsPatellar Tendoinopathy (jumpers knee)
Q: Posterior Heal of foot rises Overactive muscles
Answer: Soleus
Q: Posterior Heal of foot rises underactive muscles
Answer: Anterior Tibialis
Q: Posterior Heal of foot rises Injuries
Answer: Plantar FasciitisAchilles’ TendinopathyMedial stress syndromeAnkle sprainsPatellar Tendoinopathy (jumpers knee)
Q: Posterior LPHC Asymmetric weight shift overactive muscles
Answer: Adductor complex (same Side of shift)TFL (same side of shift)Gastrocnemius/SoleusPiriformisBiceps femorisGluteus medius (opposite side of shift)
Q: Posterior LPHC Asymmertic weight shift Underactive muscles
Answer: Gluteus medius (same side of shift)Anterior Tibials (opposite side of shift)Adductor complex (opposite side of shift)
Q: Posterior LPHC Asymmertic weight shift injuries
Answer: Hamstring strainQuad strainLow back painSacroiliac Joint pain
Q: what percentage of the population is estimated to be obese?
Answer: 33.8%
Q: more than one third of all work-related injuries involve the trunk, and of these<
Answer: more than 60% involve the low back
Q: what percentage of ACL injuries estimated to be non-contact?
Answer: 70-75%
Q: what are the four components of corrective exercise continuum?
Answer: inhibit, lengthen, activate and integrate
Q: which of the following are major soft tissue contributors to the DEEP LONGITUDINAL SUB-SYSTEM
Answer: erector spinae, thoracolumbar fascia, sacrotuberous ligament, biceps femoris, peroneus longus
Q: what does eccentric deceleration mean?
Answer: when a restive force overcomes a muscles developed tension.
Q: which subsystem transfers forces that are summated from the muscle’s transverse plane orientation to propulsion in the sagittal plane, as occurs during walking or running?
Answer: posterior oblique system
Q: which adductor muscle has fibers that can concentrically accelerate extension of the femur
Answer: adductor magnus
Q: which muscle eccentrically decelerates hip adduction, and internal rotation
Answer: gluteus medius
Q: which muscle is the primary stabilizer of the knee complex
Answer: gluteus medius
Q: what muscle concentrically produces extension of the hip, and a posterior tilt of the pelvis
Answer: gluteus maximus
Q: which muscle eccentrically decelerates humeral external rotation, abduction and flexion?
Answer: teres major
Q: which muscle concentrically accelerates external rotation of the humerus?
Answer: teres minor
Q: what combinations of joint motions occur at the foot/ankle during lower body pronation?
Answer: dorsiflexion, eversion, abduction
Q: during resistance training, which action by the muscle prevents weight/resistance from accelerating in an uncontrolled manner as a result of gravitational force?
Answer: eccentric
Q: what is the name of the hyperbolic relationship which shows that as the velocity of a concentric cantraction increases, the developed tension decreases?
Answer: force felocity curve
Q: which subsystem consists of force-couple relationships that primarily control the pelvis and femur in the frontal p;and during single leg functional movements such as gait, lunges or stair climbing?
Answer: lateral sub-system
Q: what system is predominatly responsible for movement and consists of more superficial musculature that originates from the pelvis to the rib cage, the lower extremities, or both?
Answer: global muscular system
Q: the interaction between two entities or bodies that result in either acceleration or deceleration of an object?
Answer: force
Q: the gluteus medius, TFL, adductor complex and the quadratus lumborum comprise the
Answer: lateral subsystem
Q: what system is responsible for the joint support system of the LPHC and consists of muscles that originate and or insert into the lumbar spine?
Answer: local musculature system
Q: individuals with the lower extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized and having
Answer: knee valgus
Q: client demonstrates rounded shoulder posture and late indicates that he has suffered from shoulder pain. what pattern of dysfunction is most likely present?
Answer: lengthened rhomboids and shortened anterior deltoid
Q: a client demonstrates an upper extremity movement impairment syndrome. which of the following muscles are most likely tight?
Answer: upper trapezius, levator scapula
Q: a client demonstrates lower extremity movement impairment syndrome. what muscles are most likely tight?
