Prepare for the ARRT Registry exam with these practice questions and answers. This comprehensive guide covers image production, patient care, radiation protection, and radiographic procedures.
Q: Main property of x-radiation that makes it potentially hazardous is its ability to?
Answer: Ionize
Q: Describe the damage potential of ionization?
Answer: Chain reaction in the human body that may eventually cause biologic damage. X-rays are from the Electric Magnetic Spectrum or radiation energy and is considered harmful in high energy ranges.
Q: What is the most likely potential hazard working with diagnostic radiology?
Answer: Carcinogenesis – Stochastic/Non-Threshold Effect
Q: .1 Rem = ? Seivert
Answer: 1 Sievert
Q: 0.1 Gray = ? Rad
Answer: 10 Rad
Q: 1 Gray = ? Rad
Answer: 100 Rad
Q: What is Aplastic Anemia? When dose it occur?
Answer: All types of blood cells: Red & White25 Rads
Q: A decrease in blood count is the earliest response seen to dose radiation. It can occur at dosease as low as?
Answer: 25 Rads or .25 Gray
Q: What is Cataractogenesis?
Answer: Process of Cataract Formation
Q: Cataractogenesis occurs after acute or chronic exposures of how many Rads?
Answer: 200 Rads, 2 Gray
Q: Skin Eyrythemia (Skin Redning) occurs above?
Answer: Above 200 Rad, 2 Gray
Q: Temporary Sterility occurs in the adult male at acute doses of how many Rads?
Answer: 250 Rads, 2.5 Gray
Q: Pregnant radiographer should? (3)
Answer: Always practice TDSHas legal right for re-assignment of dutyNever confuse collar badge with waist badge
Q: Monthly dosimetry reports is based on what?
Answer: OCCUPATIONAL exposures only.
Q: Monthly Dosimeter reports does NOT include?
Answer: Natural or Background Radiation
Q: What is the recommended monthly dose-equivalent limit for the fetus in the third trimester?
Answer: 0.5 mSv.05 RemNRCP 116
Q: Radiation workers cumulative dose-equivalent limit is determined by?
Answer: Age x 10 mSvAge x 1 RemNCRP 110
Q: What is the Occupational radiation dose equivalent limit for stochastic effects to the whole body?
Answer: 50 mSv (5 Rem)
Q: When using a C-Arm mobile unit, the intensification tower should be?
Answer: As close as possible to the patient to reduce patient dose and unnecessary magnification.
Q: Radiation exposure in air = ?
Answer: Roentgens – Ionization in air dose measurement.
Q: Electrical current being generated by a charge created in air thru ionization by x/gamma radiation is called a?
Answer: Ion Chamber
Q: The quantity of radiation exposure measured by an ionization chamber would be?
Answer: Coulomb/Kilogram
Q: The C/Kg or R is usually the unit measured in?
Answer: Air dose
Q: List the 3 measurements that are more appropriate for measuring absorbed doses for radiation or occupational dose?
Answer: Gray (1) – Rad (100)Seivert (1) – Rem (100)Curie – Bacquerel
Q: What type of changes are used to measure occupational dose? (3)
Answer: ScintillationBiologicalChemical
Q: Example of personnel monitor that measures radiation thru chemical change reaction?
Answer: Film Badge – Operate off Gurney-Mott theory.
Q: Explain the Gurney-Mott Theory…?
Answer: Describes how an x-ray photon changes silver halide into atomic silver in the film emulsion–a definite chemical change.
Q: How long can a film badge be worn?
Answer: No more than a month
Q: Why shouldn’t film badges be worn greater than a month?
Answer: Extreme sensitivity to environmental conditions.
Q: TLD’s operate thru?
Answer: Luminescence (NO chemical rx’s occur)
Q: Pocket dosimeters can only work for?
Answer: 1 day and must be reset everyday.Upper reading limit of 200-300 rads
Q: Pocket dosimeter uses?
Answer: Electrical current as a measurement of charge.
Q: The type of personnel monitor that could be worn the longest is the?
Answer: OSD
Q: Optical stimulated detector can be worn up to?
Answer: 3 months and be sensitive to 2 mR
Q: Leakage radiation should NOT exceed how much mR at 1 meter from the scource?
Answer: 100 mR per hr0.1 Rad per hrNCRP 102
Q: According to Bushong, tabletop intensity should NOT exceed what?
Answer: 2.1 mR per min for each mA operating at 80 kVp.
