Prepare for the NASM CPT exam with these 7th edition flashcard questions and answers. This covers anatomy, kinesiology, nutrition, and exercise science.
Q: What percentage of adults are do not meet recommended activity guidelines?
Answer: 80%
Q: BMI Normal
Answer: 18.5-24.9
Q: Overweight BMI
Answer: 25-29.9
Q: Obese BMI
Answer: over 30
Q: Bad Blood Pressure
Answer: Hypertension= 140/90
Q: normal blood pressure
Answer: 120/80
Q: 140
Answer: systolic It is specifically the maximum arterial pressure during contraction of the left ventricle of the heart.
Q: 90
Answer: Diastolic- relating to the phase of the heartbeat when the heart muscle relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood.
Q: LDL
Answer: bad cholesterol
Q: HDL
Answer: good cholesterol
Q: Type 1 diabetes
Answer: Childhood onset (Less than 10% of diabetics)
Q: type 2 diabetes
Answer: Insulin resistant
Q: 4/5 or or 80%
Answer: of people have lower back pain
Q: SWOT analysis
Answer: strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
Q: 4P’s of marketing
Answer: Product, Price, Place, Promotion
Q: 2.0 CEU’s
Answer: Is required to renewal NASM (.19 from CEUS and .1 CPR)
Q: Amotivation
Answer: Describes when someone is not motivated to engage
Q: extrinsic motivation
Answer: reward/ recognition
Q: intristic motivation
Answer: YOU feel a sense of satisfaction (They will when they feel competent or a sense of belonging or a sense of autonomy/ control)
Q: Stages of change
Answer: Pre= no plan to exercise, Contemplation= planning to in 6 months, Preparation= works out but not regularly, Action= Exercising regularly but not 6 months, Maintenance+ 6+ months of exercise. Termination= Never going back
Q: specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely
Answer: GOALS
Q: I like to exercise because I enjoy taking care of my health and well being is an example of…
Answer: Intrinsic
Q: Your client just started working out but hasn’t been doing it for 6 months, what stage if change are they in?
Answer: Action
Q: Your client wants to lose 10-lbs in 5 days, This isnt a SMART goal due to
Answer: Attainable
Q: Nervous System:
Answer: Basic Unit neuron (Dendrite, axon, cell body)
Q: central nervous system
Answer: brain and spinal cord
Q: PNS (peripheral nervous system)
Answer: Everything coming out of the spinal column and mechanoreceptions
Q: Mechanoreceptions:
Answer: Muscle Spindle (Think stretch), Golgi Tendon Organ (Think Tension and foam rolling), Joint Receptors
Q: Three Stages of Learning
Answer: cognitive (Learning), associative (Beginning to understand), autonomous (Learned skill, no thought)
Q: Skelton System
Answer: 206 bones, (axial 8-, 126 in appendicular
Q: Basic unit
Answer: Osteon (Blasts BUILD up, clasts CLAW down
Q: Longest Bone in the human body
Answer: Femur,
Q: Smallest Bone
Answer: Incus, malleus, stapes (Inner Ear)
Q: Ligament
Answer: Bone to bone (ACL)
Q: Tendon
Answer: muscle to bone (Achillies)
Q: Muscular System Basic Unit:
Answer: Sarcomere, myofibrils (Actin & myosin= larger of the two)
Q: What is glucose stored as?
Answer: glycogen
Q: Motor unit
Answer: Single neuron cell and all the associated muscle fibers it innervates.
Q: Z-Line
Answer: Meeting point of each sacromere
Q: sliding filament theory
Answer: muscle contractions involving actin and myosin sliding past one another shortening the muscle during a concentric muscle contraction
Q: Capillaries
Answer: Smallest blood vessels and the site of exchange of elements between the blood and the tissues
Q: Your client just performed 1 set of 20 reps during the stabilization endurance phase on a bosu ball. They looked down at the ground the entire time and had a fixed stare. What phase of learning are they in?
Answer: Cognitive
Q: Which connective tissue connects bone to bone?
Answer: ligaments
Q: The Human Movement System (Kinetic Chain) consists of the…
Answer: Muscular, Skeletal, and Nervous System
Q: Neurons are comprised of which three parts?
Answer: cell body, axon, dendrites
Q: Heart Anatomy:
Answer: Upper Chambers,atriums,lower chamberventricles
Q: SA Node
Answer: pacemaker of the heart
Q: 3 types of muscle
Answer: Skeletal (650+ muscles), smooth (Lining of arteries, veins and GI Tract) and Cardiac (Heart)
Q: Bradycardia
Answer: Less than 60 BPM
Q: Tachycardia
Answer: greater than 100 bpm
Q: Average HR
Answer: 70-80 Males 70 females 75
Q: Blood is comprised of…
Answer: 55% plasma 45%red/white blood cells and platelets
Q: Adult heart holds between
Answer: 4-6 L
Q: Arteries go away from the heart
Answer: Capillaries into larger veins
Q: Veins go back to the heart
Answer: are small arteries that eventually divide into capillaries
Q: Venules are small veins that drain from… into..
