Prepare for the ATI Pharmacology proctored exam with this comprehensive review. This guide covers drug classifications, mechanisms of action, side effects, and nursing implications.
Q: cephalosporin
Answer: – broad-spectrum- ceph/cefs- similar to PCN/ don’t give if PCN allergy- can cause bleeding w/ other bleeding meds monitor bleeding time (tonsil story)- Disulfiram reaction (puke & puke & puke) just like Flagyl, the protozoal drug- store in fridge & take with food
Q: ALL antibiotics have these side effects
Answer: – allergy, hypersensitivity- suprainfection- organ (kidney & ear) toxicity- lowers OCP effectiveness
Q: vancomyocin
Answer: – serious infections like MRSA, colitis by C-diff- ototoxicity: get hearing test, tell provider if hearing getting worse- given IV over 60 minutes
Q: tetracyclines
Answer: – Sumycin, Doxycycline (Vibramycin)- broad-spectrum; rocky mtn fever, lyme disease, acne, GI infections by H. Pylori- bad GI discomfort- don’t give to kids ≤8; teeth permanently yellow/stained- bad photosensitivity – wear sunscreen!- can’t take with milk, iron, or antacids- take on empty stomach with a full glass of water
Q: When is arythromycin given? What class of drugs is it? Worst ADR?
Answer: – when pt. allergic to PCN and needs abx.- bacteriostatic inhibitor- bad GI issues
Q: aminoglycosides
Answer: – ototoxicity, renal toxicity, can’t take with PCN at all!- gentamicin, neomycin, streptomycin
Q: Bactrim (sulfamethoxazole, trimethoprim)
Answer: – contains sulfa- use for UTI- blood problems; get CBC baseline- photosensitivity; wear sunscreen and glasses!- empty stomach with a full glass of water
Q: Isoniazid (INH)
Answer: – anti-TB- take daily for 6-12 months and most likely w/ other meds too- worked if 3 neg. sputum cultures, no temp.- liver toxicity (hepato); check liver fxn- don’t take with alcohol (liver fxn remember?)- take on empty stomach
Q: acyclovir, ganciclovir (anti-virals)
Answer: – teratogenic preg. X- put on rubber gloves if topical!- thrombocytopenia, lowers WBC
Q: What class of drugs is metronidazole (Flagyl)? What weird effect does it have?
Answer: – anti-protozoal drug- works on C. diff & H. Pylori PUD- Antibuse effect if taken with alcohol
Q: amphotericin B
Answer: anti-fungal. HIGHLY TOXIC- infusin rxns (fever and chills)- nephrotoxicity- hypokalemia- hepatoxicity- gynecomastia- C/I with aminoglycosides (just like PCN)
Q: -azole
Answer: anti-fungal drugs
Q: ______ causes malignant hyperthermia. Use ____ to stop it
Answer: succinylcholine, dantrolene (Dantrium)
Q: ADRs of morphine?
Answer: – constipation- resp. depression- urinary retention- sedation- orthostatic hypotension- cough suppression
Q: Morphine drug-drug interactions?
Answer: – MAOIs- anticholinergics- CNS depressants- hypotensive drugs- opiod antagonists (Narcan)- antihistamines
Q: Morphine patient education RE: how to take?
Answer: take with food to prevent N/V; lying still will help
Q: Opiod withdrawal (stop abruptly if taking ≥6weeks). Is it life-threatening? Will it subside?
Answer: sweating, restless, agitated, dilated pupils, tremors, tachycardia, increased BP, N/V, cramps, muscle spasms with kicking movements. NO. Will subside in 7-10 days.
Q: Common migraine meds? MOA? Can you take them right after each other?
Answer: Ergots and triptans. Vasoconstriction. NO. Space out ergot and triptan by at least 24 hours.
Q: What pain meds reduce fever?
