Prepare for the ASCP Phlebotomy Technician (PBT) exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers blood collection, specimen processing, and laboratory procedures.
Q: sodium fluoride keeps ______________ molecules intact for 3 days
Answer: glucose
Q: An average adult weighing 150-160 lbs has how many liters of blood
Answer: 4-6
Q: 55% of blood is ______________
Answer: plasma
Q: there are ______________ types of WBC in the human blood
Answer: 5
Q: an abnormal or surgically made passage between a hollow or tubular organ and the body surface, or between two hollow or tubular organs.
Answer: fistula
Q: What color tube does an electrolyte panel go in?
Answer: green
Q: a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels
Answer: hematoma
Q: The rupturing of red blood cells and the release of their contents into surrounding fluid
Answer: hemolysis
Q: blood in urine
Answer: hematuria
Q: liquid component of blood that normally holds the blood cells in whole blood in suspension.
Answer: plasma
Q: The state of being free of pathogenic microorganisms
Answer: medical asepsis
Q: Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets make up what percent of blood volume:
Answer: 45%
Q: A toxic chemical that affects the body by being absorbed into the blood is:
Answer: blood agent
Q: Serum is:a. Neither a red or white blood cellb. Plasma with the clotting proteins removedc. A liquid that separates out when blood coagulatesd. All of the above
Answer: D
Q: What is septicemia?
Answer: blood poisoning caused by bacteria
Q: How long does it take for the body to replace 500ml of blood?
Answer: 6-8 weeks
Q: XDP stands for:
Answer: serum cross linked fibrin
Q: Blood accounts for how much of your total body weight?
Answer: 7-8%
Q: What tube contains Thrombin for STAT serum testing?
Answer: orange or gray/yellow tiger top
Q: Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) samples need to be run within how long of collecting?
Answer: 15 minutes
Q: What do you call an inanimate object that can transmit infectious agents from individual to another?
Answer: fomite
Q: Which color tubes are used for trace metal analysis?
Answer: dark blue
Q: PSA stands for:
Answer: prostate specific antigen
Q: What are small red or purple spots on the body, caused by a minor hemorrhage?
Answer: petechiae
Q: Lipemic blood refers to a condition where:
Answer: the serum is milky white
Q: What color tube contains sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?
Answer: yellow
Q: How long does it take for blood to circulate your body?
Answer: 60 seconds
Q: BT stands for
Answer: bleeding time
Q: What tubes contain coagulents?
Answer: gold, red, orange
Q: grey tubes contain
Answer: fluoride and oxalate
Q: Swelling caused by fluid retention
Answer: edema
Q: What is the maximum amount of blood a person should donate in one session?
Answer: 500 mL
Q: What test is done before a patient donates blood?
Answer: Hematocrit
Q: Which of the following is a test used to monitor heparin levels?A. SSTB. ACTC. POCTD. H&H
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following is the deepest layer of the epidermis?A. Stratum spinosumB. Stratum corneumC. Stratum granulosumD. Stratum basale
Answer: D
Q: According to the Zone of Comfort, if you are standing 3 feet from a person you are within ____.A. Public DistanceB. Social DistanceC. Personal DistanceD. Intimate Distance
Answer: C
Q: Phase of hemostasis where there is injury to the blood vessel.
Answer: First phase, the vascular phase
Q: Phase of hemostasis where platelets adhere to the endothelial lining and the plug process takes place.
Answer: Second phase, the platelet phase
Q: Phase of hemostasis where a cascade occurs converting the plug to a fibrin clot.
Answer: Third phase, the coagulation phase
Q: Phase of hemostasis where there is a breakdown and removal of the clot.
Answer: Fourth phase, fibrinolysis
Q: To reduce the risk of transmission of a bloodbourne pathogen, you should cleanse the wound with ___________
Answer: soap and water
Q: A specific type of fire extinguisher should be used for each class of fire except for class ___________ fires, which are ______________________.
Answer: D, combustible metals
Q: ___________ tubes are more frequently associated with carryover contamination than any other types of additives, while ___________ is associated with the least amount of interference.
Answer: EDTA, heparin
Q: According to the alternate syringe order of draw, ___________ specimen are first, while the ___________ top and ___________ tubes are last.
Answer: Sterile, red, SST
Q: If an antecubital vein cannot be found on either arm, a ___________ may be considered provided the test can be performed this way.
