Prepare for the 3P APEA Nurse Practitioner certification exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers clinical assessment, diagnosis, and treatment planning.

Q: What would cause decrease in Digoxin levels

Answer: Antacids

Q: Taking Pyridium for UTI, what can Pyridium cause?

Answer: Hemolytic Anemia

Q: What can PCOS result in?

Answer: increased insulin levels, Androgens, hirsutism

Q: What is a hypertensive used in pregnancy

Answer: Methyldopa

Q: What is a characteristic of Placenta Previa?

Answer: painless red bleeding

Q: What is a characteristic of Rheumatoid arthritis ?

Answer: Red hot joints

Q: Medications that cause ototoxicity

Answer: Aminoglycosides, nasal decongestants, antihistamines

Q: Treatment period for enterobiasis

Answer: 2 weeks

Q: CBC Interpretation

Answer: MCV – mean corpuscular volume help diagnose different types of anemia (High=macrocytic like B12, Low=microcytic like Fe anemia)

Q: Rhogham given at how many weeks gestation?

Answer: 27 weeks

Q: Janesway lesions

Answer: Happen with endocarditis, non painful lesions seen on hands and feet, Osler same but painful

Q: Warfarin management – forgot a dose?

Answer: If under 12 hours take missed dose, if over skip and need INR redraw

Q: Taking an ACE or ARB what to know?

Answer: ACE (dry hacking) cough starts 1-2 weeks after med started, ACE (Lol) ARB (sartan) first line in HTN avoid initially in african americans, angioedema can occur

Q: Contraindication for hydrochlorithiazide

Answer: sulfa allergy, asthma, PCN hypersensitvity

Q: Murmurs Systolic

Answer: MR=Mitral regurge (SOB/Fatigue HF)Peyton Manning=phys murmur (asymptomatic)AS=Aortic Stenosis (Angina, syncope HF)MVP=Mitral valve prolapse (palps, CP, “click”)

Q: Diastolic Murmurs (ABnormal)

Answer: AR= Aortic Regurge (angina, HF, dizzinness, CP)MS=Mitral stenosis (Dyspnea, Afib)

Q: Motivated

Answer: Systole-S1 closure of AV Mitral/tricuspid valve (lub)Mitral, Tricuspid, atrioventricular valves

Q: Apples

Answer: Diastole s2 closure of the aortic pulmonic valves (dub)aortic pulmonic semilunar

Q: Abnormal (extra) heart sounds

Answer: S3- CHF; possible normal for adolescent athletes,S4 LVH poorly controlled HTN, unstable angina

Q: Assessment of PAD

Answer: antiplatelets (Plavix, ASA), Pentoxifylline (decreases blood viscosity) to treat, ankle brachial index to check, angiography gold standard to diagnose

Q: Coronary artery Disease tx

Answer: Atorvastatin/rovustatin- use high dose meds for LDL>150, watch for LFTs and arthralgia. Change type and dose if problems. Stabilization of plaque with statins

Q: HF treatment

Answer: ACEI, ARB, or ARNI with BB and aldosterone receptor antagonist

Q: Scabies Treatment (Sarcopter Scabiei)

Answer: Topical Permethrin massaged from head to soles of feet and wach off with shower or bath after 8-14 hours. Treat again in 1 week

Q: Names of skin findings

Answer: Macule; freckle <1 cm, Papule Macule >1 cm chloasma, Papule <0.5cm elevated nevi (molluscum wart), Plaque (psoriasis, lichen planus), Nodule 0.5-2 cm lipoma, vesicle (herpes simplex contact derm,

Q: Keloid

Answer: hypertrophic scar that is invasive beyond point of original injury

Q: Skin continued

Answer: Bulla-second degree burn, friction burnWheal- raised, mosquito bite, hiveScales;dandruffCrusts-scab from abrasian, impetigo

