Prepare for the ARRT Computed Tomography (CT) exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers CT physics, image quality, cross-sectional anatomy, and patient safety.
Q: What is angiography?A. radiographic exam of veinsB. radiographic exam of arteriesC. radiographic exam of vesselsD. the study of vascular flow patterns
Answer: Answer : C
Q: What term describes a guide wire in which position of the inside portion can be varied?A. J guide wireB. straight guide wireC. fixed coreD. moveable core
Answer: D
Q: How is the measurement of the flow rate of an automatic contrast injector determined?A. contrast amount delivered per timeB. Heating deviceC. contrast volume times contrast rateD. syringe size
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following is used during cardiac catheterization?1. Guide wire2. Catheter3. Pressure injectorA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Q: What is a normal adult Blood PressureA. 100/40B. 120/40C. 120/80D. 160/80
Answer: C
Q: What is pitressin?A. VasopressinB. CorticosteroidC. DiazepamD. Atropine
Answer: A
Q: What is the best projection for left ventriculography?A. 30 degrees RAOB. 60 degrees RAOC. 20 degrees LAOD. 45 degrees LAO
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following describes the response of a catheter to twisting and turning?A. torqueB. memoryC. frictionD. control
Answer: A
Q: Which French size catheter has an outer diameter of 2.31 mm?A. fourB. fiveC. sixD. seven
Answer: DA 2.31 mm outer diameter catheter equals 7 French scale. Each 0.33 mm equals approximately 1 French
Q: How long is the injection time for 12ml of contrast media delivered at 2.5 ml/sec?A. 0.2 secB. 2.5 secC. 4.8 secD. 30 sec
Answer: C
Q: What does the acronym “PSI” represent?A. probable significant instancesB. Partly saturated intravenouslyC. pounds per square inchD. pounds per inch
Answer: PSI stands for: pounds per square inch
Q: Which of the following can be avoided by proper use of a automatic injector pressure limit control?1. Vessel damage2. catheter whipping2. catheter breakageA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3
Answer: Proper use of an automatic injector pressure control avoids vessel damage, catheter whipping, and catheter damage.
Q: Which of the following are the functions of a digital image processor?1. digitizing television frames2. displaying digital images3. storing digital imagesA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A digital processor digitizes television frames and stores, displays, and manipulates them.
Q: What effect does the addition of side holes in a catheter have on the total flow rate?A. 10 to 20 percent increaseB. 50 to 60 percent increaseC. 10 to 20 percent decreaseD. 50 to 60 percent decrease
Answer: The addition of side holes in a catheter will increase the flow rate to 10 to 20 percent.
Q: What is the area relationship indicated by the power factor of an automated injector?1. power cylinder2. catheter3. syringeA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: The power factor of an automatic power injector indicates the area relationship of the power cylinder to the syringe
Q: How long is the injection time for 12ml of contrast media delivered at 2.5 ml/sec?A. 0.2 secB. 2.5 secC. 4.8 secD. 30 sec
Answer: Answer: CInjection time is calculated as volume/time, so 12/2.5 equals 4.8 seconds
Q: Which of the following describe exact framing of a fluoroscopic image in a Cine film system?1. the circular image intensifier image is included within the square film frame.2. the diameter of the intensifier image is equal to the mean of the transverse dimensions of the useful square film area.3. The diameter of the intensifier image is equal to the diagonal dimensions of the useful square film area.A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3
Answer: Answer: AExact framing of a fluoroscopic image for Cine film recording includes the entire fluoroscopic with the circular image within the square film frame
Q: Which of the following can be avoided by proper use of a automatic injector pressure limit control?1. Vessel damage2. catheter whipping2. catheter breakageA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3
Answer: Answer: DProper use of an automatic injector pressure control avoids vessel damage, catheter whipping, and catheter damage.