Answer: ibuprofen, acetaminophin (Tylenol); aspirin (ASA) is antipyretic, but not 1st choice
Q: What pain medication reduces platelet aggregation?
Answer: aspirin reduces thrombus but pt. will bleed more easily, too
Q: What pain med reduces fever but has NO anti-inflammatory effect and NO ani-platelet effect?
Answer: acetaminophin (Tylenol)
Q: What can give a child Reye’s syndrome if they have recently had a viral illness?
Answer: aspirin (ASA)
Q: Pt. education: how to take NSAIDs?
Answer: Take with food, milk, or full glass of water to reduce gastric discomfort.
Q: Max. daily dose of acetaminophen?
Answer: 4 grams
Q: When to withhold morphine/opiates?
Answer: RR <12/min & notify provider
Q: Pregnancy risk with triptans?
Answer: teratogenic (pregnancy X)
Q: Rheumatoid arthritis drugs? Name two potent toxicities of one drug.
Answer: DMARDs, 1st choice: methotrexate. Toxicity: bone marrow suppression and fetal death.
Q: Methotrexate: most concerned about…? So monitor what?
Answer: Bone marrow suppression. Get baseline CBC and platelet counts.
Q: What are the s/s of circulatory overload? Seen if giving too much fluids.
Answer: flush, SOB, cough, heart palpitations
Q: What type of diuretic is not effective in renal failure?
Answer: Thiazides (ex. hydrochlorothyazide)
Q: Bumex is ___ times more potent than lasix
Answer: 40
Q: Thiazide diuretics are good for the ___ and perfect for the eldery __ with HTN.
Answer: bones, woman
Q: What drug-drug interaction should you be aware of with furosemide (Lasix)?
Answer: Lithium will reach toxic levels.
Q: S/S of hypokalemia?
Answer: weakness, dysrhythmias, increased cardiac sensitivity of digoxin, flat T wave, ileus
Q: S/S of aspirin toxicity?
Answer: tinnitus, headache
Q: glucocorticoids: potency? ADRs? lab values?
Answer: – potent- suppress adrenal gland function; hyperglycemia; osteoporosis; if taken with NSAIDS, increase risk of GI ulcer; can mask infection and suppress immune system- WBCs and blood sugar both go up
Q: What is ReoPro (abciximab) used for? ADRs? Other uses of ReoPro?
Answer: Immunosuppressant for RA, lupus. ADRs: toxic to bone marrow, acute pulmonary edema, incr. infection and neoplasia risks. Other use: antiplatelet action.
Q: -lam & -pam are the endings for ________
Answer: Benzodiazepines
Q: What are 2 classic CNS depressant drug classes? What are they used for?
Answer: benzodiazepines, barbituates; Tx for anxiety
Q: The benzodiazepine lorazepam (Ativan) increases the possibility of ______.
Answer: seizures
Q: Antidote for benzodiazepines? What is its half-life?
Answer: Romazicon; 1 hour
Q: What are 2 other anxiolytics? What are they used for?
Answer: – valproic acid: anti-seizure, bipolar disorder- promethazine (Phenergan): N/V, anxiety, extrapyramidal effects
Q: Amitriptiyline (Elavil): drug-drug interactions? Why? How and when to take med?
Answer: – anticholinergics, b/c TCAs already have anticholinergic effects- void prior to dosing & take at bedtime to sleep through fatigue (SE)
Q: MAOIs are the ___ line drugs to treat depression b/c of ADRs with _____. If pt. eats _____, it can cause a _____ ______
Answer: 2nd or 3rd; tyramine; tyramine; hypertensive crisis
Q: ADRs of MAOis are related to stimulation of the _____ and include:
Answer: SNS; CNS stimulation, CV/hypertensive crisis and heart palpitations, liver toxicity
Q: 1st-line drugs for depression are _____ and they are equally as effective as _____ but w/o SEs/ADRs of _____ & ____ .
