Prepare for your Cisco CCNA 200-301 certification exam with these practice questions and answers. This guide covers network fundamentals, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability.
Q: What is the IEEE of Bluetooth?
Answer: 802.15 WPAN
Q: What is WiMAX and it IEEE?
Answer: -Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access-IEEE 802.16 WWAN
Q: In cellular broadband there are two types of cellular networks, what are they?
Answer: Global System for Mobile (GSM) and Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA).GSM is internationally recognized, while CDMA is primarily used in the US.
Q: Typically, it is used by rural homeowners and businesses where cable and DSL are not available. It is usually more expensive and requires a clear line of sight.
Answer: Satellite Broadband
Q: What is the 802.11 WLAN?
Answer: WiFi/wireless devices are based on IEEE 802.11set of protocols and wireless local area network (WLAN) Wi-Fi computer communication in various frequencies-Radio frequency is 2.4 GHz
Q: What is the 802.11a?
Answer: 5 Ghz frequency bandIEEE standard for transmitting data over a wireless network.
Q: What are the two allocated radio frequency in 802.11 wireless LANs?
Answer: 2.4GHz and 5GHz
Q: Which 802.11 standards exclusively use the 5 GHz radio frequency?
Answer: 802.11a802.11ac
Q: Which of the wireless networks typically uses lower powered transmitters for short ranges?
Answer: WPAN
Q: In wireless, what does AP stand for?
Answer: Access Point
Q: What does SSID stand for?
Answer: shared service set identifier (SSID)
Q: The wireless router advertises its wireless services by sending ______________containing its shared service set identifier (SSID)
Answer: Beacons
Q: What does QoS stand for and what does it do?
Answer: Quality of Serviceis a feature of routers and switches which prioritizes traffic so that more important traffic can pass first.
Q: What does WAP stand for and what is it exactly?
Answer: Wireless Access Pointmore generally just an access point, is a networking hardware devices that allows other Wi-Fi devices to connect to a wired network.
Q: What does Wi-Fi stand for?
Answer: Wireless Fidelitytechnically, this is not the case. Wi-Fi is simply a trademarked term meaning IEEE 802.11x.
Q: What is an Autonomous AP?
Answer: -Standalone devices like a home router. Where the entire WLAN configuration resides on the device.-Sometimes called thick APs-do not require a controller to control the AP and it use WLSE for management software-use for a network that requires only a couple of access points.
Q: What does WLC stand for?
Answer: Wireless LAN Controller
Q: What does AS stand for?
Answer: Autonomous System
Q: What are Controller-based APs?
Answer: -These devices require no initial configuration and are often called lightweight APs (LAPs).-Also called thin APs-Centralized management, configuration, encryption, updates and policy settings through a centralized controller
Q: LAPs
Answer: Lightweight Access Points
Q: LWAPP
Answer: Light Weight Access Point Protocol
Q: What is another name for LAPs?
Answer: Controller-based APs
Q: LAG
Answer: Link Aggregation Group
Q: What is MIMO?
Answer: Multiple Input Multiple Output.Uses multiple antennas to increase available bandwidth for IEEE 802.11n/ac/ax wireless networks. Up to eight transmit and receive antennas can be used to increase throughput.
Q: Which of the following components are integrated in a wireless home router?-Access Point-Switch-Router-Range Extender
Answer: Access Point, Switch, Router
Q: What is infrastructure mode in WLAN?
Answer: A wireless router or AP connects wireless clients to a wired distribution system.
Q: What is API and what does the acronym stand for as well?
Answer: Application Programming Interface (API)An API is software that allows other applications to access its data or services. It is a set of rules describing how one application can interact with another, and the instructions to allow the interaction to occur.Data formats shared between smart devices often use an Application Programming Interface (API
Q: There are four types of web service APIs
Answer: Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)Representational State Transfer (REST)eXtensible Markup Language-Remote Procedure Call (XML-RPC)JavaScript Object Notation-Remote Procedure Call (JSON-RPC)
Q: Software-Defined Networking (SDN) is what?
Answer: The physical separation of the network control plane from the forwarding plane, and where a control plane controls several devices.dynamic, manageable, cost-effective, and adaptable
Q: What is FTP and it port number?
Answer: File Transfer ProtocolPort 20, 21Provides reliability when loading an IOS image upon boot up
Q: What is SSH and it port number?
Answer: Secure Shell Protocolport 22
Q: What is telnet port number?
Answer: 23
Q: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) and port number
Answer: port 25
Q: DNS (Domain Name System) port number
Answer: 53
Q: HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) port number
Answer: 80
Q: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) port number
Answer: 161
Q: What portocols are reliable, connection oriented and use TCP?
Answer: FTP, SSH, Telnet, SMTP, DNS, HTTP, POP3, NTP, IMAP4, HTTPS
Q: What protocols are unreliable, connectionless and use UDP?
Answer: DNS, DHCP, TFTP, SNMP
Q: What is DHCP?
Answer: A protocol used to automate the assignment of IP Address. It stands for Dynamic Host Control Protocol and is the successor to BOOTP.
Q: DHCP port number
Answer: 67
Q: What is HSRP?
Answer: HSRP stands for Hot Standby Router Protocol, it was designed for gateway redundancy without addition config on end devices. Routers configured with HSRP present themselves as a single virtual default gateway.-It is Cisco Proprietary-has one active router and one standby router
Q: What does VRRP stand for?
Answer: Virtual Router Redundancy ProtocolHas one master router and multiple backup routers
Q: What is VRRP virtual MAC address?
Answer: 0000.5E00.01xx0000.5E00.01xx, where xx is the value ID for the VRRP group number
Q: What is FHRP?
Answer: First-Hop Redundancy Protocol
Q: In show ip route command, what letter represents EIGRP?
Answer: D
Q: In show ip route command, what letter represents OSPF?
Answer: O
Q: In show ip route command, what letter represents directly connected routes?
Answer: C
Q: In show ip route command, what letter represents static route?
Answer: S
Q: In show ip route command, what letter/symbol represents default routes?
Answer: *on a route such as S * 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via Fastethernet 0/1
Q: In show ip route command, what letter represents local/host connected directly connected?
Answer: L
Q: What is PAgP?
Answer: Port Aggregation Protocolis a Cisco proprietary link aggregator protocol that can bundle up to 8 active ports.-Only uses DESIRABLE and AUTO modes
Q: By default the maximum time that a Cisco switch will retain LLDP info before discarding it when it is enabled on an interface is ______
Answer: 120 seconds
Q: By default, a cisco switch will send LLDP advertisements every ____ seconds when LLDP is enabled on an interface
Answer: 30
Q: What is LLDP on a Cisco switch?
Answer: Link Layer Discovery Protocol.OSI layer 2 open standard discovery protocol that is used to facilitate interoperability between Cisco devices and non-Cisco devices. Attributes that can be learned from neighboring devices contain Type, Length, Value (TLV) info including port description, system description and management address.
Q: What is VTP?
Answer: VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP)is a Layer 2 messaging protocol that maintains VLAN configuration consistency throughout a common administrative domain by managing VLAN additions, deletions, and name changes across multiple switches. Without VTP, you would have to manually add VLAN information to each switch in the network.