Answer: capillary puncture
Q: Because ___________ specimen are not obtained during the basal state, normal values may differ slightly from those of ___________.
Answer: outpatient, inpatient
Q: All of the following affect blood specimen composition except….Body positiontemperature and humidityfastingstress
Answer: fasting
Q: The ___________ or ______________________ surface of the heel is the preferred site for capillary puncture.
Answer: medial or lateral plantar
Q: Therapeutic phlebotomy is the withdrawal of ______________________ and may be used as treatment for certain conditions such as ___________ or ___________. It is NOT used for toxicology, or the study of toxins or poisons.
Answer: large volumes of blood, polycythemia, hemochromatosis
Q: During ETOH (blood alcohol) testing, ___________ may be used to clean the site if an alternative to 70% isopropyl alcohol is not available.
Answer: soap and water
Q: A lack of vitamin D in the diet can cause ___________.
Answer: Rickets
Q: ___________ is a form of arthritis affecting the joints of the feet caused by increased ___________ levels in the blood.
Answer: Gout, uric acid
Q: The C & S test is used to diagnose ___________
Answer: cystitis
Q: FBS stands for
Answer: fasting blood sugar
Q: Should an implanted port attached to an indwelling line be covered with a bandage?
Answer: No
Q: A heparin lock can be left in the patient’s vein for up to ___________
Answer: 48 hours
Q: The normal hematocrit for a newborn is within the range of ___________
Answer: 51-61%
Q: The normal hematocrit for an adult male is within the range of ___________
Answer: 42-52%
Q: The normal hematocrit for an adult female is within the range of ___________
Answer: 36-48%
Q: The normal hematocrit for a 6-year-old child is within ___________
Answer: 34-42%
Q: A patient;s blood glucose level is normally elevated after ingestion of a ___________ meal, glucose levels return to normal within ___________ after ingestion.
Answer: high carbohydrate, 2 hours
Q: Normal blood glucose levels for a healthy adult should range from ___________ mg/dL
Answer: 65-110
Q: what is the most plentiful electrolyte in serum or plasma?
Answer: sodium
Q: Both ___________ and ___________ play a role in maintaining osmotic pressure and acid-base balance.
Answer: sodium and potassium
Q: ___________ is important in maintaining muscle function and cardiac output
Answer: potassium
Q: ___________ is used to measure renal function
Answer: Blood Urea Nitrogen
Q: Which characteristics of a urine sample is indicative of a pathological condition?
Answer: White or pigmented yellow foam
Q: A positive ___________ test in conjunction with a positive ___________ test is indicative of a UTI, as well as a urine culture positive for ___________
Answer: Nitrite, leukocyte, blood
Q: ___________ in the urine may be indicative of diabetes mellitus
Answer: Glucose
Q: Trough levels are collected hen the serum concentration of the drug is at its ___________ level, usually just prior to the administration of the next dose.
Answer: lowest.
Q: There are a total of ___________ muscles in the body
Answer: 656
Q: The white matter of the brain is composed of the ___________. Nonmyelinated axons are not covered by the myelin sheath and are known as the ___________. ___________ are a fatty substance that composes the myelin sheath. ___________ are areas between neurons over which impulses jump to transmit messages.
Answer: myelin sheath, gray matter, Shwann cells, synapses
Q: The PNS is composed of the ___________, ___________, and ___________. The spinal cord and brain are part of the ___________.
Answer: cranial nerves, spinal nerves, autonomic nervous system, CNS
Q: ___________ is an increased volume of CSF in the brain at birth and is characterized by an enlargement of the infant’s head.
Answer: Hydrocephalus
Q: Headache, stiff neck, and fever are symptoms of ___________
Answer: meningitis
Q: A shuffling gait, muscular rigidity, and tremor are characteristics of ___________
Answer: parkinson disease
Q: Nerve pain is a characteristic of ___________
Answer: neuralgia
Q: ___________ is a condition marked by protrusion of the stomach through a weak area of the diaphragm
Answer: hiatal hernia
Q: ___________ is an acute or chronic inflammation of the stomach lining
Answer: gastritis
Q: a ___________ is an erosion of the stomach lining
Answer: peptic ulcer
Q: ___________ is a relaxation of the lower sphincter muscle that allows the contents of the stomach to move up the esophagus
Answer: Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Q: Dwarfism is caused by hypo functioning of the ___________ in childhood
Answer: pituitary gland
Q: Cushing syndrome is caused by hypersecretion of the ___________ hormone
Answer: glucocorticoid
Q: Diabetes is caused by reduced secretion of insulin from the ___________
Answer: pancreas
Q: The throat is also known as the ___________. The ___________ is known as the voice box. The ___________ is known as the windpipe. The ___________ is a covering of the opening of the larynx that causes food to pass down the esophagus rather than the trachea
Answer: pharynx, larynx, trachea, epiglottis
Q: ___________ is caused by obstruction of the airway due to inflammation
Answer: Asthma
Q: Bronchitis is caused by inflammation of the ___________
Answer: bronchial tubes
Q: Hyperventilation is characterized by rapid breathing resulting in a loss of ___________
Answer: carbon dioxide
Q: ___________ is caused by oxygen deficiency
Answer: hypoxia
Q: Approximately 92% of plasma is composed of ___________; the remained is composed of ___________.