Q: Under normal modes of operation, fluoroscopic procedures should NOT exceed?
Answer: 10 Renkens per min.
Q: What does GSD stand for?
Answer: Genetic Significant Dose
Q: What is GSD?
Answer: Average gonadal dose received by an exposed population. It is used to estimate the genetic impact of medical radiation dose on the entire population.
Q: Beam limiting devices will? (3)
Answer: Improve image qualityReduce patient doseReduce scatter radiation
Q: The purpose of reducing added filtration is to reduce radiation dose to?
Answer: Patients skin
Q: Recommended amount of filtration in Fluoro?
Answer: 3 mm Al Equivalent
Q: Disadvantage to having 3 mm Al Equivalent?
Answer: Would require an increase in technical factors defeating the purpose of filtration.
Q: What is the usual amount of filtration in Fluoro?
Answer: 2.5 mm Al Equivalent
Q: What effect does excessive filtration have on xray image?
Answer: Reduced contrast
Q: # of grid lines per inch or centimeter defines?
Answer: Grid Frequency
Q: For all dedicated chest units whose tube potential routinely exceeds 90 kVp, the minimum recommended grid ratio is?
Answer: 8:1
Q: Techniques below or at 90 kVp would utilize what grid ratio?
Answer: 8:1
Q: Techniques above 90 kVp would utilize what grid ratio?
Answer: 12:1
Q: What is the ratio of a grid whose lead strips are 0.25 mm thick, 1.6 mm high and are seperated by a 0.10 mm alluminum spacer?
Answer: 16:1 grid
Q: During latent image formation, the concentration of metallic silver in the exposed crystals occurs in the region of the sensitivity specks. This explanation of the formation of the image is reffered to as?
Answer: Gurney-Mott theory
Q: What type of interactions cause ionization of irradiated material?
Answer: Photoelectric – Changes inner shell electronsCompton – Affects outer shell electrons
Q: Which of the following xray interactions with matter is primarily responsible for contrast?
Answer: Photoelectric effect
Q: Radiation produces at very discrete energies of approx 69 kiloelectron colts (kev) when electrons interact with the K shell of the tungsten target atom is called?
Answer: Characteristic Radiation
Q: Pair-Production affects what portion of the cell?
Answer: Nucleus. It does NOT cause ionization.
Q: What type of radiation would produce the greatest amount of biological damage in human tissue?
Answer: High LET’s
Q: What is the active component of the TLD?
Answer: Lithium Fluoride
Q: What is used in input phosphors?
Answer: Cesium Iodide
Q: What is used in output phosphors?
Answer: Zinc Cadmium Sulfide
Q: What must be done to Xray film to make it compatible to rare earth phosphors?
Answer: Add light absorbing dye in the x-ray film emulsion
Q: About what percentage of radiographic density is due to light emitted by an intensifying screen phosphor?
Answer: 95-98%
Q: What occurs when exit radiation interacts with a Photo-Stimulable imaging plate?
Answer: Energy Absorption
Q: What is used in scintillation gamma cameras in nuclear medicine/CT?
Answer: Sodium Iodide
Q: What color of light emitted by lanthanum oxy-bromide rare earth crystals in the intensifying screen?
Answer: Blue
Q: Maximum # of electron that may be found in the L-Shell of an atom?
Answer: 8
Q: What is the most radiosensitive part of any human cell?
Answer: ChromosomeDNANucleus
Q: What is arguably the MOST radiosensitive cell in the human body?
Answer: Mature Lymphocyte
Q: Example of Radiosensitive stem cells?
Answer: NeuroblastsSpermatogonia
Q: Human tissue considered to be the most radio-resistant?
Answer: Erythrocyte
Q: What is a Erythrocyte?
Answer: End cells w/ no nucleusLike mature nerve cells, are practically immune from radiation and have about a 4 month life span
Q: Example of Deterministic Effect?
Answer: Cataracto-genesis
Q: Examples of Deterministic or Non-Stochastic associated with a threshold dose?
Answer: Cataracts (2 grey – 200 Rad)
Q: Examples of Stochastic, Non-Deterministic, Non threshold dose?
Answer: LeukemiaThyroid CancerGenetic Effects
Q: Whole body doses only need…?
Answer: Very low doses for cancer & genetic effects.
Q: What is a cutie pie?
Answer: Radiation survey monitor or it can be a hot personnel monitoring device.