Answer: increase in intra abdominal pressure/ pregnant/ high blood pressure should breath through concentric & eccentric portions of the lift to avoid this
Q: Arterioles
Answer: 12-16 breaths a minute
Q: Valsalva maneuver
Answer: Greater than 24 breaths per minute
Q: Normal Breathing rates
Answer: Less than 8 breaths a minute
Q: Tachypnea
Answer: cortisol (adrenal cortex/glands) glucagon (Pancreas), and Anabolic hormones: HGH (Pituitary gland),Testosterone (Testes males via Leydig cells; adrenal glands females) insulin (Pancreas, IGF (liver)
Q: Bradypnea
Answer: adrenaline and norepinephrine)
Q: Dysfunctional Breathing (Slow breaths) are due to overactive sternocleidomastoid & scalene which can cause headaches, lightheaded and dizziness
Answer: monitor BMR and release calcitonin
Q: Catabolic Hormones
Answer: is the creation of glucose via non-carbohydrate substrates such as protein: Gluco= glucose, neo= new, genesis= generation
Q: Adrenal Glands Produce the catecholamines
Answer: Mastication, esophagus, stomach, small intestine (duodenum, jejunum, ileum) Large Intestine (Ascending, transverse, descending)
Q: Thyroid hormones
Answer: Arteries
Q: Gluconeogenesis
Answer: Atria
Q: GI- tract anatomy & digestion (smooth muscle)
Answer: Stroke Volume
Q: Vessels that transport blood away from the heart are known as…
Answer: Venules
Q: What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gather blood returning to the heart much like a reservoir?
Answer: 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute (3.5mL kg-1 min-1)
Q: The amount of blood pumped out the heart with each contraction if referred to as
Answer: An imaginary line bisecting the body into right and left halves (Flexion/exrension)
Q: Which blood vessels collect blood from capillaries and progressively merge with veins to transport blood back to the heart?
Answer: an imaginary line bisecting the body into anterior and posterior halves (Abduction/ adduction)
Q: Resting oxygen consumption is approximately aka 1 MET
Answer: an imaginary line bisecting the body into superior and inferior halves (rotation)
Q: Sagital
Answer: muscle action where muscles lengthen (stronger eccentrically) Think negatives in the gym
Q: Frontal
Answer: muscle action where the muscle stays in the same length, think plank
Q: transverse
Answer: speed of movement is fixed (High-end piece of equipment)
Q: Concentric
Answer: STABLIZATION FACT, certain muscles automatically activate in anticipation of a movement
Q: isometric
Answer: distal segment is moving i.e. leg curl/ bench press/ lat pull down
Q: isokinetic
Answer: distal segment is fixed i.e. squats /pull-ups/lunges
Q: Feed- forward activation
Answer: Agonist receives signal functional antagonist receives inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.
Q: open kinetic chain exercise
Answer: Loading of a muscle eccentrically to prep for a rapid contraction (Jumping, not tinker bell jumps) the energy is stored in the series elastic component(tendon) and the transition between the eccentric and concentric portion is rapid and termed amortization
Q: closed kinetic chain exercises
Answer: As the velocity of a concentric action increases, its ability to produce force also INCREASES
Q: Altered Reciprocal inhabitation
Answer: Nodding the head
Q: stretch-shortening cycle
Answer: Plantarflexion / push-up
Q: force velocity curve
Answer: Bicep curl. Most limbs in the body are these (Hamstring curl)
Q: First class lever
Answer: superior
Q: Second class Lever
Answer: Hamstring Curl
Q: Third Class lever
Answer: Rotator Cuff
Q: An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as…
Answer: Push-Up
Q: Which of the following is a third class lever?
Answer: ATP-PC (anaerobic metabolism) 0-30 seconds of work (power athletes, sprinters, jumpers, crossfitters, basketball, volleyball and body builders)
Q: During a bench press, which muscles are the stabilizers?
Answer: 30 sec – 3min (Middle distance 400m-800m)
Q: Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?
Answer: 3 minutes (runners, cyclists, enduracne athletes)
Q: Bio-energetics:
Answer: Duration and Intensity
Q: Glycolytic
Answer: fat (triglycerides; after 75+ min protein is deaminated)
Q: Oxidative
Answer: Carbs= Glucose
Q: 2 most important factors for bio energetics
Answer: Total Daily Energy Expenditure (RMR x TEF + NEAT)
Q: Low Intensity
Answer: Gluconeogenesis
Q: High Intensity
Answer: Aerobic Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, Electron Transport Train
Q: TDEE
Answer: Ventilatory 1
Q: What is the name of the storage form of glucose
Answer: 11
Q: What is the proper order for oxidation of a free fatty acid?