Answer: SSRI, TCA, hypotension, sedation
Q: SSRIs: prototype drug? 2 newer drugs?
Answer: fluoxetine (Prozac); citalopram (Celexa), sertraline (Zoloft)
Q: What atypical antidepressant is better Rx fo elders?
Answer: bupropion (Wellbutrin)
Q: SSRIs are used to treat what?
Answer: depresssion, OCD, bulimia, PTSD, panic attacks, social phobias, PMDD
Q: What time of day should a pt. take SSRIs?
Answer: In the a.m. for optimal effects.
Q: Lithium is used to treat…?
Answer: bipolar disorder
Q: valproic acid is used for…?
Answer: anti-seizure drug; can also treat bipolar disorder
Q: What’s the drug-drug interaction of lithium and diuretics?
Answer: lithium toxicity possible if taking diuretics
Q: Anti-depressants have what kind of effects?
Answer: anticholinergic: dry mouth, constipation, lack of sweat, lack of voiding
Q: Antidepressants and anti-anxiety meds may take ___ to ___ weeks to take effect.
Answer: 1 to 3 weeks
Q: All anti-depressants can cause _________ ________, so pt. must have their ______ monitored .
Answer: orthostatic hypotension; BP
Q: If pt. is taking an antihypertensive agent and was just ordered MAOi (e.g., Nardil, Marplan, Parnate), then what should the nurse do?
Answer: Monitor pt. BP and call provider if there’s a significant drop in BP; may need to reduce the anti-HTN drug dosage.
Q: Is taking lithium and/or triptans safe during pregnancy?
Answer: NO. Both lithium and triptans are teratogenic.
Q: Therapeutic levels of lithium? Dosing?
Answer: 0.4-1.0 mEq/L. Take 2-3 times a day.
Q: Chemotherapy agents: name as many as you can!
Answer: cyclophosphamide (Neosar), methotrexate, doxorubicin, tamoxifen
Q: Cyclosporine is a/n _________ .
Answer: immunosuppressive drug
Q: PTT lab value should stay at >_________ for which drug? What is the therapeutic PTT level?
Answer: 2 times the baseline; heparin; 60-80 seconds
Q: To prevent HIT, stop heparin admin. if platelet count < ________ .
Answer: 100,000
Q: How to inject heparin?
Answer: Draw up with 22-25 ga needle from vial, then use 25-26 ga to inject into abdomen 2in from umbilicus.
Q: Drug to help with heparin OD?
Answer: protamine sulfate
Q: 2 CIs of warfarin?
Answer: liver failure (no clotting proteins will lead to too much bleeding); alcoholism (additive risk of bleeding)
Q: Lab values to watch with warfarin?
Answer: – PT (18-24 sec)- INR (2-3)
Q: Pt. education with taking aspirin?
Answer: take with food
Q: Prevention of strokes, MI, and reinfarctions can be accomplished with daily low-dose aspirin of ___mg.
Answer: 81 mg
Q: Prototype thrombolytic drug? Effect?
Answer: Streptokinase dissolves clots that have already been formed.
Q: When should thrombolytics (e.g., streptokinase) be given?
Answer: W/i 4-6 hours of onset of symptoms.
Q: Do or do not mix any medications in IV with thrombolytic agents?
Answer: DO NOT
Q: What medications are usually given with thrombolytics (e.g., streptokinase)? Why?
Answer: – beta blockers to lower myocardial oxygen consumption- H2 antagonists like Zantac or PPI like Prilosec to prevent GI bleeding
Q: ferrous sulfate is used to treat…?
Answer: iron-deficiency anemia
Q: Pt. education for ferrous sulfate? Incl. ADRs.
Answer: – GI distress; however can’t take with food b/c that will decrease its absorption greatly- teeth staining; drink w/ straw or dilute in water or juice and rinse mouth after swallowing- don’t take with tetracycline or antacids- poop will be a harmless dark green or black color- drink more water and exercise more to counter constipation effects
Q: Why would a patient be given vitamin B12 (synthetic form: cyanocobalamin)?