Q: Reduction in resolution often seen with the use of higher tube currents in a single focus tube is a phenomenon called?
Answer: Blooming
Q: What type of exposure factors provide the least patient exposure?
Answer: Lowest kVp and lowest mAs would cause the lowest patient dose.
Q: What film change can be made to reduce the dose to the patient and surrounding radiographer?
Answer: Use higher speed screen w/ a comparable change in mAs
Q: Radiographing Lumbar vertebrae of a geriatric patient, what technique change could be made to reduce patient exposure but maintain significant density?
Answer: Increase kVp by 15% with a 50% reduction in mAs
Q: What should be considered when using AEC?
Answer: Proper selection of ionization chamber(s)Precise positioning over desired chambersNOT Proper selection time
Q: If using automatic exposure control (AEC) device to make an exposure, what would be adjusted to ensure proper optical density from pt to pt?
Answer: Set Field Detector’s (Chambers)Set Density compensation (+1, +2…)NOT Set time!
Q: Where should ionization chambers be located if it is to be used as an efficient automatic exposure
Answer: Between the patient and the image receptor
Q: Underexposed radiograph produced by AEC device might result from?
Answer: Having insufficient backup time set for a very large patient
Q: Appearance of grid lines on radiograph with the table Bucky in use indicates?
Answer: Exposure time too short
Q: What would be used by tech to compensate for the caring densities of anatomic structures on a routine PA projection of the chest?
Answer: Trough Filter
Q: Using compression band will have what effect during the production of a radiograph?
Answer: Reduces scatter radiationDecreases radiographic contrastNOT reduces patient motion
Q: What radiographic procedure requires an image demonstrating a long scale of contrast?
Answer: Chest
Q: When using AEC w/ DR, selecting the center chamber on a PA radiogragh results in?
Answer: Appropriate density in the lungs
Q: As the field size is increased with all other factors remaining constant, the scale of contrast will?
Answer: Be lengthened
Q: What could decrease the production of scatter radiation?
Answer: Decrease in kVp
Q: Which of following pathological conditions would allow the x-ray beam to easily penetrate the pt?
Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Q: Which pathologic condition would require increase in technical factors?
Answer: Ascites
Q: What is Ascites?
Answer: Fluid in the peritoneal cavity
Q: What would affect shape distortion?
Answer: Tube Angulation
Q: If a radiograh demonstrates excessive size distortion, which of the following corrections should be made before repeating?
Answer: Increase SID
Q: Image noise can be decreased by?
Answer: Increasing xray dose
Q: Purpose does a photo-cathode serve?
Answer: Converts light photons to electrons
Q: What type of generator would incorporate a DC chopper in order to convert 60 hz AC to pulsed DC?
Answer: High frequency
Q: Disadvantage of a flat panel direct capture detector is?
Answer: Difficult in mobile imaging
Q: How many heat units are generated when setting a technique of 75 kVp, 400 mA, 250 milliseconds on a 3 phase, 12 pulse generator?
Answer: 10,575 HU 250 millisec = .25 secHU= kVp(mA)(Generator type – 1.35=6pulse, 1.41=12Pulse)
Q: When performing magnification radiography, if SID is 40″ and the object-image receptor distance is 6″, how much would the object be magnified?
Answer: x1.18SID/SOD
Q: In series circuit, the total resistance is calculated by the reciprocal of each of the individual resistors. We measure resistance in what unit?
Answer: Ohm
Q: Where are the exposure timer located in a typical xray circuit?
Answer: Primary side of the step-up transformer.
Q: In the image intensifier, the squared ratio of the area of the input screen to the output screen is defined at?
Answer: Minification gain
Q: What component of the image intensifier accelerated electrons toward the output phosphor?
Answer: Electrostatic Lenses
Q: What is the typical frame size of the most spot film (photospot) cameras used for the diagnostic imaging?
Answer: 70-105 mm
Q: Compared to analog imaging, CR has the advantage of?
Answer: Larger dynamic range
Q: To emit electrons from its surface, x-ray tube filament must be heated sufficiently to cause what?
Answer: Incandescence
Q: Phosphorescence or afterglow is a property of intensifying screen that?
Answer: Tends to increase image blur
Q: Which device in the typical x-ray circuit is adjusted to select the kilo-voltage?
Answer: Auto-transformer
Q: How many pulses per cycle are found in a single phase, full wave rectified xray machine?
Answer: 2
Q: What is the typical voltage ripple in a high frequency generator?