Answer: ATP-PC
Q: As activity increase, the usage of carbohydrates as an energy source becomes 50% and 50% fat, this metabolic marker is referred to as
Answer: DMAA, Ephedra, Testosterone (Side effect of T = Gynecomastia)
Q: How many NON-ESSENTIAL Amino Acids are there?
Answer: Vitamin- A
Q: 100 m sprinter primarily uses …… as her energy source?
Answer: 3.7
Q: Macro (Protein /carbs/ fats/ technically alcohol due to 7 cal/g/) VS Micro Nutrients (Vitamins &Minerals)
Answer: 30%
Q: Protein = 4cal per gram, 20-amino acids, complete protein (animal source) HCL breaks down in the stomach, 1.2-1.4 g/kg for endurance athletes, 1.2-1.7g/kg for strength athletes, 1.4- 2.0g/kg for weightlifters (less than .8g/kg is too low for active folk.) 15-30% TEF, 10-35% AMDR Carbs = 4cal per gram, monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose), fiber 28g females, 30g+ males, broken down by the enzyme salivary amylase in the mouth, light activity 3-5g/kg of body weight, mod/high intense 8-10g/kg, glucose is stored as glycogen in muscle and liver, 45- 65% AMDR
Answer: 1.2g/kg
Q: Fat = 9cal per gram, lingual lipase enzyme breaks down in the mouth, 20-35% AMDR, don’t consume more than 10% saturated fat, western diet is 10:1 omega 6 to omega 3 (ideal would be 4:1) LDL = bad fat (lousy), HDL = good fat (healthy), ADEK fat soluble vitaminsWater 60% human body, Figure 9-6 and intake concerns, during exercise 12-16oz every 10- 15min, replace fluid at 1.25x the amount of BW lost during an event
Answer: 3-6
Q: banned supplements
Answer: See Table 11-17 to see protocol
Q: Which of the following vitamins require fat to transport throughout the body?
Answer: feet, knees, LPHC, Shoulders, Head
Q: How many liters of water are suggested for male Clients?
Answer: Pes Planus Distortion, Lower Cross, Upper Cross (pg. 386)
Q: What percentage of falls into the proper range for protein consumption?
Answer: Gastrocnemius, adductors, Psoas Major, Latissimus Dorsi & Upper Traps.
Q: How many calories yield from 1g of fat?
Answer: VMO, Anterior Tibialis, Gluteus Max & med, Mid / Lower traps, TVA (abdominals) Table 6.1
Q: Optimal caffeine dosing is …… mg/kg BW provided about 1 hour to exercise
Answer: Performance Tests:Push-up (endurance), Bench (upper body strength), Squat (lower body strength)Vertical Jump (lower body vertical power, ), Broad Jump (lower body horizontal power), LEFT test (lower body lateral speed & agility), 40-yard dash (speed), Pro Shuttle 5-10-5 test (acceleration & deceleration.)Rest 2-minutes between all trials.LEFT: 10-yards apart Sprint, backpedal, side shuffle x 2, carioca x 2, sprintPro Shuttle 5-10-5: 10 yards apart. Stand in ready position by middle cone: 1 – 2, 2 -3, 3-1 and ends when client passes middle cone.Considerations for special populations: Overweight (no single leg squat & modify OHS) Young: endurance > strength, keep it fun!Older: Skip single leg, modify OHS, keep standing (don’t go on the ground)Prenatal: Modify OHS, Skip single leg, Standing only
Q: Men typically have 5-10 BPM. less than females
Answer: Gluteus medius
Q: NASM recommends trainers to test RHR at the radial pulse vs carotid
Answer: Hip Flexors
Q: Healthy Body fat for men is 10-20%, 20-30% for women
Answer: Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
Q: Android obesity is worse due to the visceral fat (Gynoid = more subcutaneous)
Answer: Adductor Complex
Q: Men with waist girth greater than 100 cm or 40 in at risk
Answer: Hip Flexors
Q: women at a waist girth treater than 88 cm or 35 in at risk
Answer: Single Leg squat
Q: Difference between 3-site JP = chest / abs / thigh = men / women = Triceps, suprailiac thigh Durnin-Womersley = biceps, triceps, subscapularis, suprailiac
Answer: Radial
Q: 3-4 site = less invasive, or can use BIA = Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis Body Fat Test by sending weak currents through muscle (muscle is 70% water)
Answer: 140
Q: Gold Standard is Hydrostatic via Archimedes principle = fat is buoyant, muscle is dense.
Answer: 21%
Q: Cardio testing: Most valid = VO2 max
Answer: Client has experienced angina within the past 3-days
Q: Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPE) NASM suggests 1-10
Answer: Sagittal
Q: YMCA 3-Min test: 96 steps per minute for 3-minutes (use 11-13 Ratings)
Answer: Improve imbalances & techniques
Q: Rockport Walk test : walk 1-mile as fast as possible
Answer: Bench Press into a Push-up
Q: 1.5 Mile run test = estimation of VO2max score. Like Rockport, but a run.
