Prepare for the Veterinary Technician National Examination (VTNE) with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers animal nursing, pharmacology, anesthesia, surgical assistance, and laboratory procedures.
Q: (c) Systolic blood pressure
Answer: The pressure in the systemic arteries during ventricular contraction is:(a) Diastolic blood pressure(b) Osmotic pressure(c) Systolic blood pressure(d) Low pressure
Q: (b) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
Answer: In what order does the impulse for depolarization travel through the heart?(a) AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers(b) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers(c) SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His(d) AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His
Q: (a) Pylorus
Answer: The muscular sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the:(a) Pylorus(b) Cardia(c) Chyme(d) Rugae
Q: (a) Threshold
Answer: When a stimulus is strong enough to cause complete depolarization, it has reached:(a) Threshold(b) Repolarization(c) Refractory period(d) Action potential
Q: (b) Stomach
Answer: Smooth muscles can be found in the:(a) Heart(b) Stomach(c) Pelvic limb(d) Diaphragm
Q: (a) Negative
Answer: On inspiration, the pressure in the thoracic cavity, as compared with ambient air pressure, is(a) Negative(b) Positive(c) Same as the ambient air pressure(d) Fluctuating
Q: (c) Brainstem
Answer: The cranial nerves originate from the(a) Cerebellum(b) Spinal cord(c) Brainstem(d) Cerebrum
Q: (d) Oxytocin
Answer: In dairy cattle, the teats and udder are gently washed before milking to stimulate the release of one of the following, to stimulate milk letdown(a) Adrenalin(b) Norepinephrine(c) Dopamine(d) Oxytocin
Q: (c) 8%
Answer: Typically, what percentage of an animal’s body weight consists of blood?(a) 0.1%(b) 1%(c) 8%(d) 30%
Q: (c) Systemic
Answer: What circulatory system is under the highest pressure?(a) Pulmonary(b) Coronary(c) Systemic(d) Capillaries
Q: (d) A common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems
Answer: In birds, the cloaca is:(a) An appendage suspended from the head(b) A blind sac at the distal end of the jejunum(c) A cleft in the hard palate(d) A common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems
Q: (d) Femoral vein
Answer: All of the following major vessels contribute to blood flowing into the cranial vena cava except for the:(a) Brachiocephalic vein(b) Thoracic duct(c) Azygos vein(d) Femoral vein
Q: (b) Ilium
Answer: Which of these is not a division of teh small intestine?(a) Duodenum(b) Ilium(c) Ileum(d) Jejunum
Q: (b) Endocrine system
Answer: Which of the following is a ductless system?(a) Exocrine system(b) Endocrine system(c) Lymphatic system(d) All of the above systems contain ducts
Q: (b) Lacteals
Answer: The lymphatic structure found in the small intestines responsible for the transport of fats and fat-soluble vitamins is:(a) Afferent lymphatic vessels(b) Lacteals(c) Trabeculae(d) Spleen
Q: (a) Estrous
Answer: The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called:(a) Esrous(b) Estrus(c) Ovulation(d) The mating cycle
Q: (d) Diarthroses
Answer: The anatomic term for synovial joints is:(a) Fibroarthroses(b) Amphiarthroses(c) Synarthroses(d) Diarthroses
Q: (d) Foramen ovale
Answer: The name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is:(a) Aortic hiatus(b) Foramen(c) Fossa(d) Foramen ovale
Q: (b) Tympanic membrane
Answer: The eardrum is also called the:(a) Pinna(b) Tympanic membrane(c) Eustachian tubes(d) Cochlea
Q: (c) Carry oxygen to the tissues
Answer: The function of the red blood cell is to:(a) Provide defense from foreign invaders(b) Act as a phagocyte(c) Carry oxygen to the tissues(d) Respond to the need for clotting
Q: (b) Pulmonary
Answer: What artery carries deoxygenated blood?(a) Aorta(b) Pulmonary(c) Coronary(d) Carotid
Q: (a) Hypoxia and erythropoietin
Answer: Red blood cellproduction is stimulated by:(a) Hypoxia and erythropoietin(b) Erythropoietin and thrombocytes(c) Fibrinogen and acetylcholine(d) Leukocytes
Q: (d) Sinoatrial node
Answer: What structure is the pacemaker of the heart?(a) Bundle of His(b) Purkinje fibers(c) Atrioventricular node(d) Sinoatrial node
Q: (c) Ventricular depolarization
Answer: In the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle?(a) The QRS complex is the entire ECG cycle(b) Atrial depolarization(c) Ventricular depolarization(d) Ventricular repolarization
Q: (a) Pancreas
Answer: The islets of Langerhans are associated with which organ?(a) Pancreas(b) Liver(c) Kidneys(d) Adrenal glands
Q: (c) Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra
Answer: Which of the following is the correct path for urine elimination?(a) Ureter, kidneys, urethra, bladder(b) Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureter(c) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra(d) Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidneys
Q: (d) Both A and B
Answer: Which of the following hormones are responsible for urine volume regulation?(a) ADH(b) Aldosterone(c) Glucagon(d) Both A and B
Q: (b) One or both testes do not fully descend into the scrotum
Answer: Which of the following best defines the term cryptorchidism?(a) Torsion of one or both testicles(b) One or both testes do not fully descend into the scrotum(c) The surgical removal of both testicles(d) An inflammatory condition of the testis
Q: (c) Cattle
Answer: Which of the following species is NOT considered to be multiparous?(a) Dogs(b) Sows(c) Cattle(d) Cats
Q: (a) Anestrus
Answer: When an animal is said to be in a period of temporary ovarian inactivity, this is known as:(a) Anestrus(b) Diestrus(c) Pseudocyesis(d) Heat
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: The kidneys perform the waste-removal function by which of the following actions?(a) Filtration(b) Reabsorption(c) Secretion(d) All of the above
Q: (a) Mediastinum
Answer: The thorax is divided into right and left sides by a connective tissue septum known as the:(a) Mediastinum(b) Pericardium(c) Pulmonary pleura(d) Sternum
Q: (b) Pneumatic bones
Answer: Which types of bones contain air-filled spaces known as sinuses that reduce the weight of the bone?(a) Sesamoid bones(b) Pneumatic bones(c) Splanchnic bones(d) Irregular bones
Q: (a) Osteoblasts
Answer: Cells that are responsible for laying down new bone are known as:(a) Osteoblasts(b) Osteoclasts(c) Ossification(d) Hemopoiesis
Q: (a) Dogs
Answer: Which species contains a bone within the penis that is known as the os penis?(a) Dogs(b) Cats(c) Horses(d) Ruminants
Q: (b) Cranial
Answer: The thoracic cavity is considered to be in what anatomical direction from the abdomen?(a) Caudal(b) Cranial(c) Dorsal(d) Ventral
Q: (a) Xiphoid process
Answer: The caudal end of the sternum is referred to as the(a) Xiphoid process(b) Trochanter(c) Calcaneus(d) Cannon bone
Q: (d) Calcium
Answer: Which element of the periodic table is required for muscle contraction, nerve impulse, transmission, and blood clotting?(a) Nitrogen(b) Oxygen(c) Phosphorus(d) Calcium
Q: (a) Hydrophilic
Answer: What are chemicals that dissolve or mix well in water called?(a) Hydrophilic(b) Hydrophobic(c) Solute(d) Solvent
Q: (a) 2.5
Answer: Which of the following levels is considered the most acidic of the pH scale?(a) 2.5(b) 5(c) 7(d) 12
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: Which of the following is an example of a carbohydrate?(a) Sugar(b) Starch(c) Cellulose(d) All of the above
Q: (d) Block the COX-2 pathway
Answer: Prostaglandins provide all of the following functions, except:(a) Regulate hormone synthesis(b) Enhance immune system(c) Provide inflammatory response(d) Block the COX-2 pathway
Q: (a) Steroids
Answer: Which types of lipid take the form of four interlocking hydrocarbon rings?(a) Steroids(b) Triglycerides(c) Prostoglandins(d) Phosolipids
Q: (d) Both A and B
Answer: Nucleic acids consist of which of the following classes?(a) RNA(b) DNA(c) Ribose(d) Both A and B
Q: (b) Nucleotides
Answer: The molecular building blocks of nucleic acids are known as:(a) Chromosomes(b) Nucleotides(c) Proteins(d) Carbohydrates
Q: (c) Thiamine
Answer: All of the following are nucleotides, except:(a) Adenine(b) Guanine(c) Thiamine(d) Cytosine
Q: (b) Arteries
Answer: Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?(a) Veins(b) Arteries(c) Capillaries(d) Vena Cava
Q: (b) Veins
Answer: Which types of blood vessels contain one-way valves?(a) Arteries(b) Veins(c) Capillaries(d) Aorta
Q: (b) Trachea
Answer: Which structure is composed of several C-shaped incomplete rings of hyaline cartilage?(a) Esophagus(b) Trachea(c) Larynx(d) Pharynx
Q: (b) Alveolus
Answer: Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?(a) Bronchi(b) Alveolus(c) Alveolar duct(d) Larynx
Q: (c) Dentin
Answer: What makes up the bulk of the tooth?(a) Enamel(b) Crown(c) Dentin(d) Root
Q: (d) Incisors
Answer: Which of the following are the most rostral teeth in the mouth of small animals?(a) Canines(b) Crown(c) Dentin(d) Root
Q: (c) Cardiac sphincter
Answer: What regulates the size of the opening of the esophagus into the stomach?(a) Duodenum(b) Pyloric sphincter(c) Cardiac sphincter(d) Epiglottis
Q: (b) Portal vein
Answer: Which vein carries nutrient-rich blood from the intestines to the liver?(a) Inferior vena cava(b) Portal vein(c) Hepatic vein(d) Splenic vein
Q: (c) Brainstem
Answer: What is considered the most primitive part of the brain?(a) Cerebellum(b) Cerebrum(c) Brainstem(d) Gray matter
Q: (b) Parasympathetic nerve fibers
Answer: Spinal nerves from the sacral region carry which type of nerve fiber?(a) Sympathetic nerve fibers(b) Parasympathetic nerve fibers(c) Both(d) Neither
Q: (d) 12
Answer: How many types of cranial nerves exist?(a) 5(b) 8(c) 10(d) 12
Q: (b) Vestibulocochlear
Answer: Which cranial nerve is responsible for balance and hearing?(a) Trochlear(b) Vestibulocochlear(c) Accessory(d) Optic
Q: (c) Vagus
Answer: Which of the following cranial nerves is the longest cranial nerve that innervates many organs in the body?(a) Trigeminal(b) Vestibulocochlear(c) Vagus(d) Hypoglossal
Q: (b) Hunger and thirst
Answer: Visceral sensations include which of the following?(a) Heat and cold(b) Hunger and thirst(c) Odors(d) Touch and pressure
Q: (a) Pinna
Answer: Which of the following is a cartilaginous funnel that collects sound waves and directs them medially into the external auditory canal?(a) Pinna(b) Eustachian tube(c) Cochlea(d) Tympanic membrane
Q: (a) Cochlea
Answer: Which of the following is part of the inner ear?(a) Cochlea(b) Malleus(c) Incus(d) Tympanic membrane
Q: (b) Organ of Corti
Answer: Which of the following contains receptor cells for hearing?(a) Tympanic membrane(b) Organ of Corti(c) Vestibule(d) Incus
Q: (b) Balance and head position
Answer: The vestibular sense is responsible for:(a) Taste(b) Balance and head position(c) Vision(d) Hearing
Q: (b) Cornea
Answer: The clear window on the rostral portion of the eye is known as:(a) Eyelids(b) Cornea(c) Iris(d) Sclera
Q: (c) Anterior chamber
Answer: What structure is located immediately caudal to the cornea?(a) Lens(b) Iris(c) Anterior chamber(d) Vitreous humor
Q: (d) Retina
Answer: Where are visual images formed within the eye?(a) Lens(b) Cornea(c) Vitreous humor(d) Retina
Q: (a) The muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate
Answer: What happens to the iris of the eye in dim light?(a) The muscles relax, allowing the pupil to dilate(b) The muscles contract, allowing the pupil to constrict(c) The muscles contrict(d) Nothing, the light does not affect the iris of the eye
Q: (c) Progesteron
Answer: Which hormones are produced by the corpus luteum and are necessary to maintain pregnancy?(a) FSH(b) LH(c) Progesterone(d) Estrogen
Q: (c) The coccygeal vertebrae
Answer: Which of the following forms the tail of the horse?(a) The cervical vertebrae(b) The sacrum(c) The coccygeal vertbrae(d) The lumbar vertebrae
Q: (b) Fetlock joint
Answer: Which of the following joints lies between the cannon bone and the long pastern?(a) Stifle joint(b) Fetlock joint(c) Pastern joint(d) Carpal joint
Q: (c) Humerus
Answer: The deltoid tuberosity is located on which of the following bones of the horse?(a) Radius(b) Ulna(c) Humerus(d) Scapula
Q: (c) 60%
Answer: Approximately how much of the weight do the forelimbs of the horse carry?(a) 20%(b) 40%(c) 60%(d) 80%
Q: (b) Semimembranosus
Answer: All of the following muscle of the horse extend to the hock, except:(a) Gastrocnemius(b) Semimembranosus(c) Semitendinosus(d) Biceps femoris
Q: (d) Triceps
Answer: Which of the following muscles of the horse is responsible for extending the elbow?(a) Infraspinatus(b) Gastrocnemius(c) Pectoral(d) Triceps
Q: (a) 25-42 bpm
Answer: What is the normal heart rate for a horse at rest?(a) 25-42 bpm(b) 40-140 bpm(c) 48-84 bpm(d) 260-600 bpm
Q: (a) Frontal sinus
Answer: Which sinus lies in the dorsal part of the skull medial to the orbit?(a) Frontal sinus(b) Two maxillary sinuses(c) Oropharynx(d) Nasopharynx
Q: (d) Sheep
Answer: Which animal has a cotylendonary placenta?(a) Cat(b) Dog(c) Horse(d) Sheep
Q: (a) Popliteal nodes
Answer: Lymph nodes found on the caudal aspect of the leg at the level of the patella are the:(a) Popliteal nodes(b) Inguinal nodes(c) Mandibular nodes(d) Prescapular nodes
Q: (d) 1.5 m
Answer: What is the average length of the esophagus in the average sized horse?(a) 1.5 inches(b) 1.5 cm(c) 1.5 mm(d) 1.5 m
Q: (b) Keel
Answer: The sternum of birds is extended into a laterally flattened ____________, which provides a large surface area for the attachment of the major flight muscles.(a) Coracoid(b) Keel(c) Beak(d) Quadrate
Q: (b) Diaphragm
Answer: What division are birds missing that normally seen between the thorax and abdomen of other animals?(a) Lungs(b) Diaphragm(c) Liver(d) Keel
Q: (b) Preen
Answer: Secretions from which gland keeps feathers waterproof?(a) Alula(b) Preen(c) Gizzard(d) Coracoid
Q: (d) 4
Answer: How many chambers does the avian heart contain?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: Which of the following systems attach to the cloaca in birds?(a) Reproductive(b) Digestive(c) Urinary(d) All of the above
Q: (a) 7
Answer: How many cervical vertebrae do rabbits have?(a) 7(b) 8(c) 13(d) 15
Q: (a) Ear
Answer: The incus, malleus, and stapes are all bones that create the __________ in small animals.(a) Ear(b) Face(c) Foot(d) Cranium
Q: (b) Cytosol
Answer: What is the fluid of a cell called?(a) Cytoplasm(b) Cytosol(c) Cytoskeleton(d) Tubulins
Q: (b) Trapezius
Answer: Which canine muscle originates from the dorsal midline from C2 to C7 and inserts on the spine of the scapula?(a) Pectoralis(b) Trapezius(c) Latissimus(d) Brachiocephalicus
Q: (b) Capillaries
Answer: What of the following are present in all organs/tissues and are the sites of exchange between blood and tissue fluid?(a) Venules(b) Capillaries(c) Valves(d) Lymph
Q: (a) Bronchiole
Answer: What structure is not part of the upper respiratory tract?(a) Bronchiole(b) Larynx(c) Pharynx(d) Trachea
Q: (d) Tendons
Answer: With what type of tissue is muscle attached to bone?(a) Ligaments(b) Fat(c) Cartilage(d) Tendons
Q: (c) Cattle
Answer: Which of these species has a lobulated kidney?(a) Sheep(b) Horses(c) Cattle(d) Goats
Q: (b) Mitochondria
Answer: What cell component is primarily responsible for energy supply for various cell processes?(a) Nucleolus(b) Mitchondria(c) Golgi apparatus(d) Granular (rough) endoplasmic reticulum
Q: (b) Dilated pupils
Answer: Which reaction is the result of sympathetic nervous system stimulation?(a) Decreased heart rate(b) Dilated pupils(c) Increased GI activity(d) Increased salivation
Q: (c) Respiratory acidosis
Answer: Apnea will cause(a) Metabolic acidosis(b) Metabolic alkalosis(c) Respiratory acidosis(d) Respiratory alkalosis
Q: (d) Insulin
Answer: Which of the following lowers blood glucose?(a) Glucagon(b) Epinephrine(c) Glucocorticoids(d) Insulin
Q: (c) Peristalsis
Answer: Food is moved along the digestive tract by the process known as(a) Mastication(b) Prehension(c) Peristalsis(d) Reticulation
Q: (c) Reticulum
Answer: The smallest ruminant forestomach, and the one most commonly involved in hardware disease is the(a) Abomasum(b) Omasum(c) Reticulum(d) Rumen
Q: (a) Abomasum
Answer: The true stomach of the ruminant is the(a) Abomasum(b) Omasum(c) Reticulum(d) Rumen
Q: (c) Veterinarian
Answer: Credentialed veterinary technicians are allowed to perform certain duties under the direct supervision of whom?(a) Office manager(b) Lead veterinary technician(c) Veterinarian(d) Practice owner
Q: (c) Draw a single line through the mistake, initial it, and rewrite it
Answer: When a mistake is written in the medical record, what is the proper method to correct it?(a) Erase the mistake and start over(b) Use white-out to cover the written mistake, initial it, and rewrite it(c) Draw a single line through the mistake, initial it, and rewrite it(d) Scratch out the mistake with ink and rewrite with initials
Q: (c) 20%
Answer: Employee discounts on services greater than what percent MUST be reported to the IRS as pay?(a) 10%(b) 15%(c) 20%(d) 50%
Q: (d) Address the safety issues within the facility but allow the employee to decide their own safety level
Answer: What is the correct protocol for handling a pregnant veterinary technician employee?(a) Have the employee placed on a temporary resignation status for the duration of the pregnancy(b) Have the employee transferred to a receptionist position for the duration of the pregnancy(c) Limit the employee on all safety issues such as lifting, anesthesia exposure, and radiation exposure(d) Address the safety issues within the facility but allow the employee to decide their own safety level
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: What does a SWOT analysis evaluate within a marketing plan?(a) Weaknesses(b) Opportunities(c) Strengths(d) All of the above
Q: (d) Compliance
Answer: The percentage of clients who accept a recommendation is defined as:(a) Quantity(b) Turnover(c) Retention(d) Compliance
Q: (b) 2
Answer: When a client is not present to sign a euthanasia form, to verify the euthanasia how many team members must the owner talk to?(a) 1(b) 2(c) 3(d) 4
Q: (c) Computer-generated records can lack medical detail
Answer: Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of computerized medical records?(a) Legibility(b) Client perceives progressive, higher-quality medicine(c) Computer-generated records can lack medical detail(d) Can target specific clients quickly and efficiently when promoting services
Q: (c) Combine them with cat litter for absorption and then throw them away
Answer: Which of the following is the proper way to handle expired drugs?(a) Prescribe them to owners to get them out of the facility(b) Flush them down the drain(c) Combine them with cat litter for absorption and then throw them away(d) Throw them in the trash
Q: (b) 10%
Answer: Missed charges account for approximately how much of gross revenue?(a) 5%(b) 10%(c) 25%(d) 45%
Q: (b) Many
Answer: Which of the following correctly defines the prefix, poly-?(a) Joint(b) Many(c) Disease(d) Cartilage
Q: (a) Etiopathology
Answer: The study of the cause of disease correctly corresponds to which term?(a) Etiopathology(b) Neogenic(c) Pathology(d) Idiopathic