Q: Tinea

Answer: Fungal infections; Tinea capitis-round patchy scales on scalp (cradle cap) treatment Grisefulvin take with high fat meal 4-6 weeks 500 mg tinea corporis -red and scaly plaque on trunk (ring worm) Treatment is an azole for 2 weeks

Q: Melanoma How do you assess

Answer: ABCDE Asymmetry, border, color, diameter >6 mm, elevation

Q: Psoriasis

Answer: silvery white scales, nails are pitted; positive Auspitz sign- pinpoint bleeding occurs when lesions are scraped

Q: Shingles (Herpes Zoster)

Answer: Unilateral dermatomal rash- painful as it progresses to vesicles, Acyclovir within 48-72 hours or symptoms. May only transmit chickenpox virus to susceptible patients that have not gotten exposed or vaccinated yet.Post herpetic neuralgia pain is longer than 1 month after rash has resolved.

Q: Contact dermatitis

Answer: papules or vesicles 5mm or less, scaling, crusting, oozing. Tx corticosteroids/antihistamines

Q: Acne Vulgaris

Answer: Inflamm disorder where androgen-dependent sebaceous glands produce excess sebum. Areas most commonly affected are face, anterior and posterior chest, arms and shoulders. Treatment: Erythromycin/Benzyl peroxide=limit exposure to sunlight peroxide can decrease resistance to erythromycin

Q: Atopic dermatitis

Answer: Patchy plaque like rash with inflammation. common in people with other atopic illnesses (asthma, allergic rhinitis)

Q: Eye Findings in HTN and DM

Answer: AV nicking-arteries indent and displace veins, cotton wool spots-gradual vision loss, flame hemorrhages- blot and dot hemorrhages

Q: Tx of acute sinusitis in adults and pediatrics

Answer: Viral symptomatic tx only, is bacterial- amoxicillin first line symptoms>10 days purulent nasal discharge, fever, unilateral face or tooth pain

Q: Snellen test

Answer: Test for visual acuity; CN II

Q: What medications can cause ototoxicity

Answer: Aminoglycosides (tx otitis externa) , loop diuretics, quinine, ASA

Q: Rhinitis

Answer: Eosinophils due to WORMS, wheezes, weird diseases. Most effective tx for allergic rhinitis- Fluticasone Flonase

Q: Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

Answer: For empiric tx of patients with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis who are allergic to penicillin, the best alternative first line therapy is Doxycycline

Q: Which immunoglobulin is responisble for the symptoms in the patient with allergic rhinitis?

Answer: IgE

Q: Assessment of a 4 year old visual acuity resulted in 20/30 in L eye and 20/40 in R eye.

Answer: Means vision is normal for his age, 20/20 vision at 6 years old

Q: Distinctive feature of cataracts

Answer: Absent red reflex

Q: Meclizine

Answer: Given for patients who present with Positional vertigo

Q: Pterygium

Answer: growth on conjunctiva of fleshy tissue, sx redness, swelling, yellow spot or bump dry itchy like sand in eye

Q: Eye emergencies

Answer: papillaedema (increase ICP, swollen optic disc engorged tortuous retinal veins), Acute closed angle glaucoma is unilateral eye pain rapid onset and loss of vision

Q: Presentation with foreign body in eye

Answer: only remove with wet cotton swab if not able to send to opthamologist

Q: Meniere’s Disease

Answer: A 45 year old patient complains of vertigo, tinitus, and pressure in the right ear

Q: Hyperopia

Answer: Light that is focused behind the retina causes the visual disturbance

Q: Mononuleosis

Answer: Most commonly caused by EBV can be passed sexually

Q: Which medication is most commonly associated with hypoglycemia

Answer: Glyburide

Q: How does myxedema present and what is its indicative of

Answer: found in patients with hypothyroid, hypothermia, thickening of the tongue, and disorientation