Answer: Bench Press into a Med Ball Throw
Q: Ventilatory Threshold test 1 & 2:
Answer: Phase 4
Q: POSTURE: 5-check-points – feet, knees, LPHC, Shoulders, Head
Answer: Bench Press into Med Balls Throw
Q: 3-distortion Patterns: Pes Planus Distortion, Lower Cross, Upper Cross (pg. 386)
Answer: Autogenic Inhibition
Q: USE the following chart for Overactive aka short and Underactive aka lengthen muscles: Write them all out and put OVERACTIVE / SHORT on one side and then the muscle on the other i.e. Soleus (calf)
Answer: Relative Flexibility
Q: Top Overactive / shortened Muscles to memorize: Gastrocnemius, adductors, Psoas Major, Latissimus Dorsi & Upper Traps.
Answer: Altered Reciprocal Inhibition
Q: Top Underactive / Lengthened muscles: VMO, Anterior Tibialis, Gluteus Max & med, Mid / Lower traps, TVA (abdominals)
Answer: 5-10
Q: Performance Tests:
Answer: 208 -(.7xage)
Q: During the overhead squat assessment, you notice your clients knees buckle inward (Knee Valgus) Which of the following muscles need to be strengthen?
Answer: Restore physiological systems close to baseline
Q: What muscles are MOST likely tight if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment?
Answer: 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
Q: What muscles are most likely overactive and should be stretched when an athlete exhibits excessive forward Lean?
Answer: Progression
Q: If a client demonstrates knees that cave in during the overhead squat assessment what muscles are most likely overactive
Answer: Stage 5
Q: If a client has Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome, which of the following should be foam rolled?
Answer: Hyperextending the low back
Q: Which of the following assessments should be avoided for a pregnant client?
Answer: Type I
Q: Which of the following arteries is the most common for personal trainers to use?
Answer: Quadratus Lumborum
Q: Which of the following is considered systolic hypertension?
Answer: Dynamic & neuromuscular efficiency
Q: Which of the following is an undesirable body fat percentage for males?
Answer: BOSU Ball
Q: Which of the following would be a contraindication discovered during a health risk assessment?
Answer: Vestibular
Q: What is the most common plane of motion that people tend to train in?
Answer: o 1= eccentric 2= amortization (extremely short) 3= concentric (explosive)
Q: Which of the following is the main purpose of phase 1 stabilization?
Answer: the ability to accelerate and deaccelerate as fast as possible.
Q: What is an example of a superset in phase 2 of the OPT-model?
Answer: = triple extension.
Q: What is an example of a superset in phase 5 of the OPT-model?
Answer: = triple flexion. (always remaining a neutral neck and pelvis.)
Q: Which phase of the OPT Model is common for Strongman competitions and football linemen?
Answer: Strength exercise
Q: Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness is the discomfort 1-3 days prior to working out, NOT LACTIC ACID. Self Myofascial Release (SMR) compresses myofascial (mechanical) OR stimulates the mechanoreceptors / nociceptors (neurophysiological) which we hold for 30-seconds and will relax a muscle due to autogenic inhibition.
Answer: Power Exercise
Q: Don’t foam roll anyone who has hypertension, cancer, osteoporosis, open wounds, or conditions on table 14-4
Answer: 15
Q: Static Stretching – reciprocal inhibition 1-3 sets for 30-seconds
Answer: Vertical Loading
Q: Active Isolate Stretching -1-2 second holds via Reciprocal Inhibition
Answer: Bench Press into Push up
Q: Dynamic Stretching Reciprocal Inhibition via Reciprocal Inhibition & sport specific exercises (know prisoner squats, multiplanar lunges / rotations.)
Answer: Squat into jump
Q: Know Controversial Stretches on pg.480
Answer: Dr. Hans Selye discovered how an organism (specifically rats) adapt to a stressor.
Q: What is an example of a superset in phase 5 of the OPT-model?
Answer: force x velocity
Q: Which of the following states that prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle?
Answer: Peripheral Heart action (PHA)
Q: The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is called:
Answer: Wrists
Q: A tight psoas decreasing neural drive of the gluteus maximus is an example of what?