Q: (c) Murmur
Answer: An atypical heart sound associated with a functional or structural valve abnormality is known as:(a) Arrhythmia(b) Fibrillation(c) Murmur(d) Infarct
Q: (b) Eardrum
Answer: The prefix myring-refers to which of the following?(a) Ear(b) Eardrum(c) Embryo(d) Empty
Q: (b) Freemartin
Answer: A female calf (usually sterile) born twin to a bull calf is referred to as a:(a) Freshening(b) Freemartin(c) Heifer(d) Cow
Q: (c) Farrowing
Answer: The process of giving birth to pigs is referred to as:(a) Stag(b) Freshening(c) Farrowing(d) Kidding
Q: (a) Morbidity
Answer: The number of animals within a population that becomes sick can be defined as:(a) Morbidity(b) Mortality(c) Chronic(d) Acute
Q: (b) Malignant
Answer: Becoming progressively worse, recurring, and/or leading to death refers to:(a) Remission(b) Malignant(c) Exacerbation(d) Idiopathic
Q: (c) Any new and abnormal growth
Answer: Neoplasm refers to which of the following?(a) The process of abnormal or difficult growth(b) A malignant growth of tissue(c) Any new and abnormal growth(d) Death of tissue
Q: (b) Histiocytosis
Answer: An abnormal presence of tissue cells in the blood is known as:(a) Histology(b) Histiocytosis(c) karyogenic(d) homeostasis
Q: (c) An abnormal development of muscles
Answer: The term myodysplasia refers to which of the following?(a) A specialized cell for the storage of fat(b) An abnormal growth of tissue(c) An abnormal development of muscles(d) Slower than normal heartbeat
Q: (b) Ecchymosis
Answer: Blood leaking from a ruptured vessel into subcutaneous tissue is known as:(a) Cicatrix(b) Ecchymosis(c) Eschar(d) Fissure
Q: (c) Ulcer
Answer: A circumscribed craterlike lesion of the skin or mucous membrane is known as:(a) Wheal(b) Suppurate(c) Ulcer(d) Papule
Q: (b) Callus
Answer: A bridge that forms as part of the healing process across the two halves of bone fracture is known as:(a) Condyle(b) Callus(c) Crest(d) Cull
Q: (b) Softening of bones
Answer: Osteomalacia is known as the:(a) Hardening of bones(b) Softening of bones(c) Collection of abnormal cells that accumulate within the bones(d) Thickened skin
Q: (b) Hypoplasia
Answer: Which term is defined as the incomplete development or underdevelopment of an organ or tissue?(a) Osteoporosis(b) Hypoplasia(c) Hyperplasia(d) Ankylosis
Q: (b) Tendons
Answer: What structure connects muscles to bones?(a) Ligaments(b) Tendons(c) Foramen(d) Process
Q: (b) Located on or affecting the same side of the body
Answer: The term ipsilateral refers to which of the following?(a) Opposite side affected(b) Located on or affecting the same side of the body(c) Near or connected to the maxilla or jawbone(d) Movement away from the point of origin
Q: (a) Panosteitis
Answer: Inflammation of all bones or inflammation of every part of one bone is known as:(a) Panosteitis(b) Polypathia(c) Pandemic(d) Osteoporosis
Q: (a) Lack of muscle formation or development
Answer: The term amyoplasia refers to the:(a) Lack of muscle formation or development(b) Paralysis of muscles(c) Muscular weakness or partial paralysis restricted to one side of the body(d) Any disease of a muscle
Q: (d) Sheetlike dense fibrous collagenous connective tissue that binds muscle together or connects muscle to bone
Answer: The term aponeurosis refers to which of the following definitions?(a) An acute tendon injury in which the tendon is forcibly torn away from its attachment side on the bone(b) Temporary muscle stiffening that follows death(c) Rapid involuntary muscle contractions that release waste heat(d) Sheetlike dense fibrous collagenous connective tissue that binds muscles together or connects muscle to bone
Q: (c) Upper foreleg
Answer: The word root brachii refers to which of the following?(a)Shin bone(b) Thigh(c) Upper foreleg(d) Shoulder blade
Q: (b) Wasting away
Answer: The term atrophy refers to:(a) All four limbs(b) Wasting away(c) Muscle stretch(d) Inflammation of muscles
Q: (a) Muscular weakness in all four limbs
Answer: The term tetraparesis refers to the:(a) Muscular weakness in all four limbs(b) Inflammation of nerves(c) Inflammation of many muscles(d) A continuous spasm
Q: (c) Good
Answer: The prefix ur- refers to which of the following?(a) Glucose(b) Gland(c) Good(d) Hair
Q: (b) Endocardium
Answer: The inside surface of the chamber of the heart is lined by a thin membrane known as the:(a) Pericardium(b) Endocardium(c) Atrium(d) Epicardium
Q: (c) Ascites
Answer: The accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity is defined as:(a) Auscultate(b) Infarct(c) Ascites(d) Edema
Q: (c) Phlebitis
Answer: Which is the term for the inflammation of a vein?(a) Arteritis(b) Stenosis(c) Phlebitis(d) Venostasis
Q: (d) The removal of fluid via a needle inserted into the pericardial sac
Answer: Pericardiocentesis refers to which of the following definitions?(a) Abnormal buildup of fluid within a space(b) Buildup of fluid between the layer of the pericardial sac and the epicardium(c) When the pericardial sac is full of fluid that the heart can no longer beat(d) The removal of fluid via a needle inserted into the pericardial sac
Q: (b) Erythematous
Answer: ______________refers to redness of the skin(a) Erythrocyte(b) Erythematous(c) Leukocyte(d) Leukocytosis
Q: (b) Lymphangitis
Answer: Inflammation of the lymph vessels is known as:(a) Leukocytosis(b) Lymphangitis(c) Lymphoma(d) Immunocyte
Q: (c) Leukopenia
Answer: An abnormally low WBC count is referred to as:(a) Normocytic(b) Leukocytosis(c) Leukopenia(d) Anemia
Q: (b) A disease that has an unknown cause
Answer: The term idiopathic refers to:(a) A general term for an abnormality(b) A disease that has an unknown cause(c) An uncoordinated and dehydrated patient(d) A blood clot that forms and adheres to the wall of a blood vessel
Q: (a) The formation of blood cells in the body
Answer: Hematopoiesis is defined as:(a) The formation of blood cells in the body(b) An abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood(c) A high number of WBC(d) Resembling a WBC
Q: (c) Thrombolysis
Answer: The destruction of a blood clot is known as:(a) Exsanguination(b) Monocyte(c) Thrombolysis(d) Leukemia
Q: (b) Hypercapnia
Answer: An increased amount of carbon dioxide in the blood refers to:(a) Olfaction(b) Hypercapnia(c) Hyperemia(d) Hypoxia
Q: (d) Cachexia
Answer: A generalized wasting of the body as a result of disease is known as:(a) Eructation(b) Anemia(c) Necrosis(d)Cachexia
Q: (a) Passing of dark, tarry feces containing blood that has been acted on by bacteria in the intestines
Answer: The term melena refers to which of the following?(a) Passing of dark, tarry feces containing blood that has been acted on by bacteria in the intestines(b) A semifluid mass of partially digested food that enters the small intestine from the stomach(c) A protein produced by living cells that initiates a chemical reaction but is not affected by the reaction(d) To fall back into a disease state after an apparent recovery
Q: (d) Peristalsis
Answer: A progressive wave of contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles in the wall of the digestive tract that moves food through the digestive tract is known as:(a) Ingesta(b) Rumination(c) Retrograde(d) Peristalsis
Q: (b) Lithiasis
Answer: The pathological condition that results from a stone is referred to as:(a) Enteroptosis(b) Lithiasis(c) Lipolysis(d) Peristalsis
Q: (c) Intussusception
Answer: Slipping or telescoping of one part of a tubular organ in to a lower portion, causing the type of obstruction typically seen in the intestines, is known as what?(a) Impaction(b) Nosocomial(c) Intussusception(d) Ileus
Q: (a) Ruminal tympany
Answer: Which of the following refers to an overdistention of the reticulorumen as a result of rumen gas being trapped in the rumen when the ruminant is unable to eructate?(a) Ruminal tympany(b) Retch(c) Volvulus(d) Torsion
Q: (b) Nutrition that must be administered by mean other than the mouth
Answer: Total parenteral nutrition is correctly identified as which of the following?(a) No food or water given(b) Nutrition that must be administered by means other than the mouth(c) Specialized diet for a certain disease process(d) Giving as much food as you have to for the desired results
Q: (c) Rhabdomyolysis
Answer: The destruction of skeletal muscle is referred to as which of the following?(a) Papule(b) Osteochondritis(c) Rhabdomyolysis(d) Pneumothorax
Q: (a) Neuropathy
Answer: A disease of the nerves is known as:(a) Neuropathy(b) Enchondroma(c) Neuromyelitis(d) Poliomyelitis
Q: (b) Albumin
Answer: A protein manufactured by the liver that maintains the osmotic fluid balance between capillaries and tissues is referred to as which of the following?(a) Aldosterone(b) Albumin(c) Alkaline(d) Acetylcholine
Q: (c) Miosis
Answer: Prolonged constriction of the pupil of the eye is referred to as which of the following?(a) Mydriasis(b) Iridocele(c) Miosis(d) Canthus
Q: (a) Pinna
Answer: An ear flap is also known as a:(a) Pinna(b) Papilla(c) Callus(d) Canthus
Q: (b) Adenopathy
Answer: The disease of a gland is referred to as:(a) Amyotrophy(b) Adenopathy(c) Adrenomegaly(d) Cardiomyopathy
Q: (c) Urine constituents that are found in the blood
Answer: The term uremia is defined as:(a) Painful urination(b) Surgical repair of the kidney pelvis(c) Urine constituents that are found in the blood(d) Blood found in the urine
Q: (d) Both a and c
Answer: The act of urination is referred to as:(a) Micturition(b) Concretion(c) Voiding(d) Both a and c
Q: (d) The buildup of nitrogenous waste material in the blood
Answer: The term azotemia refers to:(a) The presence of urinary calculi(b) The lack of voluntary urination(c) The increased production of urine(d) The buildup of nitrogenous waste material in the blood
Q: (b) Ovulation
Answer: _________is defined as the release of an egg from the ovary.(a) Ovum(b) Ovulation(c) Oocyte(d) Paraphimosis
Q: (b) Pseudocyesis
Answer: A false pregnancy is known as:(a) Primigravida(b) Pseudocyesis(c) Pseudoaneurysm(d) Uniparous
Q: (c) Zoonosis
Answer: Any human disease that may be transmitted from an animal referred to as which of the following?(a) Zooscopy(b) Zootomy(c) Zoonosis(d)Zootophic
Q: (b) Anticoagulant
Answer: An__________is a substance that prevents blood from clotting when it is added to the blood.(a) Anticodon(b) Anticoagulant(c) Antigen(d) Anticonvulsant
Q: (d) WIthout a blood supply
Answer: The term avascular refers to which of the following terms?(a) Blood clot(b) Increased amount of blood supply(c) Decreased amount of blood supply(d) Without a blood suppy
Q: (c) Carapace
Answer: The dorsal shell of turtles and tortoises is the:(a) Canthus(b) Capsular space(c) Carapace(d) Cisterna
Q: (c) Colostrum
Answer: The initial secretions of the mammary gland before milk is produced is known as:(a) Colloidal(b) Columella(c) Colostrum(d) Cisterna
Q: (b) Diapedesis
Answer: The process by which WBCs leave the blood vessel and enter tissue by squeezing through the tiny spaces between the cells’ lining is defined as:(a) Leukopenia(b) Diapedesis(c) Leukocytosis(d) Chemotaxis
Q: (c) Offering a natural-prey diet or moistening dry kibble
Answer: Which of the following may help decrease dental abrasions in the pet ferret?(a) Housing the ferret in a wire cage(b) Offering a raw diet consisting of bones, chicken, and green vegetables(c) Offering a natural-prey diet or ,moistening dry kibble(d) Annual periodontal treatments
Q: (a) Canine distemper virus
Answer: Which of the following listed diseases best fits the statement that follows? It is most commonly transmitted by aerosol exposure, but it can also be spread by direct contact with conjunctival and nasal exudates, urine, feces, skin, and sometimes fomites. The incubation period is generally 7 to 10 days in the ferret. The disease spreads by viremia after it is in the body, and it is almost always fatal.(a) Canine distemper virus(b) Influenza B(c) Pneumocystis carinii(d) Cryptococcosis
Q: (c) GI stasis
Answer: A rabbit presents with a 2-day history or anorexia. You take a radiographs and notice and ingesta-filled stomach with large amounts of gas in the intestines and cecum. This is suggestive of what condition in the rabbit?(a) Acute GI dilation(b) GI foreign-body obstruction(c) GI stasis(d) GI neoplasia
Q: (b) During the last week
Answer: In the rabbit, pregnancy toxemia is most likely to occur during which week(s) of gestation?(a) During the first 2 weeks(b) During the last week(c)During the sixth week(d) During the fifth week
Q: (c) Clostridium difficile
Answer: Which of the following bacteria are most often associated with antibiotic-associated enterotoxemia in the guinea pig?(a) Escherichia coli(b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa(c) Clostridium difficile(d) Salmonella typhimurium
Q: (d) Bordetella bronchiseptica
Answer: Poor husbandry conditions, along with a humid environment, predispose guinea pigs to which of the following conditions?(a) Demodex failure(b) Trixacarus caviae(c) Gyropus ovalis(d) Bordetella bronchiseptica
Q: (b) Hepatic lipidosis
Answer: An intact male African hedgehog of unknown age presents to the clinic with a 3- day history of lethargy, inappetance, icterus, and diarrhea. Which of the following disease is most likely to cause these symptoms?(a) Acute renal failure(b) Hepatic lipidosis(c) Bacterial pneumonia(d) Glomerulosclerosis
Q: (d) Jugular
Answer: Which of the following vessels is primarily used for blood collection in the African hedgehog?(a) Lateral saphenous(b) Cephalic(c) Femoral(d) Jugular
Q: (a) Uric acid
Answer: Which of the following valves is used to evaluate renal function in the avian patient?(a) Uric acid(b) BUN(c) Creatinine(d) BUN, creatinine, and uric acid
Q: (b) Autotomy
Answer: Many species of lizards can “drop off” or detach their tails if they are grabbed or restrained too tightly. This natural predatory response is referred to as:(a) Autolysis(b) Autotomy(c) Amputation(d) Dysecdysis
Q: (a) 5%-8%
Answer: Total blood volume in the reptilian patient is approximately what percentage of body weight?(a) 5%-8%(b) 4%-6%(c) 8%-10%(d) 10%-12%
Q: (c) 10%
Answer: Total blood volume in the avian patient is approximately what percentage of body weight?(a) 5%(b) 7%(c) 10%(d) 12%
Q: (d) it is about to shed its skin
Answer: A snake presents to the clinic for anorexia, striking at the owner, hissing and a blue-opaque coloring to the eyes and skin. What is likely occurring in the snake?(a) Contact dermatitis(b) Fungal dermatoses(c) Paramyxovirus(d) It is about to shed its skin
Q: (d) Keratin
Answer: The bones of the tortoise shell are covered with stryctyres called scutes. What are scutes made of?(a) Bone(b) Epidermis(c) Dermis(d) Keratin
Q: (c) Box turtle
Answer: Which of the following species does not have a diaphragm?(a) African hedgehog(b) Sugar glider(c) Box turtle(d) Golden hamster
Q: (c) Gout
Answer: Which of the following is a condition in which uric acid is deposited into the joints and visceral organs and is caused by dehydration, kidney disease, and a high-protein diet?(a) Hypovitaminosis A(b) Metabolic bone disease(c) Gout(d) Hypocalcemia
Q: (b) 10 mL
Answer: A healthy bird can only lose < 10% of its blood volume safely. You have been asked to draw a blood sample from a 1 kg macaw. What is the maximum amount of blood that can be taken from the patient safely?(a) 1mL(b) 10 mL(c) 15 mL(d) 5 mL
Q: (a) Pectoral
Answer: In the avian patient, into which of the following muscles are intramuscular infections generally administered?(a) Pectoral(b) Epaxial(c) Biceps)(d) Quadriceps
Q: (c) Rabbits
Answer: Atropine is not suggested for use in which of the following species?(a) Birds(b) Snakes(c) Rabbits(d) Lizards
Q: (a) Mycotoxicity
Answer: Moldy peanuts are a common cause of which of the following in the avian patient?(a) Mycotoxicity(b) Salmonella(c) Escherichia coli(d) Clostridium difficile
Q: (d) Guinea pig
Answer: The laboratory animal species most likely to experience dystocia is a:(a) Rat(b) Gerbil(c) Hamster(d) Guinea pig
Q: (d) Anogenital distance
Answer: The sex of juvenile mice is determined by:(a) Palpation of the pelvis region(b) Behavior traits(c) Secondary sec characteristics(d) Anogenital distance
Q: (c) Buck
Answer: A male rabbit is called a:(a) Boar(b) Bull(c) Buck(d) Barrow
Q: (d) Snuffles
Answer: A rabbit with a purulent nasal discharge and conjunctivitis would most likely be affected by:(a) Kennel cough(b) Venereal disease(c) Ringworm(d) Snuffles
Q: (a) Guinea pigs and nonhuman primates
Answer: A diet rich in Vitamin C must be provided to what species because they cannot synthesize their own?(a) Guinea pigs and nonhuman primates(b) Hamsters and rabbits(c) Rabbits and guinea pigs(d) Nonhuman primates and gerbils
Q: (d) Rabbit
Answer: What species normally has two types of feces, day feces and night feces?(a) Hamsters(b) Gerbils(c) Guinea pigs(d) Rabbits
Q: (c) Ear
Answer: The most accessible vein for blood collection in the rabbit is the:(a) Jugular(b) Femoral(c) Ear(d) Orbital
Q: (a) Barbering
Answer: Four of five mice housed together have large areas of alopecia on their muzzles. The most likely problem is:(a) Barbering(b) Lice infestation(c) Mite infestation(d) Fighting
Q: (a) ferret
Answer: Estrogen toxicity that results from prolonged estrus is a common clinical problem in which of the following species?(a) Ferret(b) Rabbit(c) Hamster(d) Guinea pig
Q: (b) Harderian gland
Answer: The gland of mice and rats that secretes porphyrin in the tears is:(a) Hibernating gland(b) Harderian gland(c) Thymus gland(d) Lacrimal gland
Q: (a) Root tip
Answer: Apical means “towards the___________”(a) Root tip(b) Crown(c) Cheeks(d) Tongue
Q: (b) Maxillary: forth premolars and first and second molars
Answer: Which teeth on each side of the dog’s mouth have three roots?(a) Maxillary: third and forth premolars and first molar(b) Maxillary: forth premolars and first and second molars(c) Mandibular: forth premolars and first and second molars(d) Mandibular and maxillary: forth premolars and first and second molars
Q: (b) 4-6 months
Answer: At what age do the permanent canine and premolar teeth in dogs generally erupt?(a) 3-5 months(b) 4-6 months(c) 5-7 months(d) 6-8 months
Q: (a) 205
Answer: Using the triadan system, the proper way to describe a dog’s first maxillary left permanent premolar is:(a) 205(b) 105(c) 306(d) 502
Q: (b) 409
Answer: Using the triadan system, the proper way to describe a dog’s first mandibular right molar is:(a) 407(b) 409(c) 109(d) 909
Q: (d) Blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue
Answer: The pulp canal of a tooth contains:(a) Nerves(b) Blood vessels(c) Connective tissue and blood vessels(d) Blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue
Q: (d) Is relatively nonporous and impervious
Answer: Which of the following statements regarding enamel is true?(a) Contains living tissue(b) Covers the tooth crown and root(c) Continues production by the ameloblasts after eruption(d) Is relatively nonporous and impervious
Q: (c) Cementum and enamel
Answer: Dentin is covered by:(a) Enamel and bone(b) Bone and pulp(c) Cementum and enamel(d) Pulp and cementum
Q: (c) 2X (I3/3: C 1/1: P 3/2: M 1/1)