Q: What is CDP?
Answer: Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)is a Cisco Proprietary feature that allows you to see directly connected Cisco devices. CDP can provide VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) information whereas LLDP does not.
Q: What is FlexConnect?
Answer: Software basically.(previously known as Hybrid Remote Edge Access Point or H-REAP) is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments. It enables customers to configure and control access points (AP) in a branch or remote office from the corporate office through a wide area network (WAN) link without deploying a controller in each office. The FlexConnect access points can switch client data traffic locally and perform client authentication locally when their connection to the controller is lost. When they are connected to the controller, they can also send traffic back to the controller. In the connected mode, the FlexConnect access point can also perform local authentication.
Q: Number of host on a /24 and it subnet mask
Answer: 256; 255.255.255.0
Q: Number of host on a /23 and it subnet mask
Answer: 512; 255.255.254.0
Q: Host on a /22 and it subnet mask
Answer: 1024; 255.255.252.0
Q: Host on a /21 and it subnet mask
Answer: 2048; 255.255.248.0
Q: Host on a /19 and it subnet mask
Answer: 8192; 255.255.224.0
Q: Host on a /18 and it subnet mask
Answer: 16384; 255.255.192.0
Q: Host on a /25 and it subnet mask
Answer: 128; 255.255.255.128
Q: Host on a /26 and it subnet mask
Answer: 64; 255.255.255.192
Q: Host on a /27 and it subnet mask
Answer: 32; 255.255.255.224
Q: Host on a /28 and it subnet mask
Answer: 16; 255.255.255.240
Q: Host on a /29 and it subnet mask
Answer: 8; 255.255.255.248
Q: Host on a /30 and it subnet mask
Answer: 4; 255.255.255.252
Q: Host on a /31 and it subnet mask
Answer: 2; 255.255.255.254
Q: Host on a /32 and it subnet mask
Answer: 1; 255.255.255.255
Q: Host on a /17 and it subnet mask
Answer: 32768; 255.255.128.0
Q: Host on a /16 and it subnet mask
Answer: 65536; 255.255.0.0
Q: What is the reserved ranges on RFC 1918?
Answer: 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255
Q: What is the reserved range for loopback addresses?
Answer: 127.0.0.0-127.255.255.255
Q: What is the Class A range of addresses?
Answer: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
Q: What is the Class B range of addresses?
Answer: 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
Q: What is the Class C range of addresses?
Answer: 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
Q: What do unique local IPv6 unicast prefix always begin with?
Answer: FD or FCBecause the first 7 bits of a unique local unicast address are always 1111110They can not be aggregatable nor summarized.
Q: What is the address range if a host IP can not obtain a network address via DHCP?
Answer: 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255
Q: What protocol uses UDP and TCP?
Answer: DNS (Domain Name System)
Q: IPv6 multicast address?
Answer: FF00::/8
Q: IPv6 Unicast Link-Local address
Answer: FF80::/10
Q: Link local addresses are unicast addresses used for communication over a __________ link
Answer: single
Q: Link local addresses in IPv6 are used to form what?
Answer: Neighbor adjacencies
Q: Global IPv6 unicast addresses, also known as aggregable global address, do they form neighbor adjacency?
Answer: NO. They do NOT form neighbor adjacency.
Q: IPv6 multicast address for Link-local
Answer: FF02::/16
Q: IPv6 multicast address for Site-local
Answer: FF05::/16
Q: IPv6 multicast address for unicast site-local
Answer: FC00::/7
Q: IPv6 multicast address for global address
Answer: FF0E::/16
Q: Are unicast link local IPv6 addreses routable?
Answer: NO.Used for neighbor discovery
Q: What is HDLC?
Answer: The High-Level Data-Link Control (HDLC) protocol is a populare ISO-standard, bit-oriented, Data Link layer protocol. It specifies an encapsulation method for data on synchronous serial data links using frame characters and checksums. HDLC is a point-to-point protocol used on leased lines. No authentication can be used with HDLC.
Q: What is the difference between HDLC and PPP?
Answer: The major difference between HDLC and PPP , the PPP protocol performs better than HDLC because there is no compulsion of using the Cisco devices in both the ends, which means these are interoperable. PPP also supports multiple protocols and support authentication.
Q: What is PPP?
Answer: Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) is a Data Link layer protocol that can be used over either asynchronous serial (dial-up) or synchronous serial (ISDN) media. It uses Link Control Protocol (LCP) to build and maintain data-link connections. Network Control Protocol (NCP) is used to allow multiple Network layer protocols (routed protocols) to be used on a point-to-point connection. The basic purpose of PPP is to transport layer 3 packets across a Data Link layer point-to-point link, and it’s nonproprietary. The PPP protocol stack is specified at the Physical and Data Link layers only.
Q: In 802.11 wireless topology, what is BSS in Infrastructure?
Answer: Basic Service Set;Consist of a single AP interconnecting all associated wireless clients. The radius of which it covers in it wireless range is called a Basic Service Area (BSA).Layer 2 MAC address of the AP is used to uniquely ID each BSS which is called a Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID).
Q: In 802.11 wireless topology, what is ESS in infrastructure?
Answer: Extended Service SetESS is ID by a SSID and each BSS is ID by its BSSID.When you need more coverage, two or more BSS can join through a common distribution system (DS) into an ESS. The whole covered area is called an Extended Service Area (ESA).A client in one BSA can now communicate with other clients in another BSA within the same ESS. Like a roaming cell phone user may move from one BSA to another and it would be seamless
Q: Since WLAN are half-duplex, what do we use to avoid collision?
Answer: (CSMA/CA) carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance.
Q: What is the port number of RADIUS?
Answer: 1812 for authentication1813 for accouting1645/1646 for UDP ports
Q: AD of directly connected routing
Answer: 0
Q: AD of static route
Answer: 1
Q: AD of internal EIGRP
Answer: 90
Q: AD of OSPF
Answer: 110
Q: AD of RIP
Answer: 120
Q: AD of External EIGRP
Answer: 170
Q: What parameter does RIP use to calculate metric?
Answer: Hop count
Q: What parameter does EGIRP use to calculate metric?
Answer: bandwidth, delay
Q: What parameter does OSPF use to calculate metric?
Answer: cost
Q: Characteristic of distance vector?
Answer: -sends entire routing table-slow convergence-doesn’t know network topology-simpler to configure-examples: RIP, IGRP
Q: Characteristics of Link state?
Answer: -sends only link state information-fast convergence-less susceptible to routing loops-always uses multicast for the routing updates-knows the entire network topology-can be harder to configure-examples: OSPF, IS-IS
Q: Characteristics of CDP?
Answer: -60 second update frequency-180 second hold timer (the top end timer is 255)-enabled by default-L2 protocol-Cisco proprietary-Can convey VTP information
Q: Characteristics of LLDP?
Answer: -30 second update frequency-120 second hold timer-disabled by default-L2 protocol-Open standard protocol
Q: What is the default mode of VTP when on a new switch?