Answer: Phase 1 OPT model Stabilization EnduranceAcute Variables are:4-2-1-1 tempo0-90 second rest periodVertical Loading1-3 sets50-70% intensity4-6 weeks in duration (as with all phases)Important for correcting muscular imbalances, strengthening ligaments and tendons, andanything associated with proprioception & neuromuscular efficiency.Phase 2 OPT model Strength Endurance pg. 705 Acute Variables are:Super Sets: Two exercises performed back to back without any rest:Bench Press into a Push-up; Squats into a step-up; Pull-Up into a single arm cable row;Military Press into Scaption (NASM term for shoulder stabilization exercise.)Phase 3 OPT model Muscular Development pg. 706 Acute Variables are:2-0-2-0 tempo0-60 second rest periodHorizontal Loading3-6 sets75-85% intensityImportant for adding size (hypertrophy is the opposite of atrophy, it means to grow the sizeof muscle fibers.)Phase 4 OPT model Maximal Strength pg.708 Acute Variables are:X-X-X-X tempo3-5-minute rest periodHorizontal Loading3-5 sets85-100% intensityImportant for optimizing rate of force.Phase 5 OPT model Power pg 711 called PAPAcute Variables are:X-X-X-X tempoSuper Sets (like Phase 2), BUT it’s strength (1-5 reps Heavy) followed by power (1-10 reps explosive):Bench Press into Plyometric Push-up; Pull-Up into Ball Slams; Squats into Jumps.3-5 minute rest periodHorizontal Loading3-6 sets85-100% intensity for exercise 1, followed by 30-45% or 10% of body weight for exercise 2.Important for optimizing rate of force and explosiveness.
Q: How many repetitions are performed during an active stretch?
Answer: Power
Q: Low intense 150-minutes / high intense 75-min
Answer: Maximal Strength
Q: FITTE-VP = Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment, Volume & Progression
Answer: Hypertrophy
Q: Tanaka Formula 208 – (.7 x age) = HR max equation to find the Target Heart rateFartlek training is speed play. Run a 100m on a track and then walk 100m, run 100m then walk 100m repeat x 12-roundsWarm-Up for 5-10 minutes
Answer: Hypertrophy
Q: The Tanaka Formula is a mathematical formula used to estimate an individual maximal heart rate using which of the following formulas:
Answer: Strength Endurance
Q: All of the following are benefits of a cool-down EXCEPT:
Answer: Phase 2. Strength Endurance Training
Q: The Physical Activity Guidelines recommends adults should accumulate 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or
Answer: Vertical Loading
Q: What does the P stand for within FITTE-VP
Answer: Bench Press into Push Up
Q: Which stage of NASM’s cardiorespiratory training program consists of sport specific training for most athletes?
Answer: Squat into Jump
Q: Type I muscle fibers are aerobic, smaller and endurance. More stabilizers, deep and proximal (rotator cuff, biceps, calves, neck muscles)
Answer: Flexion/ Extension
Q: Drawing in technique can be seen during the exercise Marching.
Answer: 12-20
Q: Bracing is the co-contraction of the core.
Answer: Hip flexors
Q: Stabilization exercise (no spinal movement) = Prone Iso-Ab (plank) or Marching (bridge position lifting legs up and down.)
Answer: Plan
Q: Strength exercise (slight spinal movement) = Reverse crunch
Answer: Internal balance and stabilization
Q: Power Exercise (spinal movement) = Med Ball Throws
Answer: Atria
Q: During Cable Rotations (strength exercise), the final leg position is called TRIPLE EXTENSION = hip extension, knee extension, and ankle extension (plantarflexion.)
Answer: Thigh
Q: Know the progressions on pg. 528
Answer: Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex
Q: During the floor bridge, clients need to be cautious of:
Answer: Alarm reaction, resistance development, exhaustion
Q: he core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber?Type I
Answer: neuromuscular efficiency.
Q: Which of the following is an example of a local muscle?
Answer: Popularity of Chain
Q: The sensorimotor function is a combination of visual, somatosensory & vestibular which comprises balance.
Answer: 0-60 seconds
Q: Anytime you see the words proprioceptive enriched environment, ALWAYS choose Stabilization
Answer: Training Volume
Q: Endurance / phase 1 as the answer.
Answer: Hands falling off the waist
Q: Regressions and progressions on page 555.
Answer: Stable
Q: Stabilization Balance exercise (no spinal movement) = Balance reach
Answer: When the trainer becomes aware if undiagnosed hypertension
Q: Strength exercise (slight spinal movement) = Single leg squat
Answer: Boutique
Q: Power Exercise (spinal movement) = Side Jumps
Answer: Pituitary Glands
Q: Bosu Ball is the most advanced balance progression.
Answer: Unlike emotion-focused coping, problem-focused coping is used when the problem is responsive to change.
Q: Balance is an example of _______________ and ______________.
Answer: A decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
Q: The proper progression from an Airex pad is to __________________
Answer: Navel
Q: Which one of the following is the key senses for balance?
Answer: A contract
Q: Reactive training is used interchangeable with plyometric.