Answer: Which of the following correctly describes the adult feline dental formula?(a) 2 x(I 2/1: C 0/0: P 3/2: M 3/3)(b) 2 x(I 3/3 C 1/1 P 4/4 M 2/3)(c) 2 x(I3/3: C 1/1: P 3/2: M 1/1)(d) 2 x(I3/3: C 1/1: P 3/3)
Q: (d) Enamel
Answer: The periodontium includes the periodontal ligament and all of the following except:(a) Gingiva(b) Cementum(c) Alveolar bone(d) Enamel
Q: (b) Have antibacterial properties
Answer: In veterinary dentistry, chlorhexidine solutions are used because they:(a) Prevent cementoenamel erosion(b) Have antibacterial properties(c) Remove enamel stains and whiten teeth(d) are used to treat gingival hyperplasia in brachycephalic breeds
Q: (b) Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus
Answer: Pocket depth is measured from the:(a) Cementoenamel junction to the bottom of the pocket(b) Current free gingival margin to the bottom of the gingival sulcus(c) Cementoenamel junction to the apical extent of the defect(d) Cementoenamel junction to the current free gingival margin and then adding 1-2 mm
Q: (d) Safety glasses, mask, and gloves
Answer: When performing a dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipment includes:(a) Gloves only(b) Gloves and mask only(c) Safety glasses only(d) Safety glasses, mask, and gloves
Q: (b) Brachygnathism
Answer: The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is:(a) Prognathism(b) Brachygnathism(c) Mesaticephalic(d) Dolicocephalic
Q: (c) Wry mouth
Answer: A malocclusion where one side of the mandible or maxilla is disproprtionate to its other side is known as:(a) Posterior crossbite(b) Base-narrow mandibular canines(c) Wry mouth(d) Rostral crossbite
Q: (a) Posterior crossbite
Answer: A malocclusion where in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molars is known as:(a) Posterior crossbite(b) Base-narrow mandibular canines(c) Wry mouth(d) Rostral crossbite
Q: (b) Base-narrow mandibular canines
Answer: A malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overly upright position, or the mandible is narrowed, is known as:(a) Posterior crossbite(b) Base-narrow mandibular canines(c) Wry mouth(d) Rostral crossbite
Q: (d) Rostral crossbite
Answer: A malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors is known as:(a) Posterior crossbite(b) Base-narrow mandibular canines(c) Wry mouth(d) Rostral crossbite
Q: (a) Use constant irrigation
Answer: To protect the pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should:(a) Use constant irrigation(b) Change tips frequently(c) Use slow rotational speed(d) Use appropriate amounts of paste
Q: (c) Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions
Answer: Another term for neck lesions often seen on feline teeth is:(a) Periphal odontogenic(b) Stomatitis(c) Feline odontoclastic resorptive leions(d) Enamel fracture
Q: (d) Floating
Answer: The most common dental procedure performed on a horse is:(a) Quidding(b) Curettage(c) Scaling(d) Floating
Q: (b) Inflammation of the mouth’s soft tissue
Answer: Stomatitis is defined as:(a) Bad breath that is evident when dental work must be completed(b) Inflammation of the mouth’s soft tissue(c) Resorption of hard dental tissues by odontoclasts(d) Inflammation and infection of some or all of the tooth’s supportive tissues
Q: (c) 4
Answer: When taking radiographs of the canine tooth in a large breed dog, what size of dental film should be used to ensure that the whole tooth is included?(a) 0(b) 2(c) 4(d) 8″ x 10″ screen film
Q: (c) Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth’s long axis and the film plane
Answer: The bisecting angle principle states that the plane of an x-ray beam should be 90 degrees to the:(a) Long axis of the tooth(b) Plane of the film(c) Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the tooth’s long axis and the film plane(d) Imaginary line that bisects the angle formed by the animal’s head and the film plane
Q: (c) Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth surface
Answer: A scaler is used to:(a) Calculus(b) Enamel(c) Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth surface(d) Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus
Q: (c) Cementum
Answer: What mineralized tissue covers the root of the tooth?(a) Calculus(b) Enamel(c) Cementum(d) Dentin
Q: (d) The purpose of the water spray on an ultrasonic scaler is to cool the tip of the instrument and cool the tooth to prevent pulp damage
Answer: Which of the following statements is true about ultrasonic scaling?(a) Ultrasonic scaling is the only method to clean a tooth surface fully(b) Ultrasonic scaling causes thermal damage to the tooth if the tip is kept on a tooth for < 5 seconds(c) The ultrasonic scaler works by spraying the tooth with water to wash the tooth clean(d) The purpose of the water spray on an ultrasonic scaler is to cool the tip of the instrument and cool the tooth to prevent pulp damage
Q: (b) A sulcus depth of ≤ 3mm is normal in a cat
Answer: The following statements are all true except:(a) Sulcus depth is measured using a probe(b) A sulcus depth of ≤ 3mm is normal in a cat(c) A sulcus depth of > 3mm indicates periodontal disease(d) The probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus parallel to the root of the tooth
Q: (a) Right-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess
Answer: An older dog with dental disease is presented to the clinic with a draining tract below his right eye. What is the most likely cause?(a) Right-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess(b) Left-sided maxillary carnassial tooth root abscess(c) Right-sided mandibular carnassial tooth root abscess(d) Left-sided mandibular carnassial tooth root abscess
Q: (a) A mandible that is longer than the maxilla
Answer: Prognathism is a normal condition in brachycephalic breeds but is considered a genetic defect in other breeds. It is best characterized as:(a) A mandible that is longer than the maxilla(b) A maxilla that is longer than the mandible(c) One side of the head being longer than the other(d) An overly long soft palate
Q: (a) Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis
Answer: Which of the following statements about canine toy breeds is true?(a) Chronic impaction of incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in a chronic osteomyelitis(b) Malocclusions are rare in toy breeds in comparison with giant breeds(c) Enamel hypoplasia is a common finding in toy breeds(d) Prognathism is considered a genetic defect in brachycephalic breeds
Q: (a) It is a nonmalignant tumor
Answer: A biopsy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous ameloblastoma or an acanthomatous epulis. Which of the following statements is true regarding this growth?(a) It is a nonmalignant tumor(b) It is a malignant tumor(c) It is very likely to metastasize(d) It is related to the presence of a malocclusion
Q: (a) Tooth extraction or root canal therapy
Answer: When the pulp cavity of a tooth is exposed, what is (are) the appropriate procedure(s) that should be performed?(a) Tooth extraction or root canal therapy(b) No procedure is required(c) Crown amputation with intentional root retention(d) Prophylactic dentistry to reduce tartar and plaque buildup on the tooth
Q: (d) Scale calculus from the tooth surface located in the gingival sulcus
Answer: A curette is used to:(a) Check the tooth’s surface for any irregularitis(b) Measure the depth of gingival recession(c) Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth’s surface(d) Scale calculus from the tooth suface located in the gingival sulcus
Q: (c) Enamel hypoplasia
Answer: A dog exposed to distemper as a puppy may develop which of the following oral conditions?(a) Adontia(b) Polydontia(c) Enamel hypoplasia(d) Enamel staining
Q: (a) Tooth identification system designed to aid in dental charting
Answer: The Triadan system is a:(a) Tooth identification system designed to aid in dental charting(b) Complete system that includes an ultrasonic scaler and polisher(c) Method for performing radiographs of molars(d) Complete home care dental system for use by clients
Q: (c) Maxillary
Answer: The upper fourth premolar communicates with what sinus?(a) Mandibular(b) Occipital(c) Maxillary(d) Orbital
Q: (a) The portion above the gum line and covered by enamel
Answer: The crown of tooth is defined as:(a) The portion above the gum line and covered by enamel(b) The most terminal portion of the root(c) That portion below the gum line(d) The layer of bony tissue that attaches to the alveolar bone
Q: (b) Attrition
Answer: What term identifies the wearing away of enamel by tooth-against tooth contact during mastication?(a) Plaque(b) Attrition(c) Calculus(d) Abrasion
Q: (a) Plaque
Answer: The thin film covering a tooth that is composed of bacteria, saliva, and food particles is:(a) Plaque(b) Attrition(c) Calculus(d) Abrasion
Q: (b) Ultrasound
Answer: Which of the following imaging modalities produces images without the use of radiation?(a) X-ray(b) Ultrasound(c) Fluoroscopy(d) CT
Q: (c) They vibrate
Answer: What happens to crystals within the ultrasound transducer when strong, short electrical pulses strike them?(a) They harden(b) They melt(c) They vibrate(d) They break apart
Q: (d) 256 shades of gray
Answer: Approximately how many shades of gray are incorporated into the display of an image obtained through ultrasound?(a) 50 shades of gray(b) 100 shades of gray(c) 226 shades of gray(d) 256 shades of gray
Q: (b) The brightness of the image
Answer: What does the gain control knob adjust on the ultrasound machine?(a) The power output(b) The brightness of the image(c) The PRF scale used in PW Doppler(d) The depth of the image
Q: (c) It allows adjustment of the gain at various depths
Answer: What does the TGC or time gain compension allow on the ultrasound machine?(a) It allows the amount of time it takes sound to travel through a medium to be changed(b) It provides a faster time for clearer images with motion(c) It allows adjustment of the gain at various depths(d) None of the above
Q: (c) Wipe with a glutaraldehyde-based disinfectant
Answer: Which of the following is the proper way to disinfect an ultrasound probe?(a) Autoclave(b) Gas sterilization(c) Wipe with a glutaraldehyde-based disinfectant(d) Immerse in an alcohol-based cleaner
Q: (b) Comet tail
Answer: Which of the following ultrasound artifacts will likely be produced when the sound wave strikes a metal object or a pocket of air?(a) Edge shadowing(b) Comet tail(c) Mirror image(d) Acoustic enhancement
Q: (b) Dark gray
Answer: Which of the following is the correct definition for the ultrasound term hypoechoic?(a) Bright gray(b) Dark gray(c) White(d) Black
Q: (a) Dorsoventral
Answer: Which of the following radiographic terms describes the view when the primary x-ray beam enters the dorsal surface and exits the ventral surface of the patient?(a) Dorsoventral(b) Ventrodorsal(c) Craniocaudal(d) Caudocranial
Q: (b) Dorsal recumbency
Answer: To obtain a craniocaudal view of the tibia of a small animal, that patient should be in which of the following positions?(a) Sternal recumbency(b) Dorsal recumbency(c) Right lateral recumbency(d) Left lateral recumbency
Q: (b) 4
Answer: When using a dental x-ray unit, the end of the cone should be positioned at __________ inches from the patient’s anatomy.(a) 2(b) 4(c) 6(d) 10
Q: (d) Both
Answer: Which of the following image receptors is used in dental imaging?(a) Film(b) Phosphor plates(c) Neither(d) Both
Q: (b) Dorsopalmar
Answer: Which of the following radiographic terms describes the radiographic viewss distal to the carpus obtained by passing the primary x-ray beam from the dorsal direction to the palmar surface of the forelimb?(a) Plantar(b) Dorsopalmar(c) Palmar(d) Caudocranial
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: Which of the following is considered to be a cardinal rule for radiation protection?(a) Distance(b) Time(c) Shielding(d) All of the above
Q: (a) Dosimeter
Answer: Meters to measure the rate of exposure is also known as:(a) Dosimeter(b) Fluoroscopy(c) Collimation(d) Shielding
Q: (b) Hung up by the shoulders when not in use
Answer: Which of the following is the best method for storing lead x-ray gowns?(a) Folded and kept in a drawer to prevent overexposure(b) Hung up by the shoulders when not in use(c) Draped across the table with the tail end hanging off the side(d) None of the above
Q: (d) In a dry, cool place away from the x-ray room
Answer: Which of the following locations is best for storing a dosimeter badge?(a) In the x-ray room(b) At home with the employee(c) In a box on a window sill to receive natural light(d) In a dry, cool place away from the x-ray room
Q: (c) Every 2 years
Answer: How often should x-ray equipment in a veterinarian’s office be tested?(a) Every 6 months(b) Every year(c) Every 2 years(d) Only once when the equipment
Q: (d) All team members
Answer: All of the following people are allowed to view individual dosimetry reports, except:(a) OSHA inspector(b) Owner of the practice(c) Only the employee exposed(d) All team members
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: Which of the following can occur if DNA is affected by radiation?(a) Cell death(b) Cell damage may be obvious with portions of the DNA compromised(c) Cell may display no immediate effects, but damage may have occurred internally that will affect the individual later when mitosis occurs(d) All of the above
Q: (b) MRI
Answer: Which imaging modality is superior for demonstrating the brain and spinal cord?(a) Ultrasound(b) MRI(c) X-ray(d) Fluoroscopy
Q: (c) The potential projectile effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine
Answer: What is a major safety concern with MRI machines?(a) The amount of radiation(b) The intensity of the magnet on the patient(c) The potential effect with metallic objects within the vicinity of the machine(d) MRI machines are extremely safe and contain no safety concerns
Q: (d) Lab coat, gloves, disposable boots, and a dosimeter badge
Answer: Which of the following PPE must the handler wear when a patient is considered radioactive?(a) Lab coat only(b) Lab coat and gloves(c) Lab coat, gloves, and disposable boots(d) Lab coat, gloves, disposable boots, and a dosimeter badge
Q: (a) The direction in which the central beam anatomically enters the body parts, followed by the area of exit of the x-ray beam
Answer: Radiographic projections are named according to which of the following?(a) The direction in which the central beam anatomically eneters the body parts, followed by the area of exit of the x-ray beam(b) The direction in which the central beam anatomically leaves the body parts, followed by the area of entrance of the x-ray beam(c) The side of the patient to which the patient is closest, followed by the exposed side(d) Radiation that bounces off objects
Q: (b) Abdomen
Answer: The term “ventral recumbency” refers to the patient lying on the _____________ .(a) Back(b) Abdomen(c) Right side(d) Left side
Q: (b) Caudal
Answer: The abbreviation “Cd” in x-ray positioning refers to which of the following?(a) Cranial(b) Caudal(c) Ventral(d) Palmar
Q: (b) Nose
Answer: The term “rostral” refers to toward the ___________ .(a) Head(b) Nose(c) Tail(d) Middle
Q: (a) Left/right portions
Answer: The median plane divides the body into which of the following?(a) Left/right portions(b) Anterior/posterior portions(c) Cranial/caudal portions(d) None of the above
Q: (b) To limit the beam exposure just to the area of interest within the film
Answer: What does it mean to collimate the x-ray beam?(a) To use the highest kV possible(b) To limit the beam exposure just to the area of interest within the film(c) To allow for full exposure of the entire film(d) None of the above
Q: (a) Coxofemoral joints are superimposed
Answer: Which of the following are ways to determine if the animal is properly positioned in the lateral view?(a) Coxofemoral joints are superimposed(b) Intervertebral foramina are different sizes(c) Rib heads are perpendicular(d) Transverse processes are perpendicular at the origin from the vertebral bodies
Q: (c) Both lateral views and ventrodorsal view
Answer: If pneumonia is suspected in small animals, which of the following radiographic views ahould be performed?(a) Both lateral views(b) Dorsoventral views(c) Both lateral views and ventrodorsal view(d) Right lateral and dorsoventral views
Q: (c) 2500 millrems/Yr
Answer: What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation a person can receive in a year?(a) 1000 millirems/Yr(b) 2000 millirems/Yr(c) 2500 millirems/Yr(d) 5000 millrems/Yr
Q: (a) Ventral recumbency
Answer: When obtaining a caudocranial view of the humerus of a small animal, in which position should the animal be?(a) Ventral recumbency(b) Left lateral recumbency(c) Dorsal recumbency(d) Right lateral recumbency
Q: (b) Quality of x-ray beams
Answer: The kVp setting on an x-ray machine controls the(a) Quality of x-ray beams(b) Quantity of x-ray beams(c) Speed of electrons emitted(d) Wavelength of the beam
Q: (c) Liver
Answer: When viewing a radiograph, which organ lies in the cranial abdomen between the diaphragm and stomach in small animals?(a) Adrenal glands(b) Pancreas(c) Liver(d) Spleen
Q: (b) Quantity of x-ray beams
Answer: The milliampere-seconds (mAs) setting on an x-ray machine controls the(a) Quality of x-ray beams(b) Quantity of x-ray beams(c) Speed of electrons emitted(d) Wavelength of the beam
Q: (b) 99% : 1%
Answer: To produce x-rays, a great deal of energy in an x-ray tube is convertes into heatThe ratio of heat genrated to x-ray production is generally considered to be(a) 1% : 99%(b) 99% : 1%(c) 50% : 50%(d) 75% : 25%
Q: (c) Convert the exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver
Answer: The main purpose of the x-ray developer is to(a) Swell and soften thw emulsion(b) Reduce the unexposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver(c) Convert the exposed ailver halide crystals into black metallic silver(d) Clear away the unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals
Q: (d) Clear away the unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals
Answer: The main purpose of the x-ray fixer is to(a) Swell and soften the emulsion(b) Reduce the unexposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver(c) Convert the exposed silver halide crystals into black metallic silver(d) Clear away the unexposed, undeveloped silver halide crystals
Q: (a) Expiration for the abdomen and inspiration for the thorax
Answer: For proper radiographic exposure, a radiograph should be taken during maximum(a) Expiration for the abdomen and inspiration for the thorax(b) Expiratiom for the thorax and inspiration for the abdomen(c) Expiration for the thorax and abdomen(d) Inspiration for the thorax and abdomen
Q: (a) 1 drop / 2 sec
Answer: A cat on intravenous fluids must get 30 mL/hr of normal saline. If this cat has a drip set that provides 60 drops/mL, what should the drip rate be?(a) 1 drop / 2 sec(b) 1 drop / 6 sec(c) 3 drops / sec(d) 16 drops / sec
Q: (b) 2.5 mg
Answer: The concentration of furosemide is 5%. How many mg are in 0.5 mL?(a) 150 mg(b) 2.5 mg(c) 25 mg(d) 50 mg
Q: (b) 6 oz.
Answer: A prescription in which 3 mL of lactulose is administered orally twice daily will require how many ounces to last at least 30 days?(a) 3 oz.(b) 6 oz.(c) 90 oz.(d) 180 oz.