Answer: erector spinae, lateral hamstrings
Q: clients with the upper-extremity movement impairment syndrome are usually characterized as having
Answer: rounded shoulders and a forward head
Q: a client has been a waitress for many years, carried heavy trays of food and has dealt with shoulder pain. this client is most likely prone to weakness in the…
Answer: rotator cuff
Q: a client who has a cesarean section in the past may potentially have weak….
Answer: abdominal complex
Q: an icreased lumbar lordosis with an anterior pelvic tilt is indicative of overactively in which of the following muscles?
Answer: gastrocnemius, rectus femoris, erector spinae
Q: a client had knee replacement 2 yrs ago and did not comply with rehab. during assessment she displayed limited ROM in the affected knee. what is most likely to have caused this lack of mobility?
Answer: formed scar tissue
Q: according to the NASM kinetic chain checkpoint, it is common to begin a static postural assessment of at the
Answer: feet and travel upward toward the head
Q: what does elevating the heels d during the OH squat assessment?
Answer: decreases the stretch at the soleus
Q: during the single leg squat assessment, the compensation of knee valgus can be attributed by overactivity of the….
Answer: TFL
Q: a hip drop in a single leg squat indicates which muscles can be overactive
Answer: adductor complex (same side)
Q: the landing error scoring system (LESS) test assesses which of the following?
Answer: improper movement patterns during jump landing tasks
Q: what movement assessment is a transitional assessment?
Answer: star balance excursion
Q: during the single-leg squat assessment the compensation of the “inward torso rotation indicates what muscle is overactive?
Answer: external oblique (opposite side of stance)
Q: slow, deep and sustained pressure can directly stimulate….
Answer: mechanoreceptors
Q: which of the following sensory receptors can cause a muscle to relax when excited?
Answer: ruffini endings
Q: what receptor has shown to have autonomic fucntions within the body
Answer: interstitial receptors
Q: which is a absolute contraindication for SMR release
Answer: advanced diabetes
Q: what contributes to a decrease in neuron excitability during static stretching?
Answer: renshaw cell
Q: research demonstrated stretching tight ipsilateral quadriceps and hip flexor musculature can significantly improve
Answer: hip flexion
Q: which is a contraindication for isolated strenthening?
Answer: accuted rheumatoid arthritis of affected joint
Q: integration techniques are used to
Answer: retrain the collective synergistic function of all muscles through funtionally progressive movements
Q: integration techniques (dynamic movement) strive to improve
Answer: intermuscular coordination
Q: which of the following is a theoretical basis for performing inhibitory and lengthening techniques before isolated strengthening?
Answer: muscle will not be able to move if a joint is not able to move
Q: what muscle has been identified as a dynamic knee stabilizer which has the ability to counteract excessive pronation of the lower extremity?
Answer: medial gastrocnemius
Q: what is a risk factor for patellar tendinopathy in an individula involved in jumping sports
Answer: an increased q-angle
Q: the vastus lateralis primarily stabilizes…
Answer: knee
Q: the piriformis eccentrically decelerates
Answer: hip adduction, internal rotation and flexion
Q: during a OH squat assemssment the compensation of “knees move inward” can be attributed by overactivity of which muscle?
Answer: vastus lateralis, adductor complex, biceps femoris (short head), TFL, lat. gastrocnemius
Q: in a OH squat test, a client demonstrates limited dorsiflexion in the sagittal plane, but does not raise his heels. what movement impairments needs to occur in order to maintain the body’s center of gravity?
Answer: forward trunk flexion
Q: in a asymmetrical weight shift what muscles need SMR?
Answer: adductor (same side)gastrocnemius/soleus, Gluteus medius, biceps femoris, piriformis (opposite side)
Q: in a low back round, what muscles would need strengthening (using isolated strengthening exercises)?
Answer: gluteus medius, hip flexors and erector spinae
Q: in a excessive forward lean what muscles are overactive?
Answer: soleus/gastronemius, hip flexor complex, prififormis, abdominal complex ( rectus abdominus, external oblique)
Q: in arms fall forward what muscles are underactive?