Answer: Decrease the range of motion
Q: Stabilization Plyo exercise = Squat Jumps with Stabilization (hold 3-5 seconds)
Answer: Allowing the feet to turn out
Q: Strength Plyo exercise = Squat Jumps
Answer: Targets
Q: Power Plyo Exercise = Ice Skaters (lateral jumps)
Answer: Merchandise sales
Q: 3 phases of the plyometric aka Reactive Training)o 1= eccentric 2= amortization (extremely short) 3= concentric (explosive)
Answer: Body composition testing
Q: Quickness is the ability to react in all three planes of motion (sagittal, frontal, transverse.)
Answer: A transverse plane jump with 90 degrees rotation before landing
Q: Agility is the ability to accelerate and deaccelerate as fast as possible.
Answer: A client shares his goals with and reports his progress to others.
Q: Backside mechanics = triple extension.
Answer: Knee
Q: Frontside mechanics = triple flexion. (always remaining a neutral neck and pelvis.)
Answer: Single arm back dumbbell chest press
Q: Deadlift into a press and calf raise = Strength exercise
Answer: Ready for immediate use
Q: Power Clean / Clean & Press = Power Exercise
Answer: Pes Planes Distortion
Q: Youth populations should play red light green light
Answer: Ball Cobra
Q: Elderly populations should do stand up to figure 8
Answer: 208
Q: Stabilization workout: Stability ball squat curl press, Stability ball chest press, Stability ball row, single leg scaption, leg press. Then rest 0-90 seconds and repeat for 1-3 sets.
Answer: Concentric Action
Q: If your client were to perform 5 sets of 3 jumps what is the total volume for the exercise?
Answer: Horizontal Loading
Q: During phase 1 of the OPT model, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?
Answer: Upper Trap, Serratus Anterior, Lower Trap
Q: Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase II of the OPT model?
Answer: Motivational Interviewing
Q: According to NASM, if a NEW client performs plyometrics on Monday, how long should they wait?
Answer: Intervention
Q: Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase V of the OPT model?
Answer: Step-up to balance, curl, press
Q: General Adaptation Syndrome = Dr. Hans Selye discovered how an organism (specifically rats) adapt to a stressor.
Answer: Improve muscle balances
Q: 4-2-1-1 tempo = 4= eccentric, 2- isometric, 1- concentric, 1- isometric (helpful pointer on 620) KNOW TABLE 20-3 & 20-5
Answer: Pectorals
Q: What is the definition of power?
Answer: Myofibril
Q: Your client has High Blood Pressure, which of the following training systems would be most appropriate?
Answer: Principle of specificity
Q: How to spot military press
Answer: 50
Q: After the 5-10 min warm-up, activation techniques are used for the kinetic chain (core and balance)Plyos and SAQ (speed, agility and quickness would go next)Resistance training exercise / patternsClients choice to make it FUNCool-down 5-10 minutes (Just so you know, this style of programming is absolutely terrible and would absolutely not retain your clients. Just know this for the exam and then never use it.) Muscles engaged during a squat pattern: Knee = quads, hips = glutesMuscles engaged during a hinge pattern: hip = glutes and hamstringsWhat is the definition of power?Muscles engaged during a pulling pattern: lats, biceps, traps; actions = extension, retraction Muscles engaged during a pushing pattern: Chest, triceps; actions = flexion, protraction Muscles engaged during a pressing overhead pattern: Deltoids & tricepsSuper set examples pg. 703
Answer: Acute Variables
Q: Three Blocks of the OPT model: Stabilization, Strength & Power. The three blocks are broken down into 5 phases. Phase 1 = Stabilization, Phases 2-4 = Strength, Phase 5 = Power:
Answer: Push up into squat
Q: Which phase of the OPT model uses a Super Set combination such as a Squat (rest 1-minute) into an Ice Skater?
Answer: Program Design
Q: Which phase of the OPT model uses an X-X-X-X tempo?
Answer: 3-5 seconds
Q: Which phase of the OPT model uses a 0-60 second rest period?
Answer: Fiber
Q: Which phase of the OPT model uses a 2-0-2-0 tempo?
Answer: Carbohydrates
Q: Which phase of the OPT model uses a super set combo such as a Bench press into a Push- Up?
Answer: 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity every week.
Q: Which phase of the OPT model is a hybrid form of training that promotes increased stabilization endurance, hypertrophy, and strength by using superset techniques in which a more-stable exercise is immediately followed with a stabilization exercise with similar biomechanical motions.
Answer: A) Restore physiological systems close to baselineB) Encourages venous pooling of blood in the lower extremities- CorrectC) Gradually cool body temperatureD) Reduce heart and breathing rates
Q: The Pallof exercise is an anti-rotational exercise
Answer: 4/2/1/1
Q: The TRX Rip Trainer is an asymmetrical resistance exercise
Answer: Superior
Q: During phase 1 of the OPT model, which of the following training systems is most appropriate?
Answer: Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis
Q: Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase II of the OPT model?
Answer: Balance-Strength
Q: Which of the following is an example of a super set in phase 5 of the OPT model?