Q: (d) 100 mL
Answer: How many mL of 50% dextrose solution are needed to make 1000 mL of a 5% dextrose solution?(a) 1 mL(b) 10 mL(c) 50 mL(d) 100 mL
Q: (d) 50 mL
Answer: One gram of powdered drug diluted with how many mL of sterile water will make a concentratiom of 20 mg/mL?(a) 0.05 mL(b) 0.2 mL(c) 100 mL(d) 50 mL
Q: (d) 96 mL/hr
Answer: If a dog that receives fluids at a rate 120 mL/hr has a rate reduction of 20%, what is the new rate in mL/hr?(a) 1.6 mL/hr(b) 0.4 mL/hr(c) 24 mL/hr(d) 96 mL/hr
Q: (c) 0.5 mg/kg
Answer: You give 5 mg of a drug to a 10 kg animal. What is the dose of the drug in mg/kg?(a) 2 mg/kg(b) 10 mg/kg(c) 0.5 mg/kg(d) 50 mg/kg
Q: (b) 22.7 mg
Answer: A 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam is to be administered to a 50 lb dog. How many mg will he be given?(a) 50 mg(b) 22.7 mg(c) 500 mg(d) 2.27 mg
Q: (c) 4
Answer: A cat with a gastrotomy tube must receive 300 kcal daily. A 15 oz can of the prescribed diet has 1500 kcal. The prescribed diet must be diluted 50:50 with water to flow through the tube, and a maximum of 45 mL can be administered at one feeding. Approximately how many feedings does this cat need daily?(a) 10(b) 8(c) 4(d) 2
Q: (b) 20
Answer: A diagnostic laboratory requires 1 mL of serum to run a chemistry panel. A bird with a PCV of 50% would need how many full HCT tubes collected to have enough serum for the panel? (Each HCT tube holds 0.1 mL of whole blood.)(a) 100(b) 20(c) 10(d) 5
Q: (a) 4 bottles
Answer: You need to deworm 100 head of cattle with a pour-on product that is applied at a rate of 1 mL/100 lb and is sold in 250 mL bottles. The cattle weigh 825 to 1050 lb each. Approximately how many bottles of dewormer should you purchase?(a) 4 bottles(b) 8 bottles(c) 10 bottles(d) 16 bottles
Q: (d) 99
Answer: A 45 kg animal weighs how many pounds?(a) 2.2(b) 20(c) 45(d) 99
Q: (b) Liver
Answer: Decreased function of what organ would have the greatest effect on biotransformation of most drugs?(a) Kidney(b) Liver(c) Pancreas(d) Spleen
Q: (d) Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone
Answer: A prescription reads “2 tab q4h po prn until gone.” The translation of these instructions is:(a) Two tablets are to be taken four times pwr day for pain until all tablets are gone(b) Two tablets are to be taken four times per day under supervision by the veterinarian until all tablets are gone(c) Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr with food and water until all tablets are gone(d) Two tablets are to be taken every 4 hr by mouth as needed until all tablets are gone
Q: (b) Acetaminophen
Answer: The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is extremely toxic to cats is:(a) Aspirin(b) Acetaminophen(c) Carprofen(d) Flunixin
Q: (c) Penicillins
Answer: Cephalosporins are closely related to what other drug class?(a) Tetracyclines(b) Suflas(c) Penicillins(d) Fluoroquinolones
Q: (d) Chloramphenicol
Answer: The antibiotic that should be avoided in all food-producing animals is:(a) Lincosamides(b) Cephalexin(c) Enrofloxacin(d) Chloramphenicol
Q: `(c) Is used to prevent heartworm infection
Answer: Heartgard contains ivermectin, which:(a) Prevents dogs from developing congestive heart failure(b) Is also effective in treating tapeworms(c) Is used to prevent heartworm infection(d) Can be administered orally only
Q: (c) Doxapram HCl
Answer: Dr. Charles is performing a C-section on Sadie, a 3-year old Dalmatian. The smallest pup was not breathing spontaneously, so the doctor asks you to administer which of teh following drugs as a respiratory stimulant?(a) Theophylline(b) Albuterol(c) Doxapram HCl(d) Terbutaline
Q: (a) Antitussive
Answer: Butorphanol tartrate is an example of a drug that functions on more than one body system. It is both an analgesic and a(n) _________________________ .(a) Antitussive(b) Expectorant(c) Tranquilizer(d) Emetic
Q: (c) Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells
Answer: The primary function of insulin is to:(a) Regulate the metabolic processes of the body(b) Regulate digestion through secretion of gastrointestinal hormones(c) Facilitate the entry of glucose into cells(d) Control reproductive function
Q: (a) Naloxone (Narcan)
Answer: The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is:(a) Nalaxone (Narcan)(b) Yohimbine(c) Acetylcysteine(d) Diazepam
Q: (c) Vitamin K
Answer: The antidote for warfrin poisoning is(a) Vitamin C(b) Naloxone(c) Vitamin K(d) 4-methylpyrazole
Q: (d) Inner ear and kidney
Answer: Aminoglycosides, if given at high dosages or by continuous IV infusion, cause damage to the:(a) Lungs and liver(b) Liver and inner ear(c) Kidney and liver(d) Inner ear and kidney
Q: (a) 480 mL
Answer: A 16 oz. bottle contains how many mL?(a) 480 mL(b) 240 mL(c) 40 mL(d) 1.6 mL
Q: (b) 1000 U/mL
Answer: Which of the following is a concentration of a drug solution?(a) 15 mg/kg(b) 1000 U/mL(c) 20 gr/mg(d) 250 g/lb
Q: (a) 2.0 mEq
Answer: If the potassium is labeled 5 mEq/5 mL, how many milliequivalents of potassium are delivered in 2 mL?(a) 2.0 mEq(b) 0.2 mEq(c) 20 mEq(d) 5.5 mEq
Q: (c) 250 mg of thiopentone
Answer: Ten mL of a 2.5% solution of thiopentone contains:(a) 2.5 mg of thiopentone(b) 25 mg of thiopentone(c) 250 mg of thiopentone(d) 2500 mg of thiopentone
Q: (b) Urinary tract
Answer: Because of the manner in which they are excreted, sulfonamides are often effective against infections of the:(a) Nervous tissue(b) Urinary tract(c) Skin(d) Joint capsules
Q: (c) Ketamine
Answer: The benzodiazepine derivative diazepam is often administered in combination with:(a) Droperidol(b) Morphine(c) Ketamine(d) Xylazine
Q: (d) Yohimbine
Answer: A 10 kg dog has inadvertently been administered a dose of xylazine hydrochloride for a 30 kg dog. The correct agent for this overdose is:(a) Atropine(b) Flumazenil(c) Naloxone(d) Yohimbine
Q: (c) Seizures
Answer: Which of the following is not a side-effect of sulfonamides?(a) Crystalluria(b) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca(c) Seizures(d) Thrombocytopenia
Q: (c) The abdominal cavity
Answer: If you are instructed to give a medication IP, you will inject the medication into:(a) The jugular vein(b) The popliteal artery(c) The abdominal cavity(d) A major muscle mass
Q: (c) Rottweilers
Answer: Thiobarbiturates should be administered with great care, or not at all to:(a) Collies(b) Greyhounds(c) Rottweilers(d) Spaniels
Q: (b) Rate of a contraction
Answer: A chronotropic agent affects the:(a) Force of concentration(b) Rate of a contraction(c) Rhythm of a contraction(d) Rate of relaxation
Q: (d) Sulfadimethoxine
Answer: Which of these drugs in not an antifungal drug?(a) Fluconazole(b) Clotrimazole(c) Ketoconazole(d) Sulfadimethoxine
Q: (b) 22.7 mg
Answer: A 50 lb dog is to be given a 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many milligrams should he receive?(a) 50 mg(b) 22.7 mg(c) 500 mg(d) 2.27 mg
Q: (a) Heparin
Answer: The anticoagulant diluted in saline or sterile water for injection to form a flush solution for preventing blood clots in intravenous catheters is:(a) Heparin(b) EDTA(c) Coumarin(d) Acid citrate dextrose (ACD)
Q: (d) Furosemide
Answer: The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is:(a) Mannitol(b) Spironolactone(c) Chlorothiazide(d) Furosemide
Q: (a) Increase the heart rate
Answer: The function of epinephrine is to:(a) Increase the heart rate(b) Decrease the heart rate(c) Decrease the blood pressure(d) Reverse the effects of acepromazine
Q: (a) Hydrocortisone
Answer: Glucocorticoids have different durations of activity, a fact that plays an important role i their risk of side-effects with long-term use. Which of the following has the shortest duration of activity?(a) Hydrocortisone(b) Prednisone(c) Dexamethasone(d) Triamcinolone
Q: (d) They may cause immune-system suppression
Answer: Which of the following statements about glucocorticoids is true?(a) If adverse effects are seen after long-term administration, treatment should be discontinued immediately(b) They are generally considered safer to use than NSAIDs(c)They are a type of NSAID(d) They may cause immune-system suppression
Q: (a) Prednisone
Answer: What drug is not an NSAID?(a) Prednisone(b) Flunixin(c) Phenylbutazone(d) Aspirin
Q: (d) Selamectin
Answer: A heartworm preventative that is also approved for the treatment of ear mites and sarcoptic mange is:(a) Diethylcarbamazine(b) Milbemycin(c) Ivermectin(d) Selamectin
Q: (b) Subcutaneous
Answer: In cases of uncomplicated diabetes, by what route is insulin usually administered?(a) Intramuscular(b) Subcutaneous(c) Intravenous(d) Oral
Q: (d) Protectants
Answer: Kaolin, pectin, and bismuth subsalicylate are examples of:(a) Narcotic analgesics(b) Antispasmodics(c) Anticholinergics(d) Protectants
Q: (b) Bulk laxatives
Answer: Psyllium and Metamucil are examples of:(a) Saline cathartics(b) Bulk laxatives(c) Lubricants(d) Irritant cathartics
Q: (a) Xylazine
Answer: The emetic of choice in cats is:(a) Xylazine(b) Syrup of ipecac(c) Apomorphine(d) Hydrogen peroxide
Q: (c) Apomorphine
Answer: The emetic of choice in dogs is:(a) Xylazine(b) Syrup of ipecac(c) Apomorphine(d) Hydrogen peroxide
Q: (c) Increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility
Answer: Atropine is often given as a preanesthetic agent. It is classified as an anticolinergic drug. That means that it will likely have the following effects on animals receiving the drug:(a) Decreased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility(b) Increased heart rate, increased salivation, and increased GI motility(c) Increased heart rate, decreased salivation, and decreased GI motility(d) Decreased heart rate, increased salivation, and increased GI motility
Q: (b) Decreases preload and afterload on the heart
Answer: The category of drugs classified as ACE inhibitors has which of the following effects on the body?(a) Increases preload and afterload on the heart(b) Decreases preload and afterload on the heart(c) Enhances fluid retention in the body(d) Enhances the production of angiotensin II
Q: (b) Ventricular tachycardia
Answer: Lidocaine is primarily used to control which of the following abnormalities?(a) Supraventricular bradycardia(b) Ventricular tachycardia(c) Hypertension(d) Supraventricular tachycardia
Q: (b) Iatrogenic addisonian crisis
Answer: In dogs that have been receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy (months to years), a sudden discontinuation of the drug may result in which of the following medical problems?(a) Immunosuppression(b) Iatrogenic addisonian crisis(c) Polyuria and polydipsia(d) Iatrogenic thyroid disease
Q: (c) Mannitol
Answer: Which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic and is often used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure?(a) Furosemide(b) Propranolol(c) Mannitol(d) Bethanechol
Q: (b) Cephalosporins
Answer: Which of the following antibiotics should not be given to an animal that demonstrates an allergic response to penicillin administration?(a) Clindamycin(b) Cephalosporins(c) Sulfonamides(d) Fluoroquinolones
Q: (a) CNS signs: drowsiness, ataxia, muscle tremors
Answer: Which of the following clinical signs may indicate that an animal is experiencing lidocaine toxicity?(a) CNS signs: drowsiness, ataxia, muscle tremors(b) Renal signs: oliguria(c) Heptic signs: jaundice, clotting problems(d) Respiratory signs: labored respirations, broncho constriction
Q: (d) Theophylline
Answer: An asthmatic cat may receive which of the following drugs for its bronchodilatory effect?(a) Histamine(b) Digoxin(c) Prednisone(d) Theophylline
Q: (c) Diazepam
Answer: What drug is used intravenously to treat status epilepticus?(a) Potassium bromide(b) Levetiracetam(c) Diazepam(d) Pentobarbital
Q: (b) Potassium bromide
Answer: What traditional anticonvulsant is now being used simultaneously with phenobarbital in dogs that are nonresponsive to phenobarbital alone?(a) Diazepam(b) Potassium bromide(c) Phenytoin(d) Strychnine
Q: (d) Cause bronchodilation
Answer: What effect do beta-receptor antagonists have on the respiratory tree?(a) Increase the volume of watery secretions(b) Increase the volume of sticky mucoid secretions(c) Cause bronchocontriction(d) Cause bronchodilation
Q: (d) They decrease the force of contractions
Answer: Most drugs that control arrythmias of the heart are said to be “negative inotropes.” What does this mean?(a) They increase the heart rate(b) They decrease the heart rate(c) They increase the force of contractions(d) They decrease the force of contractions
Q: (d) Vasodilator
Answer: Captopril is an example of a(n):(a) Positive inotrope(b) Antiarrythmic(c) Bronchodilator(d) Vasodilator
Q: (b) Causes vasodilation
Answer: Nitroglycerin is sometimes used as a paste applied to the pinna or to the abdominal skin in dogs with cardiovascular disease. Nitroglycerin has what therapeutic effect?(a) Increases the strength of heart contractions(b) Causes vasodilation(c) Causes bronchoconstriction(d) Decreases the heart rate
Q: (c) Cushing’s disease
Answer: Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids can cause iatrogenic:(a) Renal failure(b) Addison’s Disease(c) Cushing’s disease(d) Johne’s Disease
Q: (b) Renal and gastrointestinal
Answer: NSAIDs are most likely to cause side effects in what two organ systems?(a) Renal and pulmonary(b) Renal and gastrointestinal(c) Pulmonary and cardiac(d) Cardiac and hepatic
Q: (b) Collie
Answer: What breed of dog has a blood-brain barrier that allows ivermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than in other breeds?(a) German shepherd(b) Collie(c) Schnauzer(d) Cocker Spaniel
Q: (b) Administer by mouth
Answer: The following information was provided for a prescription written by a veterinarian “Canine patient, Amoxicillin 100 mg tablets, Sig: 1 tab q8h po 2 refills. Date 1/5/16.” In the prescription, what does po mean?(a) Administer every other day(b) Administer by mouth(c) Administer as needed(d) Administer on an empty stomach
Q: (c) Three times
Answer: In the prescription described in question 67, how many times a day is this medication to be given?(a) Once(b) Twice(c) Three times(d) Four times
Q: (b) Right eye and left eye
Answer: The abbreviations od and os on a prescription refer to:(a) Administer by mouth and by rectum(b) Right eye and left eye(c) Administer every other day and every 3 days(d) Administer with food and without food
Q: (b) 15
Answer: How many cubic centimeters are in a tablespoon?(a) 5(b) 15(c) 25(d) 30
Q: (b) Antineoplastic
Answer: What class of drugs generally poses the greatest potential health threat to those handling the medication?(a) Antibiotic(b) Antineoplastic(c) Antinematodal(d) Antiprotozoal
Q: (d) Joint
Answer: Drugs that are administered intra-articularly are injected into the:(a) Bone marrow(b) Subdural space(c) Heart(d) Joint
Q: (a) Alfaxalone
Answer: Which of the following medications was approved for use in the United States in 2014 and is being compared to propofol?(a) Alfaxalone(b) Etomidate(c) Thiopental(d) Telazol
Q: (b) Cerenia
Answer: Maropitant is the active ingredient in:(a) Carafate(b) Cerenia(c) Flagyl(d) Reglan
Q: (a) Keppra
Answer: Levetriacetum is the active ingredient in:(a) Keppra(b) Valium(c) Luminal(d) Zonegram
Q: (b) Inhibiting DNA
Answer: The mode of action in which enrofloxacin works by is:(a) Inhibiting cell wall synthesis(b) Inhibiting DNA(c) Inhibiting protein synthesis(d) Inhibiting the metabolic pathway
Q: (a) Peak
Answer: With regard to plasma concentration of a drug, what is the highest point in the concentration called?(a) Peak(b) Max(c) Trough(d) Min
Q: (d) Midazolam
Answer: Which of the following is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer?(a) Fentanyl(b) Ketamine(c) Medetomidine(d) Midazolam
Q: (b) Phenobarbital
Answer: Which of the following antiseizure medications should be avoided in a patient with existing liver disease?(a) Levetiracetum(b) Phenobarbital(c) Potassium bromide(d) Gabapentin
Q: (c) Bradycardia
Answer: Anticholinergic drugs are used for:(a) Tachycardia(b) Tachypnea(c) Brachycardia(d) Bradypnea
Q: (c) It suppresses the immune system, leading to an increased chance of infection
Answer: Which of the following is a true effect of pain?(a) It prevents further patient harm by preventing movement(b) It places the animal in an anabolic state, leading to weight gain(c) It suppresses the immune system, leading to an increased chance of infection(d) It promotes inflammation and increases the healing rate
Q: (d) OU
Answer: To fill prescriptions or administer a medication, technicians must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which of the following abbreviation indicates a medication that is to be applied to both eyes?(a) AU(b) OD(c) OS(d) OU
Q: (d) All aspects of the exam should be examined in the same order whenever possible
Answer: When performing a physical exam on a patient:(a) It is only necessary to examine the body part that is of concern to the client(b) Always start at the rear of the patient(c) Always start with the patient’s head(d) All aspects of the exam should be examined in the same order whenever possible
Q: (a) Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception
Answer: The proper pathway in which an animal perceives pain is:(a) Transduction, transmission, modulation, perception(b) Transmission, modulation, transduction, perception(c) Perception, transmission, modulation, transduction(d) Transduction, transmission, perception, modulation
Q: (c) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: Which of the following endocrine diseases results in weight loss and ravenous appetite in cats?(a) Hyperadrenocorticism(b) Hypoadrenocorticism(c) Hyperthyroidism(d) Hypothyroidism
Q: (d) Hypothyroidism
Answer: Which of the following endocrine diseases results in weight gain, bradycardia, exercise intolerance, and lethargy in a dog?(a) Hyperadrenocorticism(b) Hypoadrenocorticism(c) Hyperthyroidism(d) Hypothyroidism
Q: (d) 140-220 bpm
Answer: The normal heart rate for a feline patient ranges from:(a) 16-32 bpm(b) 20-42 bpm(c) 60-160 bpm(d) 140-220 bpm
Q: (a) Regurgitation
Answer: Which of the following is the passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, or esophagus?(a) Regurgitation(b) Vomiting(c) Hematemesis(d) Hypersalivation
Q: (b) Dehydration
Answer: A patient with an increased packed cell volume (PCV) and an elevated total solids (TS) is likely suffering from:(a) Protein loss(b) Dehydration(c) Anemia(d) Poor perfusion
Q: (a) SID
Answer: When filling a prescription or administering a medication to a patient, the technician must be familiar with medical abbreviations. Which of the following abbreviations indicates a medication is to be given once per 24 hours?(a) SID(b) TID(c) QID(d) QOD
Q: (b) Bladder expression
Answer: Which of the following is a nursing intervention to allow a neurologic patient to void urine?(a) Antonic bladder(b) Bladder expression(c) Bladder palpation(d) Distention urination
Q: (b) Hetastarch
Answer: Colloid solutions are used for expansion of the patient’s plasma volume. Which of these fluid types is a colloid?(a) Dextrose 5% in water(b) Hetastarch(c) Lactated Ringer’s solution(d) Normosol R
Q: (d) Sodium bicarbonate
Answer: Which of the following is an alkalizing agent that may be added to intravenous fluids to correct metabolic acidosis?(a) Calcium chloride(b) Calcium gluconate(c) Potassium chloride(d) Sodium bicarbonate
Q: (c) Passive acquirement of immunoglobulins strengthens the immune system
Answer: Consumption of colostrum after being born is important to a neonate’s health because:(a) The neonate immediately requires calories to start growing(b) Colostrum strengthens the bond between mother and neonate(c) Passive acquirement of immunoglobulins strengthens the immune system(d) Colostrum has a palatable taste that encourages neonates to continue suckling
Q: (a) D5W
Answer: Which of the following is least useful when resuscitating a dog in shock?(a) D5W(b) Hetastarch(c) Hypertonic saline(d) Plasma-Lyte 48
Q: (c) Leptospirosis
Answer: Which of the following is considered a zoonotic disease?(a) Cholangiohepatitis(b) Infectious canine hepatitis(c) Leptospirosis(d) Toxin-induced lever disease
Q: (b) Hyperemic
Answer: The mucous membranes of a dog in septic shock are(a) Cyanotic(b) Hyperemic(c) Icteric(d) Pale
Q: (a) Cardiac
Answer: The underlying disease for most cases of feline aortic thromboembolism is _______________ is origin:(a) Cardiac(b) Hepatic(c) Renal(d) Respiratory
Q: (d) Mannitol