Q: What effect does the addition of side holes in a catheter have on the total flow rate?A. 10 to 20 percent increaseB. 50 to 60 percent increaseC. 10 to 20 percent decreaseD. 50 to 60 percent decrease
Answer: Answer: A
Q: What is the area relationship indicated by the power factor of an automated injector?1. power cylinder2. catheter3. syringeA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer: B
Q: Which of the following devices permits simultaneoulsy cine recording and viewing of a fluoroscopic image?A. Grid biased X-RAY tubeB. High frequency generatorC. beam splitting mirrorD. roll film camera
Answer: Answer: C
Q: Which of the following are important considerations when selecting the proper diameter of a guide wire?1. size of vascular catheter2. vessel size3. contrast media bolus volumeA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer: A
Q: Which of the following is not a proper technique of custom shaping of a catheter?A. the cut tip should be smoothB. shape the tip in hot waterC. fix the tip in cold waterD. punch side hole opposite one another
Answer: Answer: D
Q: Which of the following are inversely proportional to contrast delivery rate?1. catheter length2. catheter diameter3. more side holesA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer: A
Q: How long is the injection time for 30ml of contrast media delivered at 3.7ml/sec?A. 0.1secB. 4.5secC. 8.1secD. 111sec
Answer: Answer: CInjection time is calculated as volume/time, so 30/3.7=8.1 seconds.
Q: What is the primary reason that guide wires must have a flexible tip?A. to permit bending and avoid damage to vascular wallsB. to permit whip lash to occurC. to avoid unravelingD. to avoid clotting
Answer: Answer: AThe primary reason guide wires must have a flexible tip is to permit bending and avoid vascular wall damage.
Q: What term describes the thin wire along which a catheter will be threaded when it is inserted into a vessel?A. French catheterB. Seldinger needleC. guide wireD. J wire
Answer: Answer C
Q: Which of the following increases the flow rate of contrast media?A. decreased pressureB. decreased viscosityC. increased catheter lengthD. decreased catheter diameter
Answer: Answer: BDecreased viscosity of contrast material will increase the flow rate. Decreased pressure, increased catheter length, and decreased catheter diameter will all decrease the flow rate.
Q: What term describes the size of a needle lumen?A. cannula thicknessB. coil sizeC. core sizeD. gauge
Answer: Answer DThe needle lumen is identified by a gauge number. The higher the gauge number, the smaller the inner diameter of the lumen and vice versa.
Q: What is the purpose of the slow withdrawal of the needle after arterial penetration in the Seldinger technique?A. avoidance of major nervesB. reduction of blood clottingC. to attain good blood returnD. to avoid vascular shock
Answer: Answer CThe purpose of the slow withdrawal of the needle after arterial penetration in the Seldinger technique is to attain good blood return.
Q: What is zero time?A. the time between exposure switch contact and initiation of exposureB. the time necessary for the electronics in an automatic film changer to respond.C. the time between contrast material injection and the initiation of exposureD. the time between x-ray exposure and the injection of contrast material
Answer: Answer B
Q: What can be determined when dividing the volume of contrast material delivered by the rate of injection?A. coefficient of contrast media viscosityB. length of time of injectionC. arterial pressure per ccD. length of catheter in centimeters
Answer: Answer B
Q: Which of the following procedures would indicate the use of a multiple side hole catheter?1. abdominal aorta2. aortic arch3. renal arteryA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer A
Q: What technique is used to introduce the catheter during a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty?A. cut-down methodB. Thompson techniqueC. Seldinger techniqueD. Addison technique
Answer: Answer C
Q: Which of the following are unacceptable placement of catheter holes?1. directly opposing side holes2. taper tip placement3. side holes at curvatureA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer D
Q: What is the average adult guide wire length for a selective vessel procedure?A. 30 to 40 cmB. 50 to 60 cmC. 70 to 80 cmD. 100 to 150 cm
Answer: Answer D
Q: Which of the following are desirable characteristics of a cine film transport system?1. flickerless image projection2. single frame ability3. variable forward and reverseA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer DFlickerless image projection, single frame ability, and variable forward and reverse are all desirable characteristics of a cine film transport system
Q: What are the major sources of random noise in a digital fluoroscopy image?1. unshielded electrical devices2. quantum noise from fluctuations in photon density3. electronic noise from the TV chainA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer C