Answer: mid/lower traps, rhomboids, posterior delt, rotator cuff
Q: Internal and external obliques
Answer: Trunk rotation
Q: Upper trapezius and the lower portion of the serratus anterior
Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula
Q: Gluteus maximus, quadriceps, and calf muscles
Answer: Hip and knee extension
Q: Gastrocnemius, peroneus longus, and tibialis posterior
Answer: Plantarflexion at the foot and ankle complex
Q: Deltoid and rotator cuff
Answer: Shoulder abduction
Q: Squat
Answer: Exercise which uses: quadriceps, hamstrings, and gluteus maximus
Q: Shoulder press
Answer: Exercise which uses: deltoid, rotator cuff, and trapezius
Q: Posterior tibialis, Soleus, Gastrocnemius, and Peroneus longus
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “plantarflexion”
Q: Gluteus maximus, Biceps femoris, Semimembranosus, and Semitendinosus
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Knee flexion and Hip extension”
Q: Vastus lateralis, Vastus medialis, Vastus intermedius, and Rectus femoris
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Knee extension”
Q: Adductor longus, Adductor magnus, Adductor brevis, Gracilis, and Pectineus
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Hip ADDuction”
Q: Gluteus MEDius, Gluteus MINimus, and Tensor Fascia Latae (TFL)
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Hip ABDuction”
Q: Psoas, and Sartorius
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Hip flexion”
Q: Piriformis
Answer: Concentrically accelerates “Hip external rotation” (isometrically stabalizing the hip and sacroiliac joints)
Q: Rectus abdominis, External oblique, Internal oblique
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Spinal flexion”
Q: Erector Spinae, Semispinalis, Multifidus, and Quadratus lumborum
Answer: Spinal extension and Lateral flexion”
Q: Latissimus Dorsi
Answer: Concentrically accelerates “Shoulder extension”
Q: Serratus (Anterior)
Answer: Concentrically accelerates “Scapular protraction”
Q: Rhomboids and Middle Trapezius
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Scapular retraction”
Q: Lower Trapezius
Answer: Concentrically accelerates “Scapular depression”
Q: Levator Scapulae and Upper Trapezius
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Cervical extension, Lateral flexion, and Scapular elevation”
Q: Pectoralis major and Deltoid (all)
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Shoulder flexion”
Q: Biceps brachii
Answer: Concentrically accelerates “Elbow flexion”
Q: Triceps
Answer: Concentrically accelerates “Elbow extension”
Q: Rotator Cuff: Teres minor, Infraspinatus, Subscapularis, Supraspinatus, and Teres major
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Shoulder external rotation, Shoulder internal rotation, and ABDuction of the arm”
Q: Neck Musculature: Sternocleidomastoid, Scalenes, Longus coli, and Longus capitis
Answer: Concentrically accelerate “Cervical flexion”
Q: Feet “Turn Out” (Probable overactive muscles)
Answer: Soleus, Lateral Gastrocnemius, and/or Biceps Femoris (short-head)
Q: Feet “Turn Out” (Probable underactive muscles)
Answer: Medial Gastrocnemius, Medial Hamstring, Gracilis, Sartorius, and/or Popliteus
Q: Knees “Move Inward” (Probable overactive muscles)
Answer: ADDuctor complex, Biceps Femoris (short-head), TFL, and/or Vastus Lateralis
Q: Knees “Move Inward” (Probable underactive muscles)
Answer: Gluteus Medius/Maximus, Vastus Medialis, and/ or Oblique (VMO)
Q: LPHC “Excessive Forward Lean” (Probable overactive muscles)
Answer: Soleus, Gastrocnemius, Hip Flexor complex, and/or Abdominal complex
Q: LPHC “Excessive Forward Lean” (Probable underactive muscles)
Answer: Anterior Tibialis, Gluteus Maximus, and/or Erector Spinae
Q: LPHC “Low Back Arches” (Probable overactive muscles)
Answer: Hip Flexor complex, Erector Spinae, and/or Latissimus Dorsi
Q: LPHC “Low Back Arches” (Probable underactive muscles)
Answer: Gluteus Maximus, Hamstrings, and/or Intrinsic Core Stabilizers
Q: Upper Body “Arms Fall Forward” (Probable overactive muscles)
Answer: Latissimus Dorsi, Teres Major, and/or Pectoralis Major/ Pectoralis Minor
Q: Upper Body “Arms Fall Forward” (Probable underactive muscles)
Answer: Mid/Lower Trapezius, Rhomboids, and/or Rotator Cuff
Q: Upper Body “Shoulders Elevate” (Probable overactive muscles)
Answer: Upper Trapezius/ Scalenes, and/or Levator Scapulae
Q: Upper Body “Shoulders Elevate” (Probable underactive muscles)
Answer: Mid/Lower Trapezius, Rhomboids, and/or Rotator Cuff
Q: Upper Body “Protruding Head” (Probable overactive muscles)
Answer: Upper Trapezius/ Scalenes, and/or Levator Scapulae
Q: Upper Body “Protruding Head” (Probable underactive muscles)
Answer: Deep Cervical Flexors
Q: What percentage of adults are obese in the United States?