Answer: Server mode
Q: What is EIGRP?
Answer: Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. Is an advanced distance vector routing protocol. EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM, route summarization, incremental updates, load balancing and many other useful features. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol, so all routers in a network that is running EIGRP must be Cisco routers.
Q: What metric does EIGRP use?
Answer: bandwidth and delay
Q: What metric does OSPF use to calculate the best path?
Answer: Cost
Q: What metric does RIP use to calculate best path?
Answer: Hop count
Q: How do you untag a VLAN?
Answer: You set it as a native VLAN
Q: What is RFC 1918?
Answer: RFC 1918 is Address Allocation for Private Internets The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved the following three blocks of the IP address space for private Internets: 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12 and 192.168.0.0/16
Q: What is Cisco ACI?
Answer: Application Centric Infrastructure
Q: What layer is MPLS considered and what does it stand for?
Answer: Layer 2.5; Multiprotocol Label Switching
Q: What is another name for a Hypervisor?
Answer: VMM (Virtual Machine Monitor)
Q: What is CRC stand for?
Answer: Cyclic Redundancy Check
Q: What is another name/nickname for a dashboard?
Answer: A single pane of glass
Q: What are the Northbound APIs?
Answer: OSGiREST
Q: What are the Southbound APIs?
Answer: NETCONFOnePKOpenFlowOpFlex
Q: What does the CAM table use to populate it?
Answer: The source MAC address
Q: Switches make forwarding decisions based on the_______ contained in a frame’s header.
Answer: Destination MAC Address
Q: What is SaaS?
Answer: Software as servicesenables it consumer to access applications running in the cloud infrastructure but does not enable the consumer to manage the cloud infrastructure or the configs of the provided applications. A good example is a company license an office suite, including email service, that is delivered to the end user through a web browser.
Q: What is IaaS?
Answer: Infrastructure as a Servicethe greatest degree of freedom by enabling its consumer to provision processing, memory, storage and network resources within the cloud infrastructure. Customer does NOT have control over the physical infrastructure in the cloud.
Q: What is PaaS?
Answer: Platform as a Serviceprovides it consumer with slightly more freedom than the SaaS model by enabling the consumer to install and possibly config provider supported applications in the cloud infrastructure. An example would be a company obtains a subscription to use a service provider’s infrastructure, programming tools, and programming languages to develop and serve cloud based applications.
Q: What is GLBP?
Answer: Gateway Load Balancing ProtocolHas one active virtual gateway and multiple active virtual forwardersCisco proprietary similar to HSRP. Allows load-balancing.
Q: What is NAT?
Answer: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a protocol that translates public IP addresses to private IP addresses and vice-versa. NAT is often enabled on the Internet-facing firewall, and in home networks is usually running on the router.
Q: In Nat addressing what does the Inside Global Address display?
Answer: display an IP address that an inside host as seen by host on the outside networkA valid public address that the inside host is given when it exits the NAT router.
Q: In NAT addressing what does the Inside Local Address display?
Answer: display the IP address config on a host on the local network
Q: In NAT addressing what does the Outside Local Address display?
Answer: display the IP address of a host on the outside network as seen from a host on the inside network
Q: In NAT addressing what does the Outside Global Address display?
Answer: display the IP address config on a host on the outside network
Q: What is EtherChannel?
Answer: Etherchannel is a Cisco feature that allows you to combine several physical links (up to eight) into one logical connection for increased bandwidth. Data between the links is load-balanced, and Spanning Tree sees the logical link as one link; thus all physical ports are forwarding. Different interface types can’t be bundled together such as gigabit can’t be bundle with fast Ethernet
Q: What is LACP?
Answer: Link Aggregation Control Protocolbundle two or more identical, physical interfaces into a single logical link between switches-Open Standard-Only uses ACTIVE and PASSIVE mode
Q: What is STP?
Answer: Spanning Tree Protocol.Allows for multiple redundant paths while breaking loops. Operates at Data Link
Q: How does STP decide which switch will be the root switch?
Answer: the switch with the lowest BIDSince by default all switches have the BID priority of 32768, the second comparison has to be made – the lowest MAC address.
Q: What steps does STP take to achieve convergence?
Answer: -Elect the root bridge, with the switch with the lowest BID-Elect a root port for each nonroot switch, based on the lowet root path cost-Elect a designated port for each segment, based on the lowest root path cost-Root ports and designated ports transition to the forwarding state
Q: What is PVST+?
Answer: Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Pluscisco enhancement of STP that provides a separate spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured on the network-slow convergence-default setting on all cisco catalyst switches-uses a lot of CPU
Q: What is Rapid PVST+?
Answer: Uses PVST+ and provides config PER VLAN-cisco proprietary-fast convergence-need very high resources to use
Q: STP In case the best root cost ties for two or more paths, the following tiebreakers do what?
Answer: the lowest neighbor bridge IDthe lowest neighbor port prioritythe lowest neighbor internal port number
Q: In STP, the switch with the best path to reach the root switch is called?
Answer: he designated switch and its port is known as the designated port. In order to avoid loops, the non-designated port on the other end of the link is placed in blocking state.
Q: In OSPF, Hello packets are used to do what?
Answer: -Discover OSPF neighbors and establish neighbor adjacencies-Advertise parameters on which two routers must agree to become neighbors-Elect the DR and BDR on multiaccess networks such as Ethernet and Frame Relay
Q: What are the OSPF characteristics?
Answer: -Classless routing protocol-only supports equal cost load balancing-Uses COST as it metric-Fast convergence-Uses Dijksta’s Algorithm-Open Standard-AD is 110-multicast address is 224.0.0.5 or 224.0.0.6-destination MAC address is also a multicast address of 01-00-5E-00-00-05 or 01-00-5E-00-00-06.-Supports MD5 Authentication
Q: How is the OSPF designated router (DR) get chosen?
Answer: Highest priority, then highest router ID (highest physical interface by default).The router with the second highest OSPF priority or router ID will become a BDR.
Q: In OSPF how is the router ID determined if not manually configured?
Answer: · Highest IP address among loopback interface· Then by highest IP address among physical interfaces
Q: In OSPF when the DR and BDR achieve FULL state with every router on the segment what will display for the other routers when you enter the show ip ospf neighbor command?
Answer: FULL/DROTHERBasically, DRother is a router that’s neither a DR nor a BDR.
Q: OSPF what must match to be able to form adjacency?
Answer: -Timers/hello and dead timers-Network Type/Netmask-Area ID*PROCESS ID DO NOT HAVE TO MATCH
Q: OSPF what must be unique to form adjacency?
Answer: -IP Address-Router ID*PROCESS ID DO NOT HAVE TO MATCH
Q: What is default-information originate?
Answer: The default gateway of last resort for the whole network if the routers don’t know where to send the information.If it is configured on a router: OSPF will advertise that router’s gateway of last resort to use. It will also make that router become the OSPF ASBR
Q: A router located between an OSPF routing domain and a non-OSPF routing network is called what?
Answer: autonomous system boundary router (ASBR)
Q: What is one of the reasons your routers are unable to form OSPF adjacency?
