Prepare for the ATI Level 1 Proctored exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers foundational nursing concepts and essential skills.
Q: How many mL of sterile water should you dissolve each medication in (tube feeding )
Answer: 30 mL
Q: What should the nurse do if there is resistance during tube feeding
Answer: stop and contact the provider
Q: how much water should you flush the feeding tube with before and during med admin
Answer: 15 to 30 mL
Q: when do you flush the feeding tube
Answer: before administration, between each medication
Q: how much water should you flush the feeding tube with after medication admin
Answer: 30 to 60 mL
Q: When disposing a controlled substance, what has to happen
Answer: another nurse needs to observe the medication wastage
Q: what can you not do with the REMAINING medication of a controlled substance
Answer: lock it in a controlled substances cabinet
Q: What does a narrowed arterial lumen sound like
Answer: blowing sounds
Q: What do distended jugular veins sound like
Answer: they don’t make a sound
Q: what does impaired ventricular contraction sound like
Answer: extra heart sounds (S3 or S4)
Q: What does asynchronous closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves sound like
Answer: “spitting” of S2, two dub sounds
Q: What position should you lie a client in for catheter irrigation
Answer: supine or dorsal recumbent
Q: How much irrigation fluid do you flush with when irrigating a catheter
Answer: 30 to 40 mL
Q: what do you do to calculate fluid used for irrigation when irrigating a catheter
Answer: subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client’s urine output
Q: what mL syringe should you use to irrigate a catheter
Answer: 30 to 50 mL syringe
Q: when administering oral liquid medication, what should you do
Answer: shake to make sure medication is mixed
Q: what should you NOT do when administering prepackaged oral liquid medication
Answer: don’t transfer packaged liquid medication to a cup (may alter premeasured dose)
Q: what position should a client be in when administering oral liquid medication
Answer: high-fowler’s
Q: what do you NOT need to do when administering prepackaged oral liquid medication
Answer: verify dosage by measuring (may alter premeasured dose)
Q: when administering IV fluids, what is a priority assessment for an adverse effect
Answer: auscultate lung sounds (ABCs)
Q: when suctioning what should you do
Answer: select a suction catheter half the size of the lumen (prevent hypoxemia and trauma to mucosa)
Q: what should you preoxygenate a resuscitation bag with prior to a suctioning procedure
Answer: 100% oxygen (prevent hypoxemia)
Q: ..
Answer: ..
Q: what should you adjust the wall suction apparatus to
Answer: 120 mm Hg, no higher than 150 mm Hg
Q: what are airborne precautions used for
Answer: droplet nuclei smaller than 5 micronsvaricella, TB, measles
Q: what are droplet precautions used for
Answer: droplet nuclei larger than 5 micronsrubella, meningococcal pneumonia, streptococcal pharyngitis
Q: what are contact precautions used for
Answer: vancomycin-resistant enterococci, methicilin-resistant staphylococcus aureus, scabies
Q: what are protective environments used for
Answer: immune-compromised
Q: what can blood tests not detect
Answer: colorectal cancer(one option is a double-contrast barium enema every 5 years)
Q: when should you begin screening for colorectal cancer
Answer: age 50 (every year)
Q: when should you have a fecal occult blood test and what does it screen for
Answer: every year (beginning at 50)colorectal cancer
Q: how often should you get a sigmoidoscopy
Answer: every 5 years
Q: what assessment finding should you expect with vomiting and diarrhea
Answer: tachycardiasign of fluid volume deficit
Q: what does high urine specific gravity (>1.030) indicate
Answer: fluid volume deficit
Q: what should you do when teaching an older adult
Answer: invite another household member for reinforcement of teaching laterallow extra time for client to respond (slower processing)
Q: what temp should you warm irrigation solution to when irrigating a wound
Answer: body temp
Q: how should you cleanse a wound
Answer: center to outsideprevent introduction of microbes from skin into wound
Q: what mL syringe should you use when irrigating a wound
Answer: 35 mL(30-60 mL create safe but effective amount of wound pressure)
Q: what should there not be in antiembolic stockings
Answer: NO creases or wrinkles
Q: what time should you apply antiembolic stockings
Answer: in the morning before the client gets out of bedlegs are less edamatous
Q: how often should you remove antiembolic stockings