Q: Assessment findings PCOS

Answer: Hirsutism, hyperinsulinemia, elevated lipids, abnormal hair, acne

Q: Assessment finding and RX for hyperthyroidism

Answer: M/C cause is Graves’ disease, finding include tachyC, Afib, weight loss, hyperactivity, warm, moist skin, flushed

Q: Hyperprolactinemia

Answer: Menstrual dysfunction, ED, pain in breast, loss of libido, lactation, vaginal dryness, infertility

Q: Hyperandrogenism

Answer: High levels of Androgens in females, sx include acne, seborrhea, hair loss on scalp, increased body or facial hair, infrequent or absent menstruation, Can be caused by PCOS

Q: DM

Answer: A1c over 6.5 or fasting glucose over 126, initiate Metformin at initial diagnosis

Q: Assessment of neuropathy

Answer: In distal lower extremities, long effect of hyperglycemia, paresthesias and burning

Q: Treatment and Presentation of Giardiasis

Answer: Foul smelling stools, abdominal pain, flatulence spread fecal-oral route. Tx is Metronidazole 250 mg TID

Q: Presentation and assessment of Cirrhosis

Answer: Coagulopathy, variceal bleed, hepatic encephalopathy, extrahepatic sx- neuro, psychiatric, arthralgia, autoimmune disorders, glucose intolerance. Pt early stage of cirrhosis likely to have thrombocytopenia

Q: Assessment of Hepatitis

Answer: Malaise, fever, jaundice, fatigue, weight loss, joint pain, dark urine, RUQ pain, liver enlargement, pancytopenia. Elevated ALT/AST, bili, alk phos

Q: GERD

Answer: Pyrosis (heartburn), burning beneath sternum, regurgitation, postnasal drip, throat clearing, chronic cough, chronic sore throat, hoarseness. Tx 8 week course of PPI

Q: H Pylori Algorithm

Answer: Amoxicillin BID, Clarithromycin BID, PPI BID x 14 days. If PCN allergy tx would change to Metronidazole BID, Clarithromycin BID, PPI BID x 14 days

Q: Which of the following symptoms associated with GERD is considered an alarm symptom?

Answer: Odynophagia (Pain with swallowing, maybe w/wo difficult swallowing)

Q: Crohn’s Disease

Answer: Chronic bloody diarrhea- fatigue, abdominal pain, prolonged diarrhea, with/without bleeding, weight loss and fever. Skip lesions, cobblestone appearance and fistulas common. Slow progressive inflammation small intestine and or large intestine or TI. TX- Budesonide 5-aminosalicylates

Q: Common pathogens that cause Gastroenteritis

Answer: Common pathogen gastroeneritis <1 y.o., adults (norovirus, enteric adenovirus, astrovirus), campylobacter jejuni in children, Salmonella most common foodborne illness, Giardia Lambia most common parasitic

Q: Pyloric Stenosis Presentation

Answer: narrowing of the pyloric sphincter due to hypertrophy of pyloric muscle- forceful vomiting usually 2-3 weeks of age

Q: Hepatitis B

Answer: Bloodborne/body fluids highly infectious, patients who test positive for HBV and HCV should also be screened for HIV due to common transmission routes

Q: Pinworm infection

Answer: Enterobiasis vermicularis- Helminths can be transmitted by the bite of blood sucking insects. TX: 3 doses of medication sep by 3 weeks Pyrantel Pamoate- two weeks apart and retest in two weeks post tx

Q: Ulcerative Colitis

Answer: Only present in colon

Q: Pancreatitis

Answer: Pancreas Enzymes amylase and lipase are inactivated when the pH is below 5. which of the folowwing is NOT an enzyme produced in the panceas? Pepsin

Q: Small Bowel Obstruction

Answer: Abd pain, vomiting, inability to pass gas. Proximal- nausea and vomiting more present. Pain described as crampy and intermittent

Q: ALL

Answer: Most common type of leukemia in children. Signs and symptoms fever thrombocytopenia, anemia, gingival swelling, bone pain

