Prepare for the NASM Certified Personal Trainer (CPT) 7th edition exam with these practice questions and answers. This covers fitness assessment, exercise programming, and the OPT model.
Q: The upper trapezius works with what muscles as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula
Answer: Serratus anterior
Q: What predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions
Answer: Posterior
Q: What type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone insulin like growth factors and growth hormone
Answer: Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest period
Q: What is the acceptable macro nutrient range for fat in the diet
Answer: 20 to 35% of total calories
Q: Balance exercises use for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint movement and improve a type of contractions
Answer: Reflective automatic join stabilization contraction
Q: What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex
Answer: Sprains and plantar fasciitis
Q: Which concepts should be used to describe the functioning of the Serratus anterior as it assistant anterior deltoid during shoulder flexion
Answer: Synergist
Q: What is the correct order of the phases of pyrometric exercise
Answer: Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading
Q: Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice
Answer: Referencing peer-reviewed research
Q: What is the most appropriate SAQ program designed for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy
Answer: 4 to 6 drills with limited interia and Unpredictability, such as: shuffle and agility ladder drills
Q: What would not be a reason to terminate an exercise test
Answer: The individual is tired from the test.
Q: What RPE range on a scale of 1 to 10 aligns with training in zone two
Answer: An RPE of 5-6
Q: The water soluble vitamins include which vitamins
Answer: Vitamin C and B complex vitamins
Q: Want me to certified personal trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change
Answer: Provide them with education and knowledge
Q: What muscles work with the obliques will assist the client in completing a standing cable rotation movement
Answer: erector spinae
Q: What two activities are part of a client warm up
Answer: Flexibility and cardio
Q: During balance training gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable
Answer: Isometrically contracted
Q: What are the three movements perform during the box combo one exercise
Answer: A caption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
Q: When a client is performing a barbell squat exercise how should the fitness professional spot their client
Answer: Spot underneath the clients armpits
Q: What is defined as constantly elevated blood pressure
Answer: Hypertension
Q: What best describes an essential amino acid
Answer: An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body
Q: What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services
Answer: unique selling proposition (USP)
Q: In adequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative affects on athletic performance including which of the following
Answer: Decreased blood flow
Q: What exercise equipment should client always use when performing plyometric training due to its high impact nature
Answer: Supportive shoes
Q: What is the best choice of a tire to interview at the health club
Answer: Professional business attire
Q: What is the definition of kinesiophobia
Answer: fear of movement
Q: The intensity and direction of someone’s effort describes which of the following
Answer: motivation
Q: movement patterns
Answer: Squat, push, pull, press, hip hinge and multiplanar movement
Q: Balance is best described as which of the following
Answer: The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
Q: What term best describes amount of mineral content such as calcium and phosphorous in a segment of bones
Answer: Bone density
Q: Abnormal breathing may be associated with which of the following effects
Answer: Shallow rapid breaths with use of the sternocleidomastoid
Q: What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body sprinting direction in response to that stimulus
Answer: Agility
Q: Contraction of the hamstrings and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane
Answer: Posterior pelvic tilt
Q: What are the four Horsemen of fitness
Answer: Medicine ball, Indian clubs, dumbbells, and wands
Q: What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition
Answer: Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own.
Q: What is the recommended frequency for cardio respiratory training if participating in moderate intensity exercise like brisk walking
Answer: 5 times a week
Q: Flexibility
Answer: The ability to move your body parts through their full range of motion
Q: motor control
Answer: The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
Q: sympathetic nervous system
Answer: the division of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations ( when heart rate is being raised )
Q: Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the hill that makes it difficult to walk
Answer: Plantar fasciitis
Q: What does EMG stand for and what does it do?
