Prepare for your Registered Dental Assistant (RDA) exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers chairside assisting, infection control, dental materials, radiology, and patient management.
Q: The RDA performing mouth mirror inspection should be able to:
Answer: differentiate abnormal conditions from normal conditions.
Q: The dental assistant may not perform what procedures without proof of completetion of a course approved by the Dental Board of California:
Answer: Ultra sonic scaling for removal of cement from ortho bands and pit and fissure sealants.
Q: The RDA license renewal period with proof of education is required every?
Answer: Two years (2)
Q: What is not a requirement for RDA license renewal?
Answer: course in Law and Ethics
Q: Placement and cementation of temporary crowns is a duty permitted by:
Answer: The RDA
Q: In addition to using an explorer, another instrument used by the RDA during oral examination is a:
Answer: mouth mirror
Q: The DA may NOT take impressions for:
Answer: Toothborne prosthesis
Q: Fitting and cementing gutta percha points is a duty of the:
Answer: RDAEF under direct
Q: Exposure of intraoral radiographs, with a CA Radiation Safety Cert, is a duty of the:
Answer: DA under general
Q: Under general supervision the DA may NOT:
Answer: Take facebrow transfers and bite registrations.
Q: Non aerosol and caustic topical agents may be applied by the:
Answer: DA under direct
Q: The RDA may NOT:
Answer: Adjust and cement permanent restorations.
Q: A duty NOT delegated to the Dental Sedation Assistant permit holder is:
Answer: Placement of intravenous lines.
Q: How many hours of CE are required by the RDA every two years, for licensure renewals:
Answer: 25 hours
Q: A duty of the orthodontic assistant permit holder is:
Answer: *size orthodontic bands*cement ortho bands*place and ligate archwires
Q: A mother brings her child into the office when the dentist is not in. The child was last seen 18 months prior and now has a toothache and an obvious lrg cavity, you:
Answer: Perform a mouth mirror oral inspection and reschedule the patient.
Q: The administration of nitrous oxide is a duty of the:
Answer: Dentist ONLY
Q: What is not true in regards to “direct supervision”:
Answer: The dentist must be present in the operatory during treatment
Q: The placement and removal of a rubber dam may be leagally performed by the:
Answer: DA / direct
Q: Placement of a temporary sedative dressing may be performed by the:
Answer: RDA
Q: All RDA’s may:
Answer: perform all the duties of the DA
Q: Coronal polishing may be performed by:
Answer: RDA
Q: This is not an act in violation of the Dental Practice Act:
Answer: Failure to contact the patient at home after a surgical procedure
Q: Who shall be responsible for ensuring that the dental assistant maintains certification basic life support:
Answer: the dentist
Q: Who is NOT required to maintain current CPR in a dental office:
Answer: Insurance coordinators
Q: The mouth mirror, scaler or spoon excavator can be used by a dental assistant to remove excess cement following the removal of orthodontic bands?
Answer: False
Q: Who is allowed to place, contour and finish a composite restoration:
Answer: ONLY the RDAEF licensed after Jan 1, 2010
Q: Taking an impression for an ortho retainer is the duty of the:
Answer: DA / direct
Q: An act in violation of the Dental Practice Act may include:
Answer: *RDA performing RDAEF duties*RDAEF practicing with an expired license*any licensee who furnishes false or misleading info. to the Dental Board regarding CE credits
Q: Any RDAEF licensed pror to Jan 1 2010:
Answer: must take a board approved course and pass a state board exam to perform newest duties in the RDAEF category
Q: Conducting a preliminary evaluation of the patients oral health by the RDAEF does NOT include:
Answer: Periodontal probing
Q: What should the RDA do if asked to perform a procedure that is NOT within the scope of allowable RDA duties;
Answer: inform the dentist that the Dental Practice Act does NOT allow this duty to be performed by the RDA
Q: The RDAEF may NOT;
Answer: remove small areas of decay as directed by the dentist
Q: Observed infarctions of the Ca Dental Practice Act should be reported by telephone or letter to the:
Answer: Dental Board of California
Q: The unlicensed dental assistant under general supervision may:
Answer: perform intra & extra oral photography
Q: The RDAEF licensed prior to Jan 1, 2010 may NOT:
Answer: Take final impressions for toothborne removable prosthesis.
Q: When taking blood pressure, you should release the exhaust valve enough to allow the pressure to drop aprox.:
Answer: 2-3 mm Hg/sce
Q: An oral thermometer is placed:
Answer: Under the tongue
Q: Blood pressure is measured with a:
Answer: Sphygmomanometer & a stethescope
Q: Respirations are taken:
Answer: After the pulse rate w/o the pts awareness
Q: Pulse readings are taken most frequently at the:
Answer: Radial artery
Q: The two types of sphygmomanometers are:
Answer: Mercury gravity & aneroid
Q: The systolic pressure is the point at which the:
Answer: Tapping is heard
Q: The dialostic pressure is the point at which the:
Answer: The tapping diminishes
Q: A typical normal radial pulse rate for an adult is:
Answer: 72
Q: Respiratory rate indicates a pts:
Answer: Breathing
Q: A normal adult respirationrate is:
Answer: 14-20-bpm
Q: Vital signs refer to:
Answer: Blood pressureTemperaturePulse rateRespiratory rate
Q: the amount of air which can NOT be expired from the lungs is called the:
Answer: Risidual air
Q: A normal average temp might be:
Answer: 98.6
Q: A stethescope is used for:
Answer: Listening to the heart and ausuculation
Q: The normal systolic pressure for an adult is; 70,80, 110 or 130?