Answer: Biomechanics
Q: When performing a biceps curl (concentric), the cable should be positioned to offer resistance in a vertical motion against elbow _______________________, pulling the elbow into _____________?
Answer: eccentric, amortization, and concentric.
Q: According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of repetitions at 50-70% of the 1RM
Answer: Transverse
Q: What muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment?
Answer: a) it increases motor unit recruitment.b) it increases firing frequency (rate coding)d) it increases rate of force production
Q: The Four P’s of Marketing include all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: Core-Power
Q: A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual’s____
Answer: Increases resting heart rate
Q: What are smaller chambers located superiorly on either side of the heart that gather blood returning to the heart much like a reservoir?
Answer: Core-Stabilization
Q: Which of the following is not a testing site for body fat according to the durnin womersley test?
Answer: Core-Strength
Q: What muscles are most likely overactive and should be stretched when an athlete exhibits an excessive forward lean?
Answer: ATP-PC
Q: What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome?
Answer: Squats
Q: When the nervous system properly recruits the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structures in all three planes of motion, this is an example of:
Answer: glycogen
Q: Which of the following is not a key predictor of exercise participation and adherence?
Answer: Type 1
Q: During phase 3 of the OPT model, a client is suggested to perform horizontal loading with _______________ rest periods?
Answer: A lighter ball, generally less than 10% an individual’s body weight
Q: The total amount of work performed within a specific period of time is known as:
Answer: Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
Q: When a client performs the Shark Skill performance test for lower body agility, which of the following would result in a penalization of .1 seconds?
Answer: 30-45% of 1 rm
Q: (BLANK)_______trait does not change over time.
Answer: Pull up
Q: In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional?
Answer: Power training
Q: Facilities that are high-end and focus on a niche market segment are ________ facilities.
Answer: Knees
Q: Which of the following glands is called the “master” gland of the endocrine system because it controls the functions of the other endocrine glands?
Answer: A change in muscle length and the rate at which length changes
Q: Which of the following is a difference between problem-focused coping and emotion-focused coping?
Answer: The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest force
Q: Which of the following is an effect of an ankle sprain?
Answer: 1.5 mile run
Q: The drawing-in maneuver is a maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the _____ in toward the spine.
Answer: 140/90
Q: In the context of behavior modification approaches, which of the following is a written statement that outlines the responsibilities of participants, their expected behaviors, and contingencies for changes in their behaviors?
Answer: 5
Q: A client complains of pain in his shoulders while performing the triceps dips exercise. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Answer: Anterior Tibialls
Q: Which of the following is a common mistake made while performing prisoner squats?
Answer: Barbell Clean
Q: Individuals who have shown a certain level of interest in personal training services are ________.
Answer: Quickness
Q: Ancillary revenue can be gained through ___
Answer: Sinoatrial Node
Q: Which of the following is considered objective information?
Answer: 75-85%
Q: Which of the following is a progression of the multiplanar jump with stabilization in the frontal plane?
Answer: 20
Q: Which of the following indicates goal commitment?
Answer: Lateral gastrocnemius
Q: Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint?
Answer: 90 to 95%
Q: What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
Answer: 75%
Q: turn-key product is one that ________
Answer: Decreases resting heart rate
Q: Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
Answer: LEFT Test, Long Jump
Q: While observing a pulling assessment, a personal trainer notices a client’s shoulders elevating. Which of the following exercises is appropriate to strengthen the client’s underactive muscles?
Answer: Exercise Imagery
Q: According to Tanaka, HR max equation to find the Target Heart rate is __
Answer: Soleus
Q: In the context of muscle actions, raising a dumbbell up against the direction of resistance is a(n)
Answer: Greater than 30
Q: resistance training workout that involves performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part is known as_____
Answer: Self myofascial release
Q: Which of the following muscles work as a force couple to upwardly rotate the scapulae during a military press?
Answer: Autogenic inhibition
Q: Which of the following is a collaborative person-centered form of guiding to elicit and strengthen motivation for change?
Answer: They’re avascular
Q: Which of the following is a strategy within a fitness professionals’ scope of practice that focuses on the ability to recognize and regulate one’s behavior?
Answer: Adductor Complex
Q: What is an example of a “total body” exercise most appropriate for the starting phase of the OPT model?
Answer: Contemplation
Q: What is the purpose of phase 1 of the OPT model?
Answer: Gluteus Medius
Q: Mabel is 75 years old. She exhibits upper cross syndrome and her arms fall forward during the overhead squat. What muscle is likely overactive?
Answer: Termination
Q: Actin (thin) and myosin (thick) are the primary components of myofilaments that make which of the following?
Answer: Synergist Dominance
Q: The _____ states that the body will particularly adapt to the demands placed on it.
Answer: When a person creates mental images that increase energy and or relieve stress
Q: A rest interval of 20-30 seconds replenishes what percentage of ATP/CP stores?