Answer: electromyography (measures muscle activity)
Q: What type of muscle action would expand the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration
Answer: Concentric
Q: What are two categories of bone markings
Answer: depressions and processes
Q: What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients
Answer: 1,200 kcal
Q: If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories) what type of exercise should I do
Answer: Low to moderate intensity exercises for 30-60 mins
Q: What is the physical action in the body doing the centric phase of stretch shortening cycle
Answer: Stretching of the agonist muscle
Q: Davis law describes what type of changes within the community of injury cycle
Answer: Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue
Q: Linear Periodization
Answer: Annual monthly and weekly programming start with high volume low intensity training phase 1 and progressed to low volume high intensity training phase 4 and five progression of pretty face every 4 to 6 weeks in a linear fashion
Q: Which component of blood is primarily responsible for transporting oxygenated blood through the body
Answer: Red blood cells
Q: A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise how should the fitness professional spot the client
Answer: Wrist
Q: Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids
Answer: anti-inflammatory properties
Q: What are the three macro nutrients
Answer: carbs, fats, proteins (lipids also know as fat)
Q: Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action
Answer: As the contraction velocity increases the ability to develop force also increases.
Q: Weight loss client saq rest period
Answer: 15-30 rest
Q: Which muscles are typically under active in the feet turn out
Answer: Anterior and posterior tibialis
Q: Which system puts the body into relaxed state termed rest and digest
Answer: parasympathetic nervous system
Q: What is glycogen?
Answer: The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
Q: What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis
Answer: 20-40 g
Q: Along with muscle proteins synthesis, which of the following is important function of protein
Answer: Synthesis of hormones
Q: Fat soluble vitamins
Answer: A, D, E, K
Q: In most individuals to what pressure is a blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure
Answer: The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 MMHG above to the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist
Q: Which of the following test is designed to test reaction capabilities acceleration maximal sprinting speed
Answer: 40 yard dash
Q: What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin which helps remove heat from the body
Answer: peripheral vasodilation
Q: How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durwin Wormsley protocol
Answer: 4
Q: Abdominal skinfold location
Answer: A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)
Q: What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as
Answer: stretch-shortening cycle
Q: Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pull over throw
Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Q: Which exercise is a total body power focus movement
Answer: Two arm push press
Q: What is a sufficient recovery time that is generally need it between Plyometric exercises during a work out
Answer: 60-120 secs
Q: What is the intended outcome of stage to training
Answer: To increase the workload example speed an incline in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensity and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
Q: Which of the following is not considered a components of fitness
Answer: Power
Q: Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement
Answer: Core strength
Q: Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine
Answer: Multifidus
Q: What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power strip of exercise
Answer: Ice skaters
Q: Starting out what percentage of bone density lost as the risk of hip fractures increase by 2.5 times
Answer: 10%
Q: Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core
Answer: erector spinae
Q: What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch shortening cycle
Answer: Stretching of the agonist muscle
Q: During the standing cable chest press the resistance should be position to do what
Answer: Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
Q: Resistance Bands Exercise our best utilize in which phase of the a OPT model
Answer: Phases 2&5
Q: A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercises which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client bone mineral density
Answer: Walking
Q: Which disease is caused by the generation of Cartlidge is within joints
Answer: Osteoarthritis
Q: Which of the following modality/exercises combination provide the most freedom of movement in a transverse plane
Answer: Elastic band wood chop
Q: Which of the following would be recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet
Answer: 45 cm
Q: Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly effect
Answer: Neck of the femur and lumbar low back vertebrae
Q: Proper abdominal crunches honest ability ball allows for
Answer: Increase spinal extension due to the culvature of the ball
Q: Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
Answer: It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
Q: Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland
Answer: hypothalamus
Q: How many continuing education units does a nasm CPt need to complete in a 2 year cycle to renew the certification
Answer: 2
Q: How many B vitamins are there?
Answer: 8
Q: When preforming a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor
Answer: It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hypertension
Q: Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to lower production of estrogen and progesterone both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost
Answer: Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
Q: What are atherosclerosis?
Answer: The process by which plaque is formed in arteries leading to reduced blood flow
Q: What is appropriate tempo for phase 1
Answer: 4-2-1-1
Q: Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
Answer: Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
Q: Which two electrolytes are most commonly supplemented by athletes to replace those lost in sweat?