Q: What is the most common Seldinger technique approach?A. femoral arteryB. common iliac arteryC. brachial arteryD. femoral vein
Answer: Answer A
Q: In which of the following situations would it be possible to proceed with a radiographic procedure although the patient clearly indicates refusal?1. the patient is a minor and the parents give permission2. the patient is over 953. the patient is a prisoner in the custody of an officer of the law, who gives permissionA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer B
Q: What legal doctrine, now in decline, holds that the employer is responsible for the acts of the radiographer?A. assault and batteryB. res ipsa loquitorC. repondeat superiorD. habeas corpus
Answer: Answer C
Q: Which of the following legal principles is violated by discussing patient information with a friend outside the medical setting?1. invasion of privacy2. professional negligence3. assault and batteryA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer A
Q: What is the most appropriate action if a patient denies knowledge of the possible effects of the use of contrast material?A. terminate the examinationB. explain the effects and then proceedC. proceed with the examinationD. consult with legal counsel
Answer: Answer B
Q: Which of the following procedures normally would require a signed form to verify informed consent?1. angiogram2. cardiac catheterization3. lung tomogramsA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer A
Q: Which of the following is a valid method of verifying patient identification?1. questioning patient2. reading wrist identification band3. checking bed name plateA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer D
Q: Which of the following should be checked prior to an intravascular contrast study?1. allergies2. cardiac history3. renal historyA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer D
Q: Which of the following rules should be observed when charting patient records?1. initial and date corrections2. use liquid paper to delete and error3. loose or gummed slips of paperA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer A
Q: Which of the following laboratory assessments would be indicated for an intravascular contrast study?1. BUN2. creatinine3. proteinuriaA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer D
Q: What causes positive contrast material to produce an area of reduced image density?A. scatter of primary photonsB. absorption of primary photonsC. scatter of secondary photonsD. absorption of secondary photons
Answer: Answer B
Q: Which of the following documents are part of the patient’s medical record?1. record of medications given2. consent forms3. radiographsA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer D
Q: What term describes the resistance of contrast material due to the attraction of molecules to each other?A. persistenceB. toxicityC. miscibilityD. viscosity
Answer: Answer D
Q: What term describes a solution with an ionic concentration higher than normal body fluids?A. isotonicB. hyperostaticC. hyperosmolarD. osmotic
Answer: Answer: CHyperosmolar solutions have an ionic concentration higher than normal body fluids.
Q: Which of the following should be noted in the patient’s medical chart?1. mild itching following injection of contrast material2. pain at puncture site3. flushed feeling following injection of contrast materialA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: Answer A
Q: Which of the following can be used as a local anesthetic?A. morphine hydrochlorideB. acetaminophenC. reserpineD. lidocaine
Answer: D.Lidocaine is used as a local anesthetic in cardiovascular studies.
Q: Which of the following drugs would relax vascular walls to permit greater flow?A. stimulantB. DiureticC. vasodilatorD. anticoagulant
Answer: C.A vasodilator will relax vascular walls to permit greater blood flow.
Q: Which of the following are used to reduce patient anxiety?A. atropineB. amphetamineC. diazepamD. nitroglycerin
Answer: C.Diazepam (valium) is commonly used to relieve short term anxiety. It also used as an anticonvulsant and antispasmodic.
Q: What type of drug should be considered for a patient who complains of having “tongue thickness”?A. antihistamineB. sedativeC. anestheticD. anticoagulant
Answer: A.Antihistamines, which are used to relieve symptoms caused by nasal, drug, food, and skin allergies. It should be considered for patient who complains of having “tongue thickness”.
Q: Which of the following are characteristics of non-ionic contrast material?1. cause fewer adverse reactions2. do not disrupt homeostasis3. do not disassociate in solutionA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D.Non-ionic contrast material causes fewer adverse reactions. They do not disrupt homeostasis, and does not disassociate in solutions.