Answer: Less than 4 percent
Q: In order to change the visibility of a digital image, lookup table (LUTs) alter the?
Answer: Pixel value
Q: Primary factor affecting brightness of fluoroscopic image?
Answer: Density of the anatomic part
Q: What QA tool would be used to evaluate mA output or pentrometer?
Answer: Solid-State Detector
Q: Minimum suggested schedule for testing lead aprons and gloves for adequate shielded?
Answer: Annually
Q: What Quality Control tool would be used to evaluate blurr?
Answer: Wire Mesh tool
Q: To ensure proper light field to radiation field alignment, the deflecting mirror must be at?
Answer: 45 degree angle to x-ray beam
Q: What type of device would increase diagnostic quality of a radiograph of the dorso-plantar projection of the foot?
Answer: Wedge filter
Q: What test tool would be used to measure FSS?
Answer: Star Test Pattern
Q: What tool would be used to measure kVp accuracy?
Answer: Wisconsin test cassette or a solid state detector
Q: How would light and x-ray field alignment test be done?
Answer: Standard ruler test cassette or measure the light field w/ radio-opaque objects such as pennies.
Q: What minimum distance should the safe light be positioned above the processor shelf to avoid fogging of the radiograph?
Answer: 3 feet
Q: Type of artifact will result on a radiograph from dirt or dust on an intensification screen?
Answer: Area of decreased film density
Q: An older x-ray tube that has evaporated tungsten deposited on the tube window may cause one or more of the following problems.
Answer: Decreased tube outputArcing of the tube
Q: Using Line Focus Principle images will enhance a side effect known as?
Answer: Anode Heel Effect
Q: What radiograph would benefit from the use of the anode heel affect?
Answer: AP Projection of the femur
Q: Contrast can be measured from the characteristic curve by finding the tangent of which of the following?
Answer: Straight line portion
Q: Pulling a sheet of film from the film bin/box will cause what type of static?
Answer: Tree Static
Q: Sensitometric measurements in a quality assurance program are?
Answer: The responses of film to exposure and processing
Q: Image brightness on a display monitor is adjusted by?
Answer: Window Level
Q: What could demonstrate off-focus grid cutoff?
Answer: Both sides of the film are underexposed
Q: A geometric characteristic of a computerized image is known as?
Answer: Spacial resolution
Q: If tech failed to correctly mark a radiograph that subsequently resulted in a faulty diagnosis, he or she may be guilty of a tort under the doctrine res ipsa loquitur which means?
Answer: The thing speaks for itself
Q: If a radiologist instructs you to inject a patient with a radiographic contrast medium and the patient collapses from anaphylactic shock, you may be protected from a lawsuit under the doctrine of respondeat superior which means?
Answer: Let the master speak for
Q: Touching the pt w/o permission is the legal definition of?
Answer: Battery
Q: Intentional or unintentional acts performed by an individual and based on unreasonable conduct are known as
Answer: Torts
Q: Destruction or alteration of medical records, such as the radiology report, by an unauthorized person is referred to as?
Answer: Spoliation
Q: Proper term for the patient who suddenly turns pale and feels cold & clammy is?
Answer: Diaphoretic
Q: When radiographing multiple trauma patient who is incapacitated, what rule of thumb should be observed to provide the greatest diagnostic benefit for the patient?
Answer: Obtain two views 90 degrees apart for all traumatized anatomy.
Q: What steps are necessary for performing radiographs on a patients with a head injury?
Answer: Check the patients vital signs frequentlyDo NOT remove sandbags, collars or dressingsNOT Suction as necessary any nasal drainage.
Q: Which of the following situations would cause a pt to go thru the grieving process?
Answer: Losing a spouseBeing diagnosed with cancerNOT F/x clavicle
Q: What can happen if a diabetic patient has taken his or her normal dose of insulin but has been NPO since midnight?
Answer: patient can go into insulin shock
Q: Densitometer film density measurement of 3 corresponds to approx _____ of the light from a view-box being transmitted thru the film?
Answer: 0.1%
Q: According to quality assurance programs, how often should the chemicals be changes in an automatic processor?
Answer: Once a month
Q: Which anatomic term refers to a body part on the opposite side of the body?
Answer: Contra-Lateral
Q: Which imaging study of the urinary system demonstrates the collecting ducts of the kidneys by injecting a radiographic contrast medium?