Q: Beta Thalassemia

Answer: Mediterranean descent, genetic disorder, decreased or absent production of hemoglobin results in microcytic/hypochromic anemia. TX: Desferal removes excess iron in patients

Q: Lymph nodes

Answer: Posterior auricular drain lymphatic fluid from the posterior part of the temoporparietal region.Facial nodes drain from the eyelids, the conjunctiva, and skin and mucous membranes of the nose and cheekThe infraorbital or maxillary buccinators and supamandibular lymph nodes drain fluid from the eyelids, conjunctiva, and skin and mucous membranes of nose and cheek. Tonsillar lymph node is located at the angle of the mandible

Q: Lymph continued

Answer: -Deep cervical nodes drain fluid from the head and neck,-Anterior mediastinal lymph nodes drain fluid from the thymus, thyroid, and anterior part of the pericardium-Axillary- fluid from breast-internal iliac lymph receive lymph from all pelvic viscera, deep part of the perineum, and the gluteal region-sup/inf mesenteric drain into small and large intestines

Q: Iron Def Anemia

Answer: Microcytic/Hypochromic anemia occurs when Iron loss exceeds iron intake and iron stores deplete. (blood loss). Pica, atrophic glossitis.

Q: Vitamin B 12 Deficiency (Pernicious anemia, cobalmin def)

Answer: Macrocytic/Megoblastic, B12 is water soluble vitamin necessary for RBC production. Results from a decrease in intrinsic factor due to the autoimmune destruction of parietal cells leading to reduced vitamin B12 absorption. S/S:cog impairment, fatigue, ataxia, weakness, neuropathy, glossitis, mouth ulcers

Q: When and how long to take iron supplementation for?

Answer: Take 1-2 hour before meal, empty stomach, with Vitamin C. Take for 4-6 months, after iron was replaced continue to take for 12 weeks. Repeat CBC

Q: Rh incompatibility

Answer: hemolutic disease of the fetus and newborn desctruction of RBC’s by maternal IgG antibodies. Can lead to jaundice, anemia, fetal hydrops. Rhogam shot at 28 weeks and 72 hours of delivery to prevent

Q: Sickle Cell

Answer: Repeated episodes of sickling can cause the cells to become irreversibly sickled. Hemoglobin electroparesis confirms dx. it is autosomal recessive characterized by ischemic tissue injury and chronic severe hemolytic anemia.

Q: BPH

Answer: Enlargement of the prostate that narrows the urethral lumen. Risk factors Elevated PSA increased age, genetics, black and Asian. Firm smooth prostate enlarged- usually nontender, hesitancy, dribbling, incomplete bladder emptying. Avoid caffeine, ETOH, diuretics. Alpa 1 adrenergic antagonist – immediate relief, relaxes smooth muscle in the prostate (tamsulosin). 5 alphs reductase inhibitor (finasteride)- long term therapy takes 6-12 months. inhibits conversion of testosterone to DHT.

Q: Hydrocele

Answer: peritoneal fluid collection in scrotum. Painless swelling in scrotum, feels heavy, transillumination of scrotum (will light up brightly)

Q: Penile Cancer

Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma; risk factors: HPV, AIDS, uncircumcised, smoking, psoriasis, cryptochordism. Thick white plaques, large scaly growths. Bleeding is late sign

Q: Erectile Dysfunction

Answer: Treatment PDE-5 inhibitor, usual reason HTN meds, antidepressants, antiandrogens, recreastional drugs

Q: High risk of penile and testicular cancer development

Answer: Cryptochordism

Q: Prostatitis

Answer: Inflammation of the prostate usually bacterial origin. S/S: frequency, urgency, fever, enlarged boggy warm prostate. Tx Chronic prostatitis: Ciprofloxacin or Fluoroquinolones for 4-12 wk tx or Bactrim. 4-6 weeks tx guided by results of C&S. NOT KEFLEX. Levofloxacin yes