Answer: 33.3%
Q: What percentage of adolescents are obese in the United States?
Answer: 18%
Q: What is the most common sport-related injury?
Answer: Ankle sprains
Q: What percentage of adults are affected by low-back pain?
Answer: 80%
Q: What percentage of work-related injuries involve the trunk? What percentage of these injuries involve the low-back?
Answer: 33.3% – 60%
Q: How many ACL injuries occur every year?
Answer: 80,000-100,000
Q: How percentage of ACL injuries are non-contact?
Answer: 70-75%
Q: Most ACL injuries occur between what two ages?
Answer: 15 and 25
Q: What percentage of the general population experience shoulder pain? And what percentage of reported shoulder pain cases persist for at least one year?
Answer: 21% – 40%
Q: What is the most common diagnosis of shoulder pain? And what percentage does it account for reported shoulder pain?
Answer: Shoulder impingement – 40-65%
Q: Four phases of the corrective exercise continuum
Answer: Inhibit,
Q: Inhibit
Answer: Used to release tension, and decrease activity of overactive neuro-myofascial tissues in the body
Q: What tool is used in the inhibit phase?
Answer: Self-myofascial release (SMR)
Q: Lengthen
Answer: Used to increase the extensibility, length, and range of motion of neuro-myofascial tissues in the body
Q: What tools are used in the lengthen phase?
Answer: Static stretching and neuromuscular stretching
Q: Activate
Answer: Used to re-educate and increase activation of underactive tissues
Q: What tools are sued in the activate phase?
Answer: Isolated strengthening and positional isometrics
Q: Integrate
Answer: Used to re-train the collective synergistic function of all muscles through functional progressive movements
Q: What tool is used in the integrate phase?
Answer: Integrated dynamic movement
Q: What movements predominantly occur in the sagittal plane?
Answer: Flexion and extension (front to back type movements)
Q: Examples of sagittal plane movements
Answer: Cycling, running, shooting a basketball, and squatting
Q: What movements predominantly occur in the frontal plane?
Answer: Abduction and adduction (side to side type movements)
Q: Examples of frontal plane movements
Answer: Side lunges, lateral shifting, and lateral shoulder raises
Q: What movement predominantly occurs in the transverse plane
Answer: Rotation
Q: Examples of transverse plane movements
Answer: Throwing motions, swinging a baseball bat, a hockey slapshot, and cable rotations
Q: Contact phase of the gait cycle
Answer: The subtalar joint pronates creating obligatory internal rotation of the tibia, femur, and pelvis
Q: Mid-stance phase of the gait cycle
Answer: The subtalar joint supinates leading to obligatory external rotation of the tibia, femur, and pelvis
Q: What does it mean that pelvic motion and lower extremity motion are bidirectional?
Answer: Pelvic motion can create lower extremity motion and lower extremity motion can create pelvic motion
Q: What is the purpose of the eccentric action exerted by muscles in resistance training?