Answer: To reduce intracranial pressure that results from trauma, ___________ may be administered every 4 to 8 hours.(a) Atropine(b) Dexamethasone(c) Diazepam(d) Mannitol
Q: (a) Dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration
Answer: Four patients present at the same time with emergency conditions. In which order should the patients be triaged?(a) Dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration(b) Proptosis, dyspnea, dystocia, laceration(c) Laceration, dystocia, dyspnea, proptosis(d) Dystocia, proptosis, laceration, dyspnea
Q: (a) Catheter site infection
Answer: What does redness, swelling, and purulent discharge from an IV catheter site indicate?(a) Catheter site infection(b) Catheter leakage(c) Catheter occlusion(d) Normal insertion site
Q: (b) Feeding a bland, low-fat diet
Answer: Treatment of acute pancreatitis includes administration of intravenous fluid therapy, analgesics, antiemetics, mucosal protectants, and antibiotics to prevent seconadary sepsis. Treatment also includes which of the following?(a) Feeding a low-protein, high fat diet(b) Feeding a bland, low-fat diet(c) Feeding a low-carbohydrate, high-fat diet(d) Feeding a diet high in fat and calories
Q: (a) Pale, prolonged
Answer: Which of the following choices characterizes the mucous membrane color and capillary refill time in a patient in hypovolemic shock?(a) Pale, prolonged(b) Pink, normal(c) Red, rapid(d) Yellow, normal
Q: (d) Yersinia pestis
Answer: Which of the following is a zoonotic disease that is spread by fleas(a) Borrelia burgdorferi(b) Rickettsia rickettsia(c) Ehrlichia(d) Yersinia pestis
Q: (c) Orthopedic and abdominal/colic pain
Answer: The most common types of pain experienced by horses are:(a) Ocular and head pain(b) Spine and pelvic pain(c) Orthopedic and abdominal/colic pain(d) Foot and dental pain
Q: (a) Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal
Answer: A proptosed globe:(a) Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal(b) Is not considered an emergency(c) Can most easily occur in dolichocephalic breeds, such as collies(d) Is commonly a consequence of conjunctivitis
Q: (d) Pneumothorax
Answer: A chest tube is placed when an animal has:(a) Subcutaneous emphysema(b) Pulmonary edema(c) Ascites(d) Pneumothorax
Q: (c) Pupil
Answer: What part of the eye can be used to indicate fluid overload?(a) Conjunctiva(b) Lens(c) Pupil(d) Nictitating membrane
Q: (c) Cerebral edema
Answer: Rapid fluid replacement with crystalloids is contraindicated in conditions of:(a) Severe dehydration(b) Shock(c) Cerebral edema(d) Renal failure
Q: (d) Isotonic
Answer: Fluid-therapy solutions administered subcutaneously are:(a) Colloids(b) Hypertonic(c) Hypotonic(d) Isotonic
Q: (b) Direct pressure
Answer: Which of the follwoing methods for controlling hemorrhage from a traumatic wound is least likely to cause further damage to the animal?(a) Clamping the wound with a hemostat(b) Direct pressure(c) Tourniquet(d) Applying silver nitrate
Q: (b) Dog in respiratory distress
Answer: According to the principles of triage, which patient should be the veterinarian see first?(a) Cat with a closed fracture(b) Dog in respiratory distress(c) Dog with otitis externa(d) Cat with a small laceration on a paw pad
Q: (b) Dog with acute gastric dilation/volvulus
Answer: According to the principles of triage, which patient should see a veterinarian first?(a) Dog with a small laceration(b) Dog with acute gastric dilation/volvulus(c) Cat with dystocia, not in shock, no kitten in birth canal(d) Cat with possible linear foreign body in the bowel
Q: (d) Profuse diarrhea
Answer: What is not usually a sign of acute gastric dilation/volvulus?(a) Unproductive vomiting(b) Hypersalivation(c) Abdominal distension(d) Profuse diarrhea
Q: (d) Pulmonary edema
Answer: Crackles on thoracic auscultation indicate:(a) Asthma(b) Pleural effusion(c) Pneumothorax(d) Pulmonary edema
Q: (b) Urethral obstruction
Answer: A client describes his male cat as lethargic and constipated; he has observed the cat straining in the litter box. You suspected the cat is actually suffering from:(a) Peritonitis(b) Urethral obstruction(c) Intestinal obstruction(d) An upper respiratory viral infection
Q: (a) Hemolysis
Answer: Serum centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube characterized by varying degrees of redness is likely a result of:(a) Hemolysis(b) Hyperproteinemia(c) Icterus(d) Lipemia
Q: (b) Ask open-ended questions
Answer: When obtaining a patient history, it is important to:(a) Ask leading questions to save time and keep on schedule(b) Ask open-ended questions(c) Always use medical terms(d) Ask leading questions when you already know what the problem is
Q: (a) Always auscult the heart while palpating the pulse
Answer: When performing a TPR on a patient, you should:(a) Always auscult the heart while palpating the pulse(b) Palpate the patient’s pulse while taking its temperature(c) Always auscult the heart because the pulse rate may be lower than the heart rate(d) Auscult the heart if the patient does not like you to touch its legs
Q: (c) Pulse quality
Answer: Weak, moderate, strong, bounding, or tall are terms often used to describe the patient’s:(a) Attitude(b) Respiration quality(c) Pulse quality(d) Blood pressure
Q: (c) Low blood oxygen levels
Answer: Hypoxemia is defined as:(a) A decreased circulating blood volume(b) Low blood oxygen levels(c) Low tissue oxygen levels(d) An increase in circulating fluid in the body
Q: (d) Use chemical agents for restraint
Answer: Which of the following is an appropriate method for restraining an animal that does not respond well to gentle words and handling?(a) Force the patient down and proceed with the procedure without full control(b) Recruit help from the owner for physical restraint(c) Running the patient around until it is too tired to struggle(d) Use chemical agents for restraint
Q: (a) Isotonic
Answer: An intravenously delivered solution that distributes evenly throughout the interstitial and intravascular space is considered:(a) Isotonic(b) Hypotonic(c) Hypertonic(d) 0.45% sodium chloride
Q: (a) Fat and lactose
Answer: The gastrointestinal tracts of newborn puppies and kittens are uniquely suited to digest and absorb the milk produced by their mothers. The primary source of energy in this milk is:(a) Fat and lactose(b) Fat and protein(c) Lactose and protein(d) Protein and starch
Q: (d) Kilogram
Answer: Which of the following is the largest unit of measure?(a) Microgram(b) Milligam(c) Gram(d) Kilogram
Q: (a) Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase
Answer: Which of the following is the correct progression of wound healing?(a) Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, maturation phase(b) Inflammatory phase, proliferative phase, granulation phase, maturation phase(c) Proliferative phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase(d) Proliferative phase, granulation phase, inflammatory phase, maturation phase
Q: (a) 16 gauge
Answer: Which of the following needle sizes has the largest inside diameter?(a) 16 gauge(b) 18 gauge(c) 20 gauge(d) 22 gauge
Q: (b) Physiologic pain
Answer: Which of the following is a type of pain that can be beneficial in that it can allow the animal to avoid damaging stimuli?(a) Neuropathic pain(b) Physiologic pain(c) Somatic pain(d) Visceral pain
Q: (b) Brachygnathism
Answer: The term that best describes a dog with an abnormally short mandible is:(a) Prognathism(b) Brachygnathism(c) Mesaticephalic(d) Dolichocephalic
Q: (b) Acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis
Answer: A common clinical sign of saddle thrombus in the cat is:(a) Acute onset of front leg pain and paresis(b) Acute onset of rear leg pain and paresis(c) Bright red footpads(d) Bounding pulses in the rear limbs
Q: (d) Palpation
Answer: Which of the following is defined as the assessment of the patient through the tactile senses of one’s hands and fingers?(a) Auscultation(b) Centrifugation(c) Mentation(d) Palpation
Q: (d) Owner’s presenting complaint and description of history should be taken
Answer: Which of the following points are true in gathering patient data during the nursing process?(a) Past medical history should be ignored because the presenting problem might not be related(b) Consulting the veterinarian is unnecessary for a veterinary technician to assess a patient(c) The physical exam should be focused on the area of concern for efficiency(d) Owner’s presenting complaint and description of history should be taken
Q: (d) Lipemia
Answer: Serum centrifuged in a hematocrit tube characterized as turbid and white in color is called:(a) Hemolysis(b) Hyperproteinemia(c) Icterus(d) Lipemia
Q: (b) Dehydration
Answer: In a patient, what does an elevated total protein measurement accompanied by elevated packed cell volume likely indicate?(a) Anemia(b) Dehydration(c) Hemorrhage(d) Red blood cell transfusion
Q: (a) 0-5 cm H2O
Answer: A normal central venous pressure (CVP) range is:(a) 0-5 cm H2O(b) 5-10 cm H2O(c) 10-15 cm H2O(d) 15-20 cm H2O
Q: (b) 1-2 mL/kg/hr
Answer: When monitoring patients on fluids and/or patients that undergo diresis, urine output is an important consideration. The normal urine production for a healthy dog or cat is approximately:(a) 0-1 mL/kg/hr(b) 1-2 mL/kg/hr(c) 2-3 mL/kg/hr(d) 3-4 mL/kg/hr
Q: (a) Borborygmus
Answer: On auscultation of the ventral side of the abdomen, which of the following is a normal finding?(a) Borborygmus(b) Crackles(c) No audible sound(d) Stertor
Q: (c) Vitamin C
Answer: Most vitamins cannot be synthesized by the body and must be supplied in food. Well-balanced pet foods are formulated to provide the necessary supplementation. What is the one vitamin that can be synthesized from glucose by dogs and cats?(a) Vitamin A(b) Vitamin B6(c) Vitamin C(d) Vitamin K
Q: (b) Elevated diastolic blood pressure
Answer: When palpating pulses, what do bounding pulses indicate?(a) Adequate cardiovascular function(b) Elevated diastolic blood pressure(c) Elevated pulse pressure(d) Elevated mean arterial pressure
Q: (a) Increased urine UG and increased PCV
Answer: With significant dehydration in an otherwise healthy patient, which of the following would likely be seen on a urinalysis and CBC?(a) Increased urine UG and increased PCV(b) Increased urine SG and decreased PCV(c) Decreased urine SG and decreased PCV(d) Decreased urine SG and increased PCV
Q: (d) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: Ketonuria is most commonly associated with what condition?(a) Liver disease(b) Urinary tract infection(c) Renal failure(d) Diabetes mellitus
Q: (c) Kidney disease
Answer: The presence of protein in the urine may indicate:(a) Acid-base imbalance(b) Hemolytic anemia(c) Kidney disease(d) Diabetes mellitus
Q: (d) Vomiting
Answer: The forceful expulsion of stomach contents that requires abdominal contractions is:(a) Cachexia(b) Cathartics(c) Regurgitation(d) Vomiting
Q: (a) Hematemesis
Answer: If the patient is vomiting fresh or digested blood, this is termed:(a) Hematemesis(b) Hematochezia(c) Hematuria(d) Hemoabdomen
Q: (d) Subcutaneous
Answer: Which of the following is the least effective method for delivering fluids to a 12% dehydrated patient?(a) Central intravenous(b) Intraosseous(c) Peripheral intravenous(d) Subcutaneous
Q: (d) Sunken in the socket
Answer: How does marked dehydration affect an animal’s eye?(a) Lateral nystagmus(b) Pinpoint pupils(c) Rotated ventrally(d) Sunken in the socket
Q: (a) Rotenticide poisoning
Answer: Coagulation tests are useful for diagnosing:(a) Rodenticide poisoning(b) Thyroid function(c) Adrenal function(d) Ethylene glycol poisoning
Q: (b) Hyperbilirubinemia
Answer: What is the underlying cause of icterus?(a) Anemia(b) Hyperbilirubinemia(c) Ketonuria(d) Hyperhemoglobinemia
Q: (c) Hemolytic
Answer: What type of anemia is associated with icterus?(a) Responsive(b) Nonresponsive(c) Hemolytic(d) Megaloblastic
Q: (d) Restoring loss of kidney function
Answer: Goals for the management of chronic kidney disease include all of the following except:(a) Slowing progression of the disease(b) Treating concurrent disease(c) Correcting electrolyte imbalances(d) Restoring loss of kidney function
Q: (c) Thrombocytosis
Answer: Signs of immune-mediated thombocytopenia (ITP) include all of the following conditions except:(a) Petechiae(b) Eccymoses(c) Thrombocytosis(d) Anemia
Q: (c) Pyrexia
Answer: Inflammation, infection, sepsis, neoplasia, and reaction to transfusion of blood products are common causes of:(a) Hyperthermia(b) Hypothermia(c) Pyrexia(d) Pyridoxine
Q: (b) Isotonic crystalloid
Answer: Which of the following types of fluids is used most commonly to replace intravascular volume?(a) Hypertonic crystalloid(b) Isotonic crystalloid(c) Synthetic colloid(d) Whole blood
Q: (b) The production of excessive amount of urine
Answer: Polyuria is:(a) A lack of urine production(b) The production of excessive amounts of urine(c) A lack of water intake(d) Excessive protein in the urine
Q: (b) Diabetes mellitus
Answer: Urinary tract infection is a common secondary complication in cats and dogs with:(a) Congestive heart failure(b) Diabetes mellitus(c) Hepatic lipidosis(d) Hyperthyroidism
Q: (a) Erythrocytes
Answer: Hemolytic anemia is characterized by the destruction of:(a) Erythrocytes(b) Leukocytes(c) Lymphocytes(d) Monocytes
Q: (d) Osteosarcoma
Answer: Visceral pain is common among companion animals. Which of the following is not an example of a cause of visceral pain?(a) Pancreatitis(b) Gastroenteritis(c) Bowel ischemia(d) Osteosarcoma
Q: (c) a and b
Answer: Treatment for joint mobility includes:(a) ROM exercises(b) Stretching exercises(c) a and b(d) None of the above
Q: (a) Reduced appetite
Answer: All of theses are typical clinical signs of advanced arthritis in dogs except:(a) Reduced appetite(b) Stiffness(c) Lameness(d) Difficulty in risin
Q: (c) Cravings for eating unusual food or objects
Answer: Pica is a term used to describe:(a) A partial reduction in appetite(b) Ingestion of an animal’s own feces(c) Cravings for eating unusual food or objects(d) Loss of desire to eat
Q: (a) Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis
Answer: Which of the following describes a patient suffering from mastitis?(a) Hard, painful nipple, and galactostasis(b) Hypocalcemia, muscle spasms, fever, tachycardia, and seizures(c) In hard labor for 30 to 60 minutes with no new young produced(d) Vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, polyuria, and polydipsia
Q: (a) From animals to humans
Answer: Which of the following describes the transmission path of zoonotic disease?(a) From animals to humans(b) From animals to animals(c) From humans to humans(d) From humans to zoos
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: Which of the following routes may expose veterinary technicians to organisms that cause disease?(a) Inhalation(b) Ingestion(c) Needle sticks(d) All of the above
Q: (b) Portosystemic shunt
Answer: A vascular abnormality in which the hepatic portal vein empties directly into the caudal vena cava is:(a) Hepatic lipidosis(b) Portosystemic shunt(c) Cardiomyopathy(d) Aortic stenosis
Q: (c) Traumatic reticuloperitonitis
Answer: Hardware disease in ruminants is also known as:(a) Grain overload(b) Rumen tympany(c) Traumatic reticuloperitonitis(d) Polioencephalomalacia
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: Chronic renal disease is one of the diseases seen most commonly in geriatric patients, especially in cats. In addition to causing increased polyuria and polydipsia, renal disease may also cause:(a) Anemia(b) Anorexia(c) Gastric upset(d) All of the above
Q: (b) 63 days
Answer: The typical gestation period for dogs is:(a) 42 days(b) 63 days(c) 114 days(d) 147 days
Q: (b) Thermoregulate
Answer: Swine wallow in mud to:(a) Forage for food(b) Thermoregulate(c) Remove parasites(d) Prevent sunburn
Q: (c) Farrowing
Answer: The process of giving birth to pigs is referred to as:(a) Stag(b) Freshening(c) Farrowing(d) Kidding
Q: (d) All of the above
Answer: Dehydration is frequently encountered in patients suffering from GI disorders. Which of the following factors causes this?(a) Reduced oral water consumption(b) Vomiting(c) Diarrhea(d) All of the above
Q: A vial of penicillin contains 2,000,000 units of the dry drug. To make the penicillin into a solution that contains 400,000 units per milliliter, how much diluent is needed?A. 2 mLB. 4 mLC. 5 mLD. 10 mL
Answer: C. 5 mL
Q: When an anesthetized patient is to be placed on a circular or semiclosed anesthesia circuit, the correct reservoir bag size is determined by using which of the following?A. 60 mL/lb/minB. 60 mL/lbC. 60 mL/kgD. 60 mL/kg/min
Answer: C. 60 mL/kg
Q: It is necessary to immunize ferrets against:A. feline panleukopenia.B. feline rhinotracheitis.C. canine hepatitis.D. canine distemper.
Answer: D. canine distemper.
Q: Endotracheal intubation of the horse is usually performed:A. blindly.B. with the aid of a laryngoscope.C. by palpation of the larynx.D. with direct visualization of the larynx.
Answer: A. blindly
Q: In an anesthetized patient, hypocarbia (hypocapnia) could be attributed to:A. exhausted soda lime.B. low respiratory rate.C. excess artificial ventilation.D. kinked endotracheal tube.
Answer: C. excess artificial ventilation.
Q: Which solution is contraindicated as a surgical prep if electrocautery is being used during the procedure?A. Povidone iodineB. HexachloropheneC. Isopropyl alcoholD. Chlorhexidine
Answer: C. Isopropyl alcohol
Q: Ivermectin is classified as which type of agent?A. FungicideB. AnthelminticC. AntibioticD. Disinfectant
Answer: B. Anthelmintic
Q: When discharging a patient that is wearing a fentanyl patch, instructions to the owners should include:A. skin irritation from the patch is considered a normal reaction.B. proper use and disposal of the patch.C. duration of pain control is 24 hours.D. gloves are not necessary when handling the patch.
Answer: B. proper use and disposal of the patch.
Q: Acepromazine is classified as a/an:A. neuroleptanalgesic.B. anticholinergic.C. dissociative.D. tranquilizer.
Answer: D. tranquilizer.
Q: The correct names of the four valves of the heart are:A. pulmonic, systolic, atrial, and tricuspid.B. mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid.C. aortic, diastolic, septal, and mitral.D. mitral, pulmonic, atrial, and tricuspid.
Answer: B. mitral, pulmonic, aortic, and tricuspid.
Q: If anaphylaxis occurs after the administration of any vaccine or drug, which drug will best reverse the effect of shock?A. AntihistaminesB. EpinephrineC. DoxapramD. Dexamethasone
Answer: B. Epinephrine
Q: In treating hypovolemic shock in the canine, the most important form of therapy is to:A. administer IV fluids.B. inject corticosteroids.C. keep the patient warm.D. give analgesics.
Answer: A. administer IV fluids
Q: Which of the following is the smallest suture?A. #1B. 0C. 3-0D. 5-0
Answer: D. 5-0
Q: When a patient shows clinical signs of dyspnea and cyanosis, the technician should check for:A. ataxia.B. hypothermia.C. respiratory obstruction.D. urethral obstruction.
Answer: C. respiratory obstruction.
Q: For a 20-kg dog that is 5% dehydrated, how much fluid replacement is required?A. 250 mLB. 500 mLC. 1000 mLD. 2000 mL
Answer: C. 1000 mL
Q: A vial containing 1 gram of medication has to be reconstituted to a 2.5% solution (w/v). What volume of diluent is needed and what concentration will result?A. 25 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/LB. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 2.5 mg/LC. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 4 mg/mLD. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL
Answer: D. 40 mL, resulting in a concentration of 25 mg/mL
Q: In the anesthetized, healthy patient, which of the following abnormalities is most commonly encountered?A. Respiratory alkalosisB. Metabolic acidosisC. Metabolic alkalosisD. Respiratory acidosis
Answer: D. Respiratory acidosis
Q: The standard culture medium used for bacterial sensitivity testing is:A. MacConkey.B. Hektoen enteric.C. Sabouraud dextrose.D. Mueller-Hinton.
Answer: D. Mueller-Hinton.
Q: The inhalant anesthetic isoflurane:A. is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container.B. is odorless.C. is flammable.D. does not vaporize at room temperature when stored in an open container.
Answer: A. is a liquid at room temperature when stored in a sealed container.
Q: For horses under anesthesia in lateral recumbency, padding and positioning of the front legs and head is important to prevent:A. decubital sores.B. granuloma.C. laminitis.D. neuromuscular damage.