Q: Determining testicular torsion from Epididiymitis

Answer: Testicular torsion- acute onset testicular pain and loss of cremasteric reflex on affected side. Most common acute ain in prepubertal boys- epididymitis, but testicular torsion must be ruled out. Symptoms onset testicular torsion- few hours vs epididiymitis- few days and pain with cremasteric reflex

Q: Gonorrhea/Chlamydia tx

Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg BID x 14 days, and Ceftriaxone x1 IM

Q: Migraine Treatment

Answer: Rescue- Triptans, prophylactic- Beta Blockers, antidepressants, anticonvulsants. (Topamax, Propranolol, Inderal)

Q: Migraines presentation

Answer: Mostly inulateral, crescendo, cool, quiet dark rooms usually lasts 4-72 hours.

Q: Tension Headaches

Answer: Bilateral pressure, tightness, band like, waxes and wanes. Fiorcet can help pain, Butalbital

Q: Cluster Headaches

Answer: ALWAYS unilateral, begins around the temple or eye. excruciating/explosive, sudden onset. Lasts 30-90 min can be up to 180 mins associated symptoms includes red eye, tears rhinorrhea. Most common at night.

Q: Secondary headache underlying causes

Answer: Person with VP shunt – headache upon awakening, Meningitis accompanied with stiff neck/fever, brain tumor- frequent headaches worsens when coughing or sneezing.

Q: Parkinson’s disease

Answer: Deficiency of Dopamine and destruction of cells in the substantia nigra. Presentation: Bradykinesia(slow movement and decrease speed), rigidity, resting tremor (pill rolling, appears in hands and arms, legs, jaw, and face), postural instability. Dx is supported with therapeutic response to Levodopa. Tx: Dopaminergic agents, Carbidopa/levodopa (do not give in pts with narrow angle glaucoma)

Q: Anticholinergics and confusion in the elderly

Answer: Beer’s List- list of meds you should not give to the elderly; anticholinergics, scopolamine, ALL “mines” Meclizine, promethazine. High risk of confusion, dry mouth, constipation. Antispasmodics (atropine, dicyclomine)

Q: Cranial Nerves

Answer: I-OlfactorySmellII-Visual AcuityOptic nerve,III-Occulomotormuscle fx (focus)and pupil responseIV-Trochlear-superior oblique muscle (down, out, and inward eye movements)V-Trigeminal- Opthalmic, maxillary, mandibularVI-Abducens-lateral rectus musclesVII-Facial- facial expression, sense of taste, spit and tears, outer parts of earVIII-Vestibulocochlear- hearing and balanceIX-Glossopharyngeal- sense of taste back of tongue, voluntary movement back of throat, sensory informationX-Vagus-XI-AccessoryXII-Hypoglossal

Q: Patho meningitis

Answer: Inflammation of the brain and spinal cord meninges resulting from bacteria, virus, or fungi. Meningeal headache is caused by meningeal irritation. Macrolides/clindamycin not first choice tx. usually Ceftriaxone cephalosporin

Q: TIA

Answer: Transient Ischemic Attack- differs from stroke because symptoms resolve within a few hours

Q: Seizures

Answer: Uncontrolled electrical activity within the brain. first line treatment is generalized tonic clonic. Keppra- partial seizures

Q: Scoliosis

Answer: Lateral curvature of the spine greater than 10 degrees. structural scoliosis=true deformity not a structural problem

Q: RA vs OA

Answer: RA=Worn cartilage, bone loss, thickened synovial membrane. joints are hot, swollen, Autoimmune, eats away boneOA=extremely worn cartilage and bone spurs, Positive Heberden and Bouchards nodes, bony and hard

Q: Treatment OA

Answer: Exercise, Weight loss, and RICE, Tylenol NOT recommended. SHort acting NSAIds ok. Cymbalta (multiple joints affected), duloxetine, and Tramadol longer acting. Refer to ortho for injections

Q: Sprain vs Strain

Answer: Ligaments are fibrous tissue that attach to bones, A sprain is a stretch or tear in a LIGAMENT. A train is a stretch or tear in a muscle or tendon. Tx is RICE for both.