Answer: pernicious anemia, partial removal of stomach
Q: What vitamin masks the signs of vitamin B12 deficiency?
Answer: folic acid
Q: E-alfa, hematopoietic growth factor, is dependent on adequate levels of _____, _____ & _____ .
Answer: iron, folic acid, vitamin B12
Q: When a pt. is giving whole blood, what should a nurse do before and during?
Answer: obtain V/S; stay with the client and monitor V/S q5 min for 15 minutes
Q: When giving whole blood, what do you need the 2nd nurse for?
Answer: To check identification of the donor blood and recipient, blood compatibility and expiration date.
Q: Only give blood products with what type of IV fluid? Why?
Answer: 0.9% NS. Anything else will cause lysis of the RBCs?
Q: Albuterol: effect? therapeutic uses?
Answer: bronchodilation; prevention of asthma attack (short-acting), or long-term control of asthma (long-acting)
Q: SEs of bronchodilators? Why?
Answer: tachycardia and angina due to overall stimulation of the B2 receptors (adrenergic)
Q: How to use an MDI (metered dose inhaler)?
Answer: Shake the inhaler, 1/2-2 in away from mouth and tilt head back slightly and open mouth wide. Press inhaler same time you breath in deep. Hold breath for 10 seconds. Wait 1 full minute b4 another puff.
Q: When prescribed a B2 agonist and a glucocorticoid, which should be inhaled first?
Answer: The beta-2 agonist promotes bronchodilation and enhances absorption of the glucocorticoid.
Q: What does the medication theophylline do? Is it used for short-term or long-term control?
Answer: Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, with bronchodilation. Long-term control of asthma attacks.
Q: What drug class is inhaled Atrovent (iprotropium)? What is it used for?
Answer: anti-cholinergic used for long term control of asthma
Q: Glucocorticoids for asthma are used for ________ . Oral glucocorticoids are only give for ___ to ___ days
Answer: long-term control of asthma attacks; 3 to 10 days
Q: Codeine is used for _____ . What drug class?
Answer: an opoid used to suppress chronic, non-productive cough
Q: Codeine ADRs? Admin.?
Answer: – CNS effects- GI distress- take with food and increase fluids
Q: Drug class of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)? Therapeutic effect?
Answer: a mucalytic that makes nasal and bronchial secretions watery to enhance their passage
Q: Mucomyst’s adverse effects are: (think of its effect on mucus)
Answer: aspiration and bronchospasm
Q: What does Mucomyst acetylcysteine smell like? How to take it?
Answer: rotten eggs; dilute with water or juice
Q: What do nasal decongestants like phenylephrine do to the body?
Answer: – CNS stimulation b/c they stimulate A1 receptors- vasoconstriction, so watch HTN and CAD pts.!
Q: How fast should you infuse KCl w/ an IV pump?
Answer: no faster than 10 mEq/hr
Q: You should dilute ____ and give no more than 40 mEq/L to prevent vein irritation.
Answer: KCl b/c it can feel like burning in the vein
Q: SERMS (e.g., raloxifene (Evista)) is used to treat _________ and to __________.
Answer: osteoporosis; prevent bone fractures
Q: raloxifiene (Evista) can give women __________ and increase the risk for ______
Answer: hot flashes; DVTs
Q: bisphosphonates (e.g, Fosamax, Boniva): admin.? pt. teaching?
Answer: – sit or stand for 30 minutes after taking- make sure to take enough vitamin D and calcium
Q: ADR of neostigmine Rx for myasthenia gravis?
Answer: diarrhea
Q: phenytoin (Dilantin): used to treat what? ADRs?
Answer: anti-seizure drug; ADRs: blurred vision, bad rash, beardy/chesty, teratogenesis, cardiac dysrhythmias
Q: Which vitamin promotes iron absorption but also increases its side effects?