Answer: When a person imagines appearance or health related outcomes
Q: _____ are the most fundamental components of designing a training program that determine the amount of stress placed on the body and what adaptations the body will incur.
Answer: Internal Dialogue in which the individual interrupts feelings and perceptions,
Q: Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action set?
Answer: Replacing negative talk with positive
Q: _____ simply means creating a purposeful system or plan to achieve a specific goal.
Answer: When people believe the exact contexts of their own thoughts
Q: When performing the Squat Jump with Stabilization exercise, how long should a client hold the landing position?
Answer: compound used by cells to store and release energy
Q: Consumption of which of the following are associated with lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaining good intestinal motility, and helps regulate the body’s absorption of glucose?
Answer: energy system producing ATP during high intensity, short duration exercise. Phosphocreatine decomposes and releases large amount of energy used to construct ATP. provides energy for muscle contraction for up to 15 seconds.
Q: Which of the following compounds are considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily functions and muscular exertion?
Answer: A metabolic process that occurs in the cytosol of a cell that converts glucose into pyruvate and adenosine triphosphate.
Q: Physical Activity Guidelines recommends adults should accumulate 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity every week or
Answer: refers to when this process occurs in the absence of oxygen
Q: All of the following are benefits of a cool-down EXCEPT:
Answer: Energy cannot be created or destroyed but merely converted from one form to another
Q: Core-stabilization exercises should adhere to which of the following tempos?
Answer: The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrates and fat as fuel sources
Q: An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as
Answer: The point where glucose provides nearly all of the energy for the activity
Q: Which of the following is an accurate description of front-side mechanics?
Answer: The energy required to digest, absorb, and process nutrients that are consumed.
Q: A Single-leg Squat Touchdown is what type of exercise?
Answer: Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise such as walking completing household chores and taking the stairs
Q: What is defined as the science concerned with the internal and external forces acting on the human body and the effects produced by these forces?
Answer: The state in which the body metabolism is elevated after exercise
Q: The three phases of plyometric training, in order, are:
Answer: Food Substances required in large amounts to supply energy including protein carbs and fat
Q: Which plane of motion bisects the body into upper and lower halves, allowing for rotational movement?
Answer: Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients. These are non energy yielding nutrients that have important regulatory functions in metabolic pathways
Q: All of the following are true regarding reactive training,
Answer: A protein source that provides all the essential amino acids
Q: A rotation chest pass is considered what type of exercise?
Answer: Foods containing all the essential amino acids
Q: Which of the following is NOT true regarding reactive training?
Answer: Ranges of intake for nutrients are estimated to meet the needs of 97-98% of the population and that are associated with a reduced risk for chronic disease
Q: A floor prone cobra is considered what type of exercise?
Answer: requires oxygen
Q: The reverse crunch is considered what type of core exercise?
Answer: Process that does not require oxygen
Q: Which energy system creates ATP from a phosphocreatine molecule?
Answer: glucose, fructose, galactose
Q: Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?
Answer: A solution with a higher solute load/concentration than body fluids
Q: The storage form of carbohydrates is called:
Answer: A solution with a lower solute load/ concentration than bodily fluids
Q: The core stabilizers are made up of primarily what type of muscle fiber?
Answer: The hunger hormone that stimulates appetite
Q: When using medicine balls for their explosive power capabilities, high-velocity movements will require
Answer: A condition in which the body’s bones become weak and break easily.
Q: The core is defined as which of the following?
Answer: leucine, isoleucine, valine
Q: Which of the following is the proper intensity for a client in phase 5 of the OPT model?
Answer: Collapsed arch of the foot also known as flat feet
Q: Which of the following is an example of a “back strength” exercise?
Answer: front of the body
Q: Which phase of the Optimum Performance Training model supersets a “barbell bench press” with a “medicine ball chest pass”?
Answer: Back
Q: When performing the single-leg squat, what check point should be observed?
Answer: Common and essential movements performed in a daily life
Q: Muscle spindles are sensitive to:
Answer: Providing Information on the health benefits
Q: Which of the following best describes a length-tension relationship?
Answer: efferent
Q: Which of the following assessments BEST measures cardiovascular efficiency?
Answer: afferent
Q: Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than:
Answer: stability- phase 1
Q: When performing the Overhead Squat Assessment, how many repetitions should the client complete?
Answer: fight or flight
Q: What muscles are possibly weak (lengthened) if a client’s feet flatten during the Overhead Squat Assessment?
Answer: a set of nerves that helps the body return to a normal resting state
Q: Which of the following is an example of a “total body power” exercise?
Answer: stretch- change of length and rate of change
Q: The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities is known as
Answer: Produces muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to tension; the contracting muscle relaxes as its antagonist is activated.
Q: The ———– is the primary pace maker of the heart
Answer: respond to pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joints