Q: Ortolani’s click

Answer: a “click” is heard or felt as dislocation is reduced (good until one year)

Q: Barlows Maneuver

Answer: Feeling of a slip of the femoral head slips away from the Acetabulum (toward the butt)

Q: Meningitis signs

Answer: Positive Kernig (flex hips 90 degreed pain with extension of leg), Brudzinski (involuntary flexion of legs when neck is flexed)

Q: Adams sign

Answer: examiner stands behind pt looks for spinal curvature, pt bends over and touches toes(-) functional scoliosis if curve straightens out(+) structural scoliosis if curve remains*if no scoliosis present = no Adam’s Sign indicated

Q: Fat pad sign

Answer: test for elbow fracture

Q: McMurray Test

Answer: Audible palpable click when knee is raised with tibia externally rotated and then straightened, medial meniscus tear assessment

Q: Gout and treatment

Answer: Acute joint pain with swelling, warmth, and erythema begins abruptly and involves single joint. Normal uric acid levels are common during acute attack. Colchicine for acute gout long term is Allopurinol (urate lowering agents dosed 2 or more attacks/year renal stones. decreases production of uric acid. for preventative attacks.

Q: GTPAL

Answer: Gravida # of times women has been pregnant, multiples=1Term=number of children >37 weeks or morePreterm=20-37 weeksAbortion or miscarriagesL=living children, twins./multiples count individually

Q: Fundal Height

Answer: Distance from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus measure in centimeters. After 24 weeks fundal height should match the number of weeks youve been pregnant

Q: Preeclampsia

Answer: BP >140/90 and proteinuria (300 mg/24 hour) or edema, pulmonary edema, visual impairments, renal or hepatic function. Tx: magnesium sulfate, antihypertensives, corticosteroids for long development

Q: Naegeles Rule

Answer: First day of LMP-3 months+7 days+add one year

Q: Placenta previa

Answer: Bright red, painless bleeding in a woman>20 weeks gestation. Abnormal placement of the placenta near or covering the internal cervical os

Q: First line treatment of UTI in pregnancy

Answer: Nitrofurantoin/Macrobid

Q: Rhogam

Answer: At approx 28 weeks gestation, within 72 hours of delivery and any maternal hemorrhage, ectopic pregnancy, abortion.

Q: Vaccines that are safe in pregnancy

Answer: Flu vaccine, TdAP

Q: Abruptio Pacentae

Answer: Profuse to absent vaginal bleeding, abnormal painful uterine contractions, uterine tenderness, board-like uterus on palpation.

Q: Bulimia Presentation

Answer: Recurrent episodes of eating binging and purging. Russells sign= scarring on knuckles from induced vomiting. Avoid Bupropion (seizures/electrolytes), tx: SSRIs Prozac/sertraline

Q: Depression and treatment

Answer: Depression usually treated with SSRI for a unipolar -sertraline/escitolopram. 4 weeks of treatment then re-evalfor dose adjustmentfor minimum of 6 monthsCymbalta- cant get off the couchBuspar- AnxietyAnxiety and depression coexist use GAD 7 scale to dx

Q: Eval for mood disorder

Answer: SIGECAPSS-sleep issueI-interests lackG-GuiltE-EnergyC-ConcentrationA-AppetiteP-Psychomotor agitationS-Suicidality

Q: Presentation of Bipolar and MDD

Answer: Major depressive disorder or bipolar 5 or more symptomsAnhedonia- loss of pleasure or interest in things that previously provided joy or pleasure

Q: Hormones in depression

Answer: Serotonin- calmness and relaxed stateNorepinephrine and dopamine inhance productivity, ambition, concentrationGABA- feelins of calmnessNMDA- excitatory neurotransmitter

Q: Munchausen by proxy

Answer: caregiver makes up or causes an illness or injury in a person under his or her care

Q: Suicide screening

Answer: 3 questions: Are you thinking of hurting yourself, whats your plan, do you have means or a gun?At risk, prior attempt, adolescents, males, elderly white males highest risk.