Answer: OSPF areas must matchAlthough you can config for a multiarea OSPF topology, OSPF areas on neighboring interfaces must match in order for two OSPF routers to form an adjacency.
Q: What order is the 802.3 frame?
Answer: PREAMBLE-SOF-DESTINATION ADDRESS-SOURCE ADDRESS-TYPE-PAYLOAD-FCS
Q: In OSPF what is BDR?
Answer: Backup Designated RouterThe BDR monitors the DR and takes over as DR if the current DR fails.
Q: In OSPF what is DR?
Answer: Designated RouterThe DR is responsible for updating all other OSPF routers when a change occurs in the multiaccess network.
Q: What must all areas connect to in multiarea OSPF?
Answer: The backbone area
Q: What does ABR stand for and what does it do in OSPF?
Answer: Area Border RouterABRs send interarea routes between areas.
Q: Single Area OSPF the process ID is___________ significant and does not have to match other OSPF routers to establish adjacency with those neighbors.
Answer: locally
Q: All OSPF routers within the same OSPF area must be config with the same _____________ on all routers
Answer: area ID
Q: How is OSPF router ID determined?
Answer: -Manually configured if not:-highest IP address among loopback interfaces-Then by highest IP address among physical interfaces
Q: QoS levels, what would voice be prioritized on?
Answer: Platinum
Q: QoS levels, what would video be prioritized on?
Answer: Gold
Q: QoS levels, what would the default setting be?
Answer: Silver
Q: QoS levels, what would provide the lowest bandwidth and is used for guest services?
Answer: Bronze
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for emergencies?
Answer: 0
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for alerts?
Answer: 1
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for critical?
Answer: 2
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for errors?
Answer: 3
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for warnings?
Answer: 4
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for notifications?
Answer: 5
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for informational?
Answer: 6
Q: What are the debug log messages severity level for debugging?
Answer: 7
Q: What are the Server VTP characteristics?
Answer: -creates/modifies/deletes VLANS-synchronizes VTP information-originates VTP adverts-forwards VTP adverts-stores VLAN info in NVRAM
Q: What are the Client VTP characteristics?
Answer: -synchronizes VTP info-originates VTP adverts-forwards VTP adverts
Q: What are the Transparent VTP characteristics?
Answer: -creates/modifies/deletes VLANs-forwards VTP adverts-stores VLAN info in NVRAM-does not advertise-does not synchronize it configs
Q: What is root guard?
Answer: prevents introduced switches from being elected the new root
Q: What is BPDU guard?
Answer: This is used in conjunction with Portfast to prevent the Portfast enabled switchport from responding to STP updates that could destroy the current network STP configuration. When the STP update is received, this puts the switchport into error disabled mode until the administrator manually brings the switchport back up.
Q: What is PortFast?
Answer: reduces convergence time by placing edge ports into a forwarding state
Q: What is Loop guard?
Answer: prevents a switch port from transitioning to the forwarding state when it stops receiving BPDUs
Q: In EIGRP what is Feasible Distance (FD)?
Answer: The best metric along a path
Q: In EIGRP what is a successor?
Answer: A successor is the route with the best metric to reach a destination. That route is stored in the routing table
Q: In EIGRP, what is feasible successor?
Answer: A feasible successor is a backup path to reach that same destination that can be used immediately if the successor route fails. These backup routes are stored in the topology table. Loop-free
Q: EIGRP how is a feasible successor chosen?
Answer: the neighbor’s advertised distance (AD) for the route must be less than the successor’s feasible distance (FD).
Q: In EIGRP, what is the advertised distance (AD)?
Answer: The metric that the next-hop router has calculated
Q: EIGRP what algorithm does it use?
Answer: DUAL (Diffusing Update Algorithm)selects the best path and the second best path to the destination
Q: EIGRP, how many seconds is a hello packet sent to maintain neighbor adjacency?
Answer: 5 seconds
Q: EIGRP, how many seconds is a hello packet sent on a multicast to keep neighbor adjacency?
Answer: 60 seconds
Q: In DHCP what is the ip helper-address command?
Answer: enables a DHCP relay agent on a router.
Q: Which OSI layer enables coding and conversion functions for application layer data?
Answer: Presentation Layer
Q: In OSI what does the session layer do?
Answer: used to create, manage, and terminate sessions between communicating nodes. It handles the service request and service responses that take place between different applications.
Q: In OSI, what does the transport layer do?
Answer: responsible for error-free and sequential delivery of data and flow control.
Q: In OSI, what does the network layer do?
Answer: defines a logical address that helps select the route to the destination
Q: If your ethernet 0/0 is up, line protocol is down what is the issue?
Answer: Data link layer issue but the physical layer of the interface is operational
Q: Virtual MAC address of HSRP version 1?
Answer: 0000.0C07.ACxx. 0000.0C07.ACxx where xx is the group number
Q: Virtual MAC address of GLBP?
Answer: 0007.B400.xxyy0007.B400.xxyy where xx is the GLBP group number and yy is the AVF number
Q: What is SDA?
Answer: Software Defined Accessuses a controller and application programming interfaces (APIs) to communicate via southbound interfaces (SBIs) with the network infrastructure,
Q: Characteristic of Ansible?
Answer: -Agentless-Uses YAML-Uses SSH/NETCONF for remote device communication-Uses a push model-Has a ‘playbook’-Written in PYTHON
Q: Characteristic of Puppet?
Answer: -Agent based-Written in RUBY-Uses a pull model-Has a ‘manifest’-where config elements are stored-Uses HTTP (REST) to communicate-uses TCP 8140
Q: Characteristic of Chef?
Answer: -Agent based-Written in RUBY-Uses a Pull model-Has a ‘recipe’ and ‘Cookbook’-Use HTTP (REST)-Not supported by a lot of Cisco devices-uses TCP 10002 config for push jobs
Q: What is Salt written in?
Answer: PYTHON
Q: JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) uses what syntax rules
Answer: KEY:VALUEUses { } and [ ]Array is in [ ]Object is in { }Value are after the colonValue text is listed in double quotesValue numeric is listed without quotes
Q: What is REST?
Answer: A REST API is an API that works on top of the HTTP protocol. It defines a set of functions developers can use to perform requests and receive responses through HTTP, such as GET and POST.
Q: When is REST considered RESTFUL?
Answer: -Client/server: The client handles the front end, and the server handles the back end. Either can be replaced independently of the other.-Stateless: No client data is stored on the server between requests. The session state is stored on the client.-Cacheable: Clients can cache responses to improve performance.
Q: What does an API do?
Answer: APIs exist to allow two programs to exchange data. Some APIs are for interprogram communications within a single operating system (OS). Other APIs are available to programs that run on other computers. These APIs must define the networking protocol. Many are based on REST.
Q: What is XML?
Answer: Extensible Markup Language
Q: What is YAML?
Answer: YAML Ain’t Markup Language
Q: In Cisco DNA what is the network infrastructure called?
Answer: Fabric
Q: The Fabric in Cisco DNA is divided into two parts and what are they?