Answer: at least once per shift
Q: when should the client wear antiembolic stockings/ when should you not remove them
Answer: when they are sitting in a chairalso avoid crossing legs
Q: what form of communication should you for a change-of-shift report
Answer: SBAR
Q: when is a critical pathway used
Answer: an interprofessional approach to planning all phases of client care
Q: when is a transfer report used
Answer: when a client is moving to a different health care facility
Q: what precautions can you use for a latex allergy
Answer: wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and tape into place
Q: what other material can cause an allergic reaction in a client with a latex allergy
Answer: ethylene oxide
Q: what can a nurse use when injecting a medication for someone with a latex allergy
Answer: a stopcock
Q: what is the problem with hypoallergenic latex gloves with powder
Answer: they still contain latex and the powder is especially harmful
Q: what do you NOT need to do with tuberculosis
Answer: limit client visitors
Q: what do you use for hand hygiene with TB
Answer: antimicrobial hand sanitizer
Q: what kind of mask does the nurse wear when providing care for a TB patient
Answer: N95 respirator
Q: what kind of patients are emancipated (although they’re technically minors)
Answer: someone who is under 18 but is pregnant, married or has a child is emancipated
Q: when do you insert a suction catheter
Answer: while a patient is inhaling to prevent insertion into the esophagusNOT swallowing
Q: how should you suction while withdrawing the catheter
Answer: intermittentlymore than 10 seconds can cause cardiopulmonary compromise
Q: what should the nurse do after removing suction catheter
Answer: discard itDON’T reuse
Q: which hand should you hold the suction catheter in
Answer: dominant hand after donning sterile glove
Q: which food should a client introduce if they have hypercholesterolemia
Answer: avocadosplant foods contain NO cholesterol, animal food does
Q: what is the priority action for moving a client to a chair after creating a safe environment
Answer: assessing for orthostatic hypotension
Q: what is an assessment finding that indicates the catheter needs to be irrigated
Answer: bladder scan shows 525 mL of urinethere shouldn’t be any accumulation of urine with a catheter
Q: when doing a home med reconciliation what should you do
Answer: compare prescriptions with medications received during hospitalizationonly consists of assessment and documentation (no need for evaluating self-administration etc.)
Q: what is a source of COMPLETE protein
Answer: cheddar cheese
Q: what are NOT sources of complete protein
Answer: peanut butter, refried beans, oat cereal
Q: what is the first action a nurse should take for a client with fluid volume overload
Answer: assess electrolytesto guide the planning of interventions
Q: what shouldn’t a nurse do when inserting an IV catheter on an older adult
Answer: use a tourniquet
Q: where should you apply traction to the skin to stabilize the vein of an older client
Answer: distal to the injection site
Q: when giving a change-of-shift report for someone with pneumonia what is the priority piece of information to provide
Answer: breath sounds (ABCs)
Q: when reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer what is an expected finding
Answer: albumin of 3below 3.5 indicates protein deficiency
Q: how many exchanges of air per hour should there be in the room of an immunocompromised client
Answer: 12 exchanges
Q: what kind of air flow should the room of an immunocompromised patient have
Answer: positive air flow
Q: if a child needs a blood transfusion but the parents refuse what should the nurse do first
Answer: EVALUATE OWN PERSONAL VALUES
Q: when caring for a tracheostomy at home what should the family do
Answer: use tracheostomy covers when outdoors
Q: what should you never do with a tracheostomy
Answer: remove the outer cannulait stabilizes airway
Q: if a client who has a DNR is brought in with difficulty breathing what should the healthcare providers to
Answer: give oxygen through nasal cannulait will comfort but will NOT resuscitate
Q: how much oxygen can you give via nasal cannula
Answer: 1 to 6 L
Q: how should you regulate oxygen through a nasal cannula
Answer: line up middle of the sliver ball with the line in the flow meter
Q: how should a reservoir bag of a partial rebreather mask be inflated
Answer: 1/3 to 1/2 with inspirationNOT deflated (too much CO2)
Q: if a client expresses unwillingness to talk about concerns what should the nurse do
Answer: convey a willingness to be available if the client needs them