Q: Asthma

Answer: Mild intermittent- symptoms 2 or less days per week or 2 less nights per month with short exacMild persistent- symptoms greater than 2/week but less than once per dayModerate persistant- daily symptoms or more than 3-4 nights per monthSevere persistant- continual symptoms or frequents symptoms >1 night per month

Q: Asthma Diagnostic

Answer: Spirometry, pulmonary function tests, allergy testing, peak flowTX: Mild int- SABA

Q: COPD

Answer: Progressive pathological changes to the airway and/or alveoli due to increased inflammatory response to pollutants or inhaled irritants. Gold standard dx: spirometry with bronchodilation. Progressive dyspnea, cough with or without sputum, prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing on forced exhalation, barrel chest tripod position late phase

Q: Empyema

Answer: Presence of pus in the pleural space. Develops when pulmonary lymphatics become blocked leading to an outpouring of contaminated lymph flui into pleural space. Fever, cyanosis, tachyC, pleural pain.

Q: Pleural Effusion

Answer: Presence of fluid in the pleural space from blood or lymphatic vessels. Dyspnea, atelactasis, pleural pain. Dullness on percussion. , mediastinal shift

Q: Treatment of CAP

Answer: Mycoplasma- walking pna, Strep pna- will kill your patient. TX Macrolide i.e. Azithromycin. Infant Amoxicillin, school age amox or macrolide.Outpatient previously healthy- Macrolide OR DoxycyclineOutpatient recent ABs- Resp flouroquinolone OR advanced macrolide (azithromycin) plus high dose amoxicillinOutpatient comorbidities no recent AB-Advanced macrolide OR resp fluoroquinoloneOutpatient comorbidities recent AB- resp fluoroquinolone or advanced macrolide plus beta-lactam

Q: Pertussis

Answer: Lasts six weeks to two months. Caused by Bordatella Pertussis, tx macrolide (Azithromycin) or sulfonamide (Bactrim), everyone in household treated, Pregnant women get Dtap shot 27/28 weeks.

Q: TB

Answer: Dx Quantiferon gold, T spot, TB skin test. Tx is very liver toxic: Isoniazid, Rifampin. DO TREAT LATENT but not infectious. Sx: Fever cough >3 weeks, hemoptysis, weight loss, night sweats.

Q: Croup

Answer: Acute viral illness barking cough, stridor, cough, hoarseness subglottal swelling. No tongue depressors can spasm. Racemic epi?

Q: Chlamydia

Answer: Most common STI in US, genital ulceration, lymphadenopathy, ocular trachoma, proctitis. Often asymptomatic, cervical motion tenderness, Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) and Gen probe gold standard. Tx azithromycin if pregnant Amoxicillin. Can cause PID

Q: Gonorrhea

Answer: Common with Chlamydia. Ceftriaxone 500 mg x1, highsuspension for chlamydia give doxycycline. Purulent discharge , blood tinged, prostatitis

Q: Bacterial Vaginosis

Answer: not an STD, more common in sexually active females. Fishy smell, watery discharge, clue cells. increased alkalosis. Tx is Flagyl Metronidazole. Lactobacillus is diminished or absent

Q: Genital Herpes

Answer: Herpes Simplex virus type 1 or 2, transmitted direct contact with active lesions or with virus containing fluid. Is a virus, Tx is antivirals pt can be infectious while shedding virus.

Q: HPV

Answer: 6 and 11 cause genital warts 16 and 18 can cause cervical cancer. Soft painless, flesh colored warts can be cauliflower like if perianal.