Answer: Retrograde pyelogram
Q: During cystography, when ureteral reflux is suspected, it is often necessary to include a radiograph with the patient?
Answer: Voiding
Q: What is the name of the special imaging procedure or examination of the salivary glands?
Answer: Sialography
Q: Into which anatomical structure is the superior end of the T-Tube placed for performing postoperative cholangiography?
Answer: Common Bile Duct
Q: Which of the following imaging procedures would require formal informed consent?
Answer: Cardiac Catheterization
Q: If a pt scheduled an arthrogram sts that he/she has an allergy to an iodinated contrast media, what other imaging method could demonstrate the anatomy w/o putting the pt at risk?
Answer: MRI
Q: Reasons why lidocaine is often used in radiology dept?
Answer: Provide topical anesthetic for invasive procedures.
Q: Anatomic organ used for phonation is called the?
Answer: Larynx
Q: What is the central ray centering point for the RAO position of the esophagus?
Answer: T5-T6
Q: Which of the following radiographs positions will demonstrate the duodenal bulb and loop in profile during a GI procedure?
Answer: RAO
Q: If a patient is scheduled for an UGI and a small bowel series, which of the radiographic contrast media would be contraindicated if a perforation is suspect.
Answer: Barium sulfate
Q: The radiographic contrast medium that absorbs more radiation than the organ in which it is instilled is called a (an)
Answer: Positive agent
Q: What type of contrast medium is acceptable for use with infants who have swallowing disorders or w/ adults who have suspected bronchoesophageal fistula?
Answer: Water based barium
Q: A patient develops hives several minutes after a radiologic contrast agent has been administered. Which type of drug may the patient be given to counteract the reaction?
Answer: AntihistamineBenadryleClaritanSudafedZyrtec
Q: A radiologist requires 60 percent more than the normal 50 cc dose of radiographic contrast media to be used for a urologic procedure. The cc’s to be prepared is
Answer: 80 cc’s
Q: The plane of the body that divides the thorax into equal anterior and posterior parts is called?
Answer: Median Coronal Plane
Q: For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the highest position?
Answer: Hypersthenic
Q: How much will the kidneys move when changing the patient position from recumbent to the erect position?
Answer: 2″
Q: The ampulla of Vater empties its contents into the duodenum thru the structure called the?
Answer: Sphincter of Oddi
Q: Where should the contrast media be injected for a lumbar myelogram?
Answer: Subarachnoid space
Q: Adding two tsp of salt per liter of water used in an enema preparation may prevent?
Answer: Hypervolemia
Q: Which of the following pathologies are well visualized by the double contrast BE?
Answer: Polyps
Q: Which of the following positions would the patient be placed during insertion of an enema tip?
Answer: Simms
Q: Which of the following anatomic structures pumps oxygenated blood into the Aorta?
Answer: LT Ventricle
Q: Which of the following organs receives blood from the portal vein?
Answer: Liver
Q: If pt places back of the right hand against the RT thigh, the humerus will be in?
Answer: Lateral position
Q: What is the name of the process that extends superiorly from the scapula?
Answer: Acromion
Q: Which two bones are united to form the sternoclavicular joint?
Answer: Clavicle & Sternum
Q: Where is the center of the cassette positioned for a PA projection of the SC Jnt?
Answer: T-3
Q: Which radiograph of the shoulder will demonstrate the glenoid cavity in profile?
Answer: AP oblique Grashey Method
Q: Which of the following anatomical structures articulates with the capitulum of the humerus?
Answer: Head of the radius
Q: Which of the following radiographic methods would best demonstrate the coronoid process of the ulna?
Answer: 45 degree internal oblique of the elbow
Q: Which of the following joints be examined by arthrography?
Answer: ShoulderWristTMJ
Q: Which type of pathology would be best demonstrated by a radiograph of the lower leg?
Answer: Osgood Schatter Disease
Q: What is the rounded projection on the anterior proximal surface of the tibia called?
Answer: Tuberosity
Q: Which of the following methods for obtaining a radiograph of the hip should be performed when a fracture is suspected?
Answer: Daniuelius-Miller
Q: Which of the following radiographic methods are used to demonstrate the intercondylar fossa?
Answer: HolmbladCamp-CoventryBeclaireAll called tunnel views
Q: What may be demonstrated on a tangential projection of the patella?
Answer: Patello-Femoral ArticulationLongitudinal Fx of the patellaNOT transverse Fx of patella
Q: How should the pt hands be positioned for an erect lateral projection of the sternum?