Q: what is positive chvostek’s sign a manifestation of
Answer: hypomagnesmia and hypocalcemia
Q: what is tachycardia a sign of
Answer: hyponatremia and hypovolemia (decreased volume of blood circulation)
Q: what is numbness of extremities a manifestation of
Answer: hyperkalemia
Q: what are signs of hyponatremia
Answer: ab cramping, headache, weakness, nausea
Q: what does a friction rub sound like (lung sounds)
Answer: scratching or squeaking sound throughout respiratory cycle
Q: what does rhonchi sound like (lung sounds)
Answer: dry, low-pitched, snore-like sounds in throat or bronchial tube due to partial obstruction
Q: what do crackles (AKA rales) sound like
Answer: discontinuous sounds primarily during inhalation, result from air bubbling through fluid or mucus in airways
Q: When should you wash out a feeding bag (for tube feeding)
Answer: with every refilling (4 to 8 hours)
Q: when should you change a feeding bag (for tube feeding)
Answer: every 24 hours to prevent bacterial contamination
Q: where should an x ray show the end of an NG tube
Answer: above the pylorus
Q: what should be the pH of tube aspirate (for correct tube placement)
Answer: 4 or less6 or more indicates airway fluid (incorrect placement)
Q: when should a nurse wear a mask for a client on droplet precautions
Answer: within 1 m (3 ft) of the client
Q: what does an HDL level above 60 indicate
Answer: desirable level of protection against CAD
Q: what does a norton scale score of 16 or less indicate
Answer: at risk for pressure ulcers
Q: how often should you have your BP checked
Answer: every 2 yearsevery year if previously elevated
Q: how often should you have your cholesterol checked
Answer: every 5 years starting at age 20
Q: how often should you have your blood glucose checked
Answer: every 3 years starting at age 45
Q: how often should you have a colonoscopy
Answer: every 10 years
Q: with in line suctioning what is it not necessary to do
Answer: disconnect patient from ventilator
Q: a face shield isn’t necessary with
Answer: in line suctioning
Q: when can you reuse the catheter repeatedly
Answer: with in line suctioningit attaches to the ventilator tubing
Q: what should you use underneath the flanges of the outer cannula (tracheostomy)
Answer: commercially prepared fenestrated dressingdoesn’t unravel and has a slit to fit around tracheostomy tube
Q: what should you not use on the outer cannula (tracheostomy)
Answer: transparent dressingthe adhesive would irritate the skin over time
Q: what is twill tape used for in tracheostomy care
Answer: attached to the “eyes” at the edges of the flangesnot looped or wrapped under flanges
Q: what kind of airway support is long term
Answer: tracheostomy tube
Q: how long can an endotracheal tube be left in for
Answer: 14 days
Q: what can the oropharyngeal tube be used for
Answer: an alert patient (doesn’t stimulate gag reflex) but not for long term
Q: what can the nasopharyngeal tube be used for
Answer: prevent obstruction by tongue or secretions typically in an unconscious patient. not for long term use
Q: what should you do with a cuffed endotracheal tube
Answer: reposition to other side of mouth every 12 hours
Q: why shouldn’t you apply tape over a patients ears for an endotracheal tube
Answer: it can cause pressure ulcers
Q: what is the recommended cuff pressure for ET tube
Answer: 20 to 25 mm Hg
Q: how long should the tape be for an ET tube
Answer: 6 inches longer than the distance from naris to naris posteriorly
Q: what should you apply to the patients face before applying tape for an ET tube
Answer: use tincture of benzoinliquid adhesive, protects patients skin
Q: what should you clean the patients face with before taping an ET tube
Answer: soapy washcloth, rinsed and dried
Q: what is NOT required when securing an ET tube
Answer: sterile gloves
Q: what is in line suctioning designed for
Answer: remove secretions from trachea
Q: what is a yankauer catheter for
Answer: secretions of the mouthcan cough but can’t swallow or expectorate
Q: what is a bulb syringe for
Answer: suctioning secretions from a newborns mouth and nose
Q: what is open suctioning for
Answer: an ET tube or tracheostomyonly to be used oncedon’t use in a patient’s mouth
Q: what is percussion used for with lung secretions
Answer: dislodge secretions from bronchial walls
Q: what is nebulization used for with lung secretions
Answer: loosen secretions
Q: what is postural drainage used for with lung secretions
Answer: allows secretions to drain by gravity
Q: what is vibration used for with lung secretions
Answer: increase turbulence of exhaled air (loosen secretions)
Q: what is the correct positioning of a hammock sling