Answer: 110
Q: The oral thermometer should be left in the mouth:
Answer: Two minutes
Q: when measuring a pts blood pressure:
Answer: Place the disk of the stethescope on the anticubical fossa; use a stethescope and a sphygmomanometer
Q: A normal radial pulse for an adult may be:
Answer: 60-72 or 100 beats per min
Q: Factors that may cause a radial pulse to fluctuate are:
Answer: Body sizeStressDisease orIllness
Q: Differences in blood pressure may occurr due to:
Answer: AgeSexBody weightFearStress
Q: Prior to pulp testing the teeth should be:
Answer: Dried and isolated w/cotton rolls
Q: To pulp test a tooth with an electric pulp tester the:
Answer: *pt. should be aware of the procedure*tooth should be dry and isolatef*probe is placed on the middle 1/3 of the tooth
Q: Vitality of an unexposed pulp may be determined by:
Answer: *an electric pulp tester*application of cold*application of hot or heat*clinical exam*radiograph of area in question
Q: The electrode on a vitalometer should be in contact with:
Answer: Enamel
Q: The probe in vitality testing should be placed on the contra latteral tooth:
Answer: *on the middle 1/3*testing each canal of the tooth
Q: When conducting a pulp vitality test, begin the procedure by:
Answer: *explaining procedure to pt.*testing the pulp tester*drying and isolating the tooth*begin rehostat at 0
Q: An electrode is:
Answer: *an electrical conductor*toothpaste
Q: A thermal sensitivity test may indicate that the pulpal tissue is under going liquification and the reaction to applied heat is:
Answer: Increased pain
Q: A very low reading (0-1) on a pulp vitality test may indicate:
Answer: *acute inflammation*hyperemia*normal pulp
Q: The purpose of pulp testing is to:
Answer: *determin if there are living nerves w/in the pulp*aide in diagnosis of pulpitis*aide in diagnostic tool in conjunction w/ other methods
Q: Before begining pulp testing procedures, what should be performed:
Answer: The procedure and sensations should be described to the pt.
Q: The appearence of initially formed granulation tissue is:
Answer: *A fleshy projection formed on the surface*red in color
Q: During palpation of a pt. in oral inspection the:
Answer: Examiner feels or presses upon tissue structure either bi-digitally or bi-manually
Q: General apprasial of your pt. during visual observation would include:
Answer: *obesity*perspiration
Q: Dental records vary widely in format from one practice to another yet they will all contain basic elements, basic type elements include:
Answer: *pt. info.*medical & dental hist.*dental chart*radiographs
Q: The preliminary diagnosis charting that the dental assistant performs includes:
Answer: Physical and dental data
Q: Blood in the soft tissue is known as:
Answer: Hematoma
Q: The compiling of pt. data must follow an orderly sequence to save time and motion; the following is the orderly fashion of a pt.’s file:
Answer: *visual observation*pt. History*oral exam*charting
Q: A progressive leasion of calcified dental tissue characterized by loss of tooth structure is known as:
Answer: Caries
Q: All of the following are performed during an oral inspection except:
Answer: Determining sequence of dental needs
Q: Injury of the tissues of the body is the result of:
Answer: Trauma
Q: The apoearence of the free gingiva is:
Answer: Smooth
Q: A soft white sticky substance that appears on teeth is:
Answer: Plaque
Q: The orgin of calculus is:
Answer: Salivary salts and bacteria
Q: Normal gingiva is:
Answer: Pink
Q: Symptoms are characteristics that:
Answer: The patient feels and relates
Q: The space between the teeth and lips is the:
Answer: vestibule
Q: The following term best describes the crest of the free gingiva when it is unhealthy:
Answer: Rounded
Q: The conical shaped gingiva between the teeth is refered to “as the:
Answer: Interdental papilliae
Q: Normal gingival sulcus measures approximately:
Answer: 2-3mm
Q: An elevation of tissues that contains a watery liquid is called:
Answer: A vesicle
Q: Characteristics of acute neucrotizing ulcerative gingivitis: (Angu)
Answer: *bacterial infection that effects the gingival tissue*ulcers that slough
Q: A white patch charactetized by a firm attachment to the underlying tissue is:
Answer: Leukoplakia
Q: Utilizing the universal adult numbering system, the maxillary left first molar is:
Answer: #14
Q: Utilizing the pedo numbering system the maxillary right cuspid is:
Answer: C
Q: A lesion located on the proximal surface of anterior teeth is referred to as:
Answer: Class lll
Q: The classification of caries that exists when attritional wear removes enamel on the incisal or occlusal surface is:
Answer: Class Vl
Q: The following are contagious lesions of the oral cavity:
Answer: Herpes simplex;Type 1 & Type2(HSV-1) “(HSV-2)
Q: The following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation of gingival tissue
Answer: *soft spongy consistancy*bleeding readily
Q: The following structures are included during an intra oral clinical examination:
Answer: *tongue*palate*buccal mucosa
Q: The following is included in an extra oral clinical exam:
Answer: *exam vermillion border*exam commissure of the lips
Q: The following are found in the oral cavity:
Answer: *tori*tuberosity*retromolar pad
Q: when compiling a pts medical history it is appropriate to inquire about:
Answer: *chronic illness*exposure to ionizing radiation*drug allergies*regular medications being taken