Answer: Underlay: This is most closely associated with the physical network. The underlay reveals additional devices and specifies how these devices are connected. Endpoints access the network through the Layer 2 devices. Switches, routers, cablesOverlay: This is where tunneling protocols like Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN) are implemented to transport Layer 3 protocols such as IP Security (IPsec) and Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP). The overlay is where policies are specified. The overlay is not concerned with how the devices are physically or logically connected.
Q: What two roles does the Cisco DNA Center have?
Answer: -A controller in a network that uses Cisco SDA- A network management platform for traditional (non-SDA) network devices
Q: How are FlexConnect ALCs applied?
Answer: Per AP and per VLANAlso supported on the NATIVE VLANTHEY ARE NOT PER PORT/INTERFACE
Q: We like DHCP………. NOT DHCP_____________
Answer: We like DHCP SNOOPING-uses the concept of trusted and untrusted ports.We do NOT LIKE DHCP SPOOFING-spoofing attack occurs when a rogue DHCP server is connected to the network and provides false IP configuration parameters to legitimate clients.
Q: What is the appropriate coverage overlap in wireless AP?
Answer: 10-15%
Q: Best practice in 802.11 when expanding an existing 802.11 wireless network?
Answer: Config each AP with the same SSID and a unique, non overlapping channel
Q: What is CAPWAP?
Answer: Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points – a way for control data to be tunneled between Lightweight AP and Centralized controller
Q: If the destination IP address of the packet does not belong to a connected or remote network and the router does not have a default route, the packet is discarded. The router sends an_______________
Answer: ICMP Unreachable Message
Q: The type of interface determines the type of Layer 2 encapsulation.If the exit interface is FastEthernet, the packet is encapsulated in an________ frame
Answer: Ethernet
Q: The type of interface determines the type of Layer 2 encapsulation.If the exit interface is a serial interface configured for PPP, the IP packet is encapsulated in a__________frame
Answer: PPP
Q: What is router on a stick?
Answer: -A Router on a stick is where you have a router hanging off a switch on a trunk link and have subinterfaces. Use for routing between VLANS.Has to be directly connected to the router for interVLAN routing and router on a stick to work.
Q: True or False: You need to have the command encapsulation dot1q to configure trunking
Answer: TRUE
Q: What is SVI?
Answer: Switch virtual interface (SVI): Virtual VLAN interface used for inter-VLAN routing
Q: When do you use static routing?
Answer: In a small network that requires only simple routingIn a hub-and-spoke network topologyWhen you want to create a quick ad hoc routeAs a backup when the primary route failsStatic routes are commonly used when you are routing from a larger network to a stub network (a network that is accessed by a single link). Static routes can also be useful for specifying a default route or gateway of last resort.
Q: When do you NOT want to use static routing?
Answer: In a large networkWhen the network is expected to scale
Q: What command would you use to configure a static route?
Answer: ip route {network-address subnet mask}
Q: What is recursive lookup?
Answer: The router has to check through the routing table more than once in order to find a route to a destination. It is important to put the exit interface on an ip route command for this reason
Q: Default gateway is only on a connection between a _____ and a ______ connected to each other
Answer: router and switch
Q: A__________ route is a route that matches all packets. Commonly called quad zero route, uses 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Answer: default
Q: In IPv6, double colon (::) means?
Answer: Just as with the quad-zero in IPv4, the double colon (::) means all 0s or any address, and the /0 means any prefix length.
Q: OSPF what is the default hello timer?
Answer: 10 seconds
Q: OSPF the default dead timer is?
Answer: 40 seconds/ always 4 x the hello timer
Q: In OSPF what is LSU?
Answer: LInk-state Update.LSUs are the packets used for OSPF routing updates. An LSU packet can contain 11 types of LSAs
Q: In OSPF what is LSR?
Answer: Link-state request
Q: The metric in OSPF uses cost, what is the cost of an 10 gbps?
Answer: 1
Q: The metric in OSPF uses cost, what is the cost of an 1 gbps?
Answer: 10
Q: The metric in OSPF uses cost, what is the cost of an 100 Mbps?
Answer: 100
Q: The metric in OSPF uses cost, what is the cost of an 10 Mbps?
Answer: 1000
Q: In OSPF do point to point links elect a DR or BDR?
Answer: NO
Q: OSPF, the show ip ospf neighbor command displays what in it output?
Answer: Neighbor IDPRI=Priority of the interfaceStateDead TimeAddressInterface
Q: OSPF Network types
Answer: broadcast multicastnonbroadcastpoint to pointpoint to multipoint broadcastpoint to multipoint nonbroadcast
Q: What is the default network type enabled in OSPF point to point network?
Answer: HDCL and PPP
Q: True or False: HDLC can work on any router?
Answer: FALSEBecause it has some proprietary characteristics that won’t allow it to work on non-cisco devices
Q: OSPF the default hello and dead timer on a nonbroadcast network is?
Answer: 30 second hello120 second dead interval
Q: What are you using to establishing a secure VPN tunnel between two sites that are separated by an untrusted network?
Answer: IPSec
Q: What is GRE?
Answer: GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) is a protocol designed to tunnel any L3 protocol through an IP transport network. Because the focus of GRE is to transport many different protocols, it has very limited security features
Q: If ip arp inspection is been issued on the interface, what does that mean for the interface?
Answer: It is an untrusted port. DAI (Dynamic ARP Inspection) has been configured.
Q: An ACL list of commands are processed in order, from _____ to _____
Answer: first state to last statement.
Q: Standard IPv4 ACL filter traffic based on what?
Answer: Source address only
Q: What command would you use to create an ACL?
Answer: access-list; in global config mode to create an entry in standard IPv4 ACL. We always put the subnet mask in wildcar mask formexample: access-list 1 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
Q: What is the command for NAT overload?
Answer: ip nat inside source static {ip address} overload
Q: In QoS traffic type, what is the voice characteristic?
Answer: SmoothBenignDrop sensitiveDelay sensitiveUDP priority
Q: In QoS traffic type, what is the video characteristic?
Answer: BurstyGreedyDrop SensitiveDelay SensitiveUDP priority
Q: In QoS traffic type, what is the data characteristic?
Answer: Smooth/burstyBenign/greedydrop insensitivedelay insensitiveTCP retrasmists
Q: Congestion method that drops lower priority packets if network congestion is detected?
Answer: WRED
Q: So when an SNMP agent/managed node sends a message to an SNMP manager what is it called?
Answer: TRAP
Q: How do you set the NTP server?
Answer: NTP server {ip address of the NTP server}
Q: In Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) what mode operates in access mode unless the neighboring interface actively negotiates to operate as a trunk?
Answer: Auto
Q: In Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) what mode operates in access mode unless the neighboring interface actively negotiates to operate as a trunk?
Answer: Auto
Q: If you have an OSPF route on ethernet 0/0 and then issue the command 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.252 ethernet 0/0 on the same router, what will happen?
Answer: If a router has a static route and an OSPF route to the same destination network, the static route will be preferred over the dynamic route because static routes have a lower AD than routing protocols.
Q: What command is used to issue a static route on a router?