Q: What does the P wave indicate on and EKG?A. atrial depolarizationB. recoveryC. ventricular depolarizationD. ventricular repolarization
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following describes the time necessary for a stimulus to spread throughout the atria and AV junction?A. P waveB. P-R intervalC. QRS complexD. S-T segment
Answer: B.The P-R interval is the time necessary for the stimulus to spread through the atria and AV junction.
Q: What is the normal range of peak systolic right ventricular pressure?A. 0.1-1.0 mm/HgB. 5-10 mm/HgC. 20-30 mm/HgD. 100-140 mm/Hg
Answer: C.The range of peak systolic right ventricular pressure is 20-30 mm/Hg
Q: How many successive atrial ectopic beats constitutes PAT?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4
Answer: C
Q: Approximately what level of breathing is necessary to avoid cyanosis in an adult?A. 2 breaths per minuteB. 10 breaths per minuteC. 20 breaths per minuteD. 30 breaths per minute
Answer: B.Approximately 10 breaths per minute is required to avoid cyanosis in an adult.
Q: What is indicated by the vertical lines of an EKG graph?A. voltageB. timeC. deflectionsD. temperature
Answer: BTime is indicated by the vertical lines on an EKG graph.
Q: What is represented by the QRS complex on an EKG?A. ventricular depolarizationB. ventricular repolarizationC. atrial depolarizationD. recovery
Answer: A
Q: Which portion of the EKG signifies depolarization of the ventricles?A. down slope of the T waveB. QRS complexC. P waveD. PR segment
Answer: B.The QRS complex of an EKG signifies the depolarization of the ventricles.
Q: Which of the following are recommended to assure reliable pressure recordings?1. minimizing connecting tubing length2. flushing with saline solution3. checking zero adjustmentsA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following drugs controls cardiac arrythmias?A. digitalisB. quinidine procainamideC. amphetamineD. diazepam
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following describes a region of the heart that is necrotic?A. cardiac arrhythmiaB. embolismC. thrombosisD. myocardial infarction
Answer: D
Q: What is the most efficient route for administration of medications to counteract adverse reactions?A. subcutaneousB. intravenousC. intramuscularD. oral
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following drugs are considered essential for CPR?1. oxygen2. lidocaine3. epinephrineA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following is a clot of blood that has traveled through vasculature and clogged a vessel?A. myocardial infarction(MI)B. embolisC. thrombosisD. trans ischemic attack(TIA)
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following is a vasodilator?A. reserpineB. vasopressinC. nitroglycerinD. glucagon
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following are valid artificial ventilation methods?1. tracheal intubation2. cricothyreotomy3. bag-valve-maskA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3 only
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following lessens the likelihood of a vasovagal reaction after the injection of contrast material into the coronary arteries?A. heparinB. atropineC. nitroglycerinD. streptokinase
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following describes the formation of material inside a vessel that reduces blood flow?A. cardiac arrhythmiaB. embolismC. thrombosisD. myocardial infarction
Answer: C
Q: What type of shock is caused by an abnormally low volume of circulating blood?A. anaphylacticB. neurogenicC. hypovolemicD. cardiogenic
Answer: C
Q: What is the normal adult temperature?A. 34 CB. 37 CC. 39 CD. 41 C
Answer: B
Q: What is syncope?A. faintingB. nose bleedC. dyspneaD. anaphylaxis
Answer: A
Q: How long should anticoagulants be withheld before an angiogram?A. 4hrsB. 12hrsC. 24hrsD. 48hrs
Answer: A
Q: For which of the following conditions are corticosteroids and diuretics useful?1. anxiety2. pulmonary edema3. adult respiratory distressA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3
Answer: C
Q: Why is anaphylactic shock the type of shock most often seen in angiography?A. it is caused by contrast media useB. most angiography patients are very weakC. its effects are enhanced by radiationD. many angiographic patients are hypertensive
Answer: A
Q: What is the normal number of adult respirations per minute?A. 7-9B. 12-16C. 20-25D. 25-30
Answer: B
Q: What type of shock is caused by the pooling of blood due to the failure of arterial resistance?A. hypovolemicB. cardiogenicC. neurogenicD. anaphylactic
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following describes a sudden distant cerebral neurologic deficient of presumed vascular origin usually lasting a few minutes?A. transient ischemic attack(TIA)B. steady progressive from onset(SPO)C. single catastrophic episode(SCE)D. occlusive vascular disease(OVD)
Answer: A
Q: What condition occurs when patients who have diabetes melitus have an excessive amount of insulin in their blood?A. hypoglycemiaB. neurogenic shockC. ataxiaD. anaphylactic
Answer: AHypoglycemia occurs when a patient who has diabetes melitus have an excess of insulin in their blood. This is a consideration if they have not had sufficient sugar over preceding hours, especially after being NPO prior to the angiographic study.