Answer: D. neuromuscular damage.
Q: Adequate tissue perfusion is presumed when an animal exhibits normal:A. heart rate.B. body temperature.C. capillary refill.D. pupillary size.
Answer: C. capillary refill.
Q: Which hormone is responsible for the rupture of an ovarian follicle and the release of a mature egg from an ovary?A. Luteinizing hormoneB. EstrogenC. Follicle stimulating hormoneD. Progesterone
Answer: A. Luteinizing hormone
Q: The most profound adverse effect of the opioid drugs is:A. respiratory depression.B. decreased heart rate.C. bowel hypermotility.D. decreased blood pressure
Answer: A. respiratory depression.
Q: How long is the gestation period in the mare?A. 112 – 115 daysB. 148 – 156 daysC. 280 – 290 daysD. 326 – 354 days
Answer: D. 326 – 354 days
Q: Inanimate objects contaminated with pathogens are referred to as:A. carriers.B. hosts.C. fomites.D. vectors.
Answer: C. fomites.
Q: Which of the following parasites requires an intermediate host in order to complete the life cycle?A. AscaridB. HookwormC. CoccidiaD. Heartworm
Answer: D. Heartworm
Q: Basophilic stippling of RBCs is a characteristic finding in:A. lead poisoning in dogs.B. anemia in horses.C. acetaminophen toxicity in cats.D. healthy avian blood.
Answer: A. lead poisoning in dogs.
Q: An effective drug for treating anaphylaxis is:A. calcium gluconate.B. piperazine.C. procaine.D. epinephrine.
Answer: D. epinephrine.
Q: If a horse is given 825 mL of a 10% solution of guaifenesin, the amount in grams of guaifenesin given is:A. 0.825 gB. 8.25 gC. 82.5 gD. 825 g
Answer: C. 82.5 g
Q: Which of the following does not increase radiographic density?A. Increased kVpB. Increased distance from targetC. Increased developing timeD. Increased developing temperature
Answer: B. Increased distance from target
Q: Anemia due to the lack of iron and chronic blood loss are classified as:A. microcytic, hypochromic.B. macrocytic, polychromatic.C. macrocytic, hypochromic.D. microcytic, polychromatic.
Answer: A. microcytic, hypochromic.
Q: Bordetella vaccine is given to dogs to prevent:A. Lyme disease.B. parainfluenza.C. distemper.D. tracheobronchitis.
Answer: D. tracheobronchitis.
Q: Which type of suture material is more likely to “wick” fluid along it and therefore, should not be used in a contaminated environment?A. CatgutB. MonofilamentC. Stainless steelD. Braided polyglactin 910
Answer: D. Braided polyglactin 910
Q: A palpebral reflex is checked at the:A. pupil.B. foot.C. eyelid.D. throat.
Answer: C. eyelid.
Q: Which of the following is the most likely complication of endotracheal tube cuff overinflation during lengthy anesthesia?A. Air leakage from the cuffB. Cuff rotation within the tracheaC. Tissue necrosisD. Cuff wear and tear
Answer: C. Tissue necrosis
Q: What is the advantage of using a narcotic as a premedication?A. Increased analgesiaB. Increased blood pressureC. Decreased salivationD. Decreased respirations
Answer: A. Increased analgesia
Q: In cattle, an increase in fibrinogen relative to the other plasma proteins is most likely to be due to:A. estrus.B. inflammation.C. ketosis.D. pregnancy.
Answer: B. inflammation.
Q: When skeletal muscles are not being used, or when they lose their nerve supply, they tend to:A. hypertrophy.B. atrophy.C. necrose.D. dystrophy.
Answer: B. atrophy.
Q: In radiographic terminology, to which of the following does the term density refer?A. The difference in anatomical detail observable between two areas on the radiographB. The concentration of X rays producedC. The thickness of the radiographD. The degree of blackness of the radiograph
Answer: D. The degree of blackness of the radiograph
Q: Butorphanol tartrate has been prescribed for a Pomeranian with a collapsed trachea. The client should be cautioned that a common side effect of this drug is:A. hyperventilation.B. tachycardia.C. polydipsia.D. sedation.
Answer: D. sedation.
Q: The primary function of the segmented neutrophil is:A. to remove histamine from the tissues.B. the phagocytosis of small particles.C. the antigen/antibody response.D. to transport oxygen to the tissues.
Answer: B. the phagocytosis of small particles.
Q: The contrast media that are most used in veterinary radiography are iodine, barium sulfate, and:A. water.B. urine.C. air.D. feces.
Answer: C. air.
Q: Cells that line the thoracic, pericardial, and abdominal cavities are known as:A. mast cells.B. macrophages.C. Schwann cells.D. mesothelial cells.
Answer: D. mesothelial cells.
Q: Constant Rate Infusion (CRI) of an analgesic:A. rarely requires a loading dose.B. is administered in large amounts over a short period of time.C. avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection.D. provides excellent analgesia in dogs but not in cats.
Answer: C. avoids peaks and valleys normally seen with a bolus injection.
Q: Which of the following instruments is used for removing subgingival plaque?A. CuretteB. ElevatorC. ScalerD. Calculus forceps
Answer: A. Curette
Q: A correct statement about vaccines is that they contain:A. antibodies.B. T-lymphocytes.C. B-lymphocytes.D. antigens.
Answer: D. antigens.
Q: Which of the following is the common name of the first upper premolar tooth in the horse?A. IncisorB. CanineC. WolfD. Carnassial
Answer: C. Wolf
Q: A rising antibody titer in paired serum samples taken 2 weeks apart indicates a:A. latent infection.B. lack of infection.C. past infection.D. recent infection.
Answer: D. recent infection.
Q: Which surface of the tooth meets the opposite tooth during mastication?A. LingualB. BuccalC. OcclusalD. Labial
Answer: C. Occlusal
Q: How many grams of sodium chloride should be dissolved in 1.5 L of water to make a 12% solution?A. 1.8 gB. 18 gC. 180 gD. 1800 g
Answer: C. 180 g
Q: Which of the following forceps do veterinary surgeons most often use to aid in suturing?A. KellyB. AdsonC. HalstedD. Babcock
Answer: B. Adson
Q: Which of the following is an analgesic drug commonly administered via a transdermal patch?A. OxymorphoneB. MeloxicamC. XylazineD. Fentanyl
Answer: D. Fentanyl
Q: The term that is used to describe the removal of the dorsal, bony roof of the spinal canal is:A. myectomy.B. laminectomy.C. neurectomy.D. caudectomy.
Answer: B. laminectomy.
Q: Onychectomy is correctly defined as the surgical removal of:A. ovaries.B. tonsils.C. testicles.D. claws.
Answer: D. claws.
Q: A decrease in RBC size observed during a CBC should be noted as:A. hypochromasia.B. macrocytosis.C. normocytosis.D. microcytosis.
Answer: D. microcytosis.
Q: Hypocalcemia is commonly seen in:A. lactating animals.B. the second trimester of pregnancy.C. unweaned animals.D. animals exhibiting lactose intolerance.
Answer: A. lactating animals.
Q: The lingual surface of the tooth is closest to the:A. cheek.B. tongue.C. palate.D. lips.
Answer: B. tongue.
Q: For a midline ovariohysterectomy, the patient is positioned in which type of recumbency?A. Left lateralB. VentralC. DorsalD. Right lateral
Answer: C. Dorsal
Q: All of the following drug groups produce analgesia except:A. barbiturates.B. alpha-2 agonists.C. phenothiazines.D. opioids.
Answer: C. phenothiazines.
Q: When the veterinarian orders radiographs to investigate a suspected fracture of the left olecranon in a canine patient, the technician should radiograph the left:A. carpus.B. elbow.C. stifle.D. tarsus.
Answer: B. elbow.
Q: During surgery, an atraumatic method of hemostasis is:A. clamping with hemostatic forceps.B. wiping with gauze sponges.C. blotting with gauze sponges.D. ligation with suture material.
Answer: C. blotting with gauze sponges.
Q: After parturition, a cow may become partially or totally paralyzed with which of the following types of paralysis?A. PerinealB. ObturatorC. MedianD. Femoral
Answer: B. Obturator
Q: After Gram staining, any bacterium that looks reddish-pink under the microscope is:A. alpha-hemolytic.B. Gram-negative.C. acid-fast.D. Gram-positive.
Answer: B. Gram-negative.
Q: The primary reason that vasoconstrictors are added to local anesthetics is to:A. increase the duration of action.B. increase the area affected by the anesthetic.C. minimize toxicity.D. decrease the duration of action.
Answer: A. increase the duration of action.
Q: Which type of immunoassay typically results in the visible clumping of particles?A. Fluorescent antibody testingB. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)C. Agglutination testD. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Answer: C. Agglutination test
Q: Overinflation of an endotracheal tube cuff in the trachea of an anesthetized animal may result in:A. immediate dyspnea.B. emesis.C. laryngospasm.D. pressure necrosis.
Answer: D. pressure necrosis.
Q: In an anesthetized animal, pale-gray mucous membranes are indicative of:A. hypercapnia.B. hyperventilation.C. poor tissue perfusion.D. arrhythmia.
Answer: C. poor tissue perfusion.
Q: A radiograph that has been overexposed is:A. very detailed.B. too dark.C. not developable.D. too light.
Answer: B. too dark.
Q: Lipase is a pancreatic enzyme that:A. degrades carbohydrates.B. activates insulin.C. degrades fat.D. activates proteins.
Answer: C. degrades fat.
Q: The neutrophilic segmented cell belongs to the:A. plasmacytic series.B. monocytic series.C. granulocytic series.D. erythrocytic series.
Answer: C. granulocytic series.
Q: Which of the following diseases is caused by protozoa?A. PasteurellosisB. TrichomoniasisC. SalmonellosisD. Leptospirosis
Answer: B. Trichomoniasis
Q: Metoclopramide belongs to which class of drugs?A. AntiemeticB. Anti-infective agentC. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agentD. Muscle relaxant
Answer: A. Antiemetic
Q: Which of the following is a common side effect of glucocorticoid usage?A. PolyuriaB. InappetenceC. VomitingD. Pruritus
Answer: A. Polyuria
Q: Cattle are commonly vaccinated against which of the following zoonotic diseases, which can be spread by the urine of deer and rats?A. LeptospirosisB. BorreliosisC. CampylobacteriosisD. Brucellosis
Answer: A. Leptospirosis
Q: Given the following four patients in an emergency clinic staffed by one veterinarian and one veterinary technician:A. A dog bleeding profusely from a paw lacerationB. A cat that has been inappetant for 3 daysC. A rabbit with dyspneaD. A dog with a suspected hock dislocationIn which order should the technician recommend that the veterinarian see the patients?A. C,A,D,BB. C,D,A,BC. A,D,B,CD. A,C,B,D
Answer: A. C,A,D,B
Q: Which of the following monitoring devices displays heart rate and rhythm?A. Pulse oximeterB. ElectrocardiographC. DopplerD. End-tidal CO2 monitor
Answer: B. Electrocardiograph
Q: In the suspected presence of viral enteritis, which of the following would be the agent of choice to disinfect an area?A. Benzalkonium chlorideB. Sodium hypochloriteC. AlcoholD. Ammonia
Answer: B. Sodium hypochlorite
Q: Which of the following drugs is injected sublingually to stimulate breathing of neonates after delivery by cesarean section?A. MeperidineB. DroperidolC. DiazepamD. Doxapram
Answer: D. Doxapram
Q: The osmotic pressure of body fluids is primarily maintained by which of the following ions?A. MagnesiumB. PotassiumC. ChlorideD. Sodium
Answer: D. Sodium
Q: Dystocia caused by uterine inertia is commonly treated with:A. estrogen.B. oxytocin.C. progesterone.D. prostaglandins.
Answer: B. oxytocin.
Q: If a patient has a WBC count of 10,000/µL showing 30% monocytes and 70% lymphocytes, the patient’s absolute monocyte count is:A. 30 cells/µLB. 300 cells/µLC. 3,000 cells/µLD. 30,000 cells/µL
Answer: C. 3,000 cells/µL
Q: One characteristic of dissociative anesthesia is:A. decreased muscle tone.B. poor somatic analgesia.C. poor visceral analgesia.D. decreased salivation.
Answer: C. poor visceral analgesia.
Q: Which of the following conversions is most accurate?A. 1 fl oz = 30 mLB. 1 inch = 5 cmC. 60 lb = 100 kgD. 1 tbsp = 4 mL
Answer: A. 1 fl oz = 30 mL
Q: The part of the mature tooth that is continuously deposited throughout life by odontoblasts is the:A. dentin.B. enamel.C. cementum.D. pulp.
Answer: A. dentin.
Q: Anesthetized patients should be periodically ventilated to control the development of:A. hypoxia and hyperemia.B. hypoglycemia and hypoplasia.C. hypocapnia and dyspnea.D. hypercapnia and atelectasis.
Answer: D. hypercapnia and atelectasis.
Q: Which of the following will absorb the fewest X-rays?A. BoneB. AirC. WaterD. Muscle
Answer: B. Air
Q: Horses develop enamel points on which surfaces of the teeth?A. Lingual edge of the upper and lower arcadesB. Buccal edge of the upper and lower arcadesC. Buccal edge of the upper arcade and lingual edge of the lower arcadeD. Buccal edge of the lower arcade and lingual edge of the upper arcade
Answer: C. Buccal edge of the upper arcade and lingual edge of the lower arcade
Q: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of measuring:A. venous CO2 saturation.B. arterial oxygen saturation.C. arterial CO2 saturation.D. venous oxygen saturation.
Answer: B. arterial oxygen saturation.
Q: The appropriate surgical instrument for harvesting an autogenous bone graft is a/an:A. bone cutter.B. bone curette.C. Tru-Cut biopsy needle.D. osteotome.
Answer: B. bone curette.
Q: The tip of the tooth root is called the:A. apex.B. neck.C. crown.D. cusp.
Answer: A. apex.
Q: A metatarsal bone is located in the:A. hind paw.B. front paw.C. spine.D. pelvis.
Answer: A. hind paw.
Q: Abdominal distention caused by fluid accumulation is commonly known as:A. ascites.B. bloat.C. hepatomegaly.D. colic.
Answer: A. ascites.
Q: If a thoracic radiograph taken using 80 kVp and 10 mAs is excessively dark, which of the following settings should be used for a retake?A. 60 kVp and 20 mAsB. 70 kVp and 10 mAsC. 80 kVp and 20 mAsD. 85 kVp and 10 mAs
Answer: B. 70 kVp and 10 mAs
Q: An administration set labeled “1 mL = approximately 60 drops” is being used for parenteral fluids for an animal requiring 500 mL/hr. What is the appropriate drip rate to meet this requirement?A. 0.6 gtt/secB. 0.12 gtt/secC. 8 gtt/secD. 83 gtt/sec
Answer: C. 8 gtt/sec
Q: Which of the four compartments of the ruminant stomach is called the “true stomach”?A. OmasumB. RumenC. AbomasumD. Reticulum
Answer: C. Abomasum
Q: A 6-year-old cat that weighs 4 kg is currently fed with a store brand product. The cat’s owner is considering purchasing food from a veterinary clinic instead, but feels that the premium product suggested by a clinic technician is too expensive. A can of the store brand food has 94 kcal and costs $0.65, and a can of the clinic’s food has 578 kcal and costs $1.80. The cat’s maintenance energy requirement is 238 kcal/day. The technician should tell the owner that the cost of the clinic’s food is:A. one quarter of the cost of the store brand.B. one half of the cost of the store brand.C. one and one half times the cost of the store brand.D. equal to the cost of the store brand.
Answer: B. one half of the cost of the store brand.
Q: First-intention healing of wounds, as compared with second-intention healing, is:A. slower.B. faster.C. similar in rate.D. variable in rate.
Answer: B. faster.
Q: NSAID administration is appropriate for which of the following patients?A. Labrador retriever with hepatitisB. Scottish terrier in renal failureC. Doberman pinscher with von Willebrand diseaseD. Welsh corgi with hip dysplasia
Answer: D. Welsh corgi with hip dysplasia
Q: A 6-year-old female spayed cat weighs 8 lb. Given the following information:Resting energy requirement (RER): 30 × (weight in kg) + 70Maintenance energy requirement guide:Adult feline 1.2 × RERGestation 2 × RERGrowth 2.5 × RERif one can of cat food contains 578 kcal, how much should the cat be fed on a daily basis?A. One third of a canB. One half of a canC. Two thirds of a canD. One whole can
Answer: A. One third of a can
Q: Which area must be prepped for a horse requiring a Caslick’s operation?A. CarpalB. CervicalC. FlankD. Perineum
Answer: D. Perineum
Q: The toxic substance responsible for chocolate poisoning is:A. theobromine.B. aflatoxin.C. thiaminase.D. acetaminophen.
Answer: A. theobromine.
Q: Babesia canis is found in:A. extracellular fluid.B. cerebrospinal fluid.C. WBCs.D. RBCs.
Answer: D. RBCs.
Q: Which of the following species has continuously erupting incisor teeth?A. PigsB. CatsC. FerretsD. Rabbits
Answer: D. Rabbits
Q: The effects of dexmedetomidine/medetomidine may be reversed by administering:A. meperidine.B. atipamezole.C. butorphanol.D. naloxone.
Answer: B. atipamezole.
Q: Increased duration or intensity of intraoperative pain is often evidenced by:A. increased respiratory rate.B. increased temperature.C. decreased blood pressure.D. decreased heart rate.
Answer: A. increased respiratory rate.
Q: Which of the following best characterizes the physical condition of a patient who is classified as ASA Class III?A. Life-threatening systemic disease or disturbanceB. Moderate systemic disease or disturbanceC. Slight to mild systemic disease or disturbanceD. Preexisting systemic disease or disturbance of a severe nature
Answer: B. Moderate systemic disease or disturbance
Q: Which intestinal protozoan is commonly found in ruminants?A. ToxoplasmaB. EimeriaC. BabesiaD. Isospora
Answer: B. Eimeria
Q: Which of the following is a Gram-positive spore-forming rod?A. Clostridium perfringensB. Corynebacterium bovisC. Proteus vulgarisD. Salmonella enteritidis
Answer: A. Clostridium perfringens
Q: An IV bolus of 1-2 mg/lb (2.2-4.4 mg/kg) of 2% lidocaine is used as an emergency drug for:A. xylazine overdose.B. paralytic ileus.C. ventricular arrhythmia.D. hypotension.
Answer: C. ventricular arrhythmia.
Q: When NSAIDs are being dispensed, clients should be advised that potential side effects include:A. nystagmus.B. hematuria.C. polyuria and polydipsia.D. vomiting and diarrhea.
Answer: D. vomiting and diarrhea.
Q: A 12-lb (5.45-kg) cat is 6% dehydrated. The veterinarian would like to correct only the dehydration within the first 8 hours. Using a 60-drop/mL administration, what is the drip rate in drops/sec?A. 0.15B. 0.7C. 1.3D. 5.5
Answer: B. 0.7
Q: In case of respiratory arrest during inhalation anesthesia, the first thing to do is to:A. turn off the vaporizer.B. bag the animal.C. administer doxapram.D. turn up the oxygen flowmeter.
Answer: A. turn off the vaporizer.
Q: The advantage of intraoral radiography over extraoral radiography is that it:A. reduces focal distance.B. minimizes the superimposition of tooth images.C. allows the use of various film sizes.D. reduces film processing time.
Answer: B. minimizes the superimposition of tooth images.
Q: Which part of the gas anesthetic machine allows room air into the system in the event of a pressure change?A. Pressure manometerB. Negative pressure relief valveC. Pop-off valveD. Oxygen flow meter
Answer: B. Negative pressure relief valve
Q: A preanesthetic that has pharmacologic properties similar to those of atropine is:A. diazepam.B. promazine.C. acepromazine.D. glycopyrrolate.
Answer: D. glycopyrrolate.
Q: The correct term for the fibrous cord of connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is:A. fascia.B. bursa.C. tendon.D. ligament.
Answer: C. tendon.