Answer: vitamin C
Q: carbamazepine (Tegretol) is used for what? CI which kinds of drugs?
Answer: anti-convulsant; CI w/ oral contraceptives
Q: propothyiouracil (PTU) is given for …? Clinically you can see that it’s working because….?
Answer: hyperthyroidism; lowered HR, weight gain, lowered T4 levels
Q: -opril, -april
Answer: ACE inhibitors
Q: All ACE inhibitors cause which 2 main ADRs?
Answer: – dry, persistent, irritating cough- incr. body’s uptake of K+, causing hyperkalemia
Q: 70% of patients taking an SSRI experience what SE?
Answer: sexual dysfunction
Q: Fentanyl is used for…? SE?
Answer: severe pain, often for cancer; will cause constipation
Q: ____ will increase the toxicity of lithium .
Answer: NSAIDS; remember: Tylenol is NOT an NSAID
Q: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are used for…?
Answer: glaucoma
Q: metoclopramide (Reglan), a receptor antagonist, is commonly used to treat what?
Answer: peptic ulcers, GERD
Q: bupropion HCl (Zyban) helps pts. stop smoking how?
Answer: stimulation of the CNS
Q: therapeutic level of digoxin?
Answer: 0.5-0.8 ng/mL for HF, 1.5-2.5 ng/mL for cardiac dysrhythmia
Q: ADRs for gold salts to treat RA drug toxicity? Dosing?
Answer: – rash, sores in mouth, intense itching- weekly at first, then down to monthly
Q: HBA1c goal for most DM pts.?
Answer: < 7% (though up to 9% in pts. w/ certain other factors, also could be less than 6.5% in some pts.)
Q: amitryptoline (Elavil) is what drug class? Effects?
Answer: TCA; anticholinergic
Q: ADRs of lithium?
Answer: hand tremors, thirst, GI upset
Q: digoxin toxicity w/ co-admin. of which other drug? can cause what other condition?
Answer: furosemide (Lasix), hypokalemia
Q: Name 4 NSAIDS.
Answer: aspirin, celecoxib (Celebrex), ibuprofen, naproxen
Q: Neostigmine, for myasthenia gravis, side effects. Medication given to counteract neostigmine?
Answer: cholinergic effects: high GI motility, bradycardia, urinary urgency.-Atropine
Q: phenytoin (Dilantin) used for what? ADRs?
Answer: anti-seizure drug; diplopia (double vision), hirsuitism, skin rash, teratogenesis, cardiac dysrhythmias
Q: phenytoin (Dilantin) can’t be used w/ what 2 other drugs or drug classes?
Answer: warfarin (Coumadin), oral contraceptives
Q: B1 agonists are used to treat…? Why? ADR?
Answer: HF and cardiac arrest, b/c they stim. B1 receptors in the heart. ADR: cardiac dysrhythmias.
Q: A1 agonists (e.g., epinepherine) are often used for…?
Answer: raising BP
Q: dopamine is often used to treat…?
Answer: shock, HF
Q: Multiple drug interactions with heart medications:
Answer: – MAOi, TCAs enhance epinephrine effect (vasocontriction)- phentolamine (alpha blocker)- propanolol (beta blocker)
Q: Alpha adrenergic blockers (Minipress) all have a first-dose ____________ ___________ effect. What OTC analgesics counteract that effect?
Answer: – orthostatic hypotension (anti-hypertensive) b/c venous dilation-NSAIDS
Q: Clonidine (catapress) does what to the pt’s BP and CO?
Answer: decrease BP and CO
Q: Clonidine (catapress) and ______ (alpha blocker) counteract each other
Answer: Prazosin (Minipress)
Q: Which beta blocker is non-selective and causes bronchoconstriction, too?
Answer: Propanolol
Q: -pril ACE inhibitors block Ang I from becoming II resulting in:
Answer: vasodilation, excretion of water & sodium, retain K,
Q: Worse Adverse Effect seen with -prils?