Answer: water, solutes
Q: fibrinogen is a ___________ protein
Answer: plasma
Q: A ___________ urine specimen may be collected from infants or small children to ensure that the sample is not contaminated.
Answer: suprapubic
Q: Tests of CSF include ___________, ___________, and ___________
Answer: total protein, glucose, chloride
Q: ABO typing is used for ___________
Answer: paternity testing
Q: Activated coagulation time (ACT), prothrombin time (PT), and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are all used for ___________.
Answer: coagulation monitoring
Q: Hgb is used for the diagnosis of ___________
Answer: anemia
Q: ___________ requires manufacturers of hazardous chemicals to supply SDS for all ___________ products.
Answer: OSHA, chemical
Q: ___________ is an example of intentional tort
Answer: abandonment
Q: what type of tubes are preferred for blood alcohol specimens?
Answer: Glass tubes
Q: The activated clotting time (ACT) test is used to monitor ___________ levels
Answer: heparin
Q: Partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is an ___________ and ionized calcium is an ___________
Answer: arterial blood gas, electrolyte
Q: Glucose levels are measured by the ___________
Answer: 2 hour postprandial test (PP)
Q: ___________, ___________, ___________, ___________ ,___________ and ___________ are all examples of trace elements. ___________ is NOT a trace element.
Answer: Arsenic, Zinc, Copper, Iron, Aluminum, and lead. Magnesium.
Q: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) blood concentrations are measured to detect ___________.
Answer: Congestive heart failure
Q: The purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test is used for ___________
Answer: tuberculosis
Q: The Histo and Cocci skin tests are used to test for the fungal infections ___________ and ___________ respectively
Answer: histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis
Q: A positive reaction to a TB skin tests is indicated by induration of a ___________ or greater in diameter
Answer: 10 mm
Q: The first step in performing a test for ___________ is nitrous acid or enzymatic extraction of the throat swab specimen, followed by latex agglutination or enzyme immunoassay for antigen detection.
Answer: group A streptococci
Q: Specific gravity is measured through ___________
Answer: urinalysis
Q: Base excess or deficit is used to calculate the non respiratory part of acid-base balance and is based on ___________, ___________, and ___________ levels.
Answer: PCO2, HCO3, and hematocrit
Q: O2 saturation is the percentage of ___________ bound to ___________
Answer: oxygen, hemoglobin
Q: The Allen test is used to assess ___________. both the ___________ and ___________ arteries should be compressed at the same time to assess the return of blood when pressure is released. The patient should NOT hyperextend the fingers when opening their hand because this may result in decreased blood flow and interfere with the results. A positive result is indicated when the hand flushed ___________ or returns to normal color within ___________.
Answer: collateral circulation, radial and ulnar, pink, 15 seconds
Q: In infants, the ___________ or ___________ may be used for arterial puncture. The brachial artery is NOT used in infants or children because it is more difficult to palpate and lacks collateral circulation. The femoral artery is generally only used in emergency situations or if no other sites are available. The ulnar artery is NOT used for arterial puncture.
Answer: scalp or umbilical artery
Q: The presence of a bleb or wheal indicated proper injection of a ___________ prior to arterial puncture as well as proper injection of the antigen during___________.
Answer: local anesthetic, TB testing
Q: The ___________ is fainting or loss of consciousness due to a nervous system response to abrupt pain or trauma, and may occur during arterial puncture.
Answer: vasovagal response
Q: ___________, ___________, ___________, and ___________ bind calcium to prevent coagulation.
Answer: ACD, oxalates, EDTA, and SPS