Answer: sodium and potassium
Q: How is a general warm up best defined
Answer: Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
Q: What term is best described the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body
Answer: Regional interdependence
Q: Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered the be the most subjective
Answer: Ratings of perceived exertion
Q: Which type of nerve receptor senses pain
Answer: nociceptor
Q: What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the blood stream
Answer: Hyperglycemia
Q: Which muscle would be considered under active leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment
Answer: Lower traps
Q: The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures
Answer: alveolar sacs
Q: In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Answer: Zone 2
Q: What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus
Answer: The knees collapsing inward
Q: The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term
Answer: socioeconomic status
Q: What muscles does tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercises primarily target
Answer: Infraspinatus and teres minor
Q: Which muscles are typically under active in association with lower crossed syndrome
Answer: Abdominals
Q: Which of the following is characterized as a global muscles of the core on the posterior aspect of the body
Answer: Erector spinae
Q: Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements
Answer: The body’s ability to sense body position and limb movements
Q: How can health best be defined
Answer: A state of complete physical, mental, and social well being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
Q: What plane does shoulder horizontal abduction and adduction occur in?
Answer: Transverse
Q: What is the RDA for protein?
Answer: 0.8 g/kg of body weight
Q: Which muscle would be targeting for SMR if you placed to roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside ) part of the upper thigh below the pelvic
Answer: Tensor fascia latae
Q: What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most supperficial
Answer: Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
Q: Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core
Answer: Rotatores
Q: What type of resistance training exercise best describes kettle bell bottom up movements
Answer: Stabilization focused exercises
Q: In which phase of the OPT model was suspended body weight training be most desirable for optimal outcomes
Answer: Phase 2
Q: Catecholamines are responsible for which of the follow actions?
Answer: Increased lipolysis
Q: Pronation of the food describes what multi planar movements
Answer: Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
Q: What does BMI assess for?
Answer: Whether a person’s weight is appropriate for their height
Q: Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries
Answer: Type I
Q: The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term
Answer: Core stability
Q: Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocols
Answer: When the individual responds with ‘no’ when asked ‘ can you speak competently
Q: For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Answer: Body fat loss
Q: What blood pressure is considered to be stage 1 hypertension?
Answer: A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80-89 mm hg diastolic
Q: What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target
Answer: middle deltoid
Q: What is the general recommended rest between SAQ reps for intermediate clients
Answer: 0-60 seconds
Q: Food is composed of which three compounds?
Answer: carbohydrates, fats, proteins
Q: Which of the following statements pertaining to high intensity interval training is incorrect
Answer: Measuring intensity by one’s effort a (subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity
Q: What artery is used to measure blood pressure?
Answer: brachial artery
Q: What region of the spine demonstrates kyphotic curves
Answer: Thoracic and sacral
Q: What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult
Answer: perturbation
Q: Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support
Answer: Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
Q: Which of the following provides the most benefits to phases 1,4, and 5 of the opt model?
Answer: Sandbags
Q: What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP
Answer: The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
Q: What structure in the heart transfer the electrical signal from the sinoatrial SA node to the atrioventricular Av node
Answer: Internodal pathway
Q: Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
Answer: Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
Q: Preforming a hop training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance
Answer: Semi-dynamic balance
Q: What are two types of contraindications for self- myofascial techniques?
Answer: Cancer and bleeding disorders
Q: Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat
Answer: Quadriceps
Q: Which of the following is iron considered to be?
Answer: trace mineral
Q: Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the opt model
Answer: strength and endurance
Q: Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate intensity exercise
Answer: Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Q: Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Answer: Instrumental support
Q: What is the dysfunction that occurs due to the narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder
Answer: shoulder impingement
Q: Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
Answer: erector spinae
Q: What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein synthesis
Answer: 20-40 g
Q: What is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis
Answer: 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight
Q: Describe the role of micronutrients in the body
Answer: They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism
Q: What is the primary functions of the local muscles of the core
Answer: Stabilize vertebral segments
Q: What is the goal of training in zone 1
Answer: Develop an appropriate aerobic base
Q: Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing ?
Answer: diaphragm
Q: Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
Answer: gluconeogenesis
Q: In what 2 ways should a fitness professional observe a client posture
Answer: Statically and dynamically
Q: What kind of flexibility work should be used in Phase 4?
Answer: SMR and active flexibility with 1-2 sets of 5-10 repetitions with 1-2 second holds