Answer: Hyperkalemia
Q: -sartan
Answer: angiotensin II receptor blockers
Q: -prazole
Answer: PPIs (proton pump inhibitors)
Q: -statins
Answer: cholesterol-lowering drugs
Q: Name the main cardiac glycoside drug.
Answer: digoxin
Q: -pine, -amil
Answer: calcium channel blocker (CCB)NOTE: verapamil is non-selective
Q: What is the main difference between ARBs and ACEi?
Answer: ARBs do not have the SEs of cough and hyperkalemia that ACEi do.
Q: CCBs (-ipine/-amil) MOA? ADRs?
Answer: MOA: vasodilationADRs: reflex tachycardia, peripheral edema
Q: What effect do cardiac dysrhythmias show on an EKG?
Answer: widened QRS interval
Q: Name 2 main effects of digoxin. When should it be held?
Answer: – increase myocardial contraction- lower HR, giving ventricles more time to fill- hold if bradycardic (HR < 60)
Q: Most dangerous ADR of digoxin? Especially in pts. who already have what?
Answer: cardiac dysrhythmias; hypokalemia
Q: ACE inhibitors (-prils), ARBs (-sartan), and thiazide and loop diuretics all increase the likelihood of what? If take with which other drug, what should be monitored?
Answer: hypokalemia; K+ serum levels if taken w/ digoxin
Q: cimetidine (tagamet) is used to treat…?
Answer: peptic ulcers
Q: cyclosporine is what kind of drug?
Answer: immunosuppressant
Q: clonidine (Catapress) MOA? ADRs?
Answer: alpha-2 receptor agonist; dry mouth, drowsiness & sedation
Q: ADRs of CCBs are r/t what? SEs/ADRs? Special ADR or immediate-acting type?
Answer: vasodilation; HA, dizziness, edema, flushing; reflex tachycardia
Q: metoclopramide (Reglan) used for what?
Answer: controls post-op N/V
Q: ranitidine HCL (Zantac) is what kind of drug? Used to treat what? How?
Answer: H2 receptor antagonist; treats PUD & GERD by suppressing the secretion of gastric acid
Q: -tidines and -prazoles lower gastric pH, which promotes bacterial growth in which two places? Use cautiously in pts. who are at high risk for what?
Answer: stomach and respiratory tract; pneumonia
Q: -tidine
Answer: H2 receptor antagonist; used to treat peptic ulcers and GERD
Q: omeprazole (Prilosec, Zegerid) is what kind of drug? MOA?
Answer: PPI. Irreversible inhibiting of gastric acid.
Q: Don’t take -prazole drugs with ________ or ________ .
Answer: antibiotics, digoxin
Q: Name 3 antacids.
Answer: aluminum hydroxide gel (Amphojel), Milk of Magnesia, sodium bicarbonate
Q: Aluminum and calcium cause ______ , while Milk of Magnesia causes _______ .
Answer: – constipation- diarrhea
Q: How often does pt. with peptic ulcers take antacids?
Answer: 7 times a day! It’ll relieve their pain and heal the ulcer.
Q: Take any medications how long before or after antacids?
Answer: at least 1 hour
Q: Give 6 examples of anti-emetic drugs.
Answer: – ondansetron (Zofran)- dexamethasone- prochlorperazine (Compazine)- Dramamine (also prevents motion sickness)- phenergan- metoclopramide (Reglan)
Q: misoprostol (Cytotec): who takes it? Why?
Answer: – people taking long-term NSAID therapy and pregnant women- prevent ulcers and induce labor
Q: All anti-emetics should not be used with these 3 medications b/c they intensify anti-emetic SEs:
Answer: – opiods (also intensify CNS depression)- anti-HTNs- anticholinergics
Q: Name 2 (oral) anti-diarrheal drugs.