Q: Which of the following describes a stroke-in-progress as a series of neurologic problems over a period of days?A. transient ischemic attack(TIA)B. steady progressive from onset(SPO)C. single catastrophic episode(SCE)D. occlusive vascular disease(OVD)
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following sterilization methods can be used on electronic equipment?1. boiling2. gas3. pressurized steamA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1,2, and 3
Answer: B
Q: What is the primary purpose of strict(reverse) isolation procedures?A. to protect persons entering the isolation roomB. to protect patients from persons entering the isolation roomC. to supress insect vectorsD. to counteract viral infections with bacteria
Answer: B
Q: What is the primary concern in respiratory isolation?A. bloodB. airborne dropletsC. fecal materialD. semen
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following is the proper formula for calculating magnification?A. FFD/FOD (SID/SOD)B. FFD/OFD (SID/OID)C. FOD/FFD (SOD/SID)D. OFD/FOD (OID/SOD
Answer: AMagnification is calculated as FFD/FOD (SID/SOD).
Q: Which of the pulmonary vessels arises from the pulmonary conus of the right ventricle and courses upward to bifurcation?A. right pulmonary arteryB. right pulmonary veinC. main pulmonary arteryD. left pulmonary vein
Answer: CThe main pulmonary artery arises from the pulmonary conus of the right ventricle and courses upward until it bifurcates into the right and left pulmonary branches
Q: Which circulation provides the majority of the blood supply for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange?A. pulmonaryB. peripheralC. portalD. systemic
Answer: AThe pulmonary circulation provides the majority of blood supply for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.
Q: Which of the following describes the pulmonary circulation?A. right ventricle to lungs to left atriumB. right ventricle to lungs to right atriumC. right ventricle to lungs to left ventricleD. left ventricle to lungs to right atrium
Answer: AThe pulmonary circulation flows from the right ventricle to the lungs to the left atrium.
Q: What is the approximate average peak systolic pulmonary arterial pressure?A. 8 mm/HgB. 22 mm/HgC. 80 mm/HgD. 120 mm/Hg
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following must be used to obtain pulmonary arterial pressure measurements?A. contrast materialB. transducerC. angioplasty balloonD. Foley catheter
Answer: B
Q: What will the magnification factor be for an object placed 20” from the x-ray tube source and 20” from the image receptor?A. 1xB. 1.5xC. 2xD. 4x
Answer: CAccording to the magnification formula FFD/FOD (SID/SOD) =40/20=2.00
Q: What type of catheter is used for pulmonary arteriography?A. pigtailB. curved tipC. GrollmanD. Simmons
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following would be studied angiographically to confirm hypertension?A. splenicB. femoralC. renalD. coronary
Answer: C
Q: What term describers an abnormal anatomical form, structure, or position that is present at birth?A. aneurysmB. stenosisC. congenital anomalyD. aortic insufficiency
Answer: C
Q: What is the most common cause of narrowing of the renal artery lumen?A. arteriosclerosisB. shockC. capsular ruptureD. fused kidneys
Answer: A
Q: What is the most common cause of arterial stenosis?A. atherosclerosisB. aplasiaC. hematomaD. ischemia
Answer: A
Q: What is the name given the innermost wall of an artery?