Answer: the sling should be under the patient from shoulders to knees
Q: what position should the bed be in when using a hammock sling
Answer: highest position
Q: what should you do when using a hammock sling
Answer: lock the hydraulic valve before attaching sling to lift
Q: what part of the bed should you raise before transfer with a hammock sling
Answer: the head of the bedpatient will be in sitting position the whole time
Q: what demonstrates full range of motion of the shoulder
Answer: flexing the shoulder by raising the arm from a side position to a 180° angle
Q: what should you do before moving a patient from a bed to a chair
Answer: align your knees with the patient’s knees
Q: what position should the chair be in when moving a patient from a bed to a chair
Answer: a 45° angle
Q: if a patient begins to fall while ambulating what should you do
Answer: extend one leg and let the patient slide down itas patient gets closer to floor, the nurse should bend both legs and continue to support patient
Q: how long can blood be at room temperature
Answer: no longer than 30 minutes prior to infusion
Q: when should an entire unit of blood be infused by
Answer: 4 hours
Q: ideally how long should a unit of packed red blood cells be infused by
Answer: 2 hours
Q: for the first 15 minutes how many mL should you start a blood infusion at
Answer: no more than 5 mL/min(2 mL/hr is preferable)
Q: when is the tubing generally changed during blood infusion
Answer: every 2 units
Q: for autologous blood transfusion how often can donated
Answer: every 3-4 days
Q: antibodies do what
Answer: neutralize a threat
Q: what is agglutinogen
Answer: another word for antibodies
Q: what is an antigen
Answer: produces a specific immune response and interacts adversely with products of the response (antibodies)
Q: what gauge needle should you transfuse blood with
Answer: 18 or 19 gauge
Q: febrile nonhemolytic reaction
Answer: non life threateningcharacteristic feverchills, headache, flushing, anxiety, muscle pain
Q: what do insulin pumps use
Answer: rapid acting insulin
Q: insulin pumps deliver insulin…
Answer: at a basal rate continuously throughout the day
Q: what could put someone at risk for diabetic ketoacidosis with an insulin pump
Answer: occluded tubing
Q: when doing a diabetic blood test with a reagent portion of a test strip
Answer: hold the test strip next to the fingertipallows the blood to flow onto the onto the pad
Q: what should you NOT do when doing a diabetic blood test with a reagent strip
Answer: do NOT smear the bloodinaccurate result
Q: in a routine exam, a glucose level of 120 is
Answer: high for fasting glucose measurementgenerally b/w 70-105
Q: with fecal incontinence what position should the patient be in for an enema
Answer: dorsal recumbent with a bedpan
Q: what is the recommended amount of fluid for a large volume cleansing enema
Answer: 750-1000 mL
Q: how many times can tap water enemas be given
Answer: no more than once
Q: what is the recommended height of the enema container above the rectum
Answer: max is 18 inches
Q: how long should the patient hold in an oil retention for constipation
Answer: at least 30 minutes but as long as possible
Q: what kind of enema do you use for abdominal distention and difficulty expelling flatus
Answer: return flow enemastimulate peristalsis
Q: what are cleansing enemas for
Answer: constipation, fecal impaction, or undergoing surgeryremove feces
Q: how far should you insert a tube for an enema
Answer: 3 to 4 inches
Q: when should you stop an enema
Answer: abdominal distention or rigidity or evidence of bleeding
Q: when should you not use a nasogastric tube
Answer: facial traumarisk of misplacement
Q: what is a situation when you would use a nasogastric tube
Answer: laryngectomy
Q: what should you do with pancreatitis
Answer: hold fluid and food to allow pancreas to rest
Q: what formula do you use for gastrointestinal dysfunction
Answer: elemental
Q: when measuring an enteric tube you measure from
Answer: tip of nose to earlobe then to xiphoid process PLUS 20 OR 30 CM
Q: what tube feeding do you give for gastric ileus (for 2 weeks)
Answer: nasointestinaldelivers directly into intestine
Q: what tube feeding do you give for gastric ileus for more than 4 weeks
Answer: percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy tube
Q: what should a patient report with nasogastric feeding
Answer: consistent coughingcould indicate tube is in respiratory tract
Q: how long should you limit enteral tube feedings to
Answer: 4 hourslonger than 4 to 8 hours increases risk for bacterial contamination
Q: what shouldn’t you do with enteral tube feeding