Answer: Prevents the resistance from accelerating in an uncontrolled manner downward due to gravity
Q: Length-tension relationship
Answer: The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length
Q: Optimal length-tension relationship
Answer: The actin and myosin filaments in the sarcomere have the greatest degree of overlap
Q: Force-velocity curve
Answer: The relationship of muscle’s ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities
Q: Force-couple
Answer: The synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint
Q: Arthrokinematics
Answer: Joint motion
Q: Rotary motion
Answer: Movement of the bones around the joints
Q: Torque
Answer: A force that produces rotation
Q: First class lever
Answer: The fulcrum is located between the load and effort
Q: Second class lever
Answer: The load is located between the effort and fulcrum
Q: Third class lever
Answer: The effort is located between the fulcrum and load
Q: Local musculature system (LMS)
Answer: Muscles that are predominantly involved in joint support or stabilization
Q: Muscles of the LMS
Answer: Transverse abdominis, multifidus, internal oblique, diaphragm, and the pelvic floor muscles
Q: Global muscular system (Movement System)
Answer: Muscles responsible predominantly for movement, important in transferring and absorbing forces form the upper and lower extremities to to the pelvis, and consist of more superficial musculature that originates from the pelvis to the rib cage, the lower extremities, or both
Q: Muscles of the Movement System
Answer: Rectus abdominis, external oblique, erector spinae, hamstring complex, gluteus maximus, latissimus dorsi, adductors, quadriceps, and gastrocnemius
Q: Four subsystems of the Movement System
Answer: Deep longitudinal, posterior oblique, anterior oblique, and lateral subsystem
Q: Deep longitudinal subsystem (DLS)
Answer: Primarily responsible for longitudinal force transmission from the trunk to the ground, and controls ground reaction forces during gait motion
Q: Muscles of the DLS
Answer: Erector spinae, thoracolumbar fascia, sacrotuberous ligament, biceps femoris, and peroneus longus
Q: Posterior oblique subsystem (POS)
Answer: Works with the DLS to distribute transverse plane forces created through rotational activities, and transfers forces from the transverse plane into propulsion in the sagittal plane, such as during walking or running, and swinging, hitting, and throwing
Q: Anterior oblique subsystem (AOS)
Answer: Aid in pelvic stability and rotation in the anterior transverse plane, produces rotational and flexion movements, contributes to leg swing, and is a factor in the stabilization of the sacroiliac joint
Q: Muscles of the AOS
Answer: Internal and external obliques, and adductors
Q: Lateral subsystem
Answer: Controls the lumbo-pelvic hip complex in the frontal plane in single-leg functional movements such as gait, lunges, and stair climbing
Q: Muscles of the LS
Answer: Gluteus medius, TFL, adductors, and contralateral quadratus lumborum
Q: Motor behavior
Answer: Motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli
Q: Motor control
Answer: The involved structures and mechanisms that the nervous system uses to gather sensory information and integrate it with previous experiences to produce a motor response
Q: Motor learning
Answer: Integration of motor control processes through practice and experience, leading to a relatively permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled movements
Q: Knowledge of results
Answer: Feedback used after the completion of a movement to help inform clients about the outcome of their performance
Q: Knowledge of performance
Answer: Feedback that provides information about the quality of the movement during exercise
Q: What is one of the most common causes of pain for an individual?
Answer: Joint hypomobility
Q: Common impairments of the foot/ankle
Answer: Hyperpronation of the foot, decreased joint motion of the first MTP joint (big toe), and decreased posterior glide of the talus
Q: What impairments occur in the lower extremities when the hip lacks stability in the frontal and transverse plane?
Answer: Femur may adduct and internally rotate, tibia externally rotates, and excessive foot pronation
Q: Instability in the hip can lead to injuries in what part of the body?
Answer: Ankle
Q: What percentage of injuries in college and high school athletes accounts for knee injuries?
Answer: 50%
Q: How do most knee injuries occur?
Answer: During noncontact deceleration movements in the frontal and transverse planes
Q: Common impairments affecting the knee
Answer: Hyperpronation of the foot, increased Q angle, anterior pelvic tilt, decreased flexibility of the quadriceps, hamstrings, and IT-band, decreased hip abduction strength, decreased strength of the hip external rotators, and abnormal contraction intensity and onset timing between the vastus medialis and vastus lateralis
Q: Gastrocnemius
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Soleus
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Adductors
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Hamstrings complex
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Psoas
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Tensor fascia latae
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Rectus femoris
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Piriformis
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Quadratus lumborum
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Erector spinae
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Pectoralis major / minor
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Latissimus dorsi
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Teres major
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Upper trapezius
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Levator scapulae
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Sternocleidomastoid
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Scalenes
Answer: Typically Overactive
Q: Anterior tibialis
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Posterior tibialis
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Vastus medialis oblique
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Gluteus maximus / medius
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Transverse abdominis
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Internal oblique
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Multifidus
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Serratus Anterior
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Middle / lower trapezius
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Rhomboids
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Teres minor
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Infraspinatus
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Posterior deltoid
Answer: Typically Underactive
Q: Deep cervical flexors
Answer: Typically Underactive