Q: Which of the following is a self-retaining retractor?A. Gelpi retractorB. Army-Navy retractorC. Volkmann retractorD. Senn-Kanavel retractor
Answer: A. Gelpi retractor
Q: An eosin-nigrosin stain mixture is used in semen analysis to evaluate the:A. sperm concentration.B. sperm motility.C. volume of ejaculate.D. live:dead sperm ratio.
Answer: D. live:dead sperm ratio.
Q: Which of the following nerve blocks is acceptable for providing analgesia during dehorning of a cow?A. CornualB. PudendalC. PetersonD. Paravertebral
Answer: A. Cornual
Q: The term stomatitis refers to inflammation of the:A. mouth.B. tongue.C. esophagus.D. stomach.
Answer: A. mouth.
Q: In radiography, the first step in all special procedures using contrast media is to:A. ensure that the patient has an intravenous catheter.B. take survey radiographs of the patient.C. run a blood panel to determine the patient’s kidney function status.D. introduce the contrast media into the patient.
Answer: B. take survey radiographs of the patient.
Q: In general, culture plates are streaked in order to:A. obtain isolated colonies.B. prevent contamination.C. ensure a smooth even growth.D. concentrate organisms.
Answer: A. obtain isolated colonies.
Q: Which of the following zoonotic diseases could be contracted through the improper handling of urine samples?A. LeptospirosisB. BorreliosisC. BartonellosisD. Trichinosis
Answer: A. Leptospirosis
Q: Specimens used for antimicrobial sensitivity testing should be cultured on:A. MacConkey’s agar.B. blood culture medium.C. mannitol salt agar.D. Mueller-Hinton agar.
Answer: D. Mueller-Hinton agar.
Q: Which of the following are adverse effects of NSAIDs?A. GI disturbances, GI bleeding, renal disturbancesB. Sedation, hypotension, respiratory depressionC. Bradycardia, cardiac arrhythmia, hypertensionD. Neurologic signs, seizures, tachycardia
Answer: A. GI disturbances, GI bleeding, renal disturbances
Q: Hydatid cyst disease is a zoonotic condition associated with which of the following tapeworm species?A. Spirometra mansonoidesB. Dipylidium caninumC. Taenia taeniaeformisD. Echinococcus multilocularis
Answer: D. Echinococcus multilocularis
Q: Which of the following is the best route for administering drugs for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?A. IntravenousB. SubcutaneousC. IntramuscularD. Intraperitoneal
Answer: A. Intravenous
Q: A properly placed urinary catheter extends from the tip of the penis or vulva to the:A. ureter.B. distal urethra.C. neck of the urinary bladder.D. proximal urethra.
Answer: C. neck of the urinary bladder.
Q: With regard to analgesic properties, which of the following is most similar to morphine?A. PhenylbutazoneB. ButorphanolC. FlunixinD. Xylazine
Answer: B. Butorphanol
Q: Which of the following procedures is used to visualize the stomach to see if a suspected foreign body is present?A. CystoscopyB. GastroscopyC. ColonoscopyD. Esophagoscopy
Answer: B. Gastroscopy
Q: Which surgical approach allows the abdomen to be opened through the linea alba?A. Paramedian incisionB. Flank incisionC. Ventral midline incisionD. Paracostal incision
Answer: C. Ventral midline incision
Q: Personal protective equipment should be worn when handling and administering:A. cyclophosphamide, dimethyl sulfoxide, and nitroglycerin.B. cyclophosphamide, dimethyl sulfoxide, and dimenhydrinate.C. cyclophosphamide, nitroglycerin, and dimenhydrinate.D. dimethyl sulfoxide, nitroglycerin, and dimenhydrinate.
Answer: A. cyclophosphamide, dimethyl sulfoxide, and nitroglycerin.
Q: In a direct saline fecal smear, observation of a motile, flagellate, binucleate trophozoite is indicative of:A. Ancylostoma.B. Giardia.C. Isospora.D. Cryptosporidium.
Answer: B. Giardia.
Q: Which of the following procedures constitutes proper disposal of a used microbiology plate?A. Its contents should be rinsed down a sink while hot water is running.B. It should be placed in a trash can that is dumped daily.C. It should be kept in a freezer at 32°F (0°C) for at least 24 hours before being discarded.D. It should be placed in a biohazard bag and autoclaved before being discarded.
Answer: D. It should be placed in a biohazard bag and autoclaved before being discarded.
Q: In order to avoid bronchial intubation, the beveled end of the endotracheal tube should not extend past the:A. epiglottis.B. bronchi.C. thoracic inlet.D. larynx.
Answer: C. thoracic inlet.
Q: The term pediculosis means:A. phalanx infection.B. foot pad infection.C. lice infestation.D. mite infestation.
Answer: C. lice infestation.
Q: Splinting is a clinical sign of:A. abdominal pain.B. respiratory distress.C. extremity pain.D. neurological disease.
Answer: A. abdominal pain.
Q: Which of the following instruments should be used to remove subgingival calculus?A. ProbeB. CuretteC. ExplorerD. Hand scaler
Answer: B. Curette
Q: How much water is needed to dilute 1 liter of 90% isopropyl alcohol to make a 70% alcohol solution?A. 2.86 mLB. 28.6 mLC. 286 mLD. 2860 mL
Answer: C. 286 mL
Q: Sexing of immature mice is commonly determined by:A. comparing anogenital distances.B. observing a visible vulva in the female.C. observing a visible scrotum in the male.D. extruding the penis of the male.
Answer: A. comparing anogenital distances.
Q: A correct statement regarding the use of a high-speed screen is that it:A. eliminates the need for collimation.B. increases exposure time.C. neither increases nor decreases exposure time.D. decreases exposure time.
Answer: D. decreases exposure time.
Q: The California Mastitis Test (CMT) is a test for:A. environmental debris.B. WBCs and epithelial cells.C. RBCs and yeast.D. bacterial cells.
Answer: B. WBCs and epithelial cells.
Q: Centrifuging blood with an anticoagulant will separate the cells or formed elements from the:A. serum.B. packed cells.C. plasma.D. cell suspension.
Answer: C. plasma.
Q: Which of the following endocrine glands exerts a master control over the secretions of the other endocrine glands?A. PituitaryB. AdrenalC. ThyroidD. Pancreas
Answer: A. Pituitary
Q: The primary reason for administering 1-2 positive-pressure ventilations (sigh) periodically during anesthesia is to:A. reinflate collapsed alveoli in the lungs.B. facilitate faster oxygen perfusion of the lungs.C. empty the reservoir bag of concentrated anesthetic.D. remove excess pressure from the reservoir bag.
Answer: A. reinflate collapsed alveoli in the lungs.
Q: For a 20 lb (9 kg) animal with 5% dehydration and a daily maintenance requirement of 60 mL/kg, what volume would be administered on the first day?A. 600 mLB. 700 mLC. 1 LD. 5 L
Answer: C. 1 L
Q: Which of the following forceps is used to clamp blood vessels to control hemorrhage during a surgical procedure?A. KellyB. Brown-AdsonC. DoyenD. Allis
Answer: A. Kelly
Q: The drug melarsomine (Immiticide) is used to kill:A. adult heartworms.B. heartworm microfilariae.C. adult heartworms and heartworm microfilariae.D. intestinal worms.
Answer: A. adult heartworms.
Q: The daily maintenance energy requirement (kcal) for a 4 kg cat is:A. 150.B. 220.C. 300.D. 360.
Answer: B. 220.
Q: Which of the following is used primarily to vent waste gasses?A. Flush valveB. VaporizerC. ScavengerD. Flow meter
Answer: C. Scavenger
Q: Isopropyl alcohol is most effective as a germicidal agent when used in aqueous solution at a concentration of:A. 50%.B. 70%.C. 95%.D. 100%.
Answer: B. 70%.
Q: In a dog, assessment of the gingival sulcus depth should be performed during the dental prophylaxis with:A. the point of the curette.B. an ultrasonic scaler tip.C. a periodontal probe.D. dental radiography.
Answer: C. a periodontal probe.
Q: The canine cervix is located between the:A. ovaries and the horn of the uterus.B. vagina and the vulva.C. vagina and the body of the uterus.D. ovaries and the uterine tubes (oviducts).
Answer: C. vagina and the body of the uterus.
Q: Arterial blood gas may provide erroneous results if it is:A. allowed to clot.B. ran immediately.C. stored on ice for 1 hour.D. void of room air.
Answer: A. allowed to clot.
Q: The type of fracture that commonly affects young, growing animals and can result in limb deformities is called:A. comminuted.B. transverse.C. Salter-Harris.D. T-Fracture.
Answer: C. Salter-Harris.
Q: Mandibular molars are commonly radiographed using which technique?A. Lateral cranialB. Bisecting angleC. Caudorostral obliqueD. Parallel
Answer: D. Parallel
Q: Which of the following collection techniques will provide a urine sample that is free of contaminates for bacterial culture?A. Free flowB. CystocentesisC. CatheterizationD. Manual expression
Answer: B. Cystocentesis
Q: Which active ingredient controls flea populations by breaking the life cycle at the egg stage?A. SelamectinB. FipronilC. ImidaclopridD. Lufenuron
Answer: D. Lufenuron
Q: The benefit of selective COX-2 inhibitors in the treatment of inflammation is they:A. have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provided by COX-1.B. are antiemetic and antidiarrheal.C. cause platelet aggregation.D. do not cross the placenta.
Answer: A. have anti-inflammatory properties, but do not alter the gastric protection provided by COX-1.
Q: The most appropriate position to recover cattle from general anesthesia is:A. sternal recumbency.B. dorsal recumbency.C. right lateral recumbency.D. left lateral recumbency.
Answer: A. sternal recumbency.
Q: Which of the following drugs could add to the adverse effects of chocolate toxicity?A. AcepromazineB. TheophyllineC. PropranololD. Apomorphine
Answer: B. Theophylline
Q: A rodenticide that can depress clotting factors for 3-4 weeks is:A. brodifacoum.B. warfarin.C. bromethalin.D. cholecalciferol.
Answer: A. brodifacoum.
Q: A rabbit presents with otoacariasis. Which of the following is the most likely causitive agent?A. Psoroptes cuniculiB. Otodectes cynotisC. Cheyletiella yuasguriD. Sarcoptes scabiei
Answer: A. Psoroptes cuniculi
Q: During a manufacturing shortage of Dichlorvos, which of the following drugs could a veterinarian prescribe as a substitute in the same drug class?A. Milbemycin oximeB. LevamisoleC. TrichlorfonD. Pyrantel pamoate
Answer: C. Trichlorfon
Q: Which of the following is known as the Wolf tooth in an equine?A. CanineB. First premolarC. Corner incisorD. First molar
Answer: B. First premolar
Q: Which is the best option for long term pain management of hip dysplasia in an 8-year-old golden retriever with Cushing’s Disease?A. NSAIDsB. OpioidsC. Alpha 2 agonistsD. Corticosteroids
Answer: A. NSAIDs
Q: The proper needle placement for a lumbar myelogram is between the:A. 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae.B. 2nd and 3rd lumbar vertebrae.C. 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae.D. 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae.
Answer: D. 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae.
Q: Which of the following is the most likely source of bovine viral diarrhea in a herd of cattle?A. WildlifeB. Contaminated feedC. Persistently infected animalsD. Contaminated water
Answer: C. Persistently infected animals
Q: Which exposure factor primarily controls the quantity of x-rays produced?A. timeB. kVpC. mAD. SID
Answer: C. mA
Q: Which bacterial disease is spread by contaminated humans or objects and is easily transmitted between horses?A. StranglesB. TetanusC. ThrushD. Piroplasmosis
Answer: A. Strangles
Q: The strongest analgesia is achieved by drugs that stimulate which of the following receptors?A. DeltaB. KappaC. MuD. Sigma
Answer: C. Mu
Q: If a fentanyl transdermal patch is being used to deliver long term analgesia, which of the following would inhibit the analgesic effect?A. ButorphanolB. HydromorphoneC. MorphineD. Dexmedetomidine
Answer: A. Butorphanol
Q: he Coggins test is used to detect which equine disease?A. Equine influenzaB. Viral arteritisC. Viral encephalitisD. Equine Infectious anemia
Answer: D. Equine Infectious anemia
Q: Sedation ordered for a 13-lb (5.91 kg) cat at 11 mg/kg is supplied as a liquid with a concentration of 100 mg/mL. What volume is needed for this patient?A. 0.65 mLB. 0.88 mLC. 1.25 mLD. 1.43 mL
Answer: A. 0.65 mL
Q: The average gestation period in a hamster is approximately:A. 9 days.B. 16 days.C. 24 days.D. 30 days.
Answer: B. 16 days.
Q: Which of the following suture patterns is considered continuous?A. Vertical mattressB. CruciateC. Horizontal mattressD. Ford Interlocking
Answer: D. Ford Interlocking
Q: Which of the following could be seen in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?A. Hyperinsulinemia, increased potassium levelsB. Hypoinsulinemia, decreased potassium levelsC. Hyperglycemia, alkalosisD. Hypoglycemia, acidosis
Answer: B. Hypoinsulinemia, decreased potassium levels
Q: The correct order for the steps in the pain pathway isA. modulation, transmission, transduction, and perception.B. transmission, transduction, perception, and modulation.C. perception, modulation, transmission, and transduction.D. transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception.
Answer: D. transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception.
Q: How often should a geriatric dog with chronic osteoarthritis be evaluated?A. Every monthB. Every six monthsC. Every 12 monthsD. Evaluation not needed
Answer: A. Every month
Q: Long-acting barbiturates are administered to dogs and cats as:A. anthelmintics.B. analgesics.C. anticholinergics.D. anticonvulsants.
Answer: D. anticonvulsants.
Q: To maximally improve visualization during an abdominal exploratory procedure, which retractor should be used?A. BalfourB. SennC. GelpiD. US Army
Answer: A. Balfour
Q: The part of the control panel on a standard X-ray machine that provides manual adjustment of the transformer to allow for inconsistent electrical output is the:A. voltage compensator.B. kilovoltage selector.C. timer.D. exposure button.
Answer: A. voltage compensator.
Q: Which of the following drugs is used to suppress a cough?A. Anti-inflammatoryB. AntihistamineC. AnticholinergicD. Antitussive
Answer: D. Antitussive
Q: Which would be an appropriate action to take if a patient is hypothermic (less than 35° C/95° F) during anesthesia?A. Administer an anticholinergic.B. Increase the intravenous fluid rate.C. Decrease the oxygen flow to the minimum requirement.D. Increase manual ventilations to the patient.
Answer: C. Decrease the oxygen flow to the minimum requirement.
Q: In a dog or cat, the spleen is located on the:A. left side of the abdomen dorsal to the kidney.B. right side of the abdomen just caudal to the liver.C. right side of the abdomen ventral to the bladder.D. left side of the abdomen just caudal to the stomach.
Answer: D. left side of the abdomen just caudal to the stomach.
Q: Where is the best site to administer intramuscular injections to swine?A. Lumbar musclesB. Muscles of the neck caudal to the earC. Hamstring musclesD. Pectoral muscles
Answer: B. Muscles of the neck caudal to the ear
Q: A dorsoventral intraoral skull view is indicated for examination of the:A. temporomandibular joint.B. mandible.C. foramen magnum.D. maxilla.
Answer: D. maxilla.
Q: On a Gram-stained smear, Streptococcus equi organisms appear as:A. Gram-negative rods.B. Gram-positive cocci.C. Gram-negative cocci.D. Gram-positive rods.
Answer: B. Gram-positive cocci.
Q: After a horse has been sedated with xylazine, the veterinary technician should instruct the owner to:A. remove lead shanks and any other form of physical restraint from the horse.B. avoid the rear of the animal because the horse may still kick if stimulated.C. not feed hay for 12 hours after the initial administration of the sedative.D. avoid lifting the head up because it may cause the horse to lose balance.
Answer: B. avoid the rear of the animal because the horse may still kick if stimulated.
Q: Hypoxemia occurs when the partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood (PaO2) is:A. <80 mmHg.B. <100 mmHg.C. <150 mmHg.D. <200 mmHg.
Answer: A. <80 mmHg.
Q: Which of the following procedures is used to prevent gastric torsion in large, deep-chested dog breeds?A. EnterotomyB. GastropexyC. GastrectomyD. Celiotomy
Answer: B. Gastropexy
Q: Which bone can be stabilized using a spoon splint?A. RadiusB. ScapulaC. HumerusD. Femur
Answer: A. Radius
Q: Which of the following diagnostics should detect adult Dirofilaria spp.?A. Knott’s filter testB. Direct blood smearC. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)D. Buffy coat examination
Answer: C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Q: A veterinary technician should consider an anesthetized animal recovered when the:A. patient is conscious, has intact reflexes, and can maintain sternal recumbency without support.B. swallowing reflex has returned and the patient has been extubated.C. anesthetic (injectable or inhaled) administration is discontinued.D. surgical procedure has been completed and the anesthetic has been shut off.
Answer: A. patient is conscious, has intact reflexes, and can maintain sternal recumbency without support.
Q: Which of the following is associated with left-sided heart failure?A. Jugular distensionB. Pleural effusionC. AscitesD. Pulmonary edema
Answer: D. Pulmonary edema
Q: Which of the following species is prone to laryngospasm during endotracheal intubation?A. PigsB. CattleC. HorsesD. Sheep
Answer: A. Pigs
Q: The canine teeth of horses are:A. removed in order to avoid interference with the bite.B. commonly absent in mares and fillies.C. where the Galvayne’s groove is located.D. low-crowned brachyodont teeth.
Answer: B. commonly absent in mares and fillies.
Q: When taking a caudocranial radiograph of the feline stifle, the distal boundary is the:A. joint space of the stifle.B. distal 1/3rd of the tibia/fibula.C. proximal 1/3rd of the tibia/fibula.D. distal 1/3rd of the femur.
Answer: C. proximal 1/3rd of the tibia/fibula.
Q: What is the maximum volume of blood that can be safely collected from a healthy 950 gm (0.95 kg) macaw?A. 0.095 mlB. 0.95 mlC. 9.5 mlD.95 ml
Answer: C. 9.5 ml
Q: Which of the following hormone concentration changes is consistent with an uncontrolled hyperthyroid cat?A. Decreased T3, decreased TSHB. Increased T3, increased TSHC. Decreased T4, increased TSHD. Increased T4, decreased TSH
Answer: D. Increased T4, decreased TSH
Q: Which of the following scissors should a surgeon use to cut delicate tissue?A. MetzenbaumB. OperatingC. MayoD. Lister
Answer: A. Metzenbaum
Q: Which of the following statements about instrument care is most correct?A. Instruments should be kept dry after use until immersed in sterilization fluid.B. Cleaning agents should have a pH higher than 8 to avoid corrosion.C. Rinsing with distilled water is preferable to tap water.D. Mild abrasive cleaning agents are acceptable to use.
Answer: C. Rinsing with distilled water is preferable to tap water.
Q: Recommendations to prevent transmission of Borrelia species to pets and owners should include:A. rodent control and cleaning up food scraps.B. daily tick inspections and use of tick control products.C. use of mosquito control programs.D. avoiding consumption of unfiltered stream water.
Answer: B. daily tick inspections and use of tick control products.
Q: Which of the following is an appropriate wound lavage solution?A. 0.9% sodium chlorideB. 3.5% hydrogen peroxideC. 4% chlorhexidine gluconateD. 10% povidone-iodine
Answer: A. 0.9% sodium chloride
Q: If the concentration of available trimethoprim-sulfadiazine solution is 50 mg/mL, and the veterinary technician has been directed to administer 20 mg to a 9 lb (4.1-kg) cat, what volume of the drug, in milliliters, is needed?A. 0.04 mLB. 0.40 mLC. 4.00 mLD. 40.00 mL
Answer: B. 0.40 mL
Q: The antidote for acetaminophen poisoning is:A. N-Acetylcysteine.B. atropine.C. ethanol.D. 4-Methylpyrazole.
Answer: A. N-Acetylcysteine.