Answer: ip route {prefix mask [ip-address | interface}
Q: In 802.11 there are three general types: control, management and data. Each of them have a further subdivided types. The FC (Frame Control) field of the 802.11 header is used to ID these type and subtype frames. What type of frame does RTS, CTS, ACK and PS belong to?
Answer: Control Frame
Q: What is RTS/CTS in the FC field of the 802.11 field hearder?
Answer: Ready to sendClear to send
Q: What encryption is used by both WPA2 and WPA3?
Answer: AES
Q: What is also used along with AES encryption in WPA2?
Answer: CCMP (Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol)
Q: What is also used along with AES encryption in WPA3?
Answer: GCMP (Galois/Counter Mode Protocol)
Q: What is DAI and what does it help mitigate?
Answer: Dynamic ARP Inspection and it helps mitigate ARP poisoning attacks or ARP spoofing attakcs.
Q: What command is used to implement DAI?
Answer: ip arp inspection vlan in global config mode
Q: If you issue the following commands:ipv6 enabledno shutdownInterface on the other side of the link is not yet configured and there is no DHCPv6 server, how many IPv6 addresses are config on the interface?
Answer: one
Q: What WLC interfaces is the only available interface when the WLC is booting?
Answer: service-port interface
Q: What is enabled on a Cisco router when you issue the ntp server command from the global config mode?
Answer: static client mode
Q: What are the two true things about IPv6 unique local unicast address?
Answer: -First 7 bits of the prefix are always 1111110-Unique only within an organization
Q: What kind of ports are displayed in the output of a show vlan command?
Answer: Access ports
Q: What command is used to display trunk ports?
Answer: show interfaces trunk
Q: If you issue the switchport nonegotiate command, what are you disabling?
Answer: DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol)
Q: Routers select best routes based on what following criteria?
Answer: -Longest prefix match: Routers select routes with the longest match to the destination address in the forwarded packet.-Administrative distance: If a router is receiving the same route from multiple routing protocols it will install the route with the lowest Administrative distance in the routing table-Metric: If the router is receiving the same route many times from the same routing protocol it will consult the metric value for its selection; the lowest the best. If routes has the same metric both will be installed in the routing table and the router will load balance packets over them
Q: What does an autonomous AP contain?
Answer: Network interfaces for both wireless and wired networks
Q: What is the order the 802.11 MAC frame format?
Answer: FC-DUR-ADD1-ADD2-ADD3-SEQ-ADD4-DATA-FCS
Q: In what OSPF network types does DR and BDR NOT ELECTED?
Answer: point-to-multipointpoint-to-point
Q: Characteristic of OnePK?
Answer: cisco proprietary API
Q: Characteristic of OpenFlow?
Answer: uses an imperative SDN modeldetailed instructions are sent to the SDN controller when a new policy is to be configured.
Q: Characteristic of OpFlex?
Answer: uses a declarative SDN modelinstructions that are sent to the controller are not so detailed.
Q: Characteristic of NETCONF?
Answer: uses XML and RPCs to config the network devices
Q: What component simplifies the management and deployment of wireless APs in a Cisco Autonomous WLAN solution?
Answer: WLSE (Wireless LAN Solution Engine)
Q: You are configuring a DHCP pool on a router named Router Awhat command correctly configures a domain name for the pool?
Answer: RouterA (dhcp-config)#domain-name exmaple.com
Q: What is RED?
Answer: Random Early Detectionrandomly drops packets based on a mark probability denominator when congestion is detected
Q: What is FIFO?
Answer: First in First outqueuing congestion method; packets are processed in the order they are received without any regard to the IP. All packets destined for a full FIFO queue are dropped until the existing packets make free space
Q: What is WFQ?
Answer: Weighted Fair Queingcongestion management method not a congestion avoidance method. traffic is ID by WFQ based on source and destination IP address, port number and protocol number.
Q: In EIGRP is it true process IDs must match?
Answer: TRUE
Q: When service password-encryption command is issued, what passwords are encrypted on the router?
Answer: passwords config by any means along with any passwords configured in the future
Q: What is then normal OSPF neighbor state for a router that is neither DR or BDR?
Answer: 2-way
Q: What is the neighbor routers state in OSPF when it is being powered on?
Answer: DOWN
Q: What WLC interface controls all Layer 3 communications between a WLC and a lightweight AP?
Answer: AP-manager interface
Q: An LACP channel group on SwitchA is configured to operate in active mode.Which mode could you configure the corresponding channel group on SwitchB to create a valid EtherChannel config?
Answer: ACTIVE/PASSIVE
Q: What can NOT be configured on FlexConnect ACLs?
Answer: They can not be configured with a per-rule direction
Q: What are two true things about dynamic interfaces on WLC?
Answer: -Dynamic interfaces are typically used for client data-Dynamic interfaces are user-defined
Q: Name a benefit of SD-Access in Cisco DNA
Answer: Enables network access in minutes for any user or device to any application without compromising security
Q: Name a benefit of SD-WAN in Cisco DNA
Answer: -Delivers better user experiences for applications residing on premise or in the cloud-Achieve greater agility and cost savings through easier deployments and transport independence
Q: Name a benefit of Cisco DNA Assurance
Answer: -Allows to ID root causes and provide suggestings for faster troubleshooting-provides easy to use SINGLE dashboard-Has machine learning continually improves network intelligence to predict problems before they occur
Q: Name a benefit of Cisco DNA Security
Answer: -360 degree visibility through real-time analytics for deep intelligence-lower complexity with end to end security-encrypts traffic, reduce risk and protect your organization against threats
Q: What is TOR?
Answer: Top Of Rack
Q: What is performed by a WLC in a split-MAC deployment?
Answer: -Resource Reservation-Authentication
Q: What is split-MAC deployment?
Answer: A key component of CAPWAP is the concept of a split MAC, where part of the 802.11 protocol operation is managed by the CAPWAP AP, while the remaining parts are managed by the WLC.
Q: What connects a wireless client to a wired network without requiring a separate wireless controller?
Answer: autonomous AP deployment
Q: What management frame contains the SSID of a wireless network?
Answer: Beacons
Q: CoS priority value does a Cisco IP phone assign to traffic received from a host on its access port by default?
Answer: 0
Q: What information will the command ‘show cdp neighbors detail’ show us?
Answer: -Device ID or hostname, of the neighboring device-IP address of the neighboring device-platform, or product number, of the neighboring device-capabilities of the neighboring device-local interface-remote interface-holdtime-software version-native VLAN-VTP domain
Q: What information will the command ‘show cdp neighbors’ show us?
Answer: -device ID of the neighboring device-capabilities of the neighboring device-product number of the neighboring device-holdtime-local interface-remote interface
Q: What Cisco lightweight AP mode provides BSSs?
Answer: Local
Q: What does Flexconnect mode enable in a lightweight AP?
Answer: Enables a failsafe for the lightweight AP if its connection to the WLC by way of CAPWAP tunnels goes down. Enables a lightweight AP to switch traffic between a given SSID and a VLAN.
Q: What AP deployment that connects to APs to a WLC that is housed within a switch stack?