Answer: The Intima
Q: Which of the following indicates the normal range for partial thromboplastin time (PTT)?A. 5-10 secB. 10-15 secC. 20-35 secD. 60-90 sec
Answer: CPTT is normally 20-35 seconds
Q: For what purpose is acetylcholine used?A. vasoconstrictionB. vasodilationC. anti-inflammationD. anti-hypertension
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following can be accomplished with various types of balloon catheters?1. temporary occlusion2. permanent occlusion3. angioplastyA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: DVarious types of balloon catheters are used for both permanent and temporary occlusion as well as angioplasty.
Q: Which of the following is the most critical part of an angioplasty procedure?A. passing the guidewire and catheter through the lesionB. bleeding at the puncture siteC. balloon dilation of the lesionD. withdrawing the balloon catheter
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following are long term occluding materials?1. gianturco coil2. polyvinyl alcohol foam3. gelfoamA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: AA Gianturco coil and polyvinyl alcohol foam are long term occluding materials. Gelfoam is a temporary occluder.
Q: What procedure begins by passing a wire guide through a narrowed area of artery?A. vasodilator infusionB. intravascular thrombolysisC. percutaneous transluminal angioplastyD. embolectomy
Answer: CPercutaneous transluminal angioplasty begins by passing a wire guide through a narrowed area of an artery. A catheter is then passed over the wire guide through the stenosis to begin the dilation process.
Q: Which of the following agents may be used both before and after an angioplasty procedure?A. gelfoamB. heparinC. vasopressinD. epinephrine
Answer: B
Q: Where does the ascending aorta terminate?A. brachiocephalic trunkB. descending aortaC. left ventricleD. arch of the aorta
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following is a direct puncture of the aorta?A. intravenous aortographyB. translumbar aortographyC. percutaneous transhepatic aortographyD. percutaneous catheter aortography
Answer: B
Q: How long should compression remain following removal of an arterial catheter?A. 2 minB. 5 minC. 10 minD. 30 min
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following is a separation of the walls of the aorta?A. aneurysmB. dissectionC. stenosisD. insufficiency
Answer: B
Q: What is the correct angioplasty balloon diameter compared to the measured diameter of the vessel?A. 1.5 – 2.5 mm smallerB. 0.5 – 1.5 mm smallerC. the same size as the area adjacent to the stenosisD. 0.5 – 1.5 mm larger
Answer: CAn angioplasty balloon should be the same size as the measuring diameter of the vessel adjacent to the stenosis.
Q: Which of the following is a focal saccular or fusiform dilation of the aorta?A. aneursymB. dissectionC. stenosisD. insufficiency
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following describes the venous blood flow?A. vena cava to left atrium to left ventricle to pulmonary arteryB. vena cava to right atrium to right ventricle to pulmomary arteryC. vena cava to right atrium to right ventricle to pulmonary veinD. vena cava to right atrium to left atrium to pulmonary vein
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following are objectives of percutaneous transluminal angioplasty?1. vessel patency2. avoidance of distal emboli3. vasoconstrictionA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: AVessel patency and avoidance of distal emboli are objectives of percutaneous transluminal angioplasty. In addition, creation of a smooth inner luminal surface, improvement in the blood flow pattern, and minimal disturbance of the wall structure are also goals. Vasoconstriction is not an objective of angioplasty.