Q: Exodontic therapy should be recommended for which of the following conditions?A. Oblique crown and root fractureB. Crown fracture with pulp exposureC. Apical root fracture with pulp exposureD. Horizontal subluxation of the root
Answer: A. Oblique crown and root fracture
Q: The most appropriate way for a small, in-house laboratory to check the accuracy of its blood chemistry analyses is to periodically:A. allow all laboratory staff to run the test and average their results.B. analyze control samples with in-house equipment to check accuracy.C. run multiple samples of unknown values and average the results.D. obtain dry reagent strips, run the test using a strip, run the test using the chemistry instrument, and compare the results.
Answer: B. analyze control samples with in-house equipment to check accuracy.
Q: When dealing with a client in the anger stage of grief from losing their pet, the technician can help by:A. actively listening and letting the client know they understand.B. becoming defensive and arguing with the client.C. encouraging the client to get a new pet as soon as possible.D. by validating the client’s guilt that more could have been done.
Answer: A. actively listening and letting the client know they understand.
Q: To collect serum, blood should be collected into a designated tube identified by a cap of which color?A. GreenB. BlueC. LavenderD. Red
Answer: D. Red
Q: Rehabilitation therapy can be used to help prevent skeletal muscles from undergoing:A. dystrophy.B. hypomyotrophy.C. hypertrophy.D. atrophy.
Answer: D. atrophy.
Q: When collecting blood to perform a manual WBC differential, which blood tube type is preferred?A. Blue topB. Lavender topC. Grey topD. Green top
Answer: B. Lavender top
Q: During a pre-admission discussion with a client, what is the best way to confirm that a patient has been fasted ahead of a surgical procedure?A. “When did your dog last eat?”B. “Is your dog fasted?”C. “You haven’t given any food since last night?”D. “Your dog has been fasted, correct?”
Answer: A. “When did your dog last eat?”
Q: Which type of contrast is desired for radiographs of the abdomen, and how can it be achieved?A. low; use a low kVp techniqueB. low; use a high kVp techniqueC. high; use a high kVp techniqueD. high; use a low kVp technique
Answer: B. low; use a high kVp technique
Q: Seizures may result in:A. hyperthermia and pulmonary edema.B. dehydration and hyperglycemia.C. hypoglycemia and hypothermia.D. hyperthermia and overhydration.
Answer: A. hyperthermia and pulmonary edema.
Q: Which type of muzzle allows a canine to open its mouth and can be worn for long periods if needed?A. Basket muzzleB. Leather muzzleC. Gauze muzzleD. Leash muzzle
Answer: A. Basket muzzle
Q: Which of the following effects would a parasympatholytic drug have on an animal?A. BradycardiaB. MydriasisC. PtyalismD. Hypotension
Answer: B. Mydriasis
Q: Which class of reproductive drug can be potentially dangerous to pregnant females?A. ProstaglandinsB. GonadotropinsC. EstrogensD. Progestins
Answer: A. Prostaglandins
Q: Psoroptes ovis is generally diagnosed using:A. a direct smear.B. fecal sedimentation.C. a skin scraping.D. fecal flotation.
Answer: C. a skin scraping.
Q: Which of the following is contraindicated regarding anesthesia in avian patients?A. Mask inductionB. Cuffed endotracheal tubesC. Pre-anesthetic analgesiaD. Air sac intubation
Answer: B. Cuffed endotracheal tubes
Q: A urine sample collected from a dog with a urinary tract infection reveals urease-producing bacteria. What is the expected pH of this patient’s urine?A. 4B. 6C. 7D. 8
Answer: D. 8
Q: A prolonged prothrombin time or partial thromboplastin time would indicate a problem with secondary hemostasis such as:A. von Willebrand’s disease.B. rodenticide poisoning.C. thrombocytopenia.D. thrombocytopathy.
Answer: B. rodenticide poisoning.
Q: Which of the following is the best vein to use for blood collection in healthy medium to large pet birds?A. Right jugularB. Medial metatarsalC. BasilicD. Left jugular
Answer: A. Right jugular
Q: The emergency treatment of cardiac tamponade is:A. anticoagulation therapy.B. diuretic therapy.C. treatment of arrythmia.D. pericardiocentesis
Answer: D. pericardiocentesis
Q: Ear protection should be worn when restraining which of the following species?A. PsittacineB. CamelidC. LagomorphD. Porcine
Answer: D. Porcine
Q: The advantage of using regional anesthesia in dentistry is the:A. ability to block entire quadrants.B. transient loss of sensation.C. loss of function in the area.D. loosening of gingival attachments.
Answer: A. ability to block entire quadrants.
Q: Blastomycosis is a disease caused by a:A. rickettsia.B. fungus.C. bacterium.D. virus.
Answer: B. fungus.
Q: Lead gloves protect the technician primarily from what type of radiation?A. PrimaryB. BackgroundC. ScatterD. Tertiary
Answer: C. Scatter
Q: Which species is most sensitive to hyperthermia during physical restraint?A. PorcineB. OvineC. EquineD. Caprine
Answer: A. Porcine
Q: Which of the following statements is true of a rebreathing circuit with an intubated patient?A. Allows for rapid change of inspired anesthetic concentrationB. Conserves patient body heat through rebreathed airC. Has an increased danger of patient hypocarbiaD. Requires a high flow rate to be effective
Answer: B. Conserves patient body heat through rebreathed air
Q: What are the predominant cells in a sample collected from a purulent inflammatory lesion?A. NeutrophilsB. LymphocytesC. MacrophagesD. Monocytes
Answer: A. Neutrophils
Q: Which of the following pre-anesthesia groups has antiemetic properties?A. Thiazine derivativesB. PhenothiazinesC. BenzodiazepinesD. Opioids
Answer: B. Phenothiazines
Q: Most anesthetic drugs used in ruminants:A. are preceded by administration of an anticholinergic.B. cause a drug-induced GI hypermotility and post-operative diarrhea.C. are considered extra-label and have no established withdrawal times for meat or milk.D. are administered at higher doses to compensate for rumen volume.
Answer: C. are considered extra-label and have no established withdrawal times for meat or milk.
Q: Which medical suffix is used when a procedure involves surgical creation of an artificial opening?A. -ectomyB. -otomyC. -ostomyD. -plasty
Answer: C. -ostomy
Q: Large quantities of calcium carbonate crystals, which cause the urine to be viscous and opaque, are normally present in the urine of a:A. rat.B. mouse.C. rabbit.D. cat.
Answer: C. rabbit.
Q: Which of the following drugs is used to promote uterine contractions in a bitch?A. LincomycinB. ProgesteroneC. DexamethasoneD. Oxytocin
Answer: D. Oxytocin
Q: Theobromine toxicity occurs after ingestion of:A. chocolate.B. grapes.C. onions.D. lilies.
Answer: A. chocolate.
Q: A pulse oximeter will help an anesthetist:A. check arterial CO2 levels.B. evaluate the quality of respirations.C. assess tissue perfusion.D. measure blood pressure indirectly.
Answer: C. assess tissue perfusion.
Q: What is the most likely cause for an increased amount of polychromatic red blood cells on a blood smear?A. The patient is polycythemic.B. The patient is anemic.C. The sample was not stained properly.D. The sample was refrigerated.
Answer: B. The patient is anemic.
Q: A patient shows the following characteristics:Corneal reflex -BriskPalpebral reflex -BriskLateral nystagmus -PresentUnstimulated blinking -PresentEyeball rotation -CenteredTearing -PresentHow would this patient’s plane of anesthesia be characterized?A. LightB. AdequateC. Moderately deepD. Very deep
Answer: A. Light
Q: Permanent incisors of the dog erupt at the age of:A. 6-10 weeks.B. 12-16 weeks.C. 18-22 weeks.D. 24-28 weeks.
Answer: B. 12-16 weeks.
Q: Without refrigeration, chemical analysis of blood samples should be completed within how many hours?A. 1B. 3C. 5D. 7
Answer: A. 1
Q: The term hyperpnea refers to an abnormal increase in:A. expiratory reserve volume of the lungs.B. rate and/or depth of breathing.C. volume of dead space in the lungs.D. functional residual volume of the lungs.
Answer: B. rate and/or depth of breathing.
Q: In the nursing care for a hospitalized paralyzed animal, it is highly important to check for:A. visual acuity.B. cardiac failure.C. full bladder.D. blood pressure.
Answer: C. full bladder.
Q: Gavage feeding in birds is correctly performed when food is delivered to the:A. proventriculus.B. ventriculus.C. crop.D. esophagus.
Answer: C. crop.
Q: Which of the following areas should be shaved for an exploratory laparotomy?A. midsternum to pubis; laterally to edge of ribsB. umbilicus to caudal pelvis; laterally to edge of ribsC. cranially to the mandible; caudally to thoracic inlet; laterally to commissure of lipsD. dorsally to tail head; laterally to tuber ischii, centrally to mid-thigh
Answer: A. midsternum to pubis; laterally to edge of ribs
Q: A veterinarian orders a 10-day supply of antibiotics to be dispensed to the owner of a 50-lb (22.7-kg) dog. If the dosage is 10 mg/lb (22 mg/kg) of body weight b.i.d., how many 250-mg tablets must be dispensed?A. 10B. 20C. 40D. 50
Answer: C. 40
Q: The level of waste anesthetic gas is most influenced by:A. the use of a scavenging system.B. whether or not a chamber is used.C. the flow of gas.D. the presence of leaks.
Answer: A. the use of a scavenging system.
Q: The major lesion associated with infections of horses by Strongylus vulgaris is injury to the:A. peritoneum.B. liver.C. arterial system.D. lungs.
Answer: C. arterial system.
Q: When radiographing the teeth of a canine, the parallel technique should be used on which teeth?A. 108, 109, 110B. 204, 205, 206C. 307, 308, 309D. 401, 402, 403
Answer: C. 307, 308, 309
Q: Removing social interaction from an animal in order to influence behavior is an example of:A. positive punishment.B. negative punishment.C. negative reinforcement.D. positive reinforcement.
Answer: B. negative punishment.
Q: Regarding the use of antibiotics in food animals, withdrawal time is the period of time:A. allowed between when a drug is first given to a food animal and when the last dose may be given.B. required between when one dose of a medication can be given to a food animal and when a second, different medication can be given.C. between when the last dose was administered to a food animal and when it is allowed to rejoin the rest of the herd or flock.D. between when the last dose was administered and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or its products.
Answer: D. between when the last dose was administered and when the animal can be slaughtered for food or its products.
Q: The ova of Pearsonema plica (formerly Capillaria plica) was detected on a urine sediment evaluation of a 6-year-old spayed female dog with a history of cystitis. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the dog becoming infected with this parasite?A. Ingestion of a dung beetle containing third-stage larvaB. Skin penetration by an infective larvaC. Ingestion of an earthworm containing first-stage larvaD. Ingestion of an ova containing third-stage larva
Answer: C. Ingestion of an earthworm containing first-stage larva
Q: An adult horse under anesthesia has a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute, nystagmus, and a mean arterial blood pressure of 100 mm Hg. This patient’s anesthetic depth is:A. too light to perform surgery.B. adequate for surgeryC. too deep and should be treated.D. not able to be assessed with this information
Answer: A. too light to perform surgery.
Q: Localized heat therapy as part of pain management:A. increases vasoconstriction.B. increases vasodilation.C. decreases tissue metabolism.D. decreases inflammatory response.
Answer: B. increases vasodilation.
Q: Which of the following instruments is a combination needle holder and scissors?A. Olsen-HegarB. Mayo-HegarC. Rochester-CarmaltD. Brown-Adson
Answer: A. Olsen-Hegar
Q: A cat is presented with suspected feline infectious peritonitis. What would be the expected PCV and TP measurements?A. Normal PCV with high TPB. High PCV with normal TPC. Low PCV with low TPD. Normal PCV with low TP
Answer: A. Normal PCV with high TP
Q: Which of the following is true regarding pain scales?A. They are valuable for determining patient response to treatment.B. They are unnecessary because they don’t reliably work.C. They are an academic tool that is only used in school.D. They are valuable but too hard to use regularly for patients.
Answer: A. They are valuable for determining patient response to treatment.
Q: Which radiographic contrast media is contraindicated for use in patients with a suspected GI perforation?A. Water-soluble iodideB. Non-ionic organic iodideC. Sodium diatrizoateD. Barium sulfate
Answer: D. Barium sulfate
Q: Which of the following retractors is most appropriate for use on the lung lobes to improve access to the heart?A. GelpiB. WeitlanerC. MalleableD. Rake
Answer: C. Malleable
Q: Clients should be advised that while taking phenobarbital to control seizures, their pet may exhibit:A. polypnea.B. anorexia.C. polyuria.D. pyrexia.
Answer: C. polyuria.
Q: A dog with a suspected urinary tract infection is being discharged home on an orally administered antibiotic pending results of the urine culture and sensitivity. In order to maintain high concentrations of the drug in the urine, the veterinarian should choose:A. amoxicillin.B. doxycycline.C. lincomycin.D. erythromycin.
Answer: A. amoxicillin.
Q: Which of the following describes the advantage of combining penicillin G with benzathine as an injectable medication?A. The peak plasma concentration of the combination is higher.B. Penicillin G benzathine may be administered intravenously.C. The combination extends the duration of drug activity.D. Drug absorption is a more rapid at the site of injection.
Answer: C. The combination extends the duration of drug activity.
Q: Malignant hyperthermia is most common in which of the following species?A. PigsB. SheepC. LlamasD. Cattle
Answer: A. Pigs
Q: The primary function of the unidirectional valve is to ensure:A. circle breathing system.B. nonrebreathing circuit.C. oxygen flow to the vaporizer.D. nflation of the rebreathing bag.
Answer: A. circle breathing system.
Q: The clinical effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) occur mainly by their ability to:A. bind with mu and kappa receptors.B. block the transmission of pain impulses by sensory nerves.C. inhibit the production of prostaglandins.D. block sodium channels.
Answer: C. inhibit the production of prostaglandins.
Q: For an onychectomy, a tourniquet should be placed distal to the elbow to prevent damage to which of the following nerves?A. MedianB. MetacarpalC. RadialD. Ulnar
Answer: C. Radial
Q: Severe acute lameness in horses is most commonly caused by a:A. bowed tendon.B. hoof abscess.C. ringbone.D. neurologic disease.
Answer: B. hoof abscess.
Q: In order to accurately deliver 1:10 dilution of 2.27% enrofloxacin to a 40 g (1.41 oz) parakeet that needs to be treated with 5 mg/kg IM, which of the following volume values is required?A. 0.009 mLB. 0.09 mLC. 0.9 mLD. 9.0 mL
Answer: B. 0.09 mL
Q: The level of consciousness of a feline patient was assessed and it was determined that the cat was unresponsive to all stimuli, including pain. Which of the following terms should be written on the examination record?A. ComatoseB. ObtundedC. StuporousD. Lethargic
Answer: A. Comatose
Q: Which of the following classes of drugs decreases oral secretions and increases heart rate prior to anesthetic induction?A. AnticholinergicsB. TranquilizersC. CholinergicsD. Barbiturates
Answer: A. Anticholinergics
Q: One common side effect of narcotics in dogs is:A. hypertension.B. mydriasis.C. tachycardia.D. respiratory depression.
Answer: D. respiratory depression.
Q: Dehydrated animals will most likely have which of the following laboratory findings?A. Increased total protein and increased urine specific gravityB. Increased total protein and decreased urine specific gravityC. Decreased total protein and increased urine specific gravityD. Decreased total protein and decreased urine specific gravity
Answer: A. Increased total protein and increased urine specific gravity
Q: Unused media intended for microbiology purposes should be stored:A. in an incubator.B. in the freezer.C. at room temperature.D. in the refrigerator.
Answer: D. in the refrigerator.
Q: Acute hypercapnic respiratory failure is associated with:A. asthma.B. pneumonia.C. pulmonary thromboembolism.D. pulmonary edema.
Answer: A. asthma.
Q: Creeping eruption is an intensely pruritic eruption of the human skin, usually caused by the larvae of:A. whipworms.B. roundworms.C. tapeworms.D. hookworms.
Answer: D. hookworms.
Q: Which of the following grids used in x-ray production will require the highest mA-s setting?A. 2 to 1B. 4 to 1C. 8 to 1D. 12 to 1
Answer: D. 12 to 1
Q: Which antimicrobial could induce seizures in an epileptic animal?A. TetracyclinesB. FluoroquinolonesC. SulfonamidesD. Penicillins
Answer: B. Fluoroquinolones
Q: Which vein should be accessed for CRT assessment in an avian patient?A. BasilicB. Right jugularC. Medial metatarsalD. Saphenous
Answer: A. Basilic
Q: According to the classification system created by the American Veterinary Dental College, which of the following stages of periodontal disease is described as gingivitis only, without attachment loss?A. PD 0B. PD 1C. PD 2D. PD 3
Answer: B. PD 1
Q: The incidence of catheter-associated urinary tract infections may be reduced by:A. flushing the urinary catheter with sterile saline.B. cleaning the prepuce or vestibule with antiseptic soap.C. taking frequent urine samples through the catheter.D. placing sterile lubricant over the urethral orifice.
Answer: B. cleaning the prepuce or vestibule with antiseptic soap.
Q: Where is the point of balance located in equine?A. Near the shoulderB. Near the hipC. In the flight zoneD. At the edge of the flight zone
Answer: A. Near the shoulder
Q: Which of the following is a common carrier of Salmonella bacteria?A. BudgieB. FerretC. TurtleD. Fish
Answer: C. Turtle
Q: Current recommendations for vaccinating cats include administering:A. panleukopenia vaccine in the distal left hind leg.B. rabies vaccine in the right shoulder.C. no vaccines in the intrascapular space.D. feline leukemia virus vaccine intramuscularly.
Answer: C. no vaccines in the intrascapular space.
Q: The working end of a dental hand scaler has a:A. sharp tip and a semicircular cross section.B. sharp tip and a triangular cross section.C. rounded tip and a triangular cross section.D. rounded tip and a semicircular cross section.
Answer: B. sharp tip and a triangular cross section.
Q: A 53.6-lb (24.4-kg) dog is in cardiopulmonary arrest. A 0.2-mg/kg dose of epinephrine is required. What volume of 1:1000 epinephrine must be drawn up for administration?A. 0.05 mLB. 0.5 mLC. 5 mLD. 50 mL
Answer: C. 5 mL
Q: The incisors of sheep are located on the:A. caudal aspect of the mandible.B. rostral aspect of the maxilla.C. rostral aspect of the maxilla and the mandible.D. rostral aspect of the mandible.
Answer: D. rostral aspect of the mandible.
Q: Cholestasis, increased osteoblastic activity, or corticosteroid therapy in the canine patient may cause an increase in:A. alanine aminotransferase (ALT).B. alkaline phosphatase (ALP).C. aspartate aminotransferase (AST).D. cholecystokinin (CK).
Answer: B. alkaline phosphatase (ALP).
Q: Fungal cultures should be incubated at:A. 0°C (32°F)B. 4°C (40°F)C. 25°C (72°F)D. 37°C (98°F)
Answer: C. 25°C (72°F)
Q: The finished radiograph lacks density. How would this problem be corrected?A. Increasing focal film distanceB. Increasing kVpC. Decreasing mAsD. Decreasing exposure time
Answer: B. Increasing kVp
Q: Which of the following is an example of multimodal pain management?A. Firocoxib, fenbendazole, and pyrantel pamoateB. Meloxicam, amoxicillin, and ketoconazoleC. Carprofen, enalapril, and furosemideD. Deracoxib, buprenorphine, and tramadol
Answer: D. Deracoxib, buprenorphine, and tramadol
Q: Where would the beam be centered when radiographing a ventral dorsal open-mouth oblique view of the maxilla?A. Third premolarB. CaninesC. Site of interestD. Temporomandibular joint
Answer: A. Third premolar
Q: The artery that passes obliquely over the proximal third of the femur on the medial aspect of the thigh is the:A. iliac.B. femoral.C. saphenous.D. median.
Answer: B. femoral.
Q: During steam sterilization for 9-15 minutes, the temperature must reach at least:A. 124°F (51°C).B. 178°F (81°C).C. 214°F (101°C).D. 250°F (121°C).
Answer: D. 250°F (121°C).