Answer: embedded AP deployment
Q: What command globally disables LLDP?
Answer: no lldp run
Q: If you issue the ‘show ap config general MyLAP’ command on a Cisco AP; what output is it going to least likely contain?
Answer: AP’s Syslog server settings
Q: True or False: FlexConnect ACLs are supported on the native VLAN
Answer: TRUE
Q: In a split-MAC deployment, which device is responsible for prioritizing packets and responding to beacon and probe requests?
Answer: lightweight AP
Q: What command should you issue to restore the LLDP hold timer configuration to its default value?
Answer: no lldp holdtime
Q: In 802.11, there are numerous management frames to manage the connection between an AP and a wireless client. What are they?
Answer: -Beacons-Probe request-Probe responses- Association Request-Association responses-Authentication request-Authentication Reponses-Deauthentication-Reassociation Request-Reassoction reponses-announcement traffic indication message
Q: What standards natively include PortFast, UplinkFast, and BackboneFast?
Answer: 802.1w (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol RSTP)
Q: What is TFTP?
Answer: (T)FTP is a file transfer protocol.-Port 69-uses UDP-does not require user authentication
Q: A frame enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented?
Answer: Input errosCRC
Q: Which 802.11 frame type is association reponse?
Answer: Management
Q: In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
Answer: A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch
Q: When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined?
Answer: FF02::1FF02::2
Q: What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
Answer: The L2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN
Q: Which IPv6 address type handles communication between subnets and cannot route on the internet?
Answer: Unique Local
Q: Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Answer: FF00::/8
Q: What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Answer: It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually
Q: True or False: When implementing Link Aggregation on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller, only ONE functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
Answer: TRUE
Q: What conditions must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch?
Answer: -switch must be running k9 (crypto) IOS image-ip domain-name command must be configured
Q: What conditions must be met before RSA can operate?
Answer: -host name-domain name
Q: Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
Answer: Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Q: Device that manages access points
Answer: wireless LAN controller
Q: device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network
Answer: access point
Q: used for out of band management of a WLC
Answer: service port
Q: used to support the mobility management of the WLC
Answer: virtual interface
Q: applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication
Answer: dynamic interface
Q: Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Answer: FlexConnect
Q: Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
Answer: ON
Q: Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
Answer: lightweight
Q: Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI?
Answer: SSIDprofile name
Q: Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
Answer: lldp reinit
Q: Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
Answer: The link becomes a trunk port.
Q: When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
Answer: It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route with the lowest cost.
Q: A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
Answer: broadcast
Q: A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Answer: Metric
Q: Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism?
Answer: -It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.- It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
Q: Characteristics of DHCP Server
Answer: -assigns a default gateway to a client-holds the TCP/IP settings to be distributed to the clients-assigns IP addresses to enabled clients
Q: Characteristics of DNS Server
Answer: -resolves web URLs to IP addresses-stores a list of IP addresses mapped to names
Q: What is the effect of this configuration?ip arp inspection vlan 5-10interface fastethernet 0/1switchport mode accessswitchport access vlan 5
Answer: The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings
Q: Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?
Answer: AES-256
Q: When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select?
Answer: -ASCII-hexadecimal
Q: What are the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings in Layer 2 security mechanisms?
Answer: -WPA+WPA2-802.1X
Q: What are the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings in Layer 3 security mechanisms?
Answer: -web policy-passthrough-VPN Pass-Through
Q: What is TACACS+?
Answer: TACACS+ is a Cisco Proprietary protocol that enables AAA. Most commonly used for administrator access to network devices like routers and switches.-All three AAA can be used independently-TCP used on port 49-Supports multiprotocol for Appletalk, NetBIOS, X.25 and NASI-encryption applied to username and password-Does NOT support 802.1x-use in trusted environment
Q: What is RADIUS?
Answer: Designed to authenticate and log remote network users, uses AAA. The advantage to using RADIUS or TACACS+ on this central server is that you don’t configure changes on each separate network device when a user is added or deleted, or when a user changes a password. You only make one change to the configuration on the server and then devices continue to access the server for authentication.-Authentication and Authorization are bundled together. When client request authentication from server it comes with both. Can not be seperated-Accounting can be used independently-Uses UDP on port 1645/1646, 1812/1813-Encryption applied to password-Supports 802.1x-client/server model-use in semi trusted environment
Q: Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Answer: Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.
Q: What are two benefits of network automation?
Answer: -Reduced operation costs-Faster changes with more reliable results
Q: What are two characteristics of a controller-based network?
Answer: -It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.-It moves the control plane to a central point.
Q: Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible?
Answer: -REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center-SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
Q: What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
Answer: It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.
Q: Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
Answer: southbound
Q: Which two SNMP actions are used by an NMS (Network Management Station) to extract information from an SNMP agent?
Answer: getNextget
Q: What does both RED and WRED address?
Answer: tail dropit does NOT address strict-priority queuing
Q: What best describes why WRED is useful for networks where the majority of traffic uses TCP?
Answer: -TCP packets that are dropped must be re-transmitted-TCP sources reduce traffic flow when congestion occurs
Q: What is the MAC address represents an IP multicast address?
Answer: 01-00-5E-0F-0F-0F
Q: What are two true things regarding physical connections in the Cisco ACI architecture reguarding spine and leaf?
Answer: -Each spine node must connect to every leaf node-Each leaf node must connect to every spine mode
Q: What is a Cisco ACI?
Answer: Data center technology that uses switches, categorized as spine and leaf nodes, to dynamically implement network application policies in response to application-level needs. Network policies are defined on a APIC (Application Policy Infrastructure Controller) and then implemented by the spine and leaf nodes.
Q: What term is used to describe an Ethernet frame that exceeds 1,518 bytes and has a bad FCS value?
Answer: Giant*Remember the default MTU size for Ethernet frames is 1,500 bytes.
Q: What table is used by a switch to discover the relationship between the L2 address of a device and the physical port used to reach the device?
Answer: CAM table*The switch makes forwarding decisions based on destination MAC address, it searches the CAM table for and entry that matches. If not found, it then forwards the frame to all its ports except the one it was received from.
Q: What is an ARP table?
Answer: Contains L2 and L3 addresses.the method for finding a host’s Link Layer (MAC) address when only its IP address is known. The ARP table is used to maintain a correlation between each MAC address and its corresponding IP address. The ARP table can be manually entered by the user. User entries are not aged out.
Q: How do you override the default config of an DAI config on a port/interface?
Answer: By issuing ip arp inspection trust command in interface config mode.
Q: What two IPv6 address prefixes are not routable?
Answer: -FF02::/16-FF80::/10
Q: What is a baby giant frame?
Answer: An Ethernet frame that is up to 1600 bytes in length.
Q: What is a late collision?
Answer: Ethernet collision that occurs after 512 bits of frame have already been transmitted. An Ethernet cable that is too long, half-duplex port that is connected to a full-duplex port can create this as well
Q: What do Runts, Frame Check Sequence errors and alignment errors indicate?
Answer: duplex mismatch
Q: What field in an 802.11 MAC frame is used to indicate whether the frame is a management frame?