Q: Which of the following is the correct arterial flow?A. aorta to left aorta to common iliac to femoralB. aorta to femoral to common iliacC. aorta to common iliac to femoralD. aorta to popliteal to femoral
Answer: C
Q: What is the location of the femoral vein in relationship to the femoral artery?A. medialB. lateralC. anteriorD. posterior
Answer: A
Q: When both femoral pulses are absent, what site should be used for the puncture site for a femoral arteriogram?A. left axillary arteryB. right axillary arteryC. left brachial arteryD. right brachial artery
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following catheters are used for transluminal angioplasty?1. laser-tipped2. Swan-Ganz3. KenseyA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following bypass grafts is preferable for revascularization?A. Gor-TexB. artificial DacronC. natural veinD. procine
Answer: C
Q: What is the correct order of vascular structures from the inner layer out?A. intima, media, adventitiaB. intima, adventitia, mediaC. media adventitia, intimaD. adventitia, media, intima
Answer: AThe vascular layers, from the inside out are the intima, media, and adventitia.
Q: What occurs to an atheromatous mass during transluminal angioplasty when a balloon catherter is used to enlarge the lumen of a vessel?A. it compressesB. it cracksC. it dissolvesD. it elongates along the vessel wall
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following is required of patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal angioplasty?A. normal blood pressureB. normal creatinine and BUN levelsC. ability to tolerate surgical repair of the vesselD. high pain tolerance level
Answer: C
Q: Which type of catheter vaporizes artherosclerotic lesions on the wall of a vessel?A.SimpsonB. KenseyC. laser-heatedD. laser-tipped
Answer: D
Q: Which of the following segments of a vessel are more likely artherosclerotic lesion sites?1. bifurcation2. straight3. curvedA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following procedures may utilize intravascular thrombolysis?1. treatment of intracranial vessel spasms2. treatment of myocardial infarction3. acute thrombotic occlusion of peripheral vesselsA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
Q: What is the most common placement of an inferior vena cava filter?A. inferiorly near the common iliac bifurcationB. inferior to the renal veinsC. between the renal and hepatic veinsD. superior to the splenic vein
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following are types of intravascular foreign body retrieval devices?1. snare loop catheter2. helical loop basket3. wide angle snareA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and3
Answer: A
Q: What is the primary purpose of transstenotic pressure measurements?1. evaluation of stenotic severity2. measurement of angioplastic success3. evaluation of vessel wall strength.A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q: What is the result of successful dilation?1. an increase in vascular pressure2. a decrease in vascular flow3. an increase in the diameter of the lumenA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and3
Answer: C
Q: What term describes a narrowing of a valve?A. stenosisB. insufficiencyC. scleroticD. dissection
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following are indications for cardiac catheterization?1. acute myocardial infarction2. valvular heart disease3. lack of femoral pulseA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following are indications for using a three-stopcock manifold during coronary angiography?1. pressure monitoring2. ventricular sampling3. contrast material injectionA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following is a contraindication for using an arterial sheath during coronary arteriography?1. quick catheter changes2. pressure monitoring3. puncture site diameterA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C
Q: Which position best demonstrates the left coronary artery?A. 30 degree LAOB. 60 degree LAOC. 30 degree RAOD. 60 degree RAO
Answer: A
Q: What is an approximately normal pulmonary systolic arterial pressure?A. 5 – 10 mm HgB. 20 – 30 mm HgC. 80 – 90 mm HgD. 120 – 140 mm Hg
Answer: B
Q: Where is the tricuspid valve located?A. between the right and left ventricleB. between the right artium and ventricleC. between the right and left atriaD. between the superior vena cava and right atrium
Answer: B
Q: Which chamber of the heart is located most anteriorly?A. right ventricleB. left ventricleC. right atriumD. left atrium
Answer: B
Q: From which chamber does the pulmonary artery arise?A. right ventricleB. left ventricleC. right atriumD. left atrium
Answer: C
Q: Which valve separates the left atrium and ventricle?A. tricuspidB. mitralC. semilunarD. pulmonary
Answer: A
Q: Which valve separated the left ventricle and aorta?A. tricuspidB. mitralC. semilunarD. pulmonary
Answer: B
Q: How many braches are normal for the right coronary artery?A. 1-2B. 2-7C. 7-10D. 10-15
Answer: CThe semilunar valve separates the left ventricle and aorta.