Answer: allow bag to empty fully before next feedingcan result in too much air, which causes vomiting
Q: what should you do after nasogastric tube passes the nasopharynx
Answer: flex head toward chestcloses off glottis
Q: what established the joint health care fraud and abuse control (HCFAC) program
Answer: HIPAA
Q: HIPAA implemented what to reduce errors and fraudulent activity
Answer: EHR
Q: which organization can prevent individuals and entities from participating in federal health care problems
Answer: office of inspector general (OIG)
Q: what is the best practice strategy to reduce fraud, waste and abuse
Answer: establish procedures for maintaining and distributing medication samples
Q: which health care resource is most vulnerable to fraud, waste and abuse
Answer: durable medical equipmentcan charge patients for things they don’t want or needcan reacquire and sell for a profit
Q: if someone wants to make an appointment at a new office they need to
Answer: call and request a form authorizing release and copies be sent to her to sign and return
Q: if a patient feels his privacy has been violated who should he file an official claim to
Answer: office of civil rights (OCR)
Q: when irrigating a wound you should wear a
Answer: face mask to prevent splashes
Q: what product can affect permeability of gloves
Answer: petroleum based hand lotion
Q: when wearing protective equipment with multiple components what should you take off first
Answer: gloves
Q: if hands are VISIBLY dirty you always wash your hands with
Answer: water and soap
Q: how often do you replace primary infusion tubing
Answer: 96 hours(no more than every 92 unless compromised)
Q: when securing an IV catheter what should you do
Answer: leave connection between tubing and hub uncovered
Q: what can a broken off catheter tip cause
Answer: embolus
Q: what should you do immediately after inserting a nasogastric tube
Answer: inspect the oropharynx for kinks or coiled tubing
Q: nasogastric intubation can relieve distention for what
Answer: postoperative bowel obstructionplaced for decompression and removal of secretions
Q: why should a nasogastric tube be placed for compression
Answer: gastrointestinal hemorrhageinflating a balloon (compression) can help prevent gastrointestinal hemorrhage
Q: what would a nasogastric tube be used for if a patient ingested a toxic substance
Answer: lavage
Q: what is a levin tube used for
Answer: intermittent suction for stomach secretions
Q: what is a sengstaken-blakemore tube used for
Answer: apply pressure to prevent esophageal or gastrointestinal bleeding
Q: what is a salem sump tube used for
Answer: continuous suctionhas 2 lumens one for air and one to remove content
Q: what is an ewald tube used for
Answer: irrigate stomach during active bleeding
Q: what is no longer considered safe practice for checking NG tube placement
Answer: instilling air into the tube and listening for a whooshing sound
Q: with a double barrel colostomy what do you do
Answer: put dry gauze over the DISTAL stoma to collect mucusthe bottom one only secretes mucus not feces
Q: with a double barrel colostomy what may not be necessary
Answer: irrigationif it is, only do on 1 stoma not both
Q: how long can ostomy appliances stay in place
Answer: 7 days
Q: what kind of drainage should you expect from a sigmoid colostomy
Answer: solid feces similar to that from the rectum
Q: what should you do to minimize skin discomfort while removing the skin barrier for an ostomy
Answer: push the skin away from barrier while removing it
Q: what should you clean the skin around an ostomy with
Answer: tap water only
Q: when should people change an ostomy bag
Answer: before meals
Q: what kind of ostomy will you use after the large intestine and rectum is removed
Answer: ileostomy
Q: what is a cecostomy
Answer: a surgical opening in the cecum for diversion of feces
Q: what is a loop colostomy
Answer: pulls 1st section of large intestine to abdominal wall and creates 2 incisions in the loopa large and temporary stoma
Q: what is a descending colostomy
Answer: removes a part of the descending colon and uses remaining section to create stoma
Q: what is a kock’s pouch
Answer: no external collection devicepatient self catheterizes every 2-4 hours
Q: what is an ileal conduit
Answer: urine flows from kidneys to outside of body
Q: what is a cutaneous ureterostomy
Answer: urine flows from ureteral opening to outside of body
Q: what is a nephrostomy
Answer: urine flows from kidneys to outside of body
Q: what should you clean an oxygen mask with
Answer: clear warm water every 4-8 hours PRN
Q: venturi mask
Answer: for critically ill patients who need a specific concentration of oxygen
Q: simple face mask
Answer: moderate flow for short amount of timeloosely fitting, so oxygen concentration varies
Q: face tent
Answer: good for humidification and oxygen
Q: what is an early sign of hypoxia
Answer: hypertension
Q: what are late signs of hypoxia
Answer: cyanosisdecreased RR
Q: what is a sign of chronic hypoxia
Answer: peripheral edema
Q: turning the knob on an oxygen all the way to the right does what
Answer: stops oxygen flow
Q: what kind of water is used for humidification
Answer: sterile waterNOT distilled
Q: what does a tracheostomy collar do
Answer: provide high humidification and oxygen concentration
Q: aerosol masks
Answer: provide high humidity but fit over patient’s mouth and nose not a tracheostomy
Q: signs of oxygen toxicity
Answer: FiO2 above 50% for longer than 24 hourschest pain
Q: nonrebreather mask
Answer: highest O2 concentration of low flow systems60-80%
Q: what do you have to do with a nonrebreather mask
Answer: monitor closely because deflation can decrease oxygen delivery
Q: biofeedback
Answer: measuring skin tension and using learned techniques to manage pain
Q: stimulating skin with a mild electrical current when pain occurs
Answer: transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
Q: what shouldn’t be added to a basin before a bed bath
Answer: soapit can irritate the eyes
Q: for oral health what can you use
Answer: diluted hydrogen peroxide
Q: hygiene care should not be what
Answer: grouped with othersit is intimate
Q: the patient’s arm should be washed using
Answer: long firm strokes
Q: what should you tell the child to do during an abdominal assessment
Answer: put their hand under yours
Q: what should the blood pressure cuff cover
Answer: 80-100% of the arm circumference
Q: when assessing a school aged child what is an appropriate communication technique
Answer: using books and other visual aids
Q: when assessing a preschool aged child what is an appropriate communication technique
Answer: letting them play with the equipment
Q: when assessing a toddler what is an appropriate communication technique
Answer: using puppets to express emotions
Q: what is strabismus
Answer: misalignment of eyes
Q: what test should you perform for strabismus
Answer: cover-uncover
Q: what does the presence of the red reflex test
Answer: the lens of the eye
Q: to test for scoliosis in a child what should they do
Answer: bend forward with arms dangling and knees straight(touching toes is wrong, angles spine downward)
Q: borborygmi
Answer: hyperactive bowel sounds
Q: abdominal guarding
Answer: voluntary tightening or tensing of muscles when being examined
Q: for an average adult how many bowel sounds per minute will you hear
Answer: 30 per minute
Q: what quadrant are bowel sounds most active in
Answer: right lower quadrant
Q: normal BMI range
Answer: 18.5-24.9
Q: distance vision is typically assessed with what
Answer: the snellen test
Q: what does the romberg test test for
Answer: balance
Q: if you’re going to disinfect your stethoscope what do you use
Answer: 70% isopropyl alcoholyou can wipe with soap and water but do NOT immerse
Q: the diaphragm is for hearing
Answer: high pitched sounds
Q: the bell is for hearing
Answer: low pitched sounds
Q: what shouldn’t you do with your stethoscope
Answer: drape it over your neckthe tubing stiffens from lipids in human skin over time
Q: what is ankylosis
Answer: immobility or consolidation of a jointdue to disease, injury or surgery
Q: what is stridor (lung sounds)
Answer: high pitched sound when larger airway is blocked or inflamed
Q: what should you avoid a few days before a fecal occult blood test
Answer: poultryred meat, poultry, sea food and some raw vegetables can result in a false-positive
Q: what can alter a fecal occult blood test
Answer: vitamin C
Q: what should you do prior to a blood specimen collection
Answer: rub the site distally to proximally to dilate the veinNOT vigorously
Q: what does urine culture and sensitivity require
Answer: clean catch or catheterized specimen in a sterile cup
Q: what does urine creatinine clearance require
Answer: timed urine collection
Q: what does urine pregnancy test require
Answer: first voided morning specimen
Q: how can routine urinalysis be done
Answer: random clean voided specimen during normal voiding in a clean cup
Q: a patient with a UTI could have what
Answer: elevated urine specific gravity due to dehydration
Q: urine pH is usually
Answer: 4.6-8
Q: what is the reference range for WBC for urinalysis
Answer: 0-4000
Q: what should midstream urine tests be collected in
Answer: sterile urine cup