Answer: FC (Frame Control)
Q: What address type is used by IPv6 routing protocols to form neighbor adjacencies?
Answer: Link-local address
Q: What are IPv6 anycast routing protocol used for?
Answer: to send packets to the closest device that is configured with an anycast address. Ideal for load balancing.
Q: What are IPv6 global unicast address used for?
Answer: AKA aggregatable global address, deisgned to minimize the size of internet routing tables.
Q: What best describes what occurs when a packet must be re-sent because of an interruption that occurs before the 64th byte has been transmitted?
Answer: A collision occurs
Q: What is the IPv6 prefix for global aggregatable unicast address?
Answer: 2000::/3
Q: What prefix will an IPv6-enabled computer use to automatically configure an IPv6 address for itself?
Answer: FE80::/10
Q: In IPv6, Unicast packets are used for one-to-one communication
Answer: TRUE
Q: In IPv6, Link-local addresses are unique only on the local segment and not routable
Answer: TRUE
Q: Unicast link-local address are used for neighbor discovery and for environments in which no router is present to provide a routable IPv6 prefix
Answer: TRUE
Q: On which interface is the OSPF broadcast network type enabled by default?
Answer: -Ethernet-FDDI
Q: On which interface is the OSPF NONBROADCAST network type enabled by default?
Answer: -Frame Relay-X.25
Q: On which interface is the OSPF POIN-TO-POINT network type enabled by default?
Answer: -HDLC-PPP
Q: What OSPF network type has a default Hello timer of 10 seconds and a default dead timer of 40 seconds?
Answer: Point-to-PointBroadcast
Q: What OSPF network has a default Hello timer of 30 seconds and a default dead timer of 120 seconds?
Answer: -Nonbroadcast-point-to-multipoint-point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
Q: What is true regarding a floating static route?
Answer: A floating static route is used to provide link redundancy
Q: In OSPF, neighbor routers that are neither the DR nor BDR remain in what state?
Answer: 2-Way Sate
Q: In OSPF, routers that are DR or BDR will be in what state?
Answer: FULL
Q: What Cisco-proprietary FHRP that elects an AVG and up to four primary AVFs?
Answer: GLBP
Q: What does not indicate a duplex mismatch on an Ethernet LAN?
Answer: Baby Giants
Q: What IPv6 address is a link-local multicast address that is used to send a packet to all routers on a segment?
Answer: FF02::2
Q: What type of encryption is used for WEP?
Answer: RC4*Less secure than AES and uses a stream cipher
Q: What encryption is used to provide MICs and encryption in WPA?
Answer: TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)
Q: True or False: When inputting passwords for enable mode, will the engineer use the password from enable password or enable secret?
Answer: Enable secret*Enable secret will override enable password command
Q: WLAN Components: Describe Access Point
Answer: device that provides Wi-Fi devices with a connection to a wired network
Q: WLAN Components: Describe Virtual Interface
Answer: Used to support mobility management
Q: WLAN Components: Describe Dynamic Interface
Answer: Applied to the WLAN for wireless client communication
Q: WLAN Components: Describe Service Port
Answer: Used for out of band management of WLC
Q: WLAN Components: Describe Wireless LAN Controller
Answer: Devices that manages access points
Q: Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.)
Answer: SSIDProfile Name
Q: Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?
Answer: Administrative Distance
Q: Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.)
Answer: -The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.-The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
Q: Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
Answer: -The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.-The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
Q: How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
Answer: It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.
Q: In OSPF, what is the default OSPF type for ETHERNET interfaces?
Answer: Broadcast
Q: In OSPF, what is the default OSPF type for SERIAL interfaces?
Answer: Point-to-Point
Q: Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
Answer: ip address dhcp
Q: What is the primary difference between AAA authentication and authorization?
Answer: Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls that tasks the user can perform.
Q: Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs?
Answer: XMLJSON
Q: Which two keying mechanisms are available within MACsec?
Answer: SAPMKA
Q: What is MACsec?
Answer: MACsec provides Layer 2 encryption on the LAN. It also encapsulates and protects the metadata field that carries the Security Group TAG (SGT). Currently, two keying mechanisms are available: Security Association Protocol (SAP) and MAC Security Key Agreement (MKA).
Q: Which two features are supported on the Cisco Adaptive Security Virtual Appliance?
Answer: High AvailabilitySite-to-site VPN
Q: Which type of authentication and encryption does SNMPv3 use at the authPriv security level?
Answer: MD5 or SHA authentication with DES encryption
Q: Which protocol sends authentication and accounting in different requests?
Answer: TACACS+
Q: Which API uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
Answer: REST
Q: Router A receives several routes to the 192.168.1.0/26 network. Each of the routes is received from a different routing protocol.What route is installed on the routing table?-Route with lowest AD-Route with highest AD-Route with longest prefix match-Route with shortest prefix match
Answer: Route with lowest AD
Q: True or FalseMetrics can only be used to compare routes from the same routing protocol. Therefore, when a routing protocol contains multiple routes to the same destination network, a router prefers the route with the lowest metric.
Answer: TRUE
Q: In controller-based network, what typically contains end devices and L2 switches?
Answer: The data plane
Q: What two routing protocols support equal-cost load balancing?
Answer: RIP and OSPF
Q: What routing protocol supports unequal-cost load balancing?
Answer: EIGRP
Q: When configuring WLAN by using WLC GUI, what setting are you most likely using the Layer 3 Security drop-down list on the Layer 3 tab?
Answer: VPN Pass-ThroughThere are two types of WLANs you can configure by using the WLC GUI: WLAN and Guest LAN. VPN Pass-Through is ONLY available to WLAN.
Q: When configuring GUEST LAN by using WLC GUI, what setting are you most likely using the Layer 3 Security drop-down list on the Layer 3 tab?
Answer: Web AuthenticationWeb Passthrough
Q: What VLAN is used by DTP to negotiate a trunk link when 802.1Q encapsulation is configured on the interface?
Answer: NATIVE VLAN
Q: Virtual MAC address of HSRP version 2?
Answer: 0000.0C9F.F00A
Q: An API provides data to an administrator from a centralized controller. What network management technique is being used?
Answer: Network Automation
Q: What command will automatically enable SSH on a router?
Answer: crypto key generate rsa
Q: What Cisco lightweight AP modes provides BSSs?
Answer: local* Default lightweight AP mode
Q: What encryption is used to provide MICs and encryption in WPA2?
Answer: AESCCMP
Q: AD of IS-IS?
Answer: 115
Q: What language format is a REST API encoding format that uses HTML-like tags to define blocks of data?
Answer: XML
Q: What is a duplex?
Answer: communication system is a point-to-point system of two devices that can communicate with each other in both direction
Q: What is half-duplex?
Answer: it cannot send and receive data at the same time. Network hubs run in half-duplex mode in order to prevent collisions. Since hubs are rare in modern LANs, the half-duplex system is not widely used in Ethernet networks anymore.
Q: What is a full duplex?
Answer: all nodes can send and receive on their port at the same time. There are no collisions in full-duplex mode, but the host NIC and the switch port must support the full-duplex mode