Answer: Clasped behind the pt back
Q: How many degrees and in which direction should the central ray be directed for an AP projection of the sternum?
Answer: 15 degrees cephalic
Q: Determinatio of radiologic bone age is most frequently applied to the?
Answer: Hand & Wrist
Q: Which of the following represents the level of the iliac crest in the body?
Answer: 4th & 5th Lumbar Vertebre
Q: To better visualize the lateral thoracic spine, the patient should be instructed to?
Answer: Breath Quietly
Q: Anterior curvature of the vertebral column is called?
Answer: LordosisConvexedEx:LumbarC-Spine
Q: How should the patient be instructed to breath for an AP position of the lower ribs?
Answer: Full expiration
Q: How should the patients hand be placed for a PA Projection of the rib so that the scapula are rotated away from the rib cage?
Answer: Back of the hands against the hips
Q: Which part of the rib articulated with the transverse process of the thoracic vertebrae?
Answer: Tubercle
Q: To demonstrate the apophaseal joints of the lumbar vertebrae with an AP projection, the pt rotation is?
Answer: 45 degrees
Q: The RT SI jnt should be clearly demonstrated in which of the following?
Answer: LPO
Q: In the lateral position, how far posterior does the sacrum lie from the mid coronal plane?
Answer: 3 inches
Q: What is the name of the opening thru which the spinal nerves pass after branching from the spinal chord?
Answer: Intervertebral foramen
Q: What is the name of the type of skull that is considered to be of average shape and size?
Answer: MesocephalicMSP-Angle of petrous ridge/pyrimid = 47 degrees
Q: How many degrees of pt face rotation from the lateral for the single tube angulation of oxiolateral (Law) method of demonstrating the mastoid process?
Answer: 15 degrees
Q: What radiographic base line should be parallel to the image receptor for a SMV projection of the paranasal sinuses?
Answer: IOML
Q: What is the name of the bony projection that extends superiorly from the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone?
Answer: Crista Galli
Q: If the orbitalmeatal line is perpendicular to the film for an AP Axila (Grash.Townes) Projection of the skull, how much caudal angulation of the central ray requires
Answer: 30 Degree
Q: How much must the pt be rotated from the horizontal plane to visualize the apophaseal joints of the thoracic vertebre?
Answer: 70 degrees
Q: Which radiographic projection of the skull should clearly demonstrate all four sets of paranasal sinuses?
Answer: Lateral
Q: Which radiographic decubitus position preferred for demonstrating air fluid levels in the abdomen?
Answer: LT Lateral Decub
Q: A RT Lateral Decub is taken of a patient with the grid placed behind the patient. This is an example of a …?
Answer: AP Projection
Q: What articulates with the medial cuneiform bone?
Answer: First Metatarsus
Q: What degree of central ray angulations should be used for the axial plantodorsal projection of the os-calcis?
Answer: 40 Degrees
Q: The proper medical term for a collapsed lung is?
Answer: Atelectasis
Q: Where would a central line catheter be located?
Answer: Subclavian Vein
Q: Most common injury to a health care worker in the radiology department?
Answer: Lifting heavy objects
Q: Which of the following methods represents a means of transmitting a disease thru insect bites?
Answer: Vector
Q: Medical asepsis can be defined as the _____ of pathogenic microorganisms in the environment.
Answer: Reduction in number
Q: You are called to the trauma center to perform a bedside radiographic procedure on a patient and you suspected the patient may have hepatitis B. What are safe practices to follow to protect yourself?
Answer: Always put on glovesAlways wash hands after the procedureNOT always put on mask
Q: A common group of drugs that are used to promote defecation are termed?
Answer: cathartics
Q: Which of the following is an accepted method of sterilization?
Answer: Dry Heat
Q: Which of the following is the normal diastolic pressure for an adult.
Answer: 60-90
Q: Which of the following blood pressure readings would indicate shock?
Answer: 115-130 beats per min
Q: During cardiopulmonary resuscitation of an adult, the cardiac compression rate should be about
Answer: 80-100 per min
Q: Which method for measuring body temperature may be contraindicated for patients with cardiac conditions?
Answer: Rectal
Q: Following a sudden change of posture from the recumbent to the erect position, the patient may experience syncope due to a condition known as
Answer: Orthostatic Hypotension
Q: LEFT OFF Test 2 pg 39
Answer: LEFT OFF Test 2 pg 39