Answer: – diphenoxylate (Lomotil)- loperamide (Imodium)
Q: Caffeine makes diarrhea worse or better?
Answer: worse
Q: metoclopramide (Reglan) used for what? SEs/ADRs?
Answer: anti-emetic; SEs/ADRs:- extra pyramidal effects- diarrhea- sedation
Q: Insulin moves ____ into cells along with glucose, which can result in _________ .
Answer: K+; hypokalemia (in the bloodstream)
Q: Can synthroid be given to a pregnant woman?
Answer: Yes. Pregnancy category A.
Q: Is propothyiouracil (PTU) safe to use in pregnancy? ADRs?
Answer: NO. CI b/c neonatal hypothyroidism can occur. ADRs:- overmedication goes to hypothyroidism- incr. anticoagulant effects
Q: Estrogens can decrease the effectiveness of which common drug?
Answer: warfarin (Coumadin)
Q: What drug classes lower the effectiveness of birth control? Name 4.
Answer: – benzodiazepines/ phenobarbital- phenytoin (Dilantin)- rifampin (anti-TB drug)- antibiotics
Q: True or false? TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) at 2 micro units indicates good treatment of hypothyroidism.
Answer: True
Q: True or false? Photosensitivity and blurred vision are anti-cholinergic side effects.
Answer: True
Q: What are signs of an “infusion reaction” with amphotericin B?
Answer: fever and chills
Q: Are antifungals safe to use with warfarin?
Answer: NO. Antifungals inhibit the degradation of warfarin.
Q: When is pancrelipase given? How often?
Answer: for pancreative enzyme deficiency; every time they eat
Q: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS): early sign? What to do?
Answer: dry, crusty rash; should be reported to provider
Q: INR: therapeutic range? What about in mechanical heart valve pts.?
Answer: 2-3 (or 3.5-4.5 w/ mechanical heart valve)
Q: PTT: normal range? therapeutic range?
Answer: 25-35 sec; 60-80 sec
Q: What is the only immunization given at birth?
Answer: Hepatitis B vaccine
Q: How long does it take a person on RA drugs to start feeling better?
Answer: 4 to 6 months
Q: Side effects of anticholinergic drugs? Specifically for inhaled anticholinergics?
Answer: – dry mouth, constipation, photophobia, blurred vision, tachycardia, drowsiness, urinary retention- dry mouth, hoarseness, incr. IOP, urinary retention
Q: bisphosphanates: admin.?
Answer: Take on an empty stomach.
Q: For asthma pt., how long until inhaled daily steroid takes effect?
Answer: 3-6 weeks
Q: Good drug class for pt. with vasospastic angina?
Answer: CCB
Q: tiotropium (Spiriva): drug class? MOA?
Answer: anticholinergic/muscarinic antagonist; bronchodilator
Q: aldosterone: 2 effects on the body?
Answer: – sodium retention- collagen deposits in heart and blood vessels
Q: Do not give an expectorant to a patient with __________ .
Answer: HF (heart failure)
Q: Hold beta blockers when ________ .
Answer: patient HR < 60 (bradycardia)
Q: What is the only diuretic shown to improve lifespan for HF pts.?
Answer: spironolactone (Aldactone)
Q: What is the usual 1st-line diuretic drug class for treating HTN? What if pt. has DM or CKD?
Answer: thiazides; ACE inhibitor
Q: Vasodilators such as hydralzine may cause reflex ______ .
Answer: tachycardia
Q: 1st drug class usually used to treat HF?
Answer: ACE inhibitor
Q: Which electrolyte may help prevent ventricular tachycardia?
Answer: magnesium
Q: Hold nitrates or albuterol if pt. is _________ .
Answer: tachycardic (HR > 120)
Q: With Afib, which drug class norm. given that does not treat the dysrhythmia?
Answer: anticoagulant
Q: Which drug usually given for bradycardia r/t ACLS?
Answer: atropine