Q: What term describes the border between the aortic bulb and the ascending aorta?A. supravalvular rinB. coronary ostiumC. sinus of ValsalvaD. coronary cusp
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following arise from the aortic root?1. brachiocephalic artery2. right coronary artery3. left coronary arteryA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q: What substance is most commonly used to fill the balloon of angioplasty catheter?A. contrast and sterile salineB. contrast materialC. normal sterile salineD. heparin
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following is not a portion of a catheter tip system used for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty?1. outer guiding catheter2. central balloon catheter3. hollow core guide wireA. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q: Approximately what percentage of patients with single lesion vessels dilated with percutaneous tansluminal coronary angioplasty remain patent for a year?A. 20-30%B. 40-50%C. 70-80%D. 90-95%
Answer: C
Q: What medication is combined with percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty for the management of acute myocardial infarction?A. benadrylB. epinephrineC. pitressinD. streptokinase
Answer: C
Q: What is the maximum outer diameters of percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty balloons?A. 1.0-2.0 mmB. 3.0-4.0 mmC. 6.0-7.o mmD. 8.o-10.o mm
Answer: D
Q: How is the inflation and deflation of the balloon controlled during percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty?A. calibrated pressure pumpB. manual controlC. high pressure injectorD. ventricular pressure monitor
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following are acceptable for distal permanent pacemaker location?1. right ventricular endocardium2. right atrial endocardium3. left ventricular endocardiumA. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following are indicated for patients with cardiac conduction disorders that do not respond well to medications?A. percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplastyB. permanent pacemaker implantationC. coronary artery graftingD. massive cardiac antibiotic treatments
Answer: A
Q: Which vessel is usually used for the implantation of a permanent pacemaker?A. subclavian arteryB. subclavian veinC. internal jugular veinD. axillary artery
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following is a normal right ventricular end diastolic pressure?A. 5 mm HgB. 20 mm HgC. 45 mm HgD. 95 mm Hg
Answer: B
Q: What is the most common location for the transducer used to measure ventricular pressures during cardiac catheterization?A. at the tip of the catheterB. 2 cm from the tip of the catheterC. at the puncture siteD. outside the body
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following is a normal left atrial pressure?A. 2 mm HgB. 8 mm HgC. 40 mm HgD. 80 mm Hg
Answer: D
Q: What units are used to measure left ventricular volumes?A. ml/secB. ml/m2C. ml/hrD. ml/cm3
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following calculates the left ventricular ejection fraction?A. stroke volume divided by peak systolic volumeB. stroke volume divided by end systolic volumeC. stroke volume divided by end diastolic volumeD. stroke volume times peak systolic volume
Answer: B
Q: Why do angiographic estimates of left ventricular volumn generally overestimates the true volumn?A. inability to account for the volumn occupied by the papillary muscles and trabeculae carneae.B. opacity of contrast material eliminated consideration of superimposing volumnsC. diastolic and systolic volumns appear different due to rotation of the heartD. myocardial motion is not considered.
Answer: C
Q: Which of the following calculates left ventricular stroke volumn?A. end systolic volumn minus end diastolic volumnB. end diastolic volumn minus end systolic volumnC. end systolic volumn divided by end diastolic volumnD. end diastolic volumn divided by end systolic volumn
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following calculates left ventricular stroke volumn?A. end systolic volumn minus end diastolic volumnB. end diastolic volumn minus end systolic volumnC. end systolic volumn divided by end diastolic volumnD. end diastolic volumn divided by end systolic volumn
Answer: A
Q: What modification should be made in the injection rate for a left ventricular volumn study if the patient has severe aortic stenosis?A. increase the injection rateB. increase the injection timeC. decrease the injection rateD. decrease the injection time
Answer: A
Q: Which of the following describes the proper location for an endomyocardial biopsy?A. right ventricleB. left ventricleC. right atriumD. left atrium
Answer: C
Q: For which of the following reasons is a percutaneous needle biopsy performed?A. diagnosisB. to relieve pressureC. to maintain neurological activityD. To measure ventricular pressure
Answer: A