Q: how much urine is required for a urinalysis specimen
Answer: 30 to 60 mL
Q: what should you do to increase blood flow to a finger for blood glucose testing
Answer: wrap in a warm cloth
Q: where should you pierce the skin on the finger for a blood glucose test
Answer: the lateral aspect of the fingerNOT the middle
Q: what should wounds be cleansed with before collecting a specimen
Answer: normal saline or sterile waterNOT antiseptic solution
Q: how should you collect a specimen for fecal occult blood testing
Answer: 3 specimens from 3 consecutive bowel movements
Q: what is the recommended distance for pouring liquid into a sterile container in a sterile field
Answer: 4-6 inches
Q: what is worn prior to entering a surgical scrub area
Answer: protective eye wearhair covermaskshoe covers
Q: what do you not wear until the surgical hand scrub has been completed
Answer: gown
Q: make sure the patient has voided within how many hours before removal of catheter
Answer: 6-8 hours
Q: what is the FIRST action a nurse should take if urine output is less than fluid intake with a catheter
Answer: check the catheter for kinks
Q: who should have a urinary catheter
Answer: someone who is critically ill (GI bleed for example) for precise measurement of urinary output to manage fluid
Q: what should you instruct a female patient to do when inserting a catheter
Answer: bear downrelaxes external sphincter (as if to void)
Q: how much urine should you withdraw for a specimen from a catheter
Answer: 5 mL
Q: when applying a condom catheter on an uncircumcised patient what should you do
Answer: leave a space between the penis and the catheter tip (1-2 inches)
Q: when inserting a straight catheter into a penis what should you do
Answer: apply light traction while putting it perpendicular to the body
Q: what is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure called
Answer: the pulse pressure
Q: what is diurnal variation
Answer: difference b/w BP taken at different times of the day
Q: what is an ausculatory gap
Answer: the temporary absence of sound common with hypertension b/w the 1st and 2nd korotkoff sounds
Q: what things can affect methods used to take vitals
Answer: -overweight (BP cuff)-nasal congestion (mouth breathing)-digoxin (heart things)-mastectomy (BP cuff could cause pain in arm)
Q: S2 is the sound of the
Answer: semilunar valve closing
Q: vibration of the ventricular walls make
Answer: S3 and S4
Q: vigorous atrial contraction can cause
Answer: an abnormal sound such as S4
Q: when taking temperature rectally it is important to
Answer: insert the probe about 1.5 inches into the anus
Q: where should you aim the probe when taking temperature rectally
Answer: at the umbilicus
Q: what should you do with lubricant when taking temperature rectally
Answer: squeeze it on the rectal tissue or another disposable item then dip probe in itdo NOT dip the probe in the lube container to prevent contamination of lube
Q: what dressing should you use for a wound that continues to bleed
Answer: alginatedon’t adhere and won’t cause bleeding with removalESTABLISHES HEMOSTASIS
Q: hydrofiber dressing
Answer: are useful for absorbing exudatedoesn’t promote hemostasis
Q: biologic dressing
Answer: offers protection and promotes healingdoesn’t promote hemostasis
Q: transparent dressing
Answer: provides a wet environment for healingdoesn’t promote hemostasis
Q: what do you do for mechanical debridement
Answer: change dressing using wet-to-dry method
Q: what do you do for biological debridement
Answer: apply larvae to the wound bed
Q: what do you do for chemical debridement
Answer: use a topical enzyme solution
Q: what should you do to prevent prolongation of the inflammatory phase of wound healing
Answer: 2L oxygen via nasal cannulathis phase requires a lot of perfusion
Q: what should you not give in the inflammatory phase of wound healing
Answer: aspirinit inhibits platelet aggregation and clotting (hemostasis) is important in this phase
Q: with a stage I pressure ulcer what should be applied
Answer: zinc oxidea barrier cream
Q: what is papain-urea
Answer: chemical debridement agent for pressure ulcers with slough or eshcar
Q: what is polymyxin B
Answer: antibiotic for infected wounds
Q: what is slough (in a wound)
Answer: stringy whitish/yellowish/tan necrotic tissue firmly attached to wound bed
Q: what is fibrin (in a wound)
Answer: yellow or white and soft stringy necrotic tissue that is loosely attached
Q: what is gangrene (in a wound)
Answer: hard black or brown necrotic tissue firmly attached to wound bed
Q: what is eschar
Answer: hard or soft and tan, black or brown necrotic tissue firmly attached to wound bed