Q: Syphilis

Answer: Primary, secondary, latent and tertiary. Primary chancre at site, secondary systemic rash, latent is asymptomatic, tertiary is neuro symptoms. Tx is Benzathine pcn G IM.

Q: Trichomoniasis

Answer: Caused by Protozoan, copious pale yellow to grey green discharge. NAAT to dx, Flagyl to treat. Can cause Petechaie on the cervix, is a protozoal pathogen

Q: Pediculosis Pubis

Answer: Treat with Permethrin (Nix), pubic hair, inflammation in groin area

Q: Last and early signs in HIV

Answer: Fever usually one of first symptoms, fatigue, swollen nodes, sore throat. Late stages: Rapid weight loss, recurring fever, night sweats, fatigue, sores, chronic diarrhea, swollen glands. If TD4 under 200 than progressed to AIDS

Q: Stress Incontinence vs urge vs overflow

Answer: Overflow- unable to empty, urinary retention with underachieve bladder or blockage. Muscle of bladder underactive or obstructed. tx Bethanechol, foley cath, alpha blocker finasteride for BPH, FlomaxUrge- Bladder is active detrusor muscle overactive constant urge. tx: oxybutynin anticholinergicStress- amount of bladder is normal has too little tone near exit, bladder leaks out with any activity. weak pelvic muscles sphincter intontinence. Tx Pseudophedrine

Q: First line treatment UTI

Answer: Nitrofurantoin, Macrobid. Pyridium can be used to help pain- do not use longer than 3 days can cause hemolytic anemia. Pregnancy-Amoxicillin or Nitrofurantoin <3rd trimester. Avoid quinolones or sulfa

Q: UTI

Answer: Positive leukocytes and nitrites on UA. Assessment findings pain, burning, urgency frequency fever chills

Q: When to adjust meds with kidney disease

Answer: If GFR less than 60 adjust meds

Q: Assessment of Breast cancer

Answer: Painless, firm fixed mass, skin or nipple changes, nipple discharge, swelling, lymph enlargement, Pagets disease scaly nipple lesion.Peau d orange, nipple retraction, redness, persistent itching, warm skin.

Q: Who does and doesnt get combined oral contraceptive and contraindications

Answer: Do not give COC to a women of child bearing age that also has migraines with an aura

Q: How to assess and tx dysmenorrhea

Answer: Painful cramping with menstruation pelvic exam has to be normal tx with heating pad non pharmacological, NSAIDs, oral contraceptives.

Q: Assessment and tx of PMS symptoms

Answer: depression, anger, anxiety, confusion, soacial withdrawal, irritability, breast tenderness, bloating, HA, swelling.

Q: estrogen replacement

Answer: CONTRAindicated in women with breast cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, pregnancy, clots, and active liver disease

Q: PEDS: Medication

Answer: Sinusitis- Augmentin, DDAVP desmopressin acetate for enuresis, succimer for lead

Q: PEDS ESRD

Answer: Erythropoeitin is safe for use in children

Q: Surbstance abuse and assessment PEDS

Answer: Risk factor-ADD tx is atomoxetine

Q: Contraindications to decongestants in Peds

Answer: FDA discourages the use of OTC decongestants to under 2 years old

Q: Acromegaly presentation

Answer: Gigantism is peds, giantism is adults. Presents with bone overgrowth big hands, face, and feet. Overproduction of pituitary gland.

Q: Patients with aortic regurgitation

Answer: present with dyspnea and angina

Q: endocarditis tx

Answer: zosyn/vanco

Q: mechanism of action of prostaglandin with transposition of the great vessels

Answer: provide vasodilation and adequate oxygenation

Q: HTN and CAT acronym

Answer: CCB-amlodipineACE/ARB- “pril”Thiazide or chlorthalidonenephropathy or diabetic start with ACE/